EMT Chapter 36-41

_________ is defined as the ability to reach the patient. Select one: O A. Access O B. Rescue O C. Extrication O D. Disentanglement

A. Access

Question 26 Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone? Select one: O A. Command O B. Personnel staging O C. Medical monitoring O D. Decontamination

A. Command

Question 29 Which of the following statements regarding a "dirty bomb" is correct? Select one: O A. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it. • B. The effectiveness of a dirty bomb is solely dependent on the amount of alpha radiation that it emits. O C. The dirty bomb, because of its ability to cause massive damage over a large geographic area, is an effective WMD. O D. Dirty bombs contain significant amounts of radioactive material and are capable of being delivered via a missile.

A. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does not fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? Select one: O A. Extrication O B. Treatment O C. Triage O D. Transport

A. Extrication

Which of the following is the most common mechanism of injury in older patients? Select one: O A. Falls O B. Abuse O C. Burns O D. Suicide

A. Falls

Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? Select one: O A. Hydrogen cyanide O B. Phosgene oxime O C. Organophosphates O D. Carbon monoxide

A. Hydrogen cyanide

Question 30 Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct? Select one: O A. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves but become toxic when mixed with another chemical. O B. Identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards. O C. A package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label. O D. Most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred.

A. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves but become toxic when mixed with another chemical.

Question 27 Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs? Select one: O A. Water-reactive solids O B. Air-reactive solids O C. Flammable liquids O D. Nonflammable gases

A. Water-reactive solids

Question 5 When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: © A. after receiving approval from the incident commander. • B. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized. • C. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. O D. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables.

A. after receiving approval from the incident commander.

Question 18 Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of: Select one: O A. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other. O B. EMS systems and fire departments in the same jurisdiction to effectively work as a team. O C. county and state law enforcement agencies to acquire information and pass it along to EMS personnel. O D. the federal goverment to intervene during any large- or small-scale incident involving terrorism.

A. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

Question 13 Cross-contamination occurs when: Select one: O A. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated. O B. an EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident. O C. two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated. O D. an EMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated.

A. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.

Question 3 Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call in of the following, except: Select one: O A. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call. O B. assigning tasks to each member of the response team. • C. obtaining additional information from the dispatcher. O D. fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.

A. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.

Question 7 Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled_______ movement. Select one: O A. body O B. eve O C. neck O D. extremity

A. body

Question 21 Syncope in the older patient is: Select one: O A. caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain. O B. generally of no concern unless the patient was injured. O C. most commonly caused by a silent myocardial infarction. O D. rarely life threatening but should be evaluated by a physician.

A. caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain.

Question 11 With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of: O A. compression fractures. O B. severe kyphosis. O C. distracting injuries. O D. spinal cord tearing.

A. compression fractures.

estion 1 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has een moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid issessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilateral closed femur leformities. You should: Select one: O A. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance. O B. stabilize her legs with long board splints. O C. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. O D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.

estion 3 The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: O A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. • B. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash. O C. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication. O D. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm.

A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.

Question 28 Patients with autism: Select one: O A. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps. O B. often speak with speech patterns that alternate in tone and speed. O C. prefer to maintain eye contact with whomever is talking with them. O D. use and understand nonverbal means of communicating messages.

A. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps.

Question 13 An elderly patient might understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because: Select one: O A. he or she fears hospitalization. • B. the nervous system has deteriorated. O C. of conditions such as dementia. O D. of decreased perception of pain.

A. he or she fears hospitalization.

Question 23 The purpose of the GEMS diamond is to: Select one: O A. help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients. • B. replace the typical ABC approach to patient care when caring for the elderty. O C. provide clues about an elderly patient's problem by observing his or her home O D. provide the EMT with a standard format for assessing elderty patients.

A. help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients.

The most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: Select one: O A. intersections. O B. stop lights. O C. railroad crossings. O D. stop signs.

A. intersections.

Question 11 In contrast to simple access, complex access: Select one: O A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle. O B. often involves simply unlocking a door. O C. does not involve the breaking of glass. O D. is a skill commonly taught to EMTs.

A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle.

Question 16 The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: Select one: O A. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. O B. should be performed by the most experienced EMT. O C. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. O D. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.

A. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Select one: O A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. O B. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5' to 6' from the ground. O C. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. O D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.

A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.

Question 20 When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: O A. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. O B. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal. O C. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. O D. remove him or her using a short backboard.

A. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

Question 26 When introduced into the body, ricin causes: Select one: O A. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure. O B. necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction. O C. enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain. O D. intestinal obstruction and severe sepsis.

A. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure.

When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing-impaired, you should: Select one: O A. recall that elderly patients have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds. O B. remember that most hearing-impaired patients can read lips. O C. request that he or she communicate with you by writing on paper. O D. speak directly into his or her ear with an elevated tone.

A. recall that elderly patients have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.

Question 10 In contrast to an automated implanted cardioverter/defibrillator, an internal cardiac pacemaker: Select one: O A. regulates the patient's heart rate if it falls below a preset value. O B. will only activate if it detects rhythms such as ventricular fibrillation. O C. is implanted under the skin in the left upper abdominal quadrant. O D. delivers a shock to the heart if the rate becomes exceedingly fast.

A. regulates the patient's heart rate if it falls below a preset value.

A persistent or nonvolatile chemical agent can: Select one: O A. remain on a surface for more than 24 hours. O B. evaporate quickly when left on a surface. O C. explode without warning and release gases. O D. remain in the environment for many weeks.

A. remain on a surface for more than 24 hours.

Question 9 Extrication is defined as: Select one: O A. removal from a dangerous situation or position. O B. using heavy equipment to access a patient. O C. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her. O D. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim.

A. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

Question 8 Disentanglement involves: Select one: O A. removing a patient from a dangerous position. O B. gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle. O C. extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in. O D. the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar.

A. removing a patient from a dangerous position.

General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, except. Select one: O A. removing the tube if the area around it appears infected. O B. ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times. O C. suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucous plug. O D. maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible.

A. removing the tube if the area around it appears infected.

Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: Select one: O A. report to the incident commander for instructions. O B. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. O C. apprise medical control of the tactical situation. O D. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel.

A. report to the incident commander for instructions.

Question 25 When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: Select one: O A. secondary triage is performed, and the appropriate treatment is rendered. O B. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed. O C. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries. O D. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made.

A. secondary triage is performed, and the appropriate treatment is rendered.

Question 20 The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: Select one: O A. skin. O B. nervous system. O C. respiratory tract. O D. vascular system.

A. skin.

Question 26 Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: Select one: O A. surveying the area for hazards. O B. requesting additional resources. O C. gaining access to the patient(s). O D. immediately beginning triage.

A. surveying the area for hazards.

Airway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their: Select one: © A. teeth are misaligned, and they have a large tongue. • B. tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat. O C. mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal. O D. occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck.

A. teeth are misaligned, and they have a large tongue

Question 22 The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are: O A. the Emergency Response Guidebook. O B. the bill of lading. O C. the material safety data sheet (MSDS). O D. your local EMS protocols.

A. the Emergency Response Guidebook.

Situational awareness is most accurately defined as: Select one: O A. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact. © B. predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher. O C. performing an initial scan of the scene to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew O D. an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics

A. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.

When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the most effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to: Select one: O A. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with. O B. perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust. • C. allow at least two family members to accompany the patient. O D. avoid the use of a long backboard, even if trauma is suspected.

A. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with.

Question 15 The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for: Select one: O A. underestimating the logistics of the incident. O B. underutilizing personnel at the scene. O C. unprepared to effectively manage the scene. O D. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment.

A. underestimating the logistics of the incident.

You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to vanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The most appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to: O A. use a bag-valve mask. O B. perform mouth-to-mask ventilations. O C. request a paramedic unit to intubate. O D. perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations.

A. use a bag-valve mask.

Question 25 Typically, medevac helicopters fly at speeds between: Select one: O A. 100 and 120 mph. O B. 130 and 150 mph. O C. 150 and 200 mph. O D. 120 and 140 mph.

B. 130 and 150 mph.

Question 20 Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ______ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. Select one: O A. 400 O B. 300 O C. 100 O D. 200

B. 300

Question 10 Which of the following statements regarding a decreased level of consciousness in the elderly patient is correct? O A. The AVPU scale is an ineffective tool when assessing an elderly patient's level of consciousness O B. A decreased level of consciousness is not a normal part of the aging process. © C. Most elderly patients have some deterioration in their level of consciousness. O D. A decreased level of consciousness is most often the result of chronic dementa.

B. A decreased level of consciousness is not a normal part of the aging process.

Question 13 Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? Select one: O A. To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles O B. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located O C. To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate O D. To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms

B. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located

Question 18 Other than personal safely equipment, which of the folowing should be the most readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance? Select one: O A. Emergency childbirth kit O B. Bleeding control supplies O C. Long bone splinting device O D. Stethoscope and penlight

B. Bleeding control supplies

Question 10 Which of the following statements regarding transport of patients from a multiple-casualty incident or disaster site is correct? Select one: O A. Delayed-priority patients should be transported five at a time. O B. Immediate-priority patients should be transported two at a time. O C. Patients who are in cardiac arrest should clearly be transported first. O D. Walking wounded patients should be taken to the closest hospitals.

B. Immediate-priority patients should be transported two at a time.

Question 7 Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: Select one: © A. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than O B. Keeping a safe distance belween vour ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots. O C. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. O D. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side.

B. Keeping a safe distance belween vour ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots.

Question 30 Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct? Select one: O A. Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate. O B. Pulmonary anthrax is the deadliest form. O C. Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates. O D. There is presently no vaccine against anthrax.

B. Pulmonary anthrax is the deadliest form.

Question 18 Osteoporosis is defined as: Select one: O A. an abnormality near the growth plate. O B. a decrease in bone mass and density. • C. increased flexibility of bone mass. O D. decreased bone marrow production.

B. a decrease in bone mass and density.

Question 12 Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include: Select one: O A. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call O B. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers. O C. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools. O D. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed.

B. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.

A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): A. physician directive. B. advance directive. C. statute of care. D. power of attorney.

B. advance directive.

Question 14 Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, except: Select one: • A. prescription medication use. • B. an acute onset of dementia. O C. chronic medical conditions. O D. alcohol abuse and dependence.

B. an acute onset of dementia.

Question 1 A disease vector is defined as: Select one: O A. the period of time between exposure and illness. O B. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. O C. the spectrum of signs that define a disease. O D. the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread.

B. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.

Question 22 The skin lesions associated with smallpox: Select one: O A. develop early during the disease. O B. are identical in their development. O C. are of different shapes and sizes. O D. initially form on the lower trunk.

B. are identical in their development.

Question 24 Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins: Select one: O A. cause skin blistering. O B. are not contagious. O C. cause high fever. O D. have a slow onset of symptoms.

B. are not contagious.

Question 25 You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: O A. break the window and unlock the door. O B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. O C. request the rescue team to extricate him. O D. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.

B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

Question 17 Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BL.5) ambulance includes; Select one: O A. an EMT and a paramedic. O B. at least one EMT. O C. at least two EMTs. O D. an EMT and an AEMT.

B. at least one EMT.

Question 27 When faced with a situation in which an older patient with a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient's wishes cannot be located, the EMT should: Select one: O A. allow the patient to die in peace. • B. attempt to resuscitate the patient. O C. contact medical control for advice. O D. try to locate the documentation.

B. attempt to resuscitate the patient.

When a rehabilitation area is established at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, it should: Select one: O A. provide rehabilitative services to both responders and patients. O B. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself. O C. be mandated that responders participate in a defusing session. O D. be staffed by the treatment supervisor and at least one physician.

B. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself.

Question 10 If a technical rescue team is required at the scene but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: O A. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. • B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. O C. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene. O D. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene.

B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.

Question 23 The process of removing dit, dust. blood, or other visible contaminants from a suface or equipment is called: Select one: O A. sterilization. O B. cleaning. O C. disinfection. O D. high-level disinfection.

B. cleaning

Question 24 The purpose of a jump kit is to: Select one: O A. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. O B. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care. O C. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. O D. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.

B. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

Question 17 The 1996 Summer Olympics bombing is an example of: Select one: O A. apocalyptic violence. O B. domestic terrorism. O C. state-sponsored terrorism. O D. an ecoterrorist attack.

B. domestic terrorism.

Question 19 Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, except. Select one: O A. transport of the patient to the hospital. O B. emergency care provided at the scene. O C. transferring the patient to the ambulance. O D. checking equipment on the ambulance.

B. emergency care provided at the scene.

Question 15 When caring for a morbidly obese patient, you should: Select one: O A. leave him or her in a supine position, as this often facilitates breathing. O B. establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help. O C. ask the patient if he or she knows what led to his or her obesity problem. O D. call for ALS backup because obese patients are at high risk for heart attack.

B. establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help.

Question 5 If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: Select one: O A. quickly jerk the steering wheel. O B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes. O C. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control. O D. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth.

B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.

Question 13 According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should: Select one: O A. triage him or her as expectant. • B. immediately check for a pulse. O C. give five rescue breaths and reassess. © D. open the airway and reassess breathing.

B. immediately check for a pulse.

Question 2 Aggressive ambulance driving might have a negative effect on other motorists because: Select one: © A. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. O B. it might not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle. O C. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror. O D. they might become enraged and attempt to run you off the road.

B. it might not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.

If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should: Select one: O A. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions. O B. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. O C. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task. O D. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones.

B. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.

Question 6 Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: O A. determine if additional units are needed. • B. observe the scene for safety hazards. O C. carefully assess the mechanism of injury. O D. quickly gain access to the patient.

B. observe the scene for safety hazards.

Findings during the social assessment of an older patient include all of the following, except A. interaction with others. B. outdated medications. C. delays in obtaining meals. D. daily activity assistance.

B. outdated medications.

Question 4 To evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: Select one: O A. interview bystanders present at the scene. O B. perform a 360° walkaround of the scene. O C. request the fire department at all scenes. O D. use the information provided by dispatch.

B. perform a 360° walkaround of the scene.

Question 9 When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be most suspicious of exposure to: Select one: O A. a vesicant agent. O B. phosgene or chlorine. O C. a nerve agent. O D. sarin or soman.

B. phosgene or chlorine.

A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you most suspicious for: A. bronchitis. B. pneumonia. C. heart failure. D. emphysema.

B. pneumonia

Question 26 When arriving at the scene of an overtumed tracior-trailer in, you nole that a green cloud is being emitted from ins crashed vehicle. The driver is stil in the truck; he is conscious but bieeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: O A. quickly gain access to the patient. O B. position the ambulance upwind. O C. park downhill from the scene. O D. ask the driver to exit the vehicle.

B. position the ambulance upwind.

Question 27 General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: Select one: O A. speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. O B. positioning yourself approximately 18" directly in front of the patient. O C. removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions. O D. exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands.

B. positioning yourself approximately 18" directly in front of the patient.

Question 7 You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state, "We have located a victim" over the radio. You should: Select one: O A. notify the hospital that you will be transporting a burn patient to their facility. O B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you. © C. locate the victim and provide initial care while your partner stays with the ambulance. O D. immediately locate the incident commander and ask where the victim is located

B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you.

Question 2 A Level 4 hazardous material: Select one: O A. requires protective gear to ensure that no part of the skin's surface is exposed. O B. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard. O C. is mildly toxic but still requires the use of a self-contained breathing apparatus. O D. causes temporary damage or injury unless prompt medical care is provided.

B. requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard.

Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, except: Select one: O A. a local infection. O B. rupture of a central vein. O C. bleeding around the line. O D. clotting of the line.

B. rupture of a central vein.

Question 25 Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: Select one: O A. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging. O B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. O C. become thick and spontaneously clot. O D. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells.

B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.

Question 4 A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: Select one: O A. G-tube. O B. shunt. O C. cerebral bypass. O D. CS tube.

B. shunt

Question 27 When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should. O A. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. O B. slow down and allow the driver to pass you. O C. increase your speed to create more distance. O D. stop the ambulance and confront the driver.

B. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.

Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, except. A. blood volume loss. B. vasoconstriction. C. acute hypotension. D. venous pooling.

B. vasoconstriction

Question 18 The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n): Select one: O A. single-issue terrorist group. O B. violent religious group. O C. group of domestic terrorists. O D. extremist political group.

B. violent religious group.

Question 1 A type______ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. O A. II O B. III O C. 1 O D. IV

C. 1

Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? O A. A patient found floating face down in a swimming pool O B. An obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance O C. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space O D. A patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped

C. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space

Question 22 Which of the following is the best example of gaining simple access to a patient? Select one: O A. Removing the roof to access a critical patient o B. Using a pry bar to open a damaged door • C. Entering a vehicle through an open window O D. Breaking glass to gain access to the patient

C. Entering a vehicle through an open window

_________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. Select one: O A. Alpha O B. Beta O C. Gamma O D. Neutron

C. Gamma

Question 24 Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? Select one: O A. A trench less than 15' deep usually does not require shoring. O B. Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury. O C. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse. O D. Rescue vehicles should park at least 250' from the scene.

C. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.

Which of the following would you expect to encounter in a patient with moderate radiation toxicity? Select one: O A. Nausea, dizziness, and headache • B. White blood cell death and cancer O C. Hair loss and first-degree burns O D. Second- and third-degree burns

C. Hair loss and first-degree burns

Question 25 For which of the following conditions would you most likely encounter a ventricular peritoneum shunt? Select one: O A. Subdural hematoma O B. Cerebral palsy O C. Hydrocephalus O D. Epidural hematoma

C. Hydrocephalus

According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing? Select one: O A. Triage the patient as "expectant" and move on. O B. Ventilate the patient for 2 minutes and reassess. O C. Open the airway and reassess breathing status. O D. Assign the patient in the "immediate" category.

C. Open the airway and reassess breathing status.

Question 20 Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct? Select one: O A. Most patients with intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function but abnormal physical features. • B. An intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. O C. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. O D. Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands.

C. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.

Question 21 Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team? Select one: O A. Providing emergency care during extrication O B. Shutting off power to downed electrical lines O C. Providing safe entry and access to patients O D. Initial triage and patient prioritization

C. Providing safe entry and access to patients

Question 30 Which of the following does not usually contribute to or cause obesity? Select one: O A. Genetic predisposition O B. High caloric intake O C. Rapid metabolism O D. Low metabolic rate

C. Rapid metabolism

Question 30 Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? Select one: O A. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. O B. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. O C. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. O D. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.

C. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.

Question 11 Spina bifida is defined as: Select one: O A. a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae. O B. congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck. O C. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column. O D. chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid.

C. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.

Question 21 Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must. Select one: O A. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. O B. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen. O C. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min. O D. be easily identifiable by their bright green color.

C. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.

Question 10 When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should: Select one: O A. place the patient on a long backboard, even if no trauma is involved. O B. generally exceed the posted speed limit by 10 to 20 mph. O C. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time. O D. secure the patient to the ambulance stretcher with at least two straps.

C. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.

Question 22 Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: Select one: O A. spinal cord. • B. peripheral nervous system. O C. brain. O D. voluntary muscles.

C. brain

Question 3 A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): Select one: O A. gastrostomy. O B. gastric stoma. O C. colostomy. O D. intestinal shunt.

C. colostomy.

A carboy is a container that would most likely be used to store and transport: Select one: O A. combustible materials. O B. flammable liquids. O C. corrosives. O D. explosives.

C. corrosives.

Question 6 Phosgene (CG) has an odor that resembles: Select one: O A. garlic. O B. almonds. O C. cut grass. O D. bleach.

C. cut grass.

During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the incident commander would most likely: Select one: • A. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions. O B. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene. O C. designate a safety officer but retain other command functions. O D. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel.

C. designate a safety officer but retain other command functions.

Question 5 Most cases of anthrax begin with: Select one: O A. signs of shock. O B. respiratory distress. O C. flulike symptoms. O D. pulmonary edema.

C. flulike symptoms.

Question 23 The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions regarding an incident is called: Select one: O A. logistical chaos. O B. undermining. O C. freelancing. O D. single command.

C. freelancing

Question 16 Good general communication techniques with the elderly include: Select one: O A. having at least two EMTs talk to the patient at a time. O B. using medical terms to ensure patient understanding. O C. frequently asking the patient if he or she understands. O D. explaining procedures while you are performing them.

C. frequently asking the patient if he or she understands.

Question 2 A service dog is easily identified by its: Select one: O A. size. O B. breed. O C. harness. O D. color.

C. harnessintestine and the surface of the body that

Question 26 To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: Select one: O A. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient. O B. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient. O C. have only one MT speak to the patient at a time. O D. dismiss the family members from the room or area.

C. have only one MT speak to the patient at a time

Question 29 Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is corred? Select ones O A. lt is generally acceptable to iscresase your sewed in lighes and siren are in use O B. Waring lights and siren should be avoided even if the patient is unstable. O C. if it is necessary to use the sirens, you should tell the patiens beforehand. O D. It the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren

C. it it is necessary to use the sirens, you stovid tell the patiens beforehand.

Question 8 Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is most accurately defined as: Select one: O A. destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means. O B. using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants. O C. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose. O D. removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants.

C. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose.

Question 23 The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: Select one: O A. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. O B. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion. O C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. O D. type of material used to manufacture the device.

C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.

Question 12 Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: O A. administer high-flow oxygen. O B. begin treating his or her injuries. O C. perform a primary assessment. O D. allow extrication to commence.

C. perform a primary assessment.

Question 25 The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called: Select one: O A. drug tolerance. O B. potentiation. O C. polypharmacy. O D. drug dependency.

C. polypharmacy

Question 7 Terrorist attacks: Select one: O A. are mainly carried out by fewer than three people. O B. only involve the use of nuclear explosive devices. O C. pose a threat to nations and cultures everywhere. O D. require multiple terrorists working together.

C. pose a threat to nations and cultures everywhere

Question 4 If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the incident commander should consider. Select one: O A. requesting a second incident commander to assist him or her. O B. ceasing all operations until a revised plan is established. O C. relinquishing command to someone with more experience. O D. maintaining responsibility for all of the command functions.

C. relinquishing command to someone with more experience.

When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should: Select one: O A. drive in the center lane of the highway. O B. pass other drivers on the right side. O C. remain in the extreme left-hand lane. O D. remain in the extreme right-hand lane.

C. remain in the extreme left-hand lane.

Blood levels of medications might rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is most likely due to: A. intentional overdose. B. splenic dysfunction. C. renal insufficiency. D. pancreatic failure.

C. renal insufficiency.

Question 12 An attack on an abortion clinic would most likely be carried out by a(n): Select one: O A. violent religious group. O B. extremist political group. O C. single-issue group. O D. doomsday cult.

C. single-issue group.

Common associated conditions in patients with spina bifida include all of the following, except: Select one: O A. hydrocephalus. O B. loss of bladder control. O C. spastic limb movement. O D. extreme latex allergy.

C. spastic limb movement.

Question 19 The ________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident. Select one: O A. support O B. transportation O C. staging O D. triage

C. staging

Lestion 3 After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazardous materials team and then: Select one: O A. identify the chemical using the Emergency Response Guidebook. O B. don standard equipment before gaining access to any patients. O C. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others. O D. not allow anyone within 25' to 50 of the incident scene.

C. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others.

Question 16 When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: Select one: O A. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. O B. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill O C. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. © D. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney.

C. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.

Many older victims of physical abuse might make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because: Select one: O A. they are protective of the abuser. O B. they do not want to be bothersome. O C. they fear retribution from the abuser. O D. most elderly patients have dementia.

C. they fear retribution from the abuser.

The _______ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. Select one: O A. medical O B. treatment O C. transportation O D. Triage

C. transportation

Question 15 Command functions under the incident command system include all of the following, except: Select one: O A. liaison officer. O B. safety officer. O. C. triage officer. O D. public information officer

C. triage officer.

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately_______ per cubic feet. Select one: O A. 150 lbs O B. 200 lbs O C. 50 Ibs O D. 100 lbs

D. 100 lbs

Question 29 Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category? Select one: O A. 29-year-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities O B. 36-year-old female with an open head injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate O C. 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding O D. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

D. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

Question 5 An obese person is ______ over ideal weight. Select one: O A. 50% or more O B. 15% or more O C. 10% or more O D. 30% or more

D. 30% or more

Question 29 The rate of autism in the US population is about 1 in: Select one: О A. 27. O B. 5. O C. 100. O D. 40.

D. 40.

Question 5 In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. O A. 48-hour O B. 24-hour O C. 96-hour O D. 72-hour

D. 72-hour

Question 11 You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? O A. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse O B. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities O C. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities O D. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing

D. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing

estion 11 Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? Select one: O A. Vacuum splint O B. Inhaled bronchodilator O C. Oral glucose O D. DuoDote Auto-Injector

D. DuoDote Auto-Injector

Question 19 Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct? Select one: O A. Gastrostomy tubes are used for patients who cannot digest food. • B. Gastrostomy tubes are placed directly into the small intestine. O C. Most gastrostomy tubes are temporary and are not sutured in place. O D. Patients with a gastrostomy tube might still be at risk for aspiration.

D. Patients with a gastrostomy tube might still be at risk for aspiration.

Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? O A. It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. O B. Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle. O C. The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. O D. Rapid extrication is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.

D. Rapid extrication is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.

Which of the following conditions would most likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? Select one: O A. Brain tumors O B. Paralysis O C. Type 2 diabetes O D. Seizure disorder

D. Seizure disorder

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent? Select one: O A. Lewisite O B. Chlorine O C. Phosgene O D. Soman

D. Soman

Question 21 Which of the following would be the most practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? Select one: O A. Using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear O B. Contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter O C. Attempting to use body language to determine the problem O D. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions

D. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions

Characteristic anatomic features of Down syndrome include: O A. long hands with wide fingers. O B. a proportionately small tongue O C. bulging eyes and a large face. O D. a round head with a flat occipul

D. a round head with a flat occipul

Question 4 Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: Select one: O A. based on recommendations of the health department. O B. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. • C. in locked or secured cabinets to prevent theft. O D. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.

D. according to the urgency and frequency of their use

When assessing an older patient who has multiple bruises in various stages of healing, the EMT should do all of the following, except. Select one: O A. factually document all findings. O B. review the patient's activities of daily living. O C. ask the patient how the bruises occurred. O D. accuse a caregiver of physical abuse.

D. accuse a caregiver of physical abuse.

Question 19 The least harmful form of ionizing radiation is: Select one: O A. neutron. O B. beta. O C. gamma. O D. alpha.

D. alpha.

Question 16 Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: Select one: O A. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. O B. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. O C. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. O D. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

D. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed

uestion 4 A weapon of mass destruction is most accurately defined as: Select one: O A. a device or agent used to destroy a specific area or region within a given geographic location. O B. a nuclear or chemical weapon that can be launched from one country to another country. O C. any device used for the express purpose of creating carnage to make a particular point. O D. any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage.

D. any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage.

Question 19 Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury. especially if they: Select one: O A. have minor abrasions to the head area. O B. have a history of Alzheimer disease. • C. do not have deformities to the skull. O D. are taking blood-thinning medications.

D. are taking blood-thinning medications.

Question 9 If suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is necessary, the EMT should: Select one: O A. instill 20 mL of saline into the tracheostomy tube and suction for no longer than 20 seconds. • B. attach a bag-valve mask to the tracheostomy tube and hyperventilate the patient for 2 minutes. O C. insert the suction catheter to a depth of no more than 15 cm and set the suction unit to 140 mm Hg. O D. attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly.

D. attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly.

Question 14 Vagus nerve stimulators may be an alternative treatment to medication for patients with: Select one: O A. chronic muscle pain and fatigue. O B. certain psychiatric conditions. O C. inherently slow heart rates. O D. chronic seizure disorders.

D. chronic seizure disorders.

Question 17 Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: Select one: O A. lack of personnel. O B. accountability. O C. incident briefing. O D. communication.

D. communication

Question 15 During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is most important to: Select one: O A. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. O B. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. O C. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. O D. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.

D. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.

Question 15 Most terrorist attacks are: Select one: O A. nuclear attacks. O B. impulsive. O C. unplanned. O D. covert.

D. covert.

The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazardous material is called: Select one: O A. neutralization. O B. chemical containment. O C. antidotal treatment. O D. decontamination.

D. decontamination

When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should: Select one: O A. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack. O B. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens. O C. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing. O D. determine the position in which the patient normally sleeps.

D. determine the position in which the patient normally sleeps.

Question 21 The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to: Select one: O A. reduce overall mortality and morbidity from large-scale, mass-casualty incidents and to restore key infrastructure. • B. protect the public from the effects of large- and small-scale disasters and to minimize the financial impact from such incidents. O C. quickly and efficiently respond to natural disasters and terrorist incidents, regardless of the complexity of the incident. O D. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.

D. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.

Question 14 Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, except. Select one: O A. completing a detailed written report. O B. restocking any disposable items you used. O C. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. O D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.

D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.

Question 13 Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, except. Select one: O A. turnout gear. O B. safety goggles. O C. face shields. O D. hazardous materials gear.

D. hazardous materials gear.

The reduction in brain weight and volume increases an older person's risk for: Select one: O A. stroke. B. delirium. O C. dementia. O D. head trauma.

D. head trauma

Question 12 An abdominal aortic aneurysm: Select one: O A. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. O B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. O C. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area. O D. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.

D. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.

Question 6 The first step in the START triage system is to: Select one: O A. focus on the patients who are unconscious. O B. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding. O C. get a quick head count of all the patients involved. O D. move all walking patients to a designated area.

D. move all walking patients to a designated area.

Question 24 Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: Select one: O A. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. O B. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. O C. usually does not require the incident command system process. O D. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

D. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

Question 15 Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: Select one: O A. increased bone density and car crashes. • B. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma. O C. acetabular separation and severe falls. O D. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.

D. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.

Question 6 Autism is defined as a: Select one: O A. mental disability caused by insufficient cognitive development of the brain. O B. congenital condition caused by factors such as malnutrition or birth complications. O C. psychiatric condition related to an imbalance of serotonin in the brain. O D. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.

D. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.

Question 20 Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ________ elder abuse. Select one: O A. psychological O B. financial O C. emotional O D. physical

D. physical

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would most likely predispose the older patient to: A. ischemic stroke. B. heart failure. C. osteoporosis. D. pneumonia.

D. pneumonia

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: Select one: O A. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. O B. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks. © C. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. O D. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.

D. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents.

Question 12 The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: Select one: O A. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury. O B. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure. O C. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain. O D. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.

D. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.

Question 17 When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: O A. avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient. • B. document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. o C. voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. • D. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.

D. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary

Question 8 The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is: Select one: O A. miosis. O B. a red rash. O C. bradycardia. O D. skin blistering.

D. skin blistering.

Question 14 The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: Select one: O A. direct the search effort from a centralized location. O B. accompany search team members and provide care. O C. report to a location where the patient will be carried. • D. stand by at the command post until the person is located.

D. stand by at the command post until the person is located.

Question 30 While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: O A. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. • B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. O C. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. O D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

Question 22 The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: O A. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. O B. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. O C. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness. O D. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

D. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

lestion 19 When determining the exact location and position of the patients in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, except: Select one: O A. the position of the crashed vehicle. O B. the possibility of vehicle instability. O C. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers. O D. the make and model of the vehicle.

D. the make and model of the vehicle.

Question 21 The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired result, is called: Select one: O A. potentiation. O B. dissemination. O C. alkalization. O D. weaponization.

D. weaponization.