EMT Chapters 1-10
EMS as we know it today had its orgins in 1966 with the publication of: A. the Department fo Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying. B. the Emergency Medical Services Act C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society D: Emergency Care and Transportation of the sick and Injured
Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society
General adaption syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? A. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery B. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, physical exhaustion D. Immediate reaction, psychological reaction, and recovery
Alarm response, reaction and resistance
Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? A. An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so B. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug C. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. D. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled.
An EMT adminsters the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids. B. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. C. Interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. D. Assist a patient with certain prescribed medications
Assist a patient with certain prescribed medications
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? A. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia B. Automated external defibrillation C. Use of a manually triggered ventilator D. Intranasal medication administration
Automated external defibrillation
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? A. Protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height B. Teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two rescuer infant CPR C. Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving D. The construction fo a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash
Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. Demand that the patient remain quiet and cooperative during transport. B. Continue to be nonjudgemental, compassionate, and respectful. C. Reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be. D. Ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint
Continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: A. regional trauma guidelines B. the lead EMT's decision C. EMS research D. Local protocols
EMS research
What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? A. check for other patients B. request for another ambulance C. contact medical control D. ensure the vehicle is stable
Ensure the vehicle is stable
an effective team leader should: A. perform all difficult interventions B. command his or her team C. help the team accomplish goals D. refrain from any direct patient care
Help the team accomplish goals
The continous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A: focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient B. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols C. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office D. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed
Identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed
Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? A. Race B. Gender C. Age D. Immunity
Immunity
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. Off-line B. Direct C. Online D. Radio
Off-line
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): A: paramedic B: EMT C: EMR D: advanced EMT (AEMT)
Paramedic
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. AEMT B. EMT C. Paramedic D. EMR
Paramedic
Which of the followng criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT? A. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases B. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course C. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care D. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds
Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic B. recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim D. determine which device the American Heart Association recommends
Recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives
The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A. regional trauma center B. National Registry of EMTs C. State office of EMS D. American Heart Association
State office of EMS
Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? A. Mumps B. Chickenpox C. Syphilis D. Rubella
Syphilis
Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? A. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs B. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing C. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs
The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing
Which of the following patients has decision-making capactiy and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? A. a man who is staggering and states that he had three beers B. a diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date C. a conscious and alert women with severe abdominal pain D. a confused young male who says he is the president
a conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? A. an EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse B. a physician assumes patient care from an EMT C. a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT D. an AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic
a paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT
Which of the following general statements regarding consesnt is correct? A. expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family member B. a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment C. all patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport D. patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment
a patient can consent to transport but can refuse treatment
Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to criticalls injured patients B. a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel B. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water C. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces D. allow surfaces to air dry unless indicated in the product directions
allow surfaces to air dry unless indicated in the product directions
A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: A. witnessed by a notary B. authorized by a judge C. reported to the police D. an informed refusal
an informed refusal
Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error? A. overconfidence B. Bias C. anchoring D. streamlining
anchoring
Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: A. animals or insects B. inanimate objects C. direct contact D. smoke or dust
animals or insects
As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: A. the medical director B. another EMT C. the general public D. a paramedic supervisor
another EMT
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: A. libel B. assault C. negligence D. battery
assault
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? A. accidental knife wound B. drug overdose C. attempted suicide D. cardiac arrest
attempted suicide
Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a: A. repeater B. base station C. mobile radio D. multiplex
base station
When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: A. coded and scripted B. brief and easily understood C. lengthy and complete D. spoken in a loud voice
breif and easily understood
In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient? A. passive B. loud and official C. calm and confident D. authoritative
calm and confident
Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except: A. risk of building collapse B. smoke and toxic gases C. carbon dioxide deficiency D. high ambient tempartures
carbon dioxide deficiency
Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities? A. spousal abuse B. animal bites C. gunshot wounds D. cardiac arrest
cardiac arrest
The spread of HIV and hepatisis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to: A. excessive blood splashing or splattering B. careless handling of sharps C. lack of proper immunizations D. noncompliance with standard precautions
careless handling of sharps
For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: A. be signed by the local justice of the peace B. clearly state the patient's medical problem C. be updated a minimum of every 6 months D. be dated within the previous 24 months
clearly state the patient's medical problem
Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes: A. rigid protocols B. competition C. discipline D. collaboration
collaboration
For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use: A. common language B. metric-sized tools C. shared training D. common goals
common language
All information recorded on the PCR must be: A. typewritten or printed B. reflective of your opinion C. a matter of public record D. considered confidential
considered confidential
Ethnocentrism is defined as: A. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently B. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture C. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question D. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you believe that your own values are more acceptable
considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture
The patient care report (PCR) ensures: A. legal protection B. availability of research data C. Continuity of care D. quality assurance
continuity of care
Which comes first in EMS decision making? A. planning B. team communication C. data interpretation D. data gathering
data gathering
Putrefaction is defined as: A. blood settling to the lowest point of the body B. decomposition of the body's tissue C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face D. seperation of the torso from the rest of the body
decompositon of the body's tissue
The effectiveness of pit crew is dependent on: A. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks B. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received C. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control D. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities
defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received
You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death? A. absent breath sounds B. profound cyanosis C. dependent lividity D. abscense of a pulse
dependent lividity
When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should: A. determine the degree of the patient's impairment B. recall that most visually impaired patients are blind C. expect the patient to have difficulty understanding D. possess an in-depth knowloedge of sign language
determine the degree of the patient's impairment
Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? A. providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs B. transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training C. transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will D. Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: A. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report B. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife C. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request D. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient
did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, except: A. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols B. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel C. selecting and notifying the correct EMS response units and personnel D. discouraging the caller for providing care until the EMS unit arrives
discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives
If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: A. discuss the problem after the call B. contact the medical director at once C. ignore the problem to avoid conflict D. engage the team member at once
discuss the problem after the call
When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she: A. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task B. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task C. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor D. will rely on the group leader fro making virtually all decisions
does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task
Communicating with hearing-impaired can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except: A. placing yourself in a positon to ensure that the patient can see your lips B. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment C. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation D. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response
elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronuciation
The EMT certification exam is designed to: A: ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same knowledge and skills B: rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam C: identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training D: provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved
ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills
The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: A. evacuating the bystanders B. identifying the hazardous materials C. ensuring your personal safety D. calling the hazardous materials team
ensuring your personal safety
In an interdependent group, when one person fails: A. everyone fails B. that person is fired C. management will be changed D. pay is withheld
everyone fails
To be a great EMT, strive for: A. management work B. foundational knowledge C. retraining D. the chance to replace an EMR
foundational knowledge
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unecessary if you: A. are older than 35 years of age B. recieved a hepatitis B vaccination C. have been infected with hepatitis A in the past D. have a weak immune system
have been infected with hepatitis A in the past
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated? A. informed B. implied C. expressed D. actual
implied
In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form B. thorough documentation was not required C. inadequate patient care was administered D. potential falsification of the patient care form
inadequate patient care was administered
Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collison may include: A. Increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation B. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call C. short term loss of energy due to the high physocal demands of the job D. the inability to remain focused, because the task at hand is demanding
increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsiblity of the: A. individual EMT B. State Bureau of EMS C. EMS medical director D. EMS training officer
individual EMT
EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work: A. independently B. dependently C. interdependently D. under standing orders
interdependently
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: A. is mentally competent and able to refuse B. possesses a valid driver's license C. is self-supporting and lives by him-or herself D. has a poor relationship with his or her parents
is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself
Two EMT's witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV). The EMT's ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMT's is considered: A. legal but unethical B. illegal but ethical C. illegal but unethical D. legal and ethical
legal but unethical
Continuing education in EMS serves to: A. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. B. Provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. C. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. D. Confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care
maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills
Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands B. withholding unpleasant informaiton until arrival at the hospital C. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient D. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible
maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible
The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: A. EMS supervisor B. medical director C. state EMS office D. local health district
medical director
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight B. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons D. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later
not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: A. refraining from objective statements B. not disclosing his or her name C. withholding medical history data D. using coded medical language
not disclosing his or her name
Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: A. do not have shatterproof lenses B. are not secured with a strap C. offer little to no protection D. have large, rounded lenses
offer little to no protection
Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred? A. data gathering B. planning C. team communication D. outcome evaluation
outcome evaluation
Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? A. preoxygenation with a BVM B. placement of the endotracheal tube C. suction under direct laryngoscopy D. visualization of the vocal cords
preoxygenation with a BVM
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) MOST affects EMS personnel? A. ensuring access to insurance B. preventing insurance fraud C. controlling insurance costs D. protecting patient privacy
protecting patient privacy
a ___ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency A. duplex B. decoder C. repeater D. scanner
repeater
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by: A. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day B. allowing each worker to sleep in 15-30 minute increments C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support D. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers
requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: A. touches another person without his or her consent B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy C. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else D. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts
requests sexual favors in exchange for something else
The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called: A. wellness B. eustress C. resilience D. distress
resilience
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major vehicle crash. You should: A. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once B. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse and physician C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call D. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call
respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician
Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? A. simplex station B. scanner C. mobile repeater D. duplex station
scanner
Two-way communcation that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes which mode of communication? A. simplex B. multiplex C. complex D. duplex
simplex
You could be sued for ___ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. A. slander B. assault C. negligence D. libel
slander
When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or shes should recall that the focus of the intervention is on: A. learning to perform the skill B. following local protocol C. completing the procedure D. solving a clincal problem
solving a clinical problem
the manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the: A. EMT oath B. code of ethics C. scope of practice D. standard of care
standard of care
Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct? A. unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions B. The EMT should give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her C. standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety D. most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms
standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety
The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: A. punitive action and the loss of a job B. low morale and frequently missed shifts C. tension among coworkers and supervisors D. substandard or innapropriate patient care
substandard or inappropriate patient care
Which of the following statements regarding Good samaritan laws is correct? A. such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence B. such laws provide the EMT with absolute immunity from a lawsuit C. such laws do not protect EMTs who are off duty D. such laws guarantee that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued
such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence
While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, "Why even splint the patient's lef if they're only going to remove it in the ED?" This statement indicates that: A. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff B. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking C. the patient's leg does not require splintting D. the EMT's focus is not on the common goal
the EMT's focus is not on the common goal
The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: A. the standard of care B. the scope of practice C. patient care advocacy D. the continuum of care
the continuum of care
EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that: A. she should contact the EMR about the incident B. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode C. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode D. the patient had a reported syncopal episode
the patient had a reported syncopal episode
Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital? A. providing the handoff report only to a physician B. use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format C. brief pause in care to provide the verbal report D. clearly identifying your EMS certification level
use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: A. ensure your immunizations are up-to-date B. undergo an annual physical examination C. wash your hands in between patient contacts D. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis
wash your hands in between patient contacts
The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: A, avoid outer clothing with zippers B. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton C. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat D. wear at least three layers of clothing
wear at least three layers of clothing
In contrast to a health care group, a health care team: A. works interdependently B. is not assigned specific roles C. works independently D. does not function under protocols
works interdependently
A positive TB skin test indiciates that: A. you have been exposed to TB B. you have never been exposed to TB C. the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active D. you are actively infected with TB
you have been exposed to TB
In an independent group, you would have: A. shared transportation B. your own work area C. parallel work D. a common set of tasks
your own work area
You are carrying for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? A. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." B. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?" C. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." D. "If its possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow"
"If its possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow"
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ___ hours following the incident. A. 6 B. 12 C. 72 D. 24
72
Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? A. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen B. A 64-year-old patient who is given asprin for suspected cardiac chest pain C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device D. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin
A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device