Exam #3
Which type of hematoma results from traumatic injury involving the middle meningeal artery?
Epidural Rationale- The main blood supply for the dura mater is the middle meningeal artery. This artery lies on the surface of the dura in the epidural space within grooves formed on the inside of the parietal bone. Traumatic disruption of the parietal bone may result in tearing of the middle meningeal artery and development of an epidural hematoma.
Which statements are correct regarding epithelial cells of the gastric mucosa? (Select all that apply.)
-to prevent diffusion of hydrogen into the mucosa -they secrete bicarbonate to neutralize hydrogen ions -they breakdown prostaglandins
What percentage of the body's total resting cardiac output is used by the brain?
20% Rationale- The brain constitutes 2% of the body's weight but uses 20% of the body's total resting cardiacoutput. It requires approximately 750 mL of blood flow per minute and can extract as much as 45% of arterial oxygen to meet normal metabolic needs.
Ideally fibrinolytic therapy should be administered within how many hours of the onset of stroke symptoms?
3 hours
A patient has been admitted with acute confusion and other focal neurologic signs. The practitioner is going to perform a lumbar puncture. What is an abnormal finding in the cerebrospinal fluid?
30 red blood cells Rationale- Cerebrospinal fluid is normally a clear, colorless, odorless solution that contains 50 to 75 mg/dL of glucose, 5 to 25 mg/dL of protein, and no red blood cells.
While the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is part of the routine neurologic assessment, the nurse knows that it is not a valid measure for certain types of patients. In which patient is the GCS not valid?
A patient who is intoxicated
Which assessment finding in a patient in coma 10 to 12 hours after cardiopulmonary arrest is indicative of unlikely survival?
absent pupillary light responses Rationale- Much research has been directed toward identifying the prognostic indicators for the patient in coma after a cardiopulmonary arrest. In a meta-analysis, the best predictors of poor outcome after cardiac arrest were lack of corneal or papillary response at 24 hours and lack of motor movement at 72 hours.
A patient's ICP is 34 mm Hg, and his cerebral perfusion pressure is 65 mm Hg. Given that the practitioner has left appropriate orders, which action should the nurse take next?
administer Mannitol 1-2g/kg IV
Which nursing intervention will help prevent spikes in intracranial pressure in the post-neurosurgical patient?
administer antiemetic drugs to prevent vomiting.
Which of the following interventions would be INAPPROPRIATE for a patient w/increased ICP of 16mm Hg?
administration of of D5W at 83ml/hr
A patient is admitted with the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse expects which laboratory values to be elevated? (Select all that apply.)
amylase, glucose, white blood cells, and triglycerides.
The nurse is caring for a severely head injured comatose patient who is dying. The practitioner asks to be notified when the patient starts to exhibit signs of Cushing reflex. The nurse would call the practitioner when the patient starts to show what signs?
bradycardia, systolic hypertension, and widening pulse pressure. Rationale- The Cushing reflex is a set of three clinical manifestations (bradycardia, systolic hypertension, and widening pulse pressure) related to pressure on the medullary area of the brainstem.
A patient has been admitted with acute confusion and other focal neurologic signs. The practitioner is going to perform a lumbar puncture. What is the most serious complication of lumbar puncture?
brain stem herniation
Which independent nursing measures can assist in reducing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
decrease in noxious stimuli
A patient has been admitted in acute liver failure. The nurse knows that the synthesis of fibrinogen is affected and will result in what problem?
delayed clotting Rationale- The liver synthesizes the clotting factors of fibrinogen and prothrombin. Liver failure could affect this synthesis, which may result in delayed clotting or hemorrhage.
Which anatomic structures are found in the left lower quadrant? (Select all that apply.)
distended uterus, left ureter, portion of the descending colon, and sigmoid colon. Rationale- The left lower quadrant includes the lower pole of the left kidney, sigmoid colon, portion of the descending colon, bladder (if distended), ovary and salpinx, uterus (if distended), left spermatic cord, and left ureter.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has just had a cerebral angiogram. Which intervention should be part of the nursing management plan?
ensuring that the patient is adequately hydrated. Rationale- After the cerebral angiogram, adequate hydration is necessary to assist the kidneys in clearing the heavy dye load. Inadequate hydration may lead to renal dysfunction and renal shutdown.
The nurse and a new graduate nurse are caring for a comatose patient on continuous electroencephalography (cEEG) monitor. The new graduate says "This monitor is great. How come we don't use it on all the neuro patients?" What are the drawbacks to using this type of monitor? (Select all that apply.)
expensive, labor intensive program, requires expertise for interpretation and ICU environment is usually required.
Which area of the ventricular system is usually cannulated for intracranial pressure monitoring?
frontal horn of the lateral ventricle
Stimulation of what nerve will elicit the gag reflex?
glossopharyngeal
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute liver failure. The practitioner asks the nurse to assess the patient for asterixis. How should the nurse assess for this symptom?
have the patient extend the arms and dorsiflex the wrists. Rationale- The patient should be evaluated for the presence of asterixis, or "liver flap," best described asthe inability to voluntarily sustain a fixed position of the extremities. Asterixis is best recognized by downward flapping of the hands when the patient extends the arms and dorsiflexes the wrists.
A patient is admitted with a severe head injury. The nurse knows that critically ill patients are at risk for gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to stress-related mucosal disease. The nurse would monitor the patient for which signs and symptoms?
hematemesis, and melena Rationale- The initial clinical presentation of the patient with acute gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage is that of a patient in hypovolemic shock; the clinical presentation depends on the amount of blood lost. Hematemesis (bright red or brown, coffee grounds emesis), hematochezia (bright red stools), and melena (black, tarry, or dark red stools) are the hallmarks of GI hemorrhage.
A patient has been admitted in acute liver failure. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to support this diagnosis?
high levels of unconjugated bilirubin. Rationale- High levels of unconjugated or indirect bilirubin in the blood suggest hepatocellular dysfunction. In comparison, high levels of conjugated or direct bilirubin suggest biliary tract obstruction.
The patient has uncontrolled intracranial pressure and now is receiving high-dose barbiturate therapy. The nursing management plan for this patient should include monitoring the patient for what complication?
hypotension
A patient with neurologic damage continues with extremely high core body temperature despite interventions to lower body temperature the nurse suspects the patient has sustained damage to which area of the brain?
hypothalamus
A right-handed patient has been admitted with an intracerebral hemorrhage. A computedtomography (CT) of the patient's head reveals a large left parietal area bleed. Patientassessment includes temperature (T), 98.7° F; pulse (P), 98 beats/min and thready; respirations (R), 8 breaths/min; and blood pressure (BP), 168/100 mm Hg. Initial management of the patient includes which intervention?
intubating and ventilation the patient.
A patient is undergoing a hepatobiliary scan to assess the progression of cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse would anticipate which result?
little or no uptake Rationale- In a hepatobiliary scan, the liver cells take up 80% to 90% of the radiotracer, which is then secreted into the bile and transported throughout the biliary system, allowing visualization of the biliary tract, gallbladder, and duodenum. Pooling of the iminodiacetic agent around the liver indicates poor uptake and hepatocellular dysfunction.
Nursing management of a patient with a clipped cerebral aneurysm receiving hemodynamic augmentation includes which intervention?
maintaining the patients systolic blood pressure at 150 -160 mm Hg
Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, and XII are located in which section of the brainstem?
medulla oblongata
A patient with a history of chronic alcoholism was admitted with acute pancreatitis. What intervention would the nurse include in the patient's plan of care?
monitor the patient for hypovolemic shock from plasma volume depletion. Rationale- Because pancreatitis is often associated with massive fluid shifts, intravenous crystalloids and colloids are administered immediately to prevent hypovolemic shock and maintain hemodynamic stability. Electrolytes are monitored closely, and abnormalities such as hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia are corrected. If hyperglycemia develops, exogenous insulin may be required.
Which lobe of the brain deals primarily with sensory function?
parietal lobe
The nurse is caring for a patient with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The practitioner has just performed an endoscopy at the bedside. What complications would the nurse monitor the patient for after the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
perforation, hemorrhage, over sedation, and aspiration. Rationale- Fiberoptic endoscopy may present risks for the patient. Although rare, potential complications include perforation of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, hemorrhage, aspiration, vasovagal stimulation, and oversedation. Signs of perforation include abdominal pain and distention, GI bleeding, and fever.
Control of the rate of respirations occurs in the in which brain center?
pneumotaxic center
A patient is admitted with a gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to esophagogastric varices. The nurse knows that varices are caused by which pathophysiologic mechanism?
portal hypertension resulting in diversion of blood from a high pressure area to a low pressure area.
Which anatomic structures are found in the right lower quadrant? (Select all that apply.)
portion of the ascending colon, distended bladder, enlarged uterus. Rationale- The right lower quadrant includes the lower pole of the right kidney, cecum and appendix, portion of the ascending colon, bladder (if distended), ovary and salpinx, uterus (if enlarged), right spermatic cord, and right ureter.
Preprocedural teaching of a patient undergoing a liver scan should include which instruction?
stay flat and still during the procedure. Rationale- The patient may need to maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status for 2 to 4 hours before the procedure. Sedation is usually not required, but the patient must be able to lie flat and still for 60 minutes during the scanning procedure. No special interventions are required after the procedure.
Which anatomic structures are found in the left upper quadrant? (Select all that apply.)
stomach, spleen, portion of the transverse and descending colon, and body of the pancreas. Rationale- The left upper quadrant includes the left lobe of the liver, spleen, stomach, body of the pancreas, left adrenal gland, portion of the left kidney, splenic flexure of the colon, and portions of the transverse and descending colon.
The practitioner has ordered a test for steatorrhea. The nurse knows this is determined by which laboratory study?
stool studies Rationale- Steatorrhea (an increase of fat in the stool) results from malabsorption or pancreatic insufficiency and is determined with stool studies. The result of the urea breath test is positive if the patient has a Helicobacter pylori infection. Gastric acid stimulation is used for the detection of duodenal ulcers, gastric atrophy, and gastric carcinoma.
The ability to access cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by a lumbar puncture is attributable to the flow of CSF in which space?
sub arachnoid space
What anatomic structures are part of inspection of the gastrointestinal system? (Select all that apply.)
teeth, gums, skin and abdomen Rationale- Although assessment of the gastrointestinal system classically begins with visual inspection ofthe abdomen, the patient's oral cavity also must be inspected to determine any unusualfindings. The skin should be observed for pigmentation, lesions, striae, scars, petechiae, signs of dehydration, and venous pattern. The spleen is not assessed on inspection; however, it may be assessed through palpation.
The primary functions of which lobe are hearing, speech, behavior, and memory?
temporal lobe
A patient has been admitted with perforated duodenal ulcer. Which findings would the nurse expect to note to support this diagnosis?
tenderness in the epigastric area, or right lower quadrant.
What is the region of the brain that acts as a relay station for both motor and sensory activity called?
thalamus
When giving Dopamine, it is most important for the nurse to know that-
the drug action varies according to dose.
Which of the following statements regarding Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) supports the admission to a critical care unit?
the most common cause of death is respiratory arrest.
A patient becomes flaccid with fixed and dilated pupils. The patient's intracranial pressure(ICP) falls from 65 to 12 mm Hg. What should the nurse suspect is happening?
the patients brain has herniated.
Which statement best describes the role of neuroglial cells?
they provide support to the neuron in nutrients and structural formation.
Emergency treatment of coma of unknown cause includes rapid intravenous administration of which three agents?
thiamine, glucose, and opioid antagonist.
Which structure(s) form(s) the blood-brain barrier?
vascular endothelial cells
A patient has been admitted with pyloric obstruction. Which findings would the nurse expect to note to support this diagnosis?
visible peristaltic waves
Which finding is considered an abnormal gastrointestinal assessment finding?
visible peristaltic waves
The nurse is caring for a severely head injured comatose patient who is dying. The nurse knows the patient has entered the late stages of intracranial hypertension when the nurse observes which signs?
widening pulse pressure
A patient was admitted with pancreatitis. The nurse is auscultating the patient's abdomen.How long must the nurse listen to be able to accurately chart that bowel sounds are absent?
5 minutes Rationale- Normal bowel sounds include high-pitched, gurgling sounds that occur approximately every 5 to 15 seconds or at a rate of 5 to 34 times per minute. Abnormal findings include the absence of bowel sounds throughout a 5-minute period, extremely soft and widely separated sounds, and increased sounds with a high-pitched, loud rushing sound (peristaltic rush).
Which of these substances are examples of small-molecule transmitters? (Select all that apply.)
Acetylcholine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine, Dopamine.
A nurse has an order to administer TPA to a client who meets inclusion criteria. What interventions should the nurse expect during administration. SATA
-1:1 nursing care -obtain consent -stop infusion, disconnected tubing, and send clients to CT if adverse events occur.
Select all risk factors r/t a stroke?
-A-fib -HDL 62 -CAD -Smoking -Diabetes
What sites can be used for monitoring intracranial pressure (ICP)? (Select all that apply.)
-Intraventricular space -epidural space -subdural space -parenchyma
A patient has been admitted with pancreatitis. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to observe in support of this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
-epigastric pain/abdominal pain -N/V -jaundice -fever
Which statements are correct regarding the assessment of motor function in the neurologically impaired patient? (Select all that apply.)
-presence of the Babinski reflex is an abnormal finding in an adult. -when using noxious stimuli to elicit a motor response, each limb is tested separately. -the presence of abnormal extension indicates a less positive outcome for the patient than abnormal flexion.
A patient has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which interventions would the nurse expect as part of the interprofessional collaborative management plan? (Select all that apply.)
-pulse oximetry and ABG's -monitor electrolyte levels -assessing for signs of cerebral edema Rationale- The patient may experience a variety of other complications, including cerebral edema, cardiac dysrhythmias, acute respiratory failure, sepsis, and acute kidney injury. Cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure develop as a result of breakdown of the blood-brain barrier and astrocyte swelling. Circulatory failure that mimics sepsis is common in acute liver failure and may exacerbate low cerebral perfusion pressure. Hypoxemia, acidosis, electrolyte imbalances, and cerebral edema can precipitate the development of cardiac dysrhythmias. Acute respiratory failure, progressing to acute respiratory distress syndrome, intrapulmonary shunting, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, sepsis, and aspiration may be attributed to the universal arterial hypoxemia.
The nurse knows that change in pupil size is a significant neurologic finding particularly in the patient with a head injury. How much of a size difference between the two pupils is still considered normal?
1mm Rationale- Most people have pupils of equal size, between 2 and 5 mm. A discrepancy up to 1 mm between the two pupils is normal.
What is the target range for PaCO2 in the patient with intracranial hypertension?
33-37 mm Hg
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute liver failure. What laboratory value would the nurse expect to decrease in this situation?
Albumin
The nurse is caring for a patient with gastrointestinal bleeding. The practitioner was unable to locate the bleed with an endoscopy. Which procedure would the nurse expect the practitioner to order next?
Angiogram Rationale- Angiography may be used for lower gastrointestinal bleeding and as a way to isolate the bleeding source prior to surgery. Angiography is used in the diagnosis of upper gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding only when endoscopy fails, and it is used to treat patients (approximately 15%) whose GI bleeding is not stopped with medical measures or endoscopic treatment. Angiography also is used to evaluate cirrhosis, portal hypertension, intestinal ischemia, and other vascular abnormalities.
A patient has been admitted with an ischemic stroke. The patient received recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA) in the emergency department. The nurse checks the medication administration record to make sure the patient does not have which medications for the next 24 hours? (Select all that apply.)
Aspirin, any Anti platelet drugs, and Warfarin.
Which intervention should be considered LAST in treating uncontrolled intracranial hypertension?
Barbituates
A patient is admitted with an anoxic brain injury. The nurse notes abnormal extension of both extremities to noxious stimuli. This finding indicates dysfunction in which area of the central nervous system?
Brain stem Rationale- Abnormal extension occurs with lesions in the area of the brainstem. Abnormal flexion occurs with lesions above the midbrain in the region of the thalamus or cerebral hemispheres.
The nurse has been caring for a patient with severe pancreatitis. The practitioner suspects the patient has developed a pseudocyst. Which diagnostic procedure would the nurse expect the practitioner to order to confirm this diagnosis?
CT scan Rationale- Computed tomography (CT) detects mass lesions more than 2 cm in diameter and allows visualization and evaluation of many different aspects of gastrointestinal (GI) disease. It is particularly useful in identifying pancreatic pseudocysts, abdominal abscesses, biliary obstructions, and a variety of GI neoplastic lesions.
Indications for the use of electroencephalography (EEG) include (Select all that apply.)
Cerebral infarct, metabolic encephalopathy, confirmation of brain death, and altered consciousness. Rationale- Indications for the use of electroencephalography include suspected seizure activity, cerebral infarct, metabolic encephalopathies, altered consciousness, infectious disease, some head injuries, and confirmation of brain death.
What is one of the earliest signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Change in LOC
A patient is admitted with a gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to esophagogastric varices. The patient has been started on a vasopressin drip. The nurse would monitor the patient for which side effect of the medication?
Chest pain Rationale- A major side effect of the medication is systemic vasoconstriction, which can result in cardiac ischemia, chest pain, hypertension, acute heart failure, dysrhythmias, phlebitis, bowel ischemia, and cerebrovascular accident. These side effects can be offset with concurrent administration of nitroglycerNin.
A patient was admitted with an abdominal mass. Which assessment technique would the nurse find most useful in detecting this pathologic condition?
Palpation Rationale- Palpation is the assessment technique that is most useful in detecting abdominal pathologic conditions. Both light and deep palpation of each organ and quadrant should be completed. Deep palpation is most helpful in detecting abdominal masses. Areas in which the patient complains of tenderness should be palpated last.
What role does the liver play in maintaining normal blood sugar levels?
Converts glycogen to glucose Rationale- Glycogen is broken down to glucose by the liver to maintain normal blood glucose levels.
A patient with a serious head injury has been admitted. The nurse knows that certain neurologic findings can indicate the prognosis for the patient. Which finding denotes the most serious prognosis?
Decerebrate posturing Rationale- Outcome studies indicate that abnormal flexion or decorticate posturing has a less serious prognosis than does extension, or decerebrate posturing. Onset of posturing or a change from abnormal flexion to abnormal extension requires immediate physician notification.
What is one cause of metabolic coma?
Drug overdose
Which anatomic structures are found in the right upper quadrant? (Select all that apply.)
Duodenum, Portion of the transverse colon, and liver. Rationale- The right upper quadrant includes the liver and gallbladder, pylorus, duodenum, head of pancreas, right adrenal gland, portion of the right kidney, hepatic flexure of colon, and a portion of the ascending and transverse colon.
Upon auscultation, the nurse hears borborygmi. The nurse suspects the patient may be developing which problem?
Early intestinal obstruction Rationale- Hyperactive bowel sounds (borborygmi) that are loud and prolonged are caused by hunger, gastroenteritis, or early intestinal obstruction. Decreased (hypoactive) bowel sounds are symptoms of possible peritonitis or ileus. Bruits are caused by abnormality of blood flow.
Which neurologic structure carries nerve impulses from the central nervous system (CNS) to the periphery to produce a response such as contraction of the skeletal muscles?
Efferent fibers
Why is assessment of level of conscious (LOC) the most important aspect of the neurologic examination?
In most situations the LOC deteriorates before any other neurologic changes are noted.
Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority in the nursing management plan for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Ineffective breathing pattern r/t musculoskeletal fatigue or neuromuscular impairment.
The nurse is caring for a patient immediately after a craniotomy. When assessing the size andshape of the patient's pupils the nurse notes the patient's left pupil is oval. What does thisfinding indicate?
Intracranial HTN Rationale- Although the pupil is normally round, an irregularly shaped or oval pupil may be noted in patients with eye surgery. Initial stages of cranial nerve III compression from elevated intracranial pressure can also cause the pupil to have an oval shape.
Which disorders or conditions are potential causes of acute liver failure? (Select all that apply.)
Ischemia, Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E, and non-A, non-B and non-C, Acetaminophen toxicity, Wilson's disease, and Diabetes
A patient presents with aphasia, decreased level of consciousness, and right-sided weakness. The patient has a history of heart disease, hyperlipidemia, and transient ischemic attacks. Based on the history, the nurse suspects that the patient has sustained which type of stroke?
Ischemic stroke
A patient is admitted to the critical care unit with a subdural hematoma. The nurse is assessingthe patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. Which statement is true concerning the GCS?
It provides data about level of consciousness only. Rationale- It provides data about level of consciousness only, and it should never be considered a complete neurologic examination.
The nurse is precepting a nursing student. The student asks about testing of extraocular eye movements. What should the nurse tell the student?
It tests function of the three cranial nerves Rationale- Control of eye movements occurs with interaction of three cranial nerves: oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI).
The nurse is starting a peripheral intravenous catheter in the right hand of an unconscious patient. During the procedure the patient reaches over with his left hand and tries to remove the noxious stimuli. How would the nurse document this response?
Localization
The patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) reading has gradually climbed from 15 to 23 mm Hg.The nurse's primary action is to:
Notify the physician
The nurse is caring for a patient with a head injury who is obtunded. The nurse is going to use noxious stimuli to elicit a response. What is an acceptable method?
Nail bed pressure Rationale- Nail bed pressure and trapezius pinch are acceptable methods of noxious stimulation. Nail bed pressure allows evaluation of individual extremity function. Trapezius pinch is difficult to perform on large or obese adults.
Which cranial nerves are responsible for motor functions of the eye? (Select all that apply.)
Oculomotor, Trochlear, and Abducens
The nurse is caring for a patient with a closed head injury with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 6. What does this score indicate about the patient's neurologic status?
Patient is in a Coma Rationale-The best possible score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 15, and the lowest score is 3. Generally, a score of 7 or less on the GCS indicates coma. Originally, the scoring system was developed to assist in general communication concerning the severity of neurologic injury.
A patient is admitted with an upper gastrointestinal bleed. Which disorder is the leading cause of upper gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage?
Peptic Ulcer Rationale- Peptic ulcer disease (gastric and duodenal ulcers), resulting from the breakdown of the gastro mucosal lining, is the leading cause of upper gastrointestinal (GI) hemorrhage, accounting for approximately 21% of cases.
What is the tissue that adheres directly to the brain called?
Pia mater
What vessel delivers nutrient-rich blood from the gut, pancreas, spleen, and stomach to the liver?
Portal vein Rationale- The liver receives one-third of the total cardiac output from two major sources: the hepatic artery, which provides oxygenated blood, and the portal vein, which is supplied with nutrient-rich blood from the gut, pancreas, spleen, and stomach. The portal vein, which accounts for 75% of the total liver blood flow, branches into sinusoids to transport blood to each lobule. Interlobular veins empty into larger veins and then into the hepatic vein, which empties on the posterior surface of the liver and eventually into the vena cava. The hepatic artery also divides and subdivides between the lobules, supplying sinusoids with oxygenated blood before emptying into the hepatic vein.
The nurse has been caring for a patient with liver dysfunction. The practitioner has just performed a liver biopsy at the bedside. Following a liver biopsy, how would the nurse position the patient?
Rt side for 2 hours Rationale- After the procedure, the patient is positioned on the right side for 2 hours and kept on complete bed rest for the next 6 to 8 hours.
The pancreas has both exocrine and endocrine properties. Which substances are produced by the exocrine function? (Select all that apply.)
Trypsin, Amylase, and Lipase Rationale- Enzymes produced in the pancreas include trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, amylase, and lipase. The pancreas also produces a trypsin inhibitor that prevents activation of trypsinogen (inactive form of trypsin), which inhibits autodigestion. The production of gastrin and insulin is an endocrine function.
The nurse is caring for a critically injured patient who can only be aroused by vigorous external stimuli. Which category should the nurse use to document the patient's level ofconsciousness?
Stuporous
A patient has coherent speech but the words are illogical. Which part of the brain has been affected?
The Wernike area
A patient is admitted with a gastrointestinal hemorrhage due to esophagogastric varices. What medication would the nurse expect the practitioner to order for this patient?
Vasopressin's Rationale- In acute variceal hemorrhage, control of bleeding can be accomplished through the use of pharmacologic agents. Intravenous vasopressin, somatostatin, and octreotide have been shown to reduce portal venous pressure and slow variceal hemorrhaging by constricting the splanchnic arteriolar bed.
The gastrointestinal system plays a vital role in detoxification and elimination of what substances? (Select all that apply.)
Viruses, bacteria, drugs, and chemical toxins
The sensory, motor, and cognitive functions are the primary functions of which area of the brain?
cerebrum
