EMT Quiz/MOD questions

Which of the following statements is not appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? A. "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day" B. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated" C. "after oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved" D. "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle"

A. "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day" maybe, check later D. "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle"

which of the following statements would not be appropriate to say the family of a dying patient? A. "things will get better in time" B. "this must be painful for you C. "it is okay to be angry and sad" D. "tell me how you are feeling"

A. "things will get better in time"

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for: A. 3 seconds B. 15 seconds C. 8 seconds D. 10 seconds

A. 3 seconds (unless pen is a 10 sec release)

at a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: A. 44% B. 24% C. 35% D. 52%

A. 44%

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of: A. 94% to 99% B. 100% C. 88% to 90% D. 90% to 94%

A. 94% to 99%

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery B. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion C. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery D. Immediate reaction, phycological exhaustion, and recovery

A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluation the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death? A. Dependent lividity B. Absent breath sounds C. Absence of a pulse D. Profound cyanosis

A. Dependent lividity

You are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. The patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. You should: A. Explain the seriousness of the situation to him, but avoid causing undue alarm B. reassure him that he will not receive a bill for the EMS call if he cannot pay C. tell him that he is having a heart attack and that he needs to go to the hospital D> proceed to treat him because the stress of the situation has impaired his thinking

A. Explain the seriousness of the situation to him, but avoid causing undue alarm

You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which of the following types of consent describes her agreement? A. Informed B. Minor's C. Implied D. Expressed

A. Informed

oxygen and carbon dioxide pass the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: A. diffusion B. ventilation C. osmosis D. breathing

A. diffusion

Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. Off-line B. Radio C. Online D. Direct

A. Off-line

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg. B. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety. C. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia. D. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%.

A. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg.

Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. B. you perception of the severity of the problem C. a brief history of the patient's current problem D. a brief summary of the care you provide

A. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. OR (check with slides) B. you perception of the severity of the problem

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms B. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours C. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage D. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot

A. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms

A sign of respiratory distress seen in the neck is A. accessory muscle use B. muscular atrophy C. muscular twitches D. muscular definitions

A. accessory muscle use

A sign of respiratory distress seen in the neck is: A. accessory muscle use B. muscular twitches C. muscular atrophy D. muscular definition

A. accessory muscle use

A 73-year-old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/94 mm Hg, and his pulse is 64 beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is not experiencing respiratory distress. You should: A. administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration B. Avoid the use of epinephrine because of his cardiac history, even if his symptoms become severe C. ask him if he has epinephrine and request approval from medical control to administer it to the patient D. begin transport and request to administer epinephrine if his systolic blood pressure falls below 110 mm Hg

A. administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration

Delirium tremens (DTs) is a syndrome associated with withdrawal from: A. alcohol B. opioids C. sedatives D. cocaine

A. alcohol

A patient with hepatomegaly has: A. an enlarged liver B. cancer of the lymphatic system C. disease of the kidneys D. pain in a joint

A. an enlarged liver

Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: A. animals or insects B. inanimate objects C. smoke or dust D. direct contact

A. animals or insects

which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? A. asking questions related to the chief complaint B. refraining from asking open-ended questions C. focusing solely on how the call is dispatched D. Trending of the patient's vital signs over time

A. asking questions related to the chief complaint

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications B. administer epinephrine via subcutaneous route C. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly D. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids

A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: A. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously B. avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected C. firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak D. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextension position

A. avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: A. be alert for personal hazards B. look for drug paraphernalia C. quickly gain access to the patient D. observe the scene for drug bottles

A. be alert for personal hazards

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a psychiatric emergency occurs when a person: A. becomes agitated or violent and becomes a threat to himself or herself, or to others. B. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month. C. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance. D. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation.

A. becomes agitated or violent and becomes a threat to himself or herself, or to others.

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A. bilateral B. Proximal C. Unilateral D. Medial

A. bilateral

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. B. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream. C. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. D. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.

A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.

A patient has bilateral femur fractures. This means that: A. both femurs are fractured B. both fractures are close to the hip C. the femur is fracture in two places D. both fractures are closer to the knee

A. both femurs are fractured

All critical functions are coordinated in which part of the brain? A. brainstem B. Cerebellum C. Cerebrum D. gray matter

A. brainstem

Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. carbon dioxide deficiency B. risk of building collapse C. smoke and toxic gases D. high ambient temperatures

A. carbon dioxide deficiency

The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: A. carotid arteries B. subclavian arteries C. iliac arteries D. brachial arteries

A. carotid arteries

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should: A. consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior. B. avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas. C. check his or her blood glucose level only if he or she has a history of diabetes. D. carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patient's behavior.

A. consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior.

All information recorded on the PCR must be: A. considered confidential B. a matter of public record C. reflective of your opinion D. typewritten or printed

A. considered confidential

All information recorded on the PCR must be: A. considered confidential B. typewritten or printed C. reflective of your opinion D. a matter of public record

A. considered confidential

Which type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years? A. cumulative stress reaction B. critical incident stress reaction C. acute stress reaction D. posttraumatic stress reaction

A. cumulative stress reaction

your partner, a veteran EMT who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on hid breath. what should you do? A. discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor B. tell your partner that he must seek professional help C. remain quiet and simply request another partner D. report the incident to your EMS medical director

A. discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. disorder of carbohydrate metabolism. B. abnormally high blood glucose level. C. mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys. D. lack of insulin production in the pancreas.

A. disorder of carbohydrate metabolism.

While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should: A. document the error and report it to your supervisor B. exclude this intervention from PCR because it did not harm the patient C. contact medical control and notify them of the error D. notify law enforcement so they can file an incident report

A. document the error and report it to your supervisor

Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except: A. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation B. providing pen and paper and see if the patient prefers to write his or her response C. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips D. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment

A. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation

Insulin functions in the body by: A. enabling glucose to enter the cells. B. increasing circulation blood glucose C. producing new glucose as needed D. metabolizing glucose to make energy

A. enabling glucose to enter the cells.

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: A. ensure your safety B. take vital signs C. restrain the patient D. obtain proper consent

A. ensure your safety

posttraumatic stress disorder can happen after: A. exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence B. a bout with alcohol C. alcohol withdrawal D. extended periods of hyperthermia or hypothermia

A. exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence

Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include: A. fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing B. crushing chest pain, vomiting, and weakness C. headache, low back pain, and arm numbness D. joint pain, muscle aches, and blurred vision.

A. fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: A. foramen magnum. B. vertebral foramen. C. foramen lamina. D. cauda equina.

A. foramen magnum.

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: A. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad C. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient D. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.

A. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis

which of the following is an example of a symptom? A. headache B. hypertension C. cyanosis D. tachycardia

A. headache

Urticaria is the medical term for: A. hives. B. burning. C. swelling. D. a wheal.

A. hives.

Shock is the result of: A. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. D. widespread constriction of the blood vessels.

A. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.

Asthma is caused by a response of the: A. immune system. B. endocrine system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system.

A. immune system

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. individual EMT B. EMS training officer C. EMS medical director D. State bureau of EMS

A. individual EMT

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she: A. is significantly hyperglycemic B. has a urinary tract infection C. has a low blood glucose level D. has overdoses on her insulin

A. is significantly hyperglycemic

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? A. kidney B. liver C. pancreas D. Gallbladder

A. kidney

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: A. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines B. remove the lines with a nonconductive object C. proceed with normal extrication procedures D. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car

A. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines

As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: A. might not be obvious or present all the time B. usually manifest suddenly without warning C. are most effectively treated with medications D. cannot be identified and can cause health problems

A. might not be obvious or present all the time

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: A. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. B. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. C. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. D. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you

A. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions.

An acute myocardial infarction (AMI) occurs when: A. myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen. B. the heart muscle progressively weakens and dysfunctions. C. coronary artery dilation decreases blood flow to the heart. D. the entire left ventricle is damaged and cannot pump blood.

A. myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen.

When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: A. not disclosing his or her name. B. withholding medical history data. C. using coded medical language. D. refraining from objective statements.

A. not disclosing his or her name.

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful B. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition D. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated

A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: A. removing sodium and water from the body B. accommodating a large amount of blood volume C. eliminating toxic waste products from the body D. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium

A. removing sodium and water from the body

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: A. repeating the primary assessment B. talking another set of vitals C. reviewing all treatment performed D. reassessing the nature of illness

A. repeating the primary assessment

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: A. respirations increase in rate and depth B. the brain stem inhibits respirations C. respirations decrease in rate and depth D. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation

A. respirations increase in rate and depth

Regarding medical terminology, the foundation of the word is called the: A. root B. combining vowel C. prefix D. suffix

A. root

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. D. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.

A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. A. slander B. negligence C. libel D. assault

A. slander

When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: A. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled. B. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs C. light and siren are effective in redirecting the patients behavior D. most patient will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia

A. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled.

a dissection aortic aneurysm occurs when: A. the inner layers of the aorta become separated B. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract C. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall D. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding

A. the inner layers of the aorta become separated

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. B. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. C. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. D. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.

A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. B. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. C. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. D. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.

A. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

The term "pericardiocentesis" means: A. the removal of fluid from around the heart B. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart C. surgical repair of the sac around the heart D. a surgical opening made in the heart

A. the removal of fluid from around the heart

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is: A. unable to produce or understand speech B. experiencing a right hemispheric stroke C. not able to swallow without choking D. usually conscious but has slurred speech

A. unable to produce or understand speech

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should: A. ventilate her with a BVM. B. contact the poison control center. C. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A. ventilate her with a BVM.

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infection disease is to: A. wash your hands in between patient contacts B. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date C. undergo an annual physical examination D. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis

A. wash your hands in between patient contacts

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: A. who have experienced a head injury B. with a history of an ischemic stroke. C. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg. D. who have taken up to two doses.

A. who have experienced a head injury

The root word cirrh/o means: A. yellow-orange B. liver C. blood cell D. kidney

A. yellow-orange

You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence? A. his shouting of obscenities B. his large body C. his clenched fist D. the broken window

B his large body

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct? A. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment. B. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport. C. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented. D. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment.

B. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.

Which of the following scenarios is an example of informed consent? A. A patient advises and EMT of why he or she is refusing care B. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment C. A patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care D. An EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult

B. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger? A. Furosemide (lasix) B. Aspirin C. Metoprolol (toprol) D. Oxygen

B. Aspirin

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: A. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries B. Dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow C. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium D. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow

B. Dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow

which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause of seizures? A. Acute alcohol withdrawal B. Hypotension C. Acute hypoglycemia D. Poisoning or overdose

B. Hypotension

Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include: A. long-term feelings of being overwhelmed by the nature of the call B. Increased self-image from preforming well under a challenging situation C. the inability to remain focused, because the s=task at hand is demanding D. short term loss of energy dur to high physical demands of the job

B. Increased self-image from preforming well under a challenging situation

Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct? A. The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules. B. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen, but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood. C. Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%. D. Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common.

B. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen, but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood.

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? A. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs B. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing C. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs D. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards

B. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: A. syncope, a weak pulse, and bleeding from the ears B. a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness C. tachycardia, pain behind the eyes, and weakness D. pallor, cool skin, and a temporary loss of hearing

B. a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness

When administering naloxone (Narcan) via the intranasal route, the EMT should administer: A. at least 2 mL into each nostril B. a half dose into each nostril C. a minimum of 2.5 mg D. a maximum of 0.5 mL

B. a half dose into each nostril

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a respiratory infection B. a narcotic overdose C. high blood glucose levels D. an overdose of aspirin

B. a narcotic overdose

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: A. a pustule B. a wheal C. purpura D. urticaria

B. a wheal

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: A. an absence of breath sounds B. abnormal breath sounds C. diminished breath sounds D. normal breath sounds

B. abnormal breath sounds

The final stage of death and dying is MOST commonly displayed as: A. denial B. acceptance C. depression D. anger

B. acceptance

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: A. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels. B. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations. C. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing. D. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma.

B. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing. B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration. C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min. D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.

B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: A. assess the rate and quality of his pulse B. apply direct pressure to the wound C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen D. immediately evaluate his airway

B. apply direct pressure to the wound

Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include: A. facial droop, speech, and pupil size B. arm drift, speech, and facial droop C. speech, pupil reaction, and memory D. arm drift, memory, and grip strength

B. arm drift, speech, and facial droop

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: A. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. B. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. C. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. D. repeat your secondary assessment.

B. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. OR C. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.

Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called: A. acute ischemia B. atherosclerosis C. arteriosclerosis D. angina pectoris

B. atherosclerosis

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: A. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension. B. authorization from medical control has been obtained. C. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. D. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke.

B. authorization from medical control has been obtained.

which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke? A. acute atherosclerotic disease B. blockage of a cerebral artery C. rupture of a cerebral artery D. narrowing of a carotid artery

B. blockage of a cerebral artery

Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. warm, dry skin B. cool, clammy skin C. acetone breath odor D. rapid, thready pulse

B. cool, clammy skin

cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: A. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature B. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle C. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate D. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting

B. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle

During your assessment of a 70-year-old woman, she tells you that she takes blood-thinning medication and has to wear compression stockings around her legs. This information should make you suspect that she has: A. severe hyperglycemia B. deep vein thrombosis C. sickle-cell disease D. hemophilia

B. deep vein thrombosis

which of the following sings is commonly observed in patients with right sided heart failure A. labored breathing B. dependent edema C. pulmonary edema D. flat jugular veins

B. dependent edema

An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: A. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to have a patient report B. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient C. refuse to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife D. Terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request

B. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm. A. proximal B. distal C. superior D. dorsal

B. distal

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. flushing of the skin B. drying of the eyes C. abdominal cramps D. persistent dry cough

B. drying of the eyes

During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: A. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level B. ensure a patent and support ventilation as needed C. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations

B. ensure a patent and support ventilation as needed

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue B. fluid accumulation outside the lung C. a unilaterally collapsed lung D. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli

B. fluid accumulation outside the lung

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue B. fluid accumulation outside the lung C. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli D. a unilaterally collapsed lung

B. fluid accumulation outside the lung

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies: A. typically does not require the EMT to contact medical control. B. focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made. C. addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. D. involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital.

B. focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made.

Common side effect of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. severe headache B. hypertension C. bradycardia D. hypotension

B. hypertension

the medical term for low blood glucose level is: A. hypotension B. hypoglycemia C. hypertension D. hyperglycemia

B. hypoglycemia

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed C. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols D. ensure that EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office

B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed

Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: A. increased preload B. increased afterload C. poor contractility D. heart attack

B. increased afterload

Diabetes Ketoacidosis occurs when: A. blood glucose levels rapidly fall B. insulin is not available in the body C. the cells rapidly metabolize glucose D. the pancreas produces excess insulin

B. insulin is not available in the body

A mucosal atomizer device (MAD) is used to deliver certain medications via the: A. sublingual route B. intranasal route C. inhalation route D. transdermal route

B. intranasal route

Type 1 diabetes: A. is typically treated with medications such as metformin B. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body. C. typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age. D. is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL.

B. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient: A. almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem. B. is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms. C. requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems. D. is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.

B. is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.

chronic renal failure is a condition that: A. can be revered with prompt treatment B. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes C. occurs from conditions such as dehydration D. causes dehydration from excessive urination

B. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. the patient's condition. B. medical director approval C. an order from a paramedic. D. the transport time to the hospital.

B. medical director approval

Angina pectoris occurs when: A. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds demand

B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates: A. a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli B. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs C. rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues D. enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs

B. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs

a patient with an altered mental status is: A. usually able to aroused with a painful stimulus B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused C. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli D. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events

B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused

In the recovery position, the patient is: A. sitting upright B. on his or her side C. lying face up D. lying face down

B. on his or her side

In order of efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: A. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed B. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane C. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen D. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion

B. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane

In relation to the chest, the back is: A. inferior B. posterior C. ventral D. anterior

B. posterior

status epilepticus is characterized by: A. an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura B. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness C. generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes D. profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity

B. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness

A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: A. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag. B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed. C. request a paramedic to give her a sedative. D. position her on her left side and transport at once.

B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.

You are dispatched to a middle school for a 16-year-old female experiencing an asthma attack. She is conscious and alert but in severe respiratory distress. The school nurse informs you that she has tried several times to contact the patient's parents but has not been successful. You should... A. administer oxygen only until you receive parental consent for further treatment B. provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once C. recognize that you cannot begin treatment without expressed parental consent D. transport the child to the closet hospital and let the staff there provide any treatment

B. provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once

After assisting your patient with his or her nitroglycerin, you should: A. place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting B. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension C. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache D. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses

B. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: A. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. C. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.

B. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. C. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. D. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call.

B. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan) in a suspected narcotic overdose? A. hypertension B. slow respirations C. tachycardia D. extreme agitation

B. slow respirations

Solid abdominal organs include the: A. stomach and small intestine. B. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas. C. gallbladder and large intestine. D. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters.

B. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: A. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance. B. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. C. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. D. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately.

B. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible.

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of: A. rales B. stridor C. rhonchi D. wheezing

B. stridor

in which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient? A. prone B. supine C. with hands tied behind back D. with arms and legs bound together

B. supine

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: A. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea B. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities C. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech D. altered mental status and bradycardia

B. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. B. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. Correct C. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

B. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. B. the inner layers of the aorta become separated C. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

B. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. Correct

If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to: A. report the incident to the infection control officer B. transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider C. abandon patient care and seek medical attention D. vigorously clean the area with soap and water

B. transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway: A. ability to speak B. unresponsiveness C. inspiratory stridor D. audible breathing

B. unresponsiveness

The parietal peritoneum lines the: A. retroperitoneal space B. walls of the abdominal cavity C. surface of the abdominal organs D. lungs and chest cavity

B. walls of the abdominal cavity

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease it to: A. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date B. wash your hands in between patient contacts C. Undergo an annual physical examination D. undergo an annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis

B. wash your hands in between patient contacts

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. the EMT's prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched. B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. C. ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms. D. determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms.

B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.

Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process? A. "The doctors must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy." B. "I understand that my death is inevitable and I am ready to die when the time comes." C. "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate." D. "It is because of our lousy health care system that I developed this brain tumor."

C. "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate."

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?Select one: A. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor B. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? Select one: A. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. B. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. C. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. D. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years.

C. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.

Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include: A. facial droop, speech, and pupil size B. speech, pupil reaction, and memory C. Arm drift, speech, and facial droop D. arm drift, memory, and grip strength

C. Arm drift, speech, and facial droop

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug? A. Bayer B. Excedrin C. Aspirin D. Advil

C. Aspirin

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? A. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min B. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min C. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min D. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min

C. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min

Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. tachycardia B. Dizziness C. Drowsiness D. headache

C. Drowsiness

Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poisons is correct? A. carbon monoxide is very irritating to the upper airway and might cause swelling B. burns around the eyes are most common indication of an inhalation poising C. Lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the environment. D. chlorine is a colorless and odorless gas that causes hypoxia and pulmonary edema

C. Lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the environment.

A young male is experiencing signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock after being stung by a scorpion. His level of consciousness is diminished, his breathing is severely labored, you can hear inspiratory stridor, and his face is cyanotic. The patient has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector. What should you do first? A. Assist him in administering his epinephrine. B. Apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. C. Provide ventilatory assistance with a bag-mask device. D. Elevate his legs and cover him with a warm blanket.

C. Provide ventilatory assistance with a bag-mask device.

The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called: A. eustress B. wellness C. Resilience D. distress

C. Resilience

which of the following patients would most likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? A. a 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen B. a 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee C. a 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin D. a 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex

C. a 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. B. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. C. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms. D. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.

C. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms.

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: A. diminished breath sounds B. an absence of breath sounds C. abnormal breath sounds D. normal breath sounds

C. abnormal breath sounds

It is MOST important to determine a patient's weight when asking questions pertaining to a toxic ingestion because: A. naloxone is contraindicated if the patient is very obese B. you might need additional lifting and moving assistance C. activated charcoal is given based on the patient's weight D. this will allow you to determine if the exposure is lethal

C. activated charcoal is given based on the patient's weight

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies: A. typically does not require the EMT to contact medical control B. focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made C. addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process D. involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital

C. addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: A. an obstructed airway B. respiratory difficulty C. adequate air exchange D. respiratory insufficiency

C. adequate air exchange

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint B. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment C. after the primary assessment has been completed D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known

C. after the primary assessment has been completed

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are MOST indicative of: A. pancreatitis B. gastroenteritis C. appendicitis D. cholecystitis

C. appendicitis

febrile seizures A. occur when a child's fever rises slowly B. often result in permanent brain damage C. are usually benign but should be evaluated D. are also referred to as absence seizures

C. are usually benign but should be evaluated

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: A. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with palms down B. expect to see one arm slowly down to the patient's side C. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment D. observed movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes

C. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: A. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with palms down B expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side C. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. D. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes

C. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should: A. assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate. B. squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds. C. attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient. D. direct your partner to apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

C. attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient.

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is: A. compensating for decreased blood glucose levels B. trying to generate energy by breathing deeply C. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood D. severely hypoxic and eliminating excess CO2

C. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: A. contractility B. excitability C. automaticity D. impulsivity

C. automaticity

which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? A. bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B. widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection C. bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation D. viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction

C. bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation

It is MOST important for the EMT to remember that suicidal patients may: A. be self-destructive B. inject illicit drugs C. be homicidal as well D. have a definitive plan

C. be homicidal as well

When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: A. length and complete B. coded and scripted C. brief and easily understood D. spoken in a loud voice

C. brief and easily understood

Inhalation occurs when the: A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. D. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: A. proximal humerus fracture B. distal forearm fracture C. distal humerus fracture D. proximal elbow fracture

C. distal humerus fracture

You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining - a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: A. Acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power B. advise the emergency department physician that you believe the child was intentionally abused by his parents C. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you D. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States

C. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you

Ketone production is the result of: A. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low. B. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL. C. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable. D. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane.

C. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.

Together, the right and left lungs contain ____________ lobes. A. four B. three C. five D. six

C. five

A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to: A. form a general impression. B. call for an ALS ambulance. C. follow standard precautions. D. ask bystanders what happened.

C. follow standard precautions.

You would expect a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing to be in the following positions? A. prone B. recovery C. fowler D. supine

C. fowler

CPAP is indicated for patients who: A. have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately. B. are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation. C. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands. D. are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume.

C. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands.

An effective team leader should: A. command his or her team B. perform all difficult interventions C. help the team accomplish goals D. refrain from any direct

C. help the team accomplish goals

Naloxone (Narcan) would reverse the effects of: A. diazepam (valium) B. temazepam (Restoril) C. hydromorphone (dilaudid) D. phenobarbital (luminal)

C. hydromorphone (dilaudid)

common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following except: A. severe headache B. hypotension C. hypertension D. bradycardia

C. hypertension

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: A. severe stress B. diabetes mellitus C. heavy exertion D. hypertension

D. hypertension

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A. potential falsification of the patient care form B. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form C. inadequate patient care was administered D. thorough documentation was not required

C. inadequate patient care was administered

You are assessing a patient with respiratory distress and are unsure if the cause is congestive heart failure (CHF) or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following clinical signs would be the MOST helpful in determining whether the patient has CHF or COPD? A. altered mental status B. rapid breathing C. jugular vein distention D. cyanosis of the skin

C. jugular vein distention

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: A. central nervous system failure B. acute kidney failure C. liver damage and failure D. bleeding gastric ulcers

C. liver damage and failure

the topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward midline of the body is: A. midaxillary B. midclavicular C. medial D. lateral

C. medial

The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: A. EMS administer B. shift supervisor C. medical director D. field training officer

C. medical director

which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? A. kidneys B. heart C. muscle D. liver

C. muscle

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ______ problem. A. cardiac B. respiratory C. neurologic D. endocrine

C. neurologic

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? A. nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum B. a maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient C. nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes D. the potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light

C. nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes

What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? Select one: A. radio B. online C. off-line D. direct

C. off-line

A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: A. ventilations with a BVM B. nitroglycerin for her chest pain C. placing her in an upright position D. oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula

C. placing her in an upright position

immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: A. reassess the patient's vital signs B. notify medical control of your action C. properly dispose of the syringe D. record the time and dose given

C. properly dispose of the syringe

in a healthy individual, the brainstem stimulates breathing on the basis of: A. decreased carbon dioxide levels B. decreased oxygen levels C. increased oxygen levels D. increased carbon dioxide levels

D. increased carbon dioxide levels

An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to: A. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present B. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain C. provide emotional support en route to the hospital D. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position

C. provide emotional support en route to the hospital

immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should: A. document the time the restraints were applied B. advise the patient why restraint was needed C. reassess the patient's airway and breathing D. inform medical control of the situation

C. reassess the patient's airway and breathing Also acceptable reasonings: A. document the time the restraints were applied B. advise the patient why restraint was needed

After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: A. Ask the physician to repeat the order B. perform the intervention as ordered C. repeat the order to medical control word for word D. confirm the order in your own words

C. repeat the order to medical control word for word

You may have been working at the scene of a major building collapse or eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by: A. providing large amounts of caffeine to rescue workers B. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support D. Allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30- minute increments

C. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support

You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. A. libel B. assault C. slander D. negligence

C. slander

A body part that is nearer to the head from a specific reference point is said to be: A. lateral B. medial C. superior D. distal

C. superior

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: A. quickly access the patient B. notify law enforcement C. take standard precautions D. contact medical control

C. take standard precautions

Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of: A. severe hyperventilation B. an upper airway infection C. toxic chemical inhalation D. right-sided heart failure

C. toxic chemical inhalation

the descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: A. public symphysis B. nipple line C. umbilicus D. iliac crest

C. umbilicus

Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. mover her to the ambulance stretcher B. check her airway for obstructions C. ventilate her with a bag-mask devise D. administer high-flow oxygen

C. ventilate her with a bag-mask devise

You respond to a local motel for a young female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious but confused. She tells you that the last thing she remembers was drinking beer at a club with her friends the night before. When she awoke, she was in the bed of the motel room. You should suspect that this patient: A. is a frequent and heavy heroin user B. is addicted to a benzodiazepine drug C. was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol) D. has a hangover from the night before

C. was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: A. the patient is anxious and tachycardic B. a paramedic is present at the scene C. wheezing and hypotension are present D. the reaction produces severe urticaria

C. wheezing and hypotension are present

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: A. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose B. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare C. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare D. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum

C. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare

Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the set of baseline vital sings B. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury C. the patient's response to treatment you provide D. important medical history not previously given

D. important medical history not previously given

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: A. 50 and 60 bmp B. 100 and 110 bmp C. 40 and 50 bmp D. 60 and 100 bmp

D. 60 and 100 bmp

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? A. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen B. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin C. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

D. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? A. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date B. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers C. A confused young make who says he is the president D. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

D. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct? A. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment B. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented C. documentation of a proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment D. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport

D. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport

Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services A. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) provider who provide definitive care in the prehospital setting B. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are response for providing emergency care to critically injured patients C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to the sick and injured patients D. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

D. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: A. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate B. the exact amount that a coronary artery is completely occluded C. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack D. A group of symptoms caused by myocardial ischemia

D. A term used to describe a group of symptoms caused by myocardial ischemia

Why are prehospital care guidelines updates on a regular basis? A. The federal governments requires the implementation changes to existing emergency care protocols at least every five years B. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and becomes familiar with data analysis C. statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness D. Additional information and evidence indicate that effectiveness of certain interventions has changed

D. Additional information and evidence indicate that effectiveness of certain interventions has changed

Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse? A. elevated blood glucose B. limited physical contact C. dimly lit envrionment D. Alcohol withdrawal

D. Alcohol withdrawal

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? Select one: A. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval. B. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval. C. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. D. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.

D. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.

Which of the followings skills would a layperson most likely be trained to perform before the arrival of EMS? A. Obtaining a manual blood pressure B. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway C. Administration of supplemental oxygen D. Bleed control using a tourniquet

D. Bleed control using a tourniquet

Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities? A. Spousal abuse B. Animal bites C. Gunshot wounds D. Cardiac arrest

D. Cardiac arrest

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: A. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium B. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow C. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries D. Dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow

D. Dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having: A. hepatitis B. MERS-CoV C. Tuberculosis D. Meningitis

D. Meningitis

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. EMT B. AEMT C. EMR D. Paramedic

D. Paramedic

Which of the following statements regarding hypoxic drive is correct? A. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals. B. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive. C. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive. D. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.

D. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? A. withhold treatment until the parent arrive and give you consent for treatment B. begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital C. treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent D. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital

D. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital

You suspect that a 6-year-old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child's mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should: A. Ask the mother to sign a refusal form B. Use your authority under the implied consent law C. Tell the mother that her refusal is a form of child abuse D. Try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed

D. Try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed

The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means: A. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles B. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles C. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles D. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles

D. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles

A 35-year-old obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the right shoulder. The MOST likely cause of her pain is: A. appendicitis B. acute cystitis C. pancreatitis D. acute cholecystitis

D. acute cholecystitis

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): A. leukotriene B. antibody C. histamine D. allergen

D. allergen

Despite your numerous, sincere efforts to convince a 40-year-old man to consent to EMS treatment and transport, he refuses. After explaining the potential consequences of his refusal and determining that the patient has decision-making capacity, you ask him to sign an EMS refusal form, but he refuses to do that as well. You should: A. document the patient's refusal, but leave the refusal form blank because only the patient can legally sign it B. sign the refusal form, include the date and time, and have your partner witness it with his or her signature C. advise the patient that unless he signs the refusal form, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment or transport D. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign

D. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign

Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called: A. libel B. negligence C. battery D. assault

D. assault

Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called: A. angina pectoris. B. arteriosclerosis. C. acute ischemia. D. atherosclerosis.

D. atherosclerosis.

When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located you should: A. contact medical control first B. notify the coroner immediately C. determine the patient's illness D. begin resuscitation at once

D. begin resuscitation at once

Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication: A. below the first layer of muscle B. through the mucosa under the tongue C. directly into the muscle tissue D. between the skin and the muscle

D. between the skin and the muscle

carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it: A. destroys the number of circulation red blood cells B. fills the alveoli in the lungs with thick secretions C. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide D. binds with hemoglobin in red blood cells

D. binds with hemoglobin in red blood cells

Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. Select one: A. injection B. absorption C. inhalation D. ingestion

D. ingestion

In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve: A. Applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate B. taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused C. palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time D. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.

D. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.

the raspatory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by: A. acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli B. repeated exposure to cigarette smoke C. massive constriction of the bronchioles D. chronic stretching of the alveolar walls

D. chronic stretching of the alveolar walls

if an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should: Select one: A. wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class. B. send an official request to the National Registry of EMT (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam. C. recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure. D. contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.

D. contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A. increased blood oxygen. B. peripheral vasodilation. C. venous vasoconstriction. D. decreased blood oxygen

D. decreased blood oxygen

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: A. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate B. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature C. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting D. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle

D. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle

You are caring for a 35-year-old female with pregnancy-related complications. She is clearly experiencing significant stress and is crying uncontrollably. Your MOST appropriate action would be to: A. restrain her if she is extremely emotional and will not calm down B. tell her that "everything will be all right" to calm her down C. discourage her from expressing fear until a counselor is available D. demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice.

D. demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice.

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? A. labored breathing B. flat jugular veins C. pulmonary edema D. dependent edema

D. dependent edema

The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous material incident is: A. evacuating the bystanders B. identifying the hazardous material C. calling the hazardous materials team D. ensuring your personal safety

D. ensuring your personal safety

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to: A. perform blood glucose monitoring. B. apply and interpret a pulse oximeter. C. use an automatic transport ventilator. D. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.

D. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.

In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who: A. has documented hypoglycemia and an absent gag reflex B. is unresponsive, even in the absence of a history of diabetes C. has a blood glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL D. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes

D. has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: A. hemolysis B. hemiplegia C. hematemesis D. hemostasis

D. hemostasis

Enlargement of the liver is called: A. hydrocephalus B. pneumonitis C. nephritis D. hepatomegaly

D. hepatomegaly

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: A. diabetes mellitus B. severe stress C. heavy exertion D. hypertension

D. hypertension

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: A. insert and oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning B. placer her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport a once D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation

D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation

The two processes that occur during respiration are: A. oxygenation and ventilation B. ventilation and diffusion C. diffusion and oxygenation D. inspiration and expiration

D. inspiration and expiration

A strangulated hernia is one that: A. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

A drug is contraindicated for a patient when it: A. produces actions other than the desired ones B. is used to treat a specific medical condition C. is used to treat a multitude of conditions D. may cause harm or has no positive effect

D. may cause harm or has no positive effect

To reverse the effects of a narcotic overdose you should administer: A. advil B. Tylenol C. EpiPen D. narcan

D. narcan

Atropine sulfate and pralidoxime chloride are antidotes for: A. anticholinergic drugs B. lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) C. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) D. nerve gas agents

D. nerve gas agents

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to: A. careless handling of sharps. B. lack of proper immunizations. C. excessive blood splashing or splattering. D. noncompliance with standard precautions.

D. noncompliance with standard precautions or A. careless handling of sharps.

A patient with an altered mental status is: A. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. B. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events. C. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. D. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

D. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

Before giving activated charcoal, you should: A. have the patient drink a glass of milk B. mix the suspension by stirring the bottle C. mix it with an equal amount of water D. obtain approval from medical control

D. obtain approval from medical control.

Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include: A. prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B. failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis. C. a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks. D. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.

D. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.

Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: A. neurologic shock B. neurogenic shock C. vasovagal shock D. psychogenic shock

D. psychogenic shock

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: A. pulmonary arteries B. inferior venae cavae C. superior venae cavae D. pulmonary veins

D. pulmonary veins

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: A. touches another person without his her her consent B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy C. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts D. request sexual favors in exchange for something else

D. request sexual favors in exchange for something else

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call B. inform the admission clerk of the situation and then respond at once C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call D. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse of physician

D. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse of physician

Functions of the liver include: A. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar B. absorption of nutrients and toxins C. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels D. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances

D. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? A. pleural effusion B. narcotic overdose C. pulmonary edema D. severe anxiety

D. severe anxiety

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: A. rhonchi B. Korotkoff sounds C. crepitus D. subcutaneous emphysema

D. subcutaneous emphysema

the pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: A. diastolic pressure B. pulse pressure C. apical pressure D. systolic pressure

D. systolic pressure

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: A. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea B. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech C. altered mental status and bradycardia D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities

D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. alveoli B. bronchioles C. the trachea D. the epiglottis

D. the epiglottis

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? A. the family requests a copy for insurance purposes B. a police officer requests a copy to place on file C. a media representative inquires about the patient D. the patient is competent and signs a release form

D. the patient is competent and signs a release form

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: A. a rapid heartbeat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. B. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates. C. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria. D. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.

D. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.

Successful treatment of a stroke depends on whether: A. surgical intervention is performed to remove obstructive clots. B. medications are given to restore the function of infarcted cells. C. the stroke occurs within the left or right hemisphere of the brain. D. thrombolytic therapy is given within 3 hours after symptoms began.

D. thrombolytic therapy is given within 3 hours after symptoms began.

The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia: A. always take oral medications to maintain normal blood glucose levels. B. do not present with slurred speech or weakness to one side of the body. C. are typically alert and attempt to communicate with health care providers. D. usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

D. usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: A. the reaction produces severe urticaria B. a paramedic is present at the scene C. the patient is anxious and tachycardia D. wheezing and hypotension are present

D. wheezing and hypotension are present

Which of the following questions would be least pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? A. how long ago was the substance taken? B. what type of substance was taken? C. how much of the substance was taken? D. why was the substance ingestion

D. why was the substance ingestion

Distributive shock occurs when: A. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. B. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.