Exam 2: Neuro

158. The nurse is preparing to care for a client who had a supratentorial craniotomy. The nurse should plan to place the client in which position? 1. Prone 2. Supine 3. Side-lying 4. Semi Fowler's

4. Semi Fowler's

170. The nurse is caring for a client who is in the chronic phase of stroke (brain attack) and has a right-sided hemiparesis. The nurse identifies that the client is unable to feed self. Which is the appropriate nursing intervention? 1. Assist the client to eat with the left hand to build strength. 2. Provide a pureed diet that is easy for the client to swallow. 3. Inform the client that a feeding tube will be placed if progress is not made. 4. Provide a variety of foods on the meal tray to stimulate the client's appetite.

Answer: 1. Assist the client to eat with the left hand to build strength.

122. The nurse is teaching a client with paraplegia measures to maintain skin integrity. Which instruction will be most helpful to the client? 1. Shift weight every 2 hours while in a wheelchair. 2. Change bed sheets every other week to maintain cleanliness. 3. Place a pillow on the seat of the wheelchair to provide extra comfort. 4. Use a mirror to inspect for redness and skin breakdown twice a week.

Answer: 1. Shift weight every 2 hours while in a wheelchair.

141. A client who is experiencing an inferior wall myocardial infarction has had a drop in heart rate into the range of 50 to 56 beats/minute. The client also is complaining of nausea. On the basis of these findings, the nurse determines that the client is experiencing parasympathetic stimulation of which cranial nerve? 1. Vagus (CN X) 2. Hypoglossal (CN XII) 3. Spinal accessory (CN XI) 4. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

Answer: 1. Vagus (CN X)

80. A thymectomy accomplished via a median sternotomy approach is performed in a client with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. The nurse creates a postoperative plan of care for the client that should include which intervention? 1. Monitor the chest tube drainage. 2. Restrict visitors for 24 hours postoperatively. 3. Maintain intravenous infusion of lactated Ringer's solution. 4. Avoid administering pain medication to prevent respiratory depression.

1. Monitor the chest tube drainage. The thymus has played a role in the development of myasthenia gravis. A thymectomy is the surgical removal of the thymus gland and may be used for management of clients with myasthenia gravis to improve weakness. The procedure is performed through a median sternotomy or a transcervical approach. Postoperatively the client will have a chest tube in the mediastinum. Lactated intravenous solutions usually are avoided because they can increase weakness. Pain medication is administered as needed, but the client is monitored closely for respiratory depression. There is no reason to restrict visitors.

4. The client diagnosed with a right-sided cerebrovascular accident is admitted to the rehabilitation unit. Which interventions should be included in the nursing care plan? Select all that apply. 1. Position the client to prevent shoulder adduction. 2. Turn and reposition the client every shift. 3. Encourage the client to move the affected side. 4. Perform quadriceps exercises three (3) times a day. 5. Instruct the client to hold the fingers in a fist.

1. Position the client to prevent shoulder adduction. 3. Encourage the client to move the affected side.

26. The nurse is planning care for a client who displays confusion secondary to a neurological problem. Which approaches by the nurse would be helpful in assisting this client? Select all that apply. 1. Providing sensory cues 2. Giving simple, clear directions 3. Providing a stable environment 4. Keeping family pictures at the bedside 5. Encouraging family members to visit at the same time

1. Providing sensory cues 2. Giving simple, clear directions 3. Providing a stable environment 4. Keeping family pictures at the bedside

138. The nurse notes that a client who has suffered a brain injury has an adequate heart rate, blood pressure, fluid balance, and body temperature. Based on these clinical findings, the nurse determines that which brain area is functioning properly? 1. Thalamus 2. Hypothalamus 3. Limbic system 4. Reticular activating system

2. Hypothalamus

131. The nurse is evaluating a function of the limbic system as a part of the neurological status of a client. What should the nurse assess? 1. Experience of pain 2. Affect or emotions 3. Response to verbal stimuli 4. Insight, judgment, and planning

2. Affect or emotions

46. The nurse assigned to the care of an unconscious client is making initial daily rounds. On entering the client's room, the nurse observes that the client is lying supine in bed, with the head of the bed elevated approximately 5 degrees. The nasogastric tube feeding is running at 70 mL/hr, as prescribed. The nurse assesses the client and auscultates adventitious breath sounds. Which judgment should the nurse formulate for the client? 1. Impaired nutritional intake 2. Increased risk for aspiration 3. Increased likelihood for injury 4. Susceptibility to fluid volume deficit

2. Increased risk for aspiration

2. The nurse is caring for the client with increased intracranial pressure. The nurse would note which trend in vital signs if the intracranial pressure is rising? 1. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure 3. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 4. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure

2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure

88. The home care nurse is making a visit to a client who requires use of a wheelchair after a spinal cord injury sustained 4 months earlier. Just before leaving the home, the nurse ensures that which intervention has been done to prevent an episode of autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia)? 1. Updating the home safety sheet 2. Leaving the client in an unchilled area of the room 3. Noting a bowel movement on the client progress note 4. Recording the amount of urine obtained with catheterization

2. Leaving the client in an unchilled area of the room Rationale: The most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is visceral stimuli, such as with blockage of urinary drainage or with constipation. Barring these, other causes include noxious mechanical and thermal stimuli, particularly pressure and overchilling. For this reason, the nurse ensures that the client is positioned with no pinching or pressure on paralyzed body parts and that the client will be sufficiently warm.

45. The nurse is administering mouth care to an unconscious client. The nurse should perform which actions in the care of this person? Select all that apply. 1. Use products that contain alcohol. 2. Position the client on his or her side. 3. Brush the teeth with a small, soft toothbrush. 4. Cleanse the mucous membranes with soft sponges. 5. Use lemon glycerin swabs when performing mouth care.

2. Position the client on his or her side. 3. Brush the teeth with a small, soft toothbrush. 4. Cleanse the mucous membranes with soft sponges.

98. A client who has a spinal cord injury that resulted in paraplegia experiences a sudden onset of severe headache and nausea. The client is diaphoretic with piloerection and has flushing of the skin. The client's systolic blood pressure (BP) is 210 mm Hg. What should the nurse immediately suspect? 1. Return of spinal shock 2. Malignant hypertension 3. Impending brain attack (stroke) 4. Autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia)

4. Autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia) Autonomic dysreflexia (hyperreflexia) results from sudden strong discharge of the sympathetic nervous system in response to a noxious stimulus. Signs and symptoms include pounding headache, nausea, nasal stuffiness, flushed skin, piloerection {Piloerection means involuntary erection or bristling of body hairs due to a sympathetic reflex}, and diaphoresis. Severe hypertension can occur, with a systolic BP rising potentially as high as 300 mm Hg. It often is triggered by thermal or mechanical events such as a kinking of catheter tubing, constipation, urinary tract infection, or any variety of cutaneous stimuli. The nurse must recognize this situation immediately and take corrective action to remove the stimulus. If untreated, this medical emergency could result in stroke, status epilepticus, or possibly death.

1. The 85-year-old client diagnosed with a stroke is complaining of a severe headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Administer a nonnarcotic analgesic. 2. Prepare for STAT magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). 3. Start an intravenous infusion with D5W at 100 mL/hr. 4. Complete a neurological assessment.

4. Complete a neurological assessment.

165. The nurse is caring for the client who suffered a spinal cord injury 48 hours ago. What should the nurse assess for when monitoring for gastrointestinal complications? 1. A history of diarrhea 2. A flattened abdomen 3. Hyperactive bowel sounds 4. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage

4. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage

113. The nurse is caring for an unconscious client who is experiencing persistent hyperthermia with no signs of infection. On the basis of these findings the nurse suspects dysfunction in which area of the brain? 1. Cerebrum 2. Cerebellum 3. Hippocampus 4. Hypothalamus

4. Hypothalamus

8. The client has been diagnosed with a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). The client's wife is concerned about her husband's generalized weakness. Which home modification should the nurse suggest to the wife prior to discharge? 1. Obtain a rubber mat to place under the dinner plate. 2. Purchase a long-handled bath sponge for showering. 3. Purchase clothes with Velcro closure devices. 4. Obtain a raised toilet seat for the client's bathroom.

4. Obtain a raised toilet seat for the client's bathroom.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client experiencing agnosia secondary to a cerebrovascular accident. Which collaborative intervention will be included in the plan of care? 1. Observe the client swallowing for possible aspiration. 2. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position when sleeping. 3. Place a suction setup at the client's bedside during meals. 4. Refer the client to an occupational therapist for evaluation.

4. Refer the client to an occupational therapist for evaluation.

178. A client has a cerebellar lesion. The nurse would plan to obtain which item for use by this client? 1. Walker 2. Slider board 3. Raised toilet seat 4. Adaptive eating utensils

Answer: 1. Walker Rationale: The cerebellum is responsible for balance and coordination. A walker provides stability for the client during ambulation. A raised toilet seat is useful if the client has sufficient mobility or ability to flex the hips. A slider board is used in transferring a client with weak or paralyzed legs from a bed to stretcher or wheelchair. Adaptive eating utensils are beneficial if the client has partial paralysis of the hand.

119. The home care nurse is making extended follow-up visits to a client discharged from the hospital after a moderately severe head injury. The family states that the client is behaving differently than before the accident. The client is more fatigued and irritable and has some memory problems. The client, who was previously very even tempered, is prone to outbursts of temper now. The nurse determines that these behaviors are indicative of which problem? 1. Intracranial pressure changes 2. A long-term sequela of the injury 3. A worsening of the original injury 4. A short-term problem that will resolve in about 1 month

Answer: 2. A long-term sequela of the injury Clients with moderate to severe head injury usually have residual physical and cognitive disabilities; these include personality changes, increased fatigue and irritability, mood alterations, and memory changes. The client also may require frequent to constant supervision. The nurse assesses the family's ability to cope and makes appropriate referrals to respite services, support groups, and state or local chapters of the National Head Injury Foundation.

111. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect to note in the client hospitalized with a diagnosis of stroke who has difficulty chewing food? 1. Dysfunction of vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) 2. Dysfunction of trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) 3. Dysfunction of hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) 4. Dysfunction of spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI)

Answer: 2. Dysfunction of trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) The motor branch of cranial nerve V is responsible for the ability to chew food. The vagus nerve is active in parasympathetic functions of the autonomic nervous system. The hypoglossal nerve aids in swallowing. The spinal accessory nerve is responsible for shoulder movement, among other things.

174. A client with a history of myasthenia gravis presents at a clinic with bilateral ptosis and is drooling, and myasthenic crisis is suspected. The nurse assesses the client for which precipitating factor? 1. Getting too little exercise 2. Taking excess medication 3. Omitting doses of medication 4. Increasing intake of fatty foods

Answers: 3. Omitting doses of medication Myasthenic crisis often is caused by undermedication and responds to the administration of cholinergic medications. Cholinergic crisis (the opposite problem) is caused by excess medication and responds to withholding of medications. Too little exercise and excessive fatty food intake are incorrect. Overexertion and overeating possibly could trigger myasthenic crisis.

11. The nurse is teaching a client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. Which client activity suggests that teaching is most effective? 1. Taking medications as scheduled 2. Eating large, well-balanced meals 3. Doing muscle-strengthening exercises 4. Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued

1. Taking medications as scheduled Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. Taking medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high is important. Muscle-strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms, as is exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress.

8. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with complete right-sided hemiparesis from a stroke (brain attack). Which characteristics are associated with this condition? Select all that apply. 1. The client is aphasic. 2. The client has weakness on the right side of the body. 3. The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs. 4. The client has weakness on the right side of the face and tongue. 5. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently. 6. The client has lost the ability to ambulate independently but is able to feed and bathe himself or herself without assistance.

1. The client is aphasic. 2. The client has weakness on the right side of the body. 4. The client has weakness on the right side of the face and tongue.

90. At 8:00 a.m., A client who has had a stroke (brain attack) was awake and alert with vital signs of temperature 98°F (37.2°C) orally, pulse 80 beats/min, respirations 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg. At noon, the client is confused and only responsive to tactile stimuli, and vital signs are temperature 99°F (36.7°C) orally, pulse 62 beats/min, respirations 20 breaths/min, and blood pressure 166/72 mm Hg. The nurse should take which action? 1. Reorient the client. 2. Retake the vital signs. 3. Call the health care provider (HCP). 4. Administer an antihypertensive PRN (as needed).

3. Call the health care provider (HCP). Rationale: The important nursing action is to call the HCP. The deterioration in neurological status, decreasing pulse, and increasing blood pressure with a widening pulse pressure all indicate that the client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate treatment to prevent further complications and possible death. The nurse should retake the vital signs and reorient the client to surroundings. If the client's blood pressure falls within parameters for PRN antihypertensive medication, the medication also should be administered. However, options 1, 2, and 4 are secondary nursing actions.

24. The nurse in the neurological unit is caring for a client who was in a motor vehicle crash and sustained a blunt head injury. On assessment of the client, the nurse notes the presence of bloody drainage from the nose. Which nursing action is most appropriate? 1. Insert nasal packing. 2. Document the findings. 3. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 4. Monitor the client's blood pressure and check for signs of increased intracranial pressure.

3. Contact the health care provider (HCP). Rationale: Bloody or clear drainage from either the nasal or the auditory canal after head trauma could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak. The appropriate nursing action is to notify the HCP, because this finding requires immediate intervention. The remaining options are inappropriate nursing actions in this situation.

6. The nurse is evaluating the neurological signs of a client in spinal shock following spinal cord injury. Which observation indicates that spinal shock persists? 1. Hyperreflexia 2. Positive reflexes 3. Flaccid paralysis 4. Reflex emptying of the bladder

3. Flaccid paralysis

40. A client has a difficulty with the ability to flex the hips. The nurse determines that the client is adapting successfully to this problem if the client demonstrates proper use of which item? 1. Walker 2. Slider board 3. Raised toilet seat 4. Adaptive eating utensils

3. Raised toilet seat Rationale: A raised toilet seat is useful if the client does not have the mobility or ability to flex the hips. The cerebellum is responsible for balance and coordination. A walker would provide stability for the client during ambulation. A slider board is used in transferring a client from a bed to a stretcher or wheelchair. Adaptive eating utensils may be beneficial if the client has partial paralysis of the hand.

56. The nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client admitted to the nursing unit with a diagnosis of a thrombotic brain attack (stroke). The nurse would expect to note that which is documented in the assessment data section of the record? 1. Sudden loss of consciousness occurred. 2. Signs and symptoms occurred suddenly. 3. The client experienced paresthesias a few days before admission to the hospital. 4. The client complained of a severe headache, which was followed by sudden onset of paralysis.

3. The client experienced paresthesias a few days before admission to the hospital. Rationale: Cerebral thrombosis does not occur suddenly. In the few hours or days preceding a thrombotic brain attack (stroke), the client may experience a transient loss of speech, hemiplegia, or paresthesias on 1 side of the body. Signs and symptoms of thrombotic brain attack (stroke) vary but may include dizziness, cognitive changes, or seizures. Headache is rare, but some clients with stroke (brain attack) experience signs and symptoms similar to those of cerebral embolism or intracranial hemorrhage.

171. A client is newly admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of stroke (brain attack) manifested by complete hemiplegia. Which item in the medical history of the client should the nurse be most concerned about? 1. Glaucoma 2. Emphysema 3. Hypertension 4. Diabetes mellitus

Answer: 2. Emphysema Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned about emphysema. The respiratory system is the priority in the acute phase of a stroke. The client with a stroke is vulnerable to respiratory complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia. Because the client has complete hemiplegia (is unable to move) and has emphysema, these risks are very significant. Although the other conditions of glaucoma, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus are important, they are not as significant as emphysema.

43. A client with a neurological problem is experiencing hyperthermia. Which measures would be appropriate for the nurse to use in trying to lower the client's body temperature? Select all that apply. 1. Giving tepid sponge baths 2. Applying a hypothermia blanket 3. Covering the client with blankets 4. Administering acetaminophen per protocol 5. Placing ice packs over the client's abdomen and in the axilla and groin

Answers: 1. Giving tepid sponge baths 2. Applying a hypothermia blanket 4. Administering acetaminophen per protocol

179. The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted for a stroke (brain attack) of the temporal lobe. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to note in the client? 1. The client will be unable to recall past events. 2. The client will have difficulty understanding language. 3. The client will demonstrate difficulty articulating words. 4. The client will have difficulty moving 1 side of the body.

Answer: 2. The client will have difficulty understanding language. Rationale: Wernicke's area consists of a small group of cells in the temporal lobe, the function of which is the understanding of language. {Receptive aphasia} The hippocampus is responsible for the storage of memory (the client will be unable to recall past events). Damage to Broca's area is responsible for aphasia (the client will demonstrate difficulty articulating words). {Expressive aphasia}. The motor cortex in the precentral gyrus controls voluntary motor activity (the client will have difficulty moving one side of the body).

74. The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client started on acetazolamide for a supratentorial lesion. Which information about the primary action of the medication should be included in the client's education? 1. It will prevent hypertension. 2. It will prevent hyperthermia. 3. It decreases cerebrospinal fluid production. 4. It maintains adequate blood pressure for cerebral perfusion.

Answer: 3. It decreases cerebrospinal fluid production. Rationale: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and a diuretic. It is used in the client with or at risk for increased intracranial pressure to decrease cerebrospinal fluid production. The remaining options are not actions of this medication.

169. The client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T4 is experiencing a severe throbbing headache with a blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg. What is the priority nursing intervention? 1. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 2. Loosen tight clothing on the client. 3. Place the client in a sitting position. 4. Check the urinary catheter tubing for kinks or obstruction.

Answer: 3. Place the client in a sitting position. Rationale: The client is demonstrating clinical manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is a neurological emergency. The first priority is to place the client in a sitting position to prevent hypertensive stroke. Loosening tight clothing and checking the urinary catheter can then be done, and the HCP can be notified once initial interventions are done.

183. The nurse caring for a client following craniotomy who has a supratentorial incision understands that the client should most likely be maintained in which position? 1. Prone position 2. Supine position 3. Semi Fowler's position 4. Dorsal recumbent position

Answer: 3. Semi Fowler's position

166. The client has an impairment of cranial nerve II. Specific to this impairment, what should the nurse plan to do to ensure client safety? 1. Speak loudly to the client. 2. Test the temperature of the shower water. 3. Check the temperature of the food on the dietary tray. 4. Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles.

Answer: 4. Provide a clear path for ambulation without obstacles. Rationale: Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve, which governs vision. The nurse can provide safety for the visually impaired client by clearing the path of obstacles when ambulating. Speaking loudly may help overcome a deficit of cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear). Testing the shower water temperature would be useful if there was an impairment of peripheral nerves. Cranial nerves VII (facial) and IX (glossopharyngeal) control taste from the anterior two thirds and posterior third of the tongue, respectively.

27. The nurse has determined that a client with a neurological disorder also has difficulty breathing. Which activities would be appropriate components of the care plan for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Keep suction equipment at the bedside. 2. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. 3. Keep the client lying in a supine position. 4. Keep the head and neck in good alignment. 5. Administer prescribed respiratory treatments as needed.

Answers: 1. Keep suction equipment at the bedside. 2. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees. 4. Keep the head and neck in good alignment. 5. Administer prescribed respiratory treatments as needed.

123. The nurse is caring for a client with an intracranial aneurysm who has been alert. Which signs and symptoms are an early indication that the level of consciousness (LOC) is deteriorating? Select all that apply. 1. Mild drowsiness 2. Drooping eyelids 3. Ptosis of the left eyelid 4. Slight slurring of speech 5. Less frequent spontaneous speech

Answers: 1. Mild drowsiness 4. Slight slurring of speech 5. Less frequent spontaneous speech Rationale: Early changes in LOC relate to orientation, alertness, and verbal responsiveness. Mild drowsiness, slight slurring of speech, and less frequent spontaneous speech are early signs of decreasing LOC. Ptosis (drooping) of the eyelid is caused by pressure on and dysfunction of cranial nerve III. Once ptosis occurs, it is ongoing; it does not relate to LOC.

161. The nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP) after a stroke. Which activities performed by the nurse will assist with preventing increases in ICP? Select all that apply. 1. Clustering nursing activities 2. Hyper-oxygenating before suctioning 3. Maintaining 20-degree flexion of the knees 4. Maintaining the head and neck in midline position 5.Maintaining the head of the bed (HOB) at 30 degrees elevation

Answers: 2. Hyper-oxygenating before suctioning 4. Maintaining the head and neck in midline position 5.Maintaining the head of the bed (HOB) at 30 degrees elevation

3. Which client would the nurse identify as being most at risk for experiencing a CVA? 1. A 55-year-old African American male. 2. An 84-year-old Japanese female. 3. A 67-year-old Caucasian male. 4. A 39-year-old pregnant female.

1. A 55-year-old African American male.

12. A client diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has undergone a craniotomy for repair of a ruptured aneurysm. Which intervention will the intensive care nurse implement? 1. Administer a stool softener b.i.d. 2. Encourage the client to cough hourly. 3. Monitor neurological status every shift. 4. Maintain the dopamine drip to keep BP at 160/90.

1. Administer a stool softener b.i.d.

7. The client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered for the client on discharge? 1. An oral anticoagulant medication. 2. A beta blocker medication. 3. An anti-hyperuricemic medication. 4. A thrombolytic medication.

1. An oral anticoagulant medication.

52. The nurse in the neurological unit is monitoring a client for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The nurse reviews the assessment findings for the client and notes documentation of the presence of Cushing's reflex. The nurse determines that the presence of this reflex is obtained by assessing which item? 1. Blood pressure 2. Motor response 3. Pupillary response 4. Level of consciousness

1. Blood pressure Rationale: Cushing's reflex is a late sign of increased ICP and consists of a widening pulse pressure (systolic pressure rises faster than diastolic pressure) and bradycardia. The remaining options are unrelated to monitoring for Cushing's reflex.

104. The home health nurse is visiting a client with myasthenia gravis and is discussing methods to minimize the risk of aspiration during meals related to decreased muscle strength. Which suggestions should the nurse give to the client? Select all that apply. 1. Chew food thoroughly. 2. Cut food into very small pieces. 3. Sit straight up in the chair while eating. 4. Lift the head while swallowing liquids. 5. Swallow when the chin is tipped slightly downward to the chest.

1. Chew food thoroughly. 2. Cut food into very small pieces. 3. Sit straight up in the chair while eating. 5. Swallow when the chin is tipped slightly downward to the chest. Rationale: The client avoids swallowing any type of food or drink with the head lifted upward, which could actually cause aspiration by opening the glottis. The client should be advised to sit upright while eating, not to talk with food in the mouth (talking requires opening the glottis), cut food into very small pieces, chew thoroughly, and tip the chin downward to swallow.

73. The nurse is caring for a client after a craniotomy and monitors the client for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which finding, if noted in the client, would indicate an early sign of increased ICP? 1. Confusion 2. Bradycardia 3. Sluggish pupils 4. A widened pulse pressure

1. Confusion Rationale: Early manifestations of increased ICP are subtle and often may be transient, lasting for only a few minutes in some cases. These early clinical manifestations include episodes of confusion, drowsiness, and slight pupillary and breathing changes. Later manifestations include a further decrease in the level of consciousness, a widened pulse pressure, and bradycardia. Cheyne-Stokes respiratory pattern, or a hyperventilation respiratory pattern, and pupillary sluggishness and dilatation appear in the late stages.

160. The nurse has just admitted to the nursing unit a client with a basilar skull fracture who is at risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Pending specific health care provider prescriptions, the nurse should plan to place the client in which positions? Select all that apply. 1. Head midline 2. Neck in neutral position 3. Flat, with head turned to the side 4. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees 5. Head of bed elevated with the neck extended

1. Head midline 2. Neck in neutral position 4. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees

5. A client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should include which measures in the plan of care to minimize the risk of occurrence? Select all that apply. 1. Keeping the linens wrinkle-free under the client 2. Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs 3. Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours 4. Turning and repositioning the client at least every 2 hours 5. Ensuring that the client has a bowel movement at least once a week

1. Keeping the linens wrinkle-free under the client 2. Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs 4. Turning and repositioning the client at least every 2 hours Rationale: The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be done every 4 to 6 hours (catheterization every 12 hours is too infrequent), and urinary catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Ensuring a bowel movement once a week is much too infrequent. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.

64. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with dysphagia following a stroke (brain attack). Which should the nurse include in the plan? Select all that apply. 1. Thicken liquids. 2. Assist the client with eating. 3. Assess for the presence of a swallow reflex. 4. Place the food on the affected side of the mouth. 5. Provide ample time for the client to chew and swallow.

1. Thicken liquids. 2. Assist the client with eating. 3. Assess for the presence of a swallow reflex. 5. Provide ample time for the client to chew and swallow.

164. The client with a cervical spine injury has cervical tongs applied in the emergency department. What should the nurse include when planning care for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Using a RotoRest bed 2. Ensuring that weights hang freely 3. Removing the weights to reposition the client 4. Assessing the integrity of the weights and pulleys 5. Comparing the amount of prescribed traction with the amount in use

1. Using a RotoRest bed 2. Ensuring that weights hang freely 4. Assessing the integrity of the weights and pulleys 5. Comparing the amount of prescribed traction with the amount in use

156. The nurse is assessing the function of cranial nerve XII in a client who sustained a stroke. To assess function of this nerve, which action should the nurse ask the client to perform? 1. Extend the arms. 2. Extend the tongue. 3. Turn the head toward the nurse's arm. 4. Focus the eyes on the object held by the nurse.

2. Extend the tongue.

19. The nurse has completed discharge instructions for a client with application of a halo device. Which statement indicates that the client needs further clarification of the instructions? 1. "I will use a straw for drinking." 2. "I will drive only during the daytime." 3. "I will be careful because the device alters balance." 4. "I will wash the skin daily under the lamb's wool liner of the vest."

2. "I will drive only during the daytime." Rationale: The halo device alters balance and can cause fatigue because of its weight. The client should cleanse the skin daily under the vest to protect the skin from ulceration and should avoid the use of powder or lotions. The liner should be changed if odor becomes a problem. The client should have food cut into small pieces to facilitate chewing and use a straw for drinking. Pin care is done as instructed. The client cannot drive at all because the device impairs the range of vision.

60. The nurse assesses a client who is diagnosed with a stroke (brain attack). On assessment, the client is unable to understand the nurse's commands. Which condition should the nurse document? 1. Occipital lobe impairment 2. Damage to the auditory association areas 3. Frontal lobe and optic nerve tracts damage 4. Difficulty with concept formation and abstraction areas

2. Damage to the auditory association areas Auditory association and storage areas are located in the temporal lobe and relate to understanding spoken language. {Wernicke's Aphasia (receptive- temporoparietal damage)} The occipital lobe contains areas related to vision. The frontal lobe controls voluntary muscle activity, including speech, and an impairment can result in expressive aphasia. The parietal lobe contains association areas for concept formation, abstraction, spatial orientation, body and object size and shape, and tactile sensation.

117. A client with a traumatic brain injury is on mechanical ventilation. The nurse promotes normal intracranial pressure (ICP) by ensuring that the client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are within which ranges? 1. PaO2 60 to 100 mm Hg (60 to 100 mm Hg), PaCo2 25 to 30 mm Hg (25 to 30 mm Hg) 2. PaO2 60 to 100 mm Hg (60 to 100 mm Hg), PaCo2 30 to 35 mm Hg (30 to 35 mm Hg) 3. PaO2 80 to 100 mm Hg (80 to 100 mm Hg), PaCo2 25 to 30 mm Hg (25 to 30 mm Hg) 4. PaO2 80 to 100 mm Hg (80 to 100 mm Hg), PaCo2 35 to 38 mm Hg (35 to 38 mm Hg)

4. PaO2 80 to 100 mm Hg (80 to 100 mm Hg), PaCo2 35 to 38 mm Hg (35 to 38 mm Hg) The goal is to maintain the partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCo2) at 35 to 38 mm Hg (35 to 38 mm Hg). Carbon dioxide is a very potent vasodilator that can contribute to increases in ICP. The PaO2 is not allowed to fall below 80 mm Hg (80 mm Hg), to prevent cerebral vasodilation from hypoxemia, which can also result in an increase in ICP. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

82. The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with a diagnosis of stroke (brain attack). On reviewing the client's record, the nurse notes an assessment finding of anosognosia. The nursing care plan should address which manifestation related to this finding? 1. The client will be easily fatigued. 2. The client will have difficulty speaking. 3. The client will have difficulty swallowing. 4. The client will exhibit neglect of the affected side.

4. The client will exhibit neglect of the affected side. In anosognosia, the client neglects the affected side of the body. The client either may ignore the presence of the affected side (often creating a safety hazard as a result of potential injuries) or may state that the involved arm or leg belongs to someone else. The remaining options are not associated with anosognosia.