Exam 2 QUIZLETS: Ch 30, 32, 33, 36, 37, 48, 49, 57, & 58

A client is receiving rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and asks the nurse to explain how it works. What response by the nurse is best? a."It inhibits thrombin." b."It inhibits fibrinogen." c."It thins your blood." d."It works against vitamin K."

A

A nurse is assessing a dark-skinned client for pallor. What nursing assessment is best to assess for pallor in this client? A. Assess the conjunctiva of the eye. B. Have the patient open the hand widely C. Look at the roof of the patient's mouth D. Palpate for areas of mild swelling.

A To assess pallor in dark-skinned people, assess the conjunctiva of the eye or the mucous membranes. Looking at the roof of the mouth can reveal jaundice. Opening the hand widely is not related to pallor, nor is palpating for mild swelling.

An emergency nurse cares for a client who is experiencing an acute adrenal crisis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Obtain intravenous access. b. Administer hydrocortisone succinate (Solu-Cortef). c. Assess blood glucose. d. Administer insulin and dextrose.

A (All actions are appropriate for the client with adrenal crisis. However, therapy is given intravenously, so the priority is to establish IV access. Solu-Cortef is the drug of choice. Blood glucose is monitored hourly and treatment is provided as needed. Insulin and dextrose are used to treat any hyperkalemia.)

A nurse cares for a client with chronic hypercortisolism. Which action should the nurse take? a. Wash hands when entering the room. b. Keep the client in airborne isolation. c. Observe the client for signs of infection. d. Assess the clients daily chest x-ray.

A (Excess cortisol reduces the number of circulating lymphocytes, inhibits maturation of macrophages, reduces antibody synthesis, and inhibits production of cytokines and inflammatory chemicals. As a result, these clients are at greater risk of infection and may not have the expected inflammatory manifestations when an infection is present. The nurse needs to take precautions to decrease the clients risk. It is not necessary to keep the client in isolation. The client does not need a daily chest x-ray.)

The nurse is assessing a client with chronic leukemia. Which laboratory test result(s) is(are) expected for this client? (SATA) a. Decreased hematocrit b. Abnormal white blood cell count c. Low platelet count d. Decreased hemoglobin e. Increased albumin

A, B, C, D Chronic leukemia affects all types of blood cells causing a decrease in red blood cells (RBCs) and platelets. When the number of RBC's decreases, the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit also decrease. White blood cell counts are also abnormal depending on disease progression and management.

The nurse is caring for a client being treated for Hodgkin lymphoma. For which side effect(s) of treatment will the nurse assess? (SATA) a. Severe nausea and vomiting b. Low platelet count c. Skin irritation at radiation site d. Low red blood cell count e. High white blood cell count

A, B, C, D Drug and radiation therapy for Hodgkin lymphoma cause many side and adverse effects, including all of the choices except for a high white blood cell (WBC) count. Instead, most clients experience a low WBC count making them very susceptible to infections.

Which assessment finding(s) may indicate that a client may be experiencing a blood transfusion reaction? (SATA) a. Tachycardia b. Fever c. Bronchospasm d. Tachypnea e. Urticaria f. Hypotension

A, B, C, D, E, F (all of the above) Several types of blood transfusion reactions can occur and cause all of the findings listed.

The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action(s) by the nurse is(are) MOST APPROPRIATE? (SATA) a. Hang the blood product using normal saline and a filtered tubing set b. Take a full set of vital signs prior to starting the blood transfusion c. Tell the client that someone will remain at the bedside for the first 5 minutes d. Use gloves to start the client's IV if needed and to handle the blood product e. Verify the client's identity, and check blood compatibility and expiration time

A, B, D Correct actions prior to beginning a blood transfusion include hanging the product with saline and the correct filtered tubing, taking a full set of vital signs prior to starting, and using gloves. Someone stays with the client for the first 15 to 20 minutes of the transfusion. Two registered nurses must verify the client's identity and blood compatibility.

A nurse is caring for an older adult receiving multiple packed red blood cell transfusions. Which assessment finding(s) indicate(s) possible transfusion circulatory overload? (SATA) a. Acute confusion b. Dyspnea c. Depression d. Hypertension e. Bradycardia f. Bounding pulse

A, B, D, F Circulatory overload is the result of excessive body fluid which can cause signs and symptoms of heart failure including dyspnea, increased blood pressure, tachycardia (not bradycardia), and a bounding pulse. Dyspnea is caused by hypoxia which in older adults can cause acute confusion. Depression is not a common finding resulting from fluid overload.

A nurse is preparing to administer a packed red blood cell transfusion to an older adult. Understanding age-related changes, what alteration(s) in the usual protocol is(are) necessary for the nurse to implement? (SATA) a. Assess vital signs at least every 15 minutes b. Avoid giving other IV fluids c. Pre-medicate to prevent transfusion reaction d. Transfuse smaller bags of blood e. Transfuse each unit over 8 hours f. Assess the client for fluid overload

A, B, F The older adult needs vital signs monitored as often as every 15 minutes for the duration of the transfusion because vital sign changes may be the only indication of a transfusion-related problem. To prevent fluid overload, the nurse obtains a prescription to hold other running IV fluids during the transfusion and assesses the client frequently for signs and symptoms of overload. The other options are not correct.

A nurse working with clients diagnosed with sickle cell disease (SCD) teaches about self-management to prevent exacerbations and sickle cell crisis. What factor(s) should clients be taught to avoid? (SATA) a. Dehydration b. Exercise c. Extreme stress d. High altitudes e. Pregnancy

A, C, D, E Several factors can cause red blood cells to sickle in SCD, including dehydration, extreme stress, high altitudes, and pregnancy. Strenuous exercise can also cause sickling, but not unless it is very vigorous.

A nurse assesses clients with potential endocrine disorders. Which clients are at high risk for hypopituitarism? (Select all that apply.) a. A 20-year-old female with benign pituitary tumors b. A 32-year-old male with diplopia c. A 41-year-old female with anorexia nervosa d. A 55-year-old male with hypertension e. A 60-year-old female who is experiencing shock f. A 68-year-old male who has gained weight recently

A, C, D, E (Pituitary tumors, anorexia nervosa, hypertension, and shock are all conditions that can cause hypopituitarism. Diplopia is a manifestation of hypopituitarism, and weight gain is a manifestation of Cushings disease and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. They are not risk factors for hypopituitarism.)

A nurse assesses a client with anterior pituitary hyperfunction. Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Protrusion of the lower jaw b. High-pitched voice c. Enlarged hands and feet d. Kyphosis e. Barrel-shaped chest f. Excessive sweating

A, C, D, E, F (Anterior pituitary hyperfunction typically will cause protrusion of the lower jaw, deepening of the voice, enlarged hands and feet, kyphosis, barrel-shaped chest, and excessive sweating.)

A nurse assesses a client who potentially has hyperaldosteronism. Which serum laboratory values should the nurse associate with this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Sodium: 150 mEq/L b. Sodium: 130 mEq/L c. Potassium: 2.5 mEq/L d. Potassium: 5.0 mEq/L e. pH: 7.28 f. pH: 7.50

A, C, F (Aldosterone increases reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium. Hyperaldosteronism causes hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and acidosis are manifestations of adrenal insufficiency.)

A client in sickle cell crisis is dehydrated and in the emergency department. The nurse plans to start an IV. Which fluid choice is best? a. 0.45% normal saline b. 0.9% normal saline c. Dextrose 50% (D50) d. Lactated Ringer's solution

A. 0.45% normal saline Because clients in sickle cell crisis are often dehydrated, the fluid of choice is a hypotonic solution such as 0.45% normal saline. 0.9% NS and LR's solution are isotonic. D50 is hypertonic and not used for hydration.

A client has been admitted after sustaining a humerus fracture that occurred when picking up the family cat. What test result would the nurse correlate to this condition? a. Bence-Jones protein in urine b. Epstein-Barr virus: positive c. Hemoglobin: 18 mg/dL d. Red blood cell count: 8.2 million/mcL

A. Bence-Jones protein in urine This client has possible multiple myeloma. A positive Bence-Jones protein finding would correlate with this condition. The Epstein-Barr virus is a herpesvirus that causes infectious mononucleosis and some cancers. A hemoglobin of 18 mg/dL is slightly high for a male and somewhat high for a female; this can be cause by several conditions, and further information would be needed to correlate this value with a specific medical condition. A red blood cell count of 8.2 million/mcL is also high, but again, more information would be needed to correlate this finding with a specific medical condition.

While assessing a client with Graves disease, the nurse notes that the client's temperature has risen 1° F (1° C). What does the nurse do first? a. Turn the lights down and shut the patient's door. b. Call for an immediate electrocardiogram (ECG). c. Calculate the client's apical-radial pulse deficit. d. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.

ANS: A A temperature increase of 1° F (5/9° C) may indicate the development of thyroid storm, and the primary health care provider or RRT needs to be notified.But before notifying the provider, the nurse should first take measures to reduce environmental stimuli that increase the risk of cardiac complications.The nurse can then call for an ECG.The apical-radial pulse deficit would not be necessary, and acetaminophen is not needed because the temperature increase is due to thyroid activity.

A nurse is teaching a client with heart failure who has been prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Avoid using salt substitutes." b. "Take your medication with food." c. "Avoid using aspirin-containing products." d. "Check your pulse daily."

ANS: A Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as enalapril inhibit the excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia can be a life-threatening side effect, and clients should be taught to limit potassium intake. Salt substitutes are composed of potassium chloride. ACE inhibitors do not need to be taken with food and have no impact on the client's pulse rate. Aspirin is often prescribed in conjunction with ACE inhibitors and is not contraindicated.

A client has peripheral arterial disease (PAD). What statement by the client indicates misunderstanding about self-management activities? a. I can use a heating pad on my legs if its set on low. b. I should not cross my legs when sitting or lying down. c. I will go out and buy some warm, heavy socks to wear. d. Its going to be really hard but I will stop smoking.

ANS: A Clients with PAD should never use heating pads as skin sensitivity is diminished and burns can result. The other statements show good understanding of self-management.

A nurse cares for a client with infective endocarditis. Which infection control precautions should the nurse use? a. Standard Precautions b. Bleeding precautions c. Reverse isolation d. Contact isolation

ANS: A The client with infective endocarditis does not pose any specific threat of transmitting the causative organism. Standard Precautions should be used. Bleeding precautions or reverse or contact isolation is not necessary.

A client with a history of heart failure and hypertension is in the clinic for a follow-up visit. The client is on lisinopril (Prinivil) and warfarin (Coumadin). The client reports new-onset cough. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess the clients lung sounds and oxygenation. b. Instruct the client on another antihypertensive. c. Obtain a set of vital signs and document them. d. Remind the client that cough is a side effect of Prinivil.

ANS: A This client could be having an exacerbation of heart failure or be experiencing a side effect of lisinopril (and other angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors). The nurse should assess the clients lung sounds and other signs of oxygenation first. The client may or may not need to switch antihypertensive medications. Vital signs and documentation are important, but the nurse should assess the respiratory system first. If the cough turns out to be a side effect, reminding the client is appropriate, but then more action needs to be taken.

The nurse is caring for a client who has possible hypothyroidism. What possible risk factors can cause this health problem? (Select all that apply.) a. Lithium drug therapy b. Thyroid cancer c. Autoimmune thyroid disease d. Iodine deficiency e. Laryngitis f. Pituitary tumors

ANS: A, B, C, D, F All of these factors place a client at risk for hypothyroidism except for laryngitis which is an inflammation of the larynx.

A client had an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). The nurse teachesthe client and family about the signs of potential complications which include what problems?(Select all that apply.) a. Cholangitis b. Pancreatitis c. Perforation d. Renal lithiasis e. Sepsis

ANS: A, B, C, E Possible complications after an ERCP include cholangitis, pancreatitis, perforation, sepsis, and bleeding. Kidney stones are not a complication of ERCP.

A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which clients should the nurse identify as at greatest risk for the development of acute pericarditis? (Select all that apply.) a. A 36-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) b. A 42-year-old man recovering from coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 59-year-old woman recovering from a hysterectomy d. An 80-year-old man with a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract e. An 88-year-old woman with a stage III sacral ulcer

ANS: A, B, D Acute pericarditis is most commonly associated acute exacerbations of systemic connective tissue disease, including SLE; with Dressler's syndrome, or inflammation of the cardiac sac after cardiac surgery or a myocardial infarction; and with infective organisms, including bacterial, viral, and fungal infections. Abdominal and reproductive surgeries and pressure ulcers do not increase clients' risk for acute pericarditis.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Based on the Heart Failure Core Measure Set, which actions should the nurse complete prior to discharging this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Teach the client about dietary restrictions. b. Ensure the client is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. c. Encourage the client to take a baby aspirin each day. d. Confirm that an echocardiogram has been completed. e. Consult a social worker for additional resources.

ANS: A, B, D The Heart Failure Core Measure Set includes discharge instructions on diet, activity, medications, weight monitoring and plan for worsening symptoms, evaluation of left ventricular systolic function (usually with an echocardiogram), and prescribing an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Aspirin is not part of the Heart Failure Core Measure Set and is usually prescribed for clients who experience a myocardial infarction. Although the nurse may consult the social worker or case manager for additional resources, this is not part of the Core Measures.

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Which questions should the nurse ask to ensure this client's safety prior to discharging home? (Select all that apply.) a. "Are your bedroom and bathroom on the first floor?" b. "What social support do you have at home?" c. "Will you be able to afford your oxygen therapy?" d. "What spiritual beliefs may impact your recovery?" e. "Are you able to accurately weigh yourself at home?"

ANS: A, B, D To ensure safety upon discharge, the nurse should assess for structural barriers to functional ability, such as stairs. The nurse should also assess the client's available social support, which may include family, friends, and home health services. The client's ability to adhere to medication and treatments, including daily weights, should also be reviewed. The other questions do not address the client's safety upon discharge.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a colonoscopy. Which actions would thenurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Obtain vital signs every 15 to 30 minutes until alert. b. Assess the client for rectal bleeding and severe pain. c. Administer prescribed pain medications as needed. d. Monitor the client's serum and urine glucose levels. e. Confirm the client has a ride home and plans to rest.

ANS: A, B, E During the recovery phase after a colonoscopy, the nurse would obtain vital signs every 15 to 30 minutes until the client is alert, assess for rectal bleeding or severe pain, and confirm the client has arranged for another person to drive home to get rest. Pain medications are not necessary after the procedure, and neither is glucose monitoring.

A student nurse learns that the spleen has several functions. What functions do they include? (Select all that apply.) a.Breaks down hemoglobin b.Destroys old or defective red blood cells (RBCs) c.Forms vitamin K for clotting d.Stores extra iron in ferritin e.Stores platelets not circulating

ANS: A, B, E Functions of the spleen include breaking down hemoglobin released from RBCs, destroying old or defective RBCs, and storing the platelets that are not in circulation. Forming vitamin K for clotting and storing extra iron in ferritin are functions of the liver.

A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Pulmonary crackles b. Confusion, restlessness c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Dependent edema e. Cough that worsens at night

ANS: A, B, E Left-sided heart failure occurs with a decrease in contractility of the heart or an increase in afterload. Most of the signs will be noted in the respiratory system. Right-sided heart failure occurs with problems from the pulmonary vasculature onward including pulmonary hypertension. Signs will be noted before the right atrium or ventricle including dependent edema.

A nurse evaluates laboratory results for a client with heart failure. Which results should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Hematocrit: 32.8% b. Serum sodium: 130 mEq/L c. Serum potassium: 4.0 mEq/L d. Serum creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL e. Proteinuria f. Microalbuminuria

ANS: A, B, E, F A hematocrit of 32.8% is low (should be 42.6%), indicating a dilution ratio of red blood cells to fluid. A serum sodium of 130 mEq/L is low because of hemodilution. Microalbuminuria and proteinuria are present, indicating a decrease in renal filtration. These are early warning signs of decreased compliance of the heart. The potassium level is on the high side of normal and the serum creatinine level is normal.

An older client asks the nurse why "people my age" have weaker immune systems than younger people. What responses by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a."Bone marrow produces fewer blood cells." b."You may have decreased levels of circulating platelets." c."You have lower levels of plasma proteins in the blood." d."Lymphocytes become more reactive to antigens." e."Spleen function declines after age 60."

ANS: A, C The aging adult has bone marrow that produces fewer cells and decreased blood volume with fewer plasma proteins. Platelet numbers remain unchanged, lymphocytes become less reactive, and spleen function stays the same.

A nurse teaches a client with hyperthyroidism. Which dietary modifications should the nurse include in this client's health teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Increased carbohydrates b. Decreased fats c. Increased calorie intake d. Supplemental vitamins e. Increased proteins

ANS: A, C, E The client is hypermetabolic and has an increased need for carbohydrates, calories, and proteins.Proteins are especially important because the client is at risk for a negative nitrogen balance.There is no need to decrease fat intake or take supplemental vitamins.

After teaching a client with congestive heart failure (CHF), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to nutritional intake? (Select all that apply.) a. "I'll read the nutritional labels on food items for salt content." b. "I will drink at least 3 liters of water each day." c. "Using salt in moderation will reduce the workload of my heart." d. "I will eat oatmeal for breakfast instead of ham and eggs." e. "Substituting fresh vegetables for canned ones will lower my salt intake."

ANS: A, D, E Nutritional therapy for a client with CHF is focused on decreasing sodium and water retention to decrease the workload of the heart. The client should be taught to read nutritional labels on all food items, omit table salt and foods high in sodium (e.g., ham and canned foods), and limit water intake to a normal 2 L/day.

A nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal insufficiency who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. What actions would the nurse take prior to the catheterization? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for allergies to iodine. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results. d. Insert a Foley catheter. e. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic. f. Insert a central venous catheter.

ANS: A,B,C If the client has kidney disease, fluids may be given 12 to 24 hours before the procedure for renal protection. Hydration would continue after the procedure. The client would be assessed for allergies to iodine, including shellfish; the contrast medium used during the catheterization contains iodine. Baseline renal labs would be assessed. A Foley catheter and central venous catheter are not required for the procedure and would only increase the client's risk for infection. Prophylactic antibiotics are not administered prior to a cardiac catheterization.

nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which findings would alert the nurse to the possibility of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L) b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 50 mg/dL (1.3 mmol/L) c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L) d. Serum albumin: 4 g/dL (5.8 mcmol/L) e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL (4.1 mmol/L)*

ANS: A,C,E A lipid panel is often used to screen for cardiovascular risk. Total cholesterol, triglycerides, and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels are all high, indicating higher risk for cardiovascular disease. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol is within the normal range for both males and females. Serum albumin is not assessed for atherosclerosis.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a right-sided heart catheterization. For which complications of this procedure would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Thrombophlebitis b. Stroke c. Pulmonary embolism d. Myocardial infarction e. Cardiac tamponade f. Dysrhythmias

ANS: A,C,E Complications from a right-sided heart catheterization include thrombophlebitis, pulmonary embolism, and vagal response. Cardiac tamponade is a risk of both right- and left-sided heart catheterizations. Stroke, myocardial infarction, and dysrhythmias are complications of left-sided heart catheterizations.

A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What nursing assessment indicates a priority outcome has been met? a. Ambulates with assistance b. Oxygen saturation of 98% c. Pain of 2/10 after medication d. Verbalizing risk factors

ANS: B A critical complication of DVT is pulmonary embolism. A normal oxygen saturation indicates that this has not occurred. The other assessments are also positive, but not the priority.

After administering newly prescribed captopril (Capoten) to a client with heart failure, the nurse implements interventions to decrease complications. Which priority intervention should the nurse implement for this client? a. Provide food to decrease nausea and aid in absorption. b. Instruct the client to ask for assistance when rising from bed. c. Collaborate with unlicensed assistive personnel to bathe the client. d. Monitor potassium levels and check for symptoms of hypokalemia.

ANS: B Administration of the first dose of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors is often associated with hypotension, usually termed first-dose effect. The nurse should instruct the client to seek assistance before arising from bed to prevent injury from postural hypotension. ACE inhibitors do not need to be taken with food. Collaboration with unlicensed assistive personnel to provide hygiene is not a priority. The client should be encouraged to complete activities of daily living as independently as possible. The nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, especially if the client has renal insufficiency secondary to heart failure.

nurse is caring for four clients. Which one should the nurse see first? a. Client who needs a beta blocker, and has a blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg b. Client who had a first dose of captopril (Capoten) and needs to use the bathroom c. Hypertensive client with a blood pressure of 188/92 mm Hg d. Client who needs pain medication prior to a dressing change of a surgical wound

ANS: B Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors such as captopril can cause hypotension, especially after the first dose. The nurse should see this client first to prevent falling if the client decides to get up without assistance. The two blood pressure readings are abnormal but not critical. The nurse should check on the client with higher blood pressure next to assess for problems related to the reading. The nurse can administer the beta blocker as standards state to hold it if the systolic blood pressure is below 90 mm Hg. The client who needs pain medication prior to the dressing change is not a priority over client safety and assisting the other client to the bathroom.

A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of 42 who is at high risk for coronary artery disease. Which statement related to nutrition would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "The best way to lose weight is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet." b. "You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients." c. "A nutritionist will provide you with information about your new diet." d. "If you exercise more frequently, you won't need to change your diet."

ANS: B Clients at risk for cardiovascular diseases should follow the American Heart Association guidelines to combat obesity and improve cardiac health. The nurse would encourage the client to eat vegetables, fruits, unrefined whole-grain products, and fat-free dairy products while losing weight. High-protein food items are often high in fat and calories. Although the nutritionist can assist with client education, the nurse would include nutrition education and assist the client to make healthy decisions. Exercising and eating nutrient-rich foods are both important components in reducing cardiovascular risk.

A client is receiving an infusion of alteplase (Activase) for an intra-arterial clot. The client begins to mumble and is disoriented. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the clients neurologic status. b. Notify the Rapid Response Team. c. Prepare to administer vitamin K. d. Turn down the infusion rate.

ANS: B Clients on fibrinolytic therapy are at high risk of bleeding. The sudden onset of neurologic signs may indicate the client is having a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse does need to complete a thorough neurological examination, but should first call the Rapid Response Team based on the clients manifestations. The nurse notifies the Rapid Response Team first. Vitamin K is not the antidote for this drug. Turning down the infusion rate will not be helpful if the client is still receiving any of the drug.

After teaching a client who is being discharged home after mitral valve replacement surgery, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I'll be able to carry heavy loads after 6 months of rest." b. "I will have my teeth cleaned by my dentist in 2 weeks." c. "I must avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach." d. "I must use an electric razor instead of a straight razor to shave."

ANS: B Clients who have defective or repaired valves are at high risk for endocarditis. The client who has had valve surgery should avoid dental procedures for 6 months because of the risk for endocarditis. When undergoing a mitral valve replacement surgery, the client needs to be placed on anticoagulant therapy to prevent vegetation forming on the new valve. Clients on anticoagulant therapy should be instructed on bleeding precautions, including using an electric razor. If the client is prescribed warfarin, the client should avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients recovering from open heart valve replacements should not carry anything heavy for 6 months while the chest incision and muscle heal.

A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question should the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure? a. "Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?" b. "Are you able to walk upstairs without fatigue?" c. "Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?" d. "Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?"

ANS: B Clients with a history of heart failure generally have negative findings, such as shortness of breath. The nurse needs to determine whether the client's activity is the same or worse, or whether the client identifies a decrease in activity level. Trouble breathing, chest pain, breathlessness at night, and peripheral edema are symptoms of heart failure, but do not provide data that can determine the extent of the client's heart failure.

The nurse is caring for a client who is starting on propylthiouracil for hyperthyroidism. What statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will let my provider know if I have weight gain and cold intolerance." b. "I will let my provider know if I have a metallic taste or stomach upset." c. "I will avoid crowds and other people who have infection." d. "I am aware that if the drug changes the color of my urine, I should stop it."

ANS: B If the client's urine turns dark and/or the skin has a yellow appearance, the client may have possible liver toxicity from the drug.This is a serious adverse effect and needs to be reported to the primary health care provider after stopping the drug.If weight gain and cold intolerance occurs, then the client may need a lower dose of the drug.The drug should not cause GI distress or a metallic taste in his or her mouth.

The nurse knows that a client with prolonged prothrombin time (PT) values (not related tomedication) probably has dysfunction in which organ? a. Kidneys b. Liver c. Spleen d. Stomach

ANS: B Severe acute or chronic liver damage leads to a prolonged PT secondary to impaired synthesisof clotting proteins. The other organs are not related to this issue.

A nurse cares for a client who has an 80% blockage of the right coronary artery (RCA) and is scheduled for bypass surgery. Which intervention would the nurse be prepared to implement while this client waits for surgery? a. Administration of IV furosemide b. Initiation of an external pacemaker c. Assistance with endotracheal intubation d. Placement of central venous access

ANS: B The RCA supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, inferior portion of the left ventricle, and atrioventricular (AV) node. It also supplies the sinoatrial node in 50% of people. If the client totally occludes the RCA, the AV node would not function and the client would go into heart block, so emergency pacing would be available for the client. Furosemide, intubation, and central venous access will not address the primary complication of RCA occlusion, which is AV node (and possibly SA node) malfunction.

A client has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What comfort measure does the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Ambulate the client. b. Apply a warm moist pack. c. Massage the clients leg. d. Provide an ice pack.

ANS: B Warm moist packs will help with the pain of a DVT. Ambulation is not a comfort measure. Massaging the clients legs is contraindicated to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. Ice packs are not recommended for DVT.

What nonpharmacologic comfort measures should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client with severe varicose veins? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering mild analgesics for pain b. Applying elastic compression stockings c. Elevating the legs when sitting or lying d. Reminding the client to do leg exercises e. Teaching the client about surgical options

ANS: B, C, D The three Es of care for varicose veins include elastic compression hose, exercise, and elevation. Mild analgesics are not a nonpharmacologic measure. Teaching about surgical options is not a comfort measure.

A nursing student learns that many drugs can impair the immune system. Which drugs does this include? (Select all that apply.) a.Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b.Amphotericin B (Fungizone) c.Ibuprofen (Motrin) d.Metformin (Glucophage) e.Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid)

ANS: B, C, E Amphotericin B, ibuprofen, and nitrofurantoin all can disrupt the hematologic (immune) system. Acetaminophen and metformin do not.

A nurse assesses a client who is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Night sweats c. Cardiac murmur d. Abdominal bloating e. Osler's nodes

ANS: B, C, E Clinical manifestations of infective endocarditis include fever with chills, night sweats, malaise and fatigue, anorexia and weight loss, cardiac murmur, and Osler's nodes on palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Abdominal bloating is a manifestation of heart transplantation rejection.

A nurse works in a gerontology clinic. What age-related changes cause the nurse to alter standard assessment techniques from those used for younger adults? (Select all that apply.) a.Dentition deteriorates with more cavities. b.Nail beds may be thickened or discolored. c.Progressive loss of hair occurs with age. d.Sclerae begin to turn yellow or pale. e.Skin becomes dry as the client ages.

ANS: B, C, E Common findings in older adults include thickened or discolored nail beds, dry skin, and thinning hair. The nurse adapts to these changes by altering assessment techniques. Having more dental caries and changes in the sclerae are not normal age-related changes.

A client with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm reports dizziness and severe abdominal pain. The nurse assesses the clients blood pressure at 82/40 mm Hg. What actions by the nurse are most important? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medication. b. Assess distal pulses every 10 minutes. c. Have the client sign a surgical consent. d. Notify the Rapid Response Team. e. Take vital signs every 10 minutes.

ANS: B, D, E This client may have a ruptured/rupturing aneurysm. The nurse should notify the Rapid Response team and perform frequent client assessments. Giving pain medication will lower the clients blood pressure even further. The nurse cannot have the client sign a consent until the physician has explained the procedure.

An emergency department nurse assesses a female client. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to request a prescription for an electrocardiogram? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Fatigue despite adequate rest c. Indigestion d. Abdominal pain e. Shortness of breath

ANS: B,C,E Women may not have chest pain with myocardial infarction, but may feel discomfort or indigestion. They often present with a triad of symptoms—indigestion or feeling of abdominal fullness, feeling of chronic fatigue despite adequate rest, and feeling unable to catch their breath. Frequently, women are not diagnosed and therefore are not treated adequately. Hypertension and abdominal pain are not associated with acute coronary syndrome.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a coronary catheterization. Which assessment findings in the first few hours after the procedure require immediate action by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L) c. Warmth and redness at the site d. Expanding groin hematoma e. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor f. Oxygen saturation 93% on room air

ANS: B,D,E After a cardiac catheterization, the nurse monitors vital signs, entry site, cardiac function, and distal circulation. The potassium is very low which can lead to dysrhythmias. An expanding hematoma signifies bleeding. Rhythm changes on the monitor are a known complication. These findings would require prompt action. The client's blood pressure is slightly elevated but does not need immediate action. Warmth and redness at the site would indicate an infection, but this would not be present in the first few hours. The oxygen saturation is slightly low but not critical and there is no baseline to compare it to.

A nurse prepares a client for a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram. What actions would the nurse take when preparing this client for the procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the primary health care provider to place a central venous access device. b. Prepare for continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. c. Administer the client's prescribed beta blocker. d. Give the client nothing by mouth 3 to 6 hours before the procedure. e. Explain to the client that dobutamine will simulate exercise for this examination.

ANS: B,D,E Clients receiving a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram will need peripheral venous access and continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. The client must be NPO 3 to 6 hours prior to the procedure. Education about dobutamine, which will be administered during the procedure, would be performed. Beta blockers are often held prior to the procedure as they lower the heart rate and may result in inaccurate results.

After teaching a client who is recovering from a heart transplant to change positions slowly, the client asks, "Why is this important?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Rapid position changes can create shear and friction forces, which can tear out your internal vascular sutures." b. "Your new vascular connections are more sensitive to position changes, leading to increased intravascular pressure and dizziness." c. "Your new heart is not connected to the nervous system and is unable to respond to decreases in blood pressure caused by position changes." d. "While your heart is recovering, blood flow is diverted away from the brain, increasing the risk for stroke when you stand up."

ANS: C Because the new heart is denervated, the baroreceptor and other mechanisms that compensate for blood pressure drops caused by position changes do not function. This allows orthostatic hypotension to persist in the postoperative period. The other options are false statements and do not correctly address the client's question.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client states, "I will need to stop eating so much chili to keep that indigestion pain from returning." What is the nurse's best response? a. "Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it." b. "The primary health care provider has prescribed an antacid every morning." c. "What do you understand about what happened to you?" d. "When did you start experiencing this indigestion?"

ANS: C Clients who experience myocardial infarction often respond with denial, which is a defense mechanism. The nurse would ask the client what he or she thinks happened, or what the illness means to him or her. The other responses do not address the client's misconception about recent pain and the cause of that pain.

A nurse is assessing an obese client in the clinic for follow-up after an episode of deep vein thrombosis. The client has lost 20 pounds since the last visit. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the weight loss was intended. b. Encourage a high-protein, high-fiber diet. c. Measure for new compression stockings. d. Review a 3-day food recall diary.

ANS: C Compression stockings must fit correctly in order to work. After losing a significant amount of weight, the client should be re-measured and new stockings ordered if needed. The other options are appropriate, but not the most important.

A client is having an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and has been given midazolamhydrochloride. The client's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min. What action by the nurse isappropriate? a. Administer naloxone. b. Call the Rapid Response Team. c. Provide physical stimulation. d. Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask.

ANS: C For an EGD, clients are given mild sedation but would still be able to follow commands. For shallow or slow respirations after the sedation is given, the nurse's most appropriate action isto provide a physical stimulation such as a sternal rub and directions to breathe deeply. Naloxone is not the antidote for midazolam HCl. The Rapid Response Team is not needed a tthis point. The client does not need manual ventilation.

A nurse plans care for a client with hypothyroidism. Which priority problem does the nurse address first for this client? a. Heat intolerance b. Body image problems c. Depression and withdrawal d. Obesity and water retention

ANS: C Hypothyroidism causes many problems in psychosocial functioning.Depression is the most common reason for seeking medical attention.Memory and attention span may be impaired.The client's family may have great difficulty accepting and dealing with these changes.The client is often unmotivated to participate in self-care.Lapses in memory and attention require the nurse to ensure that the patient's environment is safe.Heat intolerance is seen in hyperthyroidism.Body image problems and weight issues do not take priority over mental status and safety.

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a subtotal thyroidectomy. On the first postoperative day before discharge, the client states, "I feel numbness and tingling around my mouth." What action does the nurse take? a. Offer mouth care. b. Loosen the dressing. c. Assess for muscle twitching. d. Ask the client orientation questions.

ANS: C Numbness and tingling around the mouth or in the fingers and toes are manifestations of hypocalcemia, which could progress to cause tetany and seizure activity. The nurse would assess for muscle twitching and, if present, notify the surgeon or Rapid Response Team to give calcium gluconate or other IV calcium replacement. Mouth care, loosening the dressing, and orientation questions do not provide important information to prevent complications of low calcium levels.

A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Avoid taking aspirin or aspirin-containing products." b. "Increase your intake of foods that are high in potassium." c. "Hold this medication if your pulse rate is below 80 beats/min." d. "Do not take this medication within 1 hour of taking an antacid."

ANS: D Gastrointestinal absorption of digoxin is erratic. Many medications, especially antacids, interfere with its absorption. Clients are taught to hold their digoxin for bradycardia; a heart rate of 80 beats/min is too high for this cutoff. Potassium and aspirin have no impact on digoxin absorption, nor do these statements decrease complications of digoxin therapy.

A client is having a radioisotopic imaging scan. What action by the nurse is most important? a.Assess the client for shellfish allergies. b.Place the client on radiation precautions. c.Sedate the client before the scan. d.Teach the client about the procedure.

ANS: D The nurse should ensure that teaching is done and the client understands the procedure. Contrast dye is not used, so shellfish/iodine allergies are not related. The client will not be radioactive and does not need radiation precautions. Sedation is not used in this procedure.

A nurse assesses a client after administering isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur). The client reports a headache. Which action should the nurse take? a. Initiate oxygen therapy. b. Hold the next dose of Imdur. c. Instruct the client to drink water. d. Administer PRN acetaminophen.

ANS: D The vasodilating effects of isosorbide mononitrate frequently cause clients to have headaches during the initial period of therapy. Clients should be told about this side effect and encouraged to take the medication with food. Some clients obtain relief with mild analgesics, such as acetaminophen. The client's headache is not related to hypoxia or dehydration; therefore, these interventions would not help. The client needs to take the medication as prescribed to prevent angina; the medication should not be held.

A client is having a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. What action by the nurse takes priority? A. Administer pain medication first. B. Ensure that valid consent is in the medical record. C. Have the client shower in the morning. D. Premedicate the client with sedatives

B A bone marrow biopsy is an invasive procedure that requires informed consent. Pain medication and sedation are important components of care for this client but do not take priority. The client may or may not need or be able to shower.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with oral cancer. What is the nurse's priority for client care? a. Encourage fluids to liquefy the client's secretions. b. Place the client on Aspiration Precautions. c. Remind the client to use an incentive spirometer. d. Manage the client's pain and inflammation.

B The client who has oral cancer often has difficulty swallowing and is at risk for aspiration andpossibly aspiration pneumonia. Therefore, the most important nursing action is to place theclient on precautions to prevent aspiration. The nurse would implement the other actions butthey are not as vital to promote client safety.

A nurse teaches a client with a cortisol deficiency who is prescribed prednisone (Deltasone). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients instructions? a. You will need to learn how to rotate the injection sites. b. If you work outside in the heat, you may need another drug. c. You need to follow a diet with strict sodium restrictions. d. Take one tablet in the morning and two tablets at night.

B (Steroid dosage adjustment may be needed if the client works outdoors and might be difficult, especially in hot weather, when the client is sweating a great deal more than normal. Clients take prednisone orally, have no need for a salt restriction, and usually start the regimen with two tablets in the morning and one at night.)

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed vasopressin (DDAVP) for diabetes insipidus. Which assessment findings indicate a therapeutic response to this therapy? (Select all that apply.) a. Urine output is increased. b. Urine output is decreased. c. Specific gravity is increased. d. Specific gravity is decreased. e. Urine osmolality is increased. f. Urine osmolality is decreased.

B, D, E (Diabetes insipidus causes urine output to be greatly increased, with a low urine osmolality, as evidenced by a low specific gravity. Effective treatment results in decreased urine output that is more concentrated, as evidenced by an increased specific gravity.)

A nurse teaches a client with Cushings disease. Which dietary requirements should the nurse include in this clients teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Low calcium b. Low carbohydrate c. Low protein d. Low calories e. Low sodium

B, D, E (The client with Cushings disease has weight gain, muscle loss, hyperglycemia, and sodium retention. Dietary modifications need to include reduction of carbohydrates and total calories to prevent or reduce the degree of hyperglycemia. Sodium retention causes water retention and hypertension. Clients are encouraged to restrict their sodium intake moderately. Clients often have bone density loss and need more calcium. Increased protein intake will help decrease muscle loss.)

The family of a neutropenic client reports that the client "is not acting right". What action by the nurse is PRIORITY? a. Ask the client about pain b. Assess the client for infection c. Take a set of vital signs d. Review today's laboratory results

B. Assess the client for infectionNeutropenic clients often do not have classic manifestations of infection, but infection is the most common cause of death in neutropenic clients. The nurse would definitely assess for infection. The nurse would assess for pain but this is not the priority.

A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What action is MOST IMPORTANT? a. Correctly identify client using two identifiers b. Ensure that informed consent is obtained c. Hang the blood product with Ringer's lactate d. Stay with the client for the entire transfusion

B. Ensure that informed consent is obtained If the facility requires informed consent for transfusions, this action is most important because it precedes the other actions taken during the transfusion. Correctly identifying the client and blood product is a National Patient Safety Goal, and is the most important action AFTER obtaining informed consent. Ringer's lactate is not used to transfuse blood. The nurse does not need to stay with the client for the duration of the transfusion.

A nurse is caring for four clients. After reviewing today's laboratory results, which clientwould the nurse assess first? A. Client with an international normalized ratio of 2.8 B. Client with a platelet count of 128,000/mm? (128 × 10°/L). C. Client with a prothrombin time (PT) of 28 seconds D. Client with a red blood cell count of 5.1 million/mcL (5.1 × 10'2/L)

C A normal PT is 11 to 12.5 seconds. This client is at high risk of bleeding. The other values are within normal limits.

The nurse is teaching a client diagnosed with stomatitis about special mouth care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I need to take out my dentures until my mouth heals." b. "I'll try to eat soft foods that aren't spicy and acidic." c. "I will use a more firm toothbrush to keep my mouth clean." d. "I'll be sure to rinse my mouth often with warm salt water."

C The client who has stomatitis has oral inflammation which causes discomfort. Therefore, allof these actions help to avoid irritation except for needing to use a soft toothbrush or gauzerather than a firm one.

A client has an open traditional hiatal hernia repair this morning. What is the nurse's priorityfor client care at this time? a. Managing surgical pain b. Ambulating the client early c. Preventing respiratory complications d. Managing the nasogastric tube

C The client who has traditional surgery (rather than minimally invasive surgery) is at risk for respiratory complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia because he or she has an incision that may prevent the client from taking deep breaths or using an incentive spirometer.Therefore, the nurse's priority is to prevent these potentially life-threatening respiratory problems.

A nurse plans care for a client with Cushings disease. Which action should the nurse include in this clients plan of care to prevent injury? a. Pad the siderails of the clients bed. b. Assist the client to change positions slowly. c. Use a lift sheet to change the clients position. d. Keep suctioning equipment at the clients bedside.

C (Cushings syndrome or disease greatly increases the serum levels of cortisol, which contributes to excessive bone demineralization and increases the risk for pathologic bone fracture. Padding the siderails and assisting the client to change position may be effective, but these measures will not protect him or her as much as using a lift sheet. The client should not require suctioning.)

A nurse plans care for a client with a growth hormone deficiency. Which action should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Avoid intramuscular medications. b. Place the client in protective isolation. c. Use a lift sheet to re-position the client. d. Assist the client to dangle before rising.

C (In adults, growth hormone is necessary to maintain bone density and strength. Adults with growth hormone deficiency have thin, fragile bones. Avoiding IM medications, using protective isolation, and assisting the client as he or she moves from sitting to standing will not serve as safety measures when the client is deficient in growth hormone.)

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The nurse notes nuchal rigidity. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Encourage range-of-motion exercises. b. Document the finding and monitor the client. c. Take vital signs, including temperature. d. Assess pain and administer pain medication.

C (Nuchal rigidity is a major manifestation of meningitis, a potential postoperative complication associated with this surgery. Meningitis is an infection; usually the client will also have a fever and tachycardia. Range-of-motion exercises are inappropriate because meningitis is a possibility. Documentation should be done after all assessments are completed and should not be the only action. Although pain medication may be a palliative measure, it is not the most appropriate initial action.)

A nurse is caring for a client who is about to receive a bone marrow transplant. To best help the client cope with the long recovery period, what action by the nurse is BEST? a. Arrange a visitation schedule among friends and family b. Explain that this process is difficult but must be endured c. Help the client find things to hope for each day of recovery d. Provide plenty of diversionary activities for this time

C. Help the client find things to hope for each day of recovery Providing hope is an essential nursing function during treatment for any disease process, but especially during the recovery period after bone marrow transplantation, which can take up to 3 weeks. The nurse can help the client look ahead to the recovery period and identify things to hope for during this time. Visitors are important to clients, but may pose an infection risk. Telling the client that the recovery period must be endured does not acknowledge his or her feelings. Diversionary activities are important, but not as important as instilling hope.

A client has thrombocytopenia. What statement indicates that the client understands self-management of this condition? a. I brush and use dental floss every day b. I chew hard candy for my dry mouth c. I usually put ice on bumps or bruises d. Nonslip socks are best when I walk

C. I usually put ice on bumps or bruises The client should be taught to apply ice to areas of minor trauma. Flossing is not recommended. Hard foods should be avoided. The client should wear well-fitting shoes when ambulating.

A nurse is caring for a young male client with lymphoma who is to begin treatment. What teaching topic is PRIORITY? a. Genetic testing b. Infection prevention c. Sperm banking d. Treatment options

C. Sperm banking All teaching topics are important to the client with lymphoma, but for a young male, sperm banking is of particular concern if the client is going to have radiation to the lower abdomen or pelvis.

The nurse is teaching a client with stage 1 hypertension. Which client statement indicates understanding of dietary modifications? A. "I will reduce my sodium intake to 2500 mg per day." B. "I will restrict my intake of daily dietary lean protein." C. "I am only going to drink one cup of coffee to start my day." D. "I will drink a glass of low-fat milk with my breakfast."

D

A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm' (58 × 10°/L). What action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Encourage high-protein foods. B. Institute neutropenic precautions. C. Limit visitors to healthy adults. D. Place the client on safety precautions.

D With a platelet count between 40,000 and 80,000/mm3, clients are at risk of prolonged bleeding even after minor trauma. The nurse should place the client on safety precautions. High-protein foods, while healthy, are not the priority. Neutropenic precautions are not needed as the client's white blood cell count is not low. Limiting visitors would also be more likely related to a low white blood cell count.

A nurse cares for a client after a pituitary gland stimulation test using insulin. The clients post-stimulation laboratory results indicate elevated levels of growth hormone (GH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). How should the nurse interpret these results? a. Pituitary hypofunction b. Pituitary hyperfunction c. Pituitary-induced diabetes mellitus d. Normal pituitary response to insulin

D (Some tests for pituitary function involve administering agents that are known to stimulate the secretion of specific pituitary hormones and then measuring the response. Such tests are termed stimulation tests. The stimulation test for GH or ACTH assessment involves injecting the client with regular insulin (0.05 to 1 unit/kg of body weight) and checking circulating levels of GH and ACTH. The presence of insulin in clients with normal pituitary function causes increased release of GH and ACTH.)

A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is MOST IMPORTANT? a. Document the transfusion b. Place the client on NPO status c. Place the client in isolation d. Put on a pair of gloves

D. Put on a pair of gloves To prevent bloodborne illness, the nurse should don a pair of gloves prior to hanging the blood. Documentation is important but not the priority at this point. NPO status and isolation are not needed.

A client with multiple myeloma demonstrates worsening bone density on diagnostic scans. About what drug does the nurse plan to teach this client? a. Bortezomib b. Dexamethasone c. Thalidomide d. Zoledronic acid

D. Zoledronic acid All the options are drugs used to treat multiple myeloma, but the drug specifically for bone manifestations is zoledronic acid, which is a biphosphonate. This drug class inhibits bone resorption and is used to treat osteoporosis as well.

The nurse is teaching a client about the risk of uncontrolled or untreated the client'sgastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What complication(s) may occur if the GERD is not successfully managed? (Select all that apply.) a. Asthma b. Laryngitis c. Dental caries d. Cardiac disease e. Cancer

a b c d e Any of these complications may occur in clients who have uncontrolled or untreated GERD.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with probable gastroesophageal reflux disease(GERD). What assessment finding(s) would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Dyspepsia b. Regurgitation c. Belching d. Coughing e. Chest discomfort f. Dysphagia

a b c d e f All of these signs and symptoms are commonly seen in clients who have GERD.

A nurse knows that job-related risks for developing oral cancer include which occupations?(Select all that apply.) a. Coal miner b. Electrician c. Metal worker d. Plumber e. Textile worker

a c d e The occupations of coal mining, metal working, plumbing, and textile work produce exposure to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), which are known carcinogens. Electricians do not have this risk.