Exam Review Questions- Treatment and Rehabilitation
A patientis seen by the athletic trainer 4 weeks post-operatively after shoulder arthroscopy. During the athletic trainer's assessment, it is found that the patient has limited abduction secondary to capsular stiffness. Which of the following joint glides would be appropriate to improve this motion? A. Inferior humeral glide B. Anterior humeral glide C. Posterior humeral glide D. Superior humeral glide E. All of the above/ combined glides
A
According to Maitland;s 5 grades of joint motion, which grade would be most appropriate when joint movement is limited by pain and spasm? A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V
A
All of the following muscles for the peso anserinus muscle group except: A. Semimembranosus B. Semitendinosus C. Gracilis D. Sartorius E. B and D
A
Although no cure for myasthenia graves, medical treatment to minimize the symptoms include which of the following? A. Medications that act on the neuromuscular junction B. Cold laser C. Skeletal muscle relaxants D. Radiation E. Antipyretic drugs
A
During D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity, what is the proper timing sequence? A. Should extension, forearm pronation, finger extension B. Shoulder flexion, scapular retraction, finger extension C. Shoulder abduction, forearm supination, finger extension D. Shoulder extension, forearm supination, finger extension E. None of the above
A
Heat is dissipated in the body by all of the following except: A. Shivering B. Convection C. The lungs D. Sweat evaporation E. Vasodilatation
A
Herpes simplex labialis is caused by which of the following? A. Virus B. Fungal C. Bacterial D. Parasite E. None of the above
A
High-voltage pulsed stimulation may be used as an adjunct treatment in controlling acute and chronic pain through which 2 mechanisms? A. Gate control and opiate release mechanism B. Gate control and histamine release mechanism C. Analgesia production and counterirritation D. Edema control and spasm reduction E. Stimulation of both motor and sensory nerves
A
If hyperventilation does not adequately increase the oxygen supply in the blood during aerobic exercise, what must occur to meet the gas exchange demands? A. Increased cardiac output B. Decreased cardiac output C. Supplemental iron pills must be provided D. The activity must be discontinued E. None of the above
A
Treatment for cystic fibrosis includes which of the following? A. Nutritional counseling/modification, pulmonary therapies to clear secretions, antibiotics B. Regular exercise, nutritional counseling/modification, expectorants C. Bed rest, daily suction to clear secretions, anti-histamines D. Bed rest, daily suction to clear secretions, antibiotics and expectorants E. Bronchodilators, antihistamines, and expectorants
A
What does production of black, tar-like stools indicate? A. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding B. Infection C. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding D. A diet that is too high in iron E. Colon cancer
A
What is one of the most serious adverse reactions during iontophoresis treatment? A. Galvanic burns B. Anaphylactic shock C. Dermatitis D. Histamine reaction E. None of the above
A
What occurs during a joint mobilization technique when a convex surface moves on a concave surface? A. Roll and glide occur in opposite directions B. Glide and spin occur in opposite directions C. A shearing force occurs at the joint surface D. Roll and glide occur in the same direction E. Straight glide in the same direction
A
What physiological effects occur under the cathode of an electrical stimulator? I. Vasodilatation II. Vasoconstriction III. Tissue softening IV. Irritation A. I, III, IV B. II, III, IV C. I, II, III D. I, II, IV E. None of the above
A
What types of medications are most commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy? A. Tranquilizers and sedatives B. COX-2 inhibitors C. Beta-blockers D. Vasopressors E. Psychogenic drugs
A
When is the best time to begin a rehabilitation program after an injury? A. Immediately B. After the injured part is healed C. After the inflammation is under control D. Once the pain subsides E. All of the above
A
When rehabilitating an athlete following a lumbar strain, the athletic trainer should emphasize the significance of having the athlete improve the flexibility of all of the following structures except: A. Abdominals B. Iliopsoas C. Paraspinals D. Hamstrings E. Hip extensors
A
When rehabilitation a cervical strain, what must the athletic trainer maintain the integrity of? A. Shoulder girdle B. Lower back C. Upper arm D. Hand E. Kyphosis of the thoracic spine
A
Where is the primary location for adenosine triphosphate production in skeletal muscle? A. Sarcomere B. Sarcoplasm C. Sarcolemma D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum E. Mitochondria
A
Which of the following conditions is not indicated for mechanical traction? A. An acute interspinous sprain B. Degenerative joint disease C. Herniated disc or protrusions D. Degenerative disc disease E. Muscle Spasm
A
Which of the following describes a neurapraxia? A. Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to a conduction block. Usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks B. Loss or disruption of the axon and myelin sheath. The epineurium is still intact C. An injury to the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium, with a permanent neurological deficit D. A crush injury to a nerve cause damage to the epineurium. The perineurium is intact E. None of the above
A
Which of the following exercises should be avoided in the early stages (phase 1) of anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation? A. Full knee extension exercises B. Resisted hip abduction C. Toe raises D. Hamstring curls E. Isometric contraction of the quadriceps
A
Which of the following is a common adverse effect of an opioid analgesic? A. Constipation B. Headache C. Stomach upset D. Diarrhea E. Anxiety
A
Which of the following is not a contraindication or precaution for the use of ultrasound? A. Scarring B. Acute hemorrhage C. Anethesia D. Treating over the endocrine gland E. Open wounds
A
Which of the following is the least occurring type of shoulder subluxation/dislocation? A. Superior B. Inferior C. Anterior D. Posterior E. C and D
A
Which of the following is the only NSAID used topically in the US? A. Salicylate B. Ibuprofen C. Meloxicam D. Celebrax E. Naproxen NA
A
Which of the following may occur as a result of a puncture wound that has not been properly treated? A. A tetnaus infection B. A streptococcus infection C. A spirochete infection D. A staphlococcus infection E. Dissemination of a wound
A
Why is the repair response so limited in the articular cartilage of a joint after an injury in the adult athlete? A. Articular cartilage cells do not undergo mitosis in the mature athlete B. Articular cartilage has poor venous supply C. Articular cartilage has a low water content D. There are fewer mitochondria present in articular cartilage than in hyaline cartilage E. All of the above
A
"Like charges repel while unlike charges attract each other." This is known as what law? A. Ohm's B. Coulomb's law C. Murphy's law D. Wolff's law E. Horner's law
B
A dynamic program of prescribed exercise for preventing or reversing the destructive effects of inactivity while returning an individual to his or her former level of competition is known as what? A. Pilates B. Rehabilitation C. A DAPRE program D. Cardiovascular program E. Yoga
B
A patient needs instruction on how to properly perform an abdominal sit-up. What should the athletic trainer recommend? A. Place his hands behind his head, take a deep breath and hold it, and pull his torso up towards his knees B. Cross his arms across his chest, tuck in his chin, bend his knees, inhale, and then exhale as he pulls his torso up towards his knees C. Place his hands behind his head, bend his knees, exhale completely first, and inhale deeply as he pulls his torso up towards his knees D. Keeping his arms down by his sides, bend his knees, inhale deeply, and hold it as he pulls his torso up towards his knees E. None of the above
B
A swimmer reports to the athletic training facility complaining of symptoms related to Scheuermann's disease. Which type of exercises are beneficial in trying to diminish the symptoms during the early stages of the disease? A. Cervical range of motion exercises B. Extension and postural exercises C. Williams flexion exercises D. Hughston exercises E. Deep breathing exercises
B
At what concentrations is topical hydrocortisone available over the counter? A. 1% and 5% B. 0.25% and 1% C. 1.5% and 2% D. 10% and 15% E. 2% and 5%
B
Before returning an athlete to full activity, all of the following criteria should equal those taken from the uninvolved side at the end of the rehabilitation program except: A. Strength of each muscle group B. Girth measurements at 6 inches above and below the joint line C. Proprioception of both extremities D. Flexibility of the involved muscle groups E. C and D
B
Conventional TENS uses a frequency in the ______ pulses per second range with a phase duration of _______ microseconds A. 50 to 100, 250 B. 50 to 100, 2 to 50 C. 2 to 4, >150 D. >100, 20 to 30 E. <10, 50
B
External muscle force available for useful work is the result of all of the following factors except: A. The velocity of muscle shortening B. Whether the muscle is fast or slow twitch C. The angle of the pull of the muscle D. The length of the muscle E. C and D
B
Hans Selye's phenomenon of the adaptation syndrome, which occurs when an individual responds to a stressful situation, includes which 3 stages of the stress response? A. Fright, flight, exhaustion B. the alarm stage, resistance stage, exhaustion C. The alarm stage, flight stage, acceptance stage D. Anger stage, bargaining stage, acceptance stage E. The alarm stage, flight, exhaustion
B
The D2 flexion pattern of the hip works which group of muscles? A. Abductors, flexors, IR B. Abductors, flexors, ER C. Adductors, flexors, IR D. Adductors, extensors, ER E. The abductors and the flexors only
B
The rate at which a drug disappears from the body through metabolism, excretion, or both is known as which of the following? A. Biotransformation B. Half-life C. Efficacy D. Bioavailability E. Expiration rate
B
The therapeutic conversion of electrical energy into high-frequency sound energy above the audible range to create heat in the tissues is the definition of what modality? A. Diathermy B. Ultrasound C. Electrical stimulation D. TENS E. Interferential current
B
What kind of heating method does a warm whirlpool utilize? A. Conduction B. Convection C. Radiation D. Evaporation E. All of the above
B
What would be functional skill for a patient in an ankle rehabilitation program? A. Gastrocnemius flexibility B. Single-leg hopping C. Lifting tolerance D. Anterior tibialis strengthening E. All of the above
B
When rehabilitating a patient with a recent herniated lumbar disc, which of the following exercises are most appropriate? A. Williams flexion exercises B. Mckenzie extension exercises C. Lumbar stabilization exercises D. Posterior pelvic tilt and knee-to-chest exercises E. PNF stretching exercises
B
When the length of a muscle prevents full range of motion at the joint or joints over which the muscle crosses, it is known as what? A. Adhesive capsulitis B. Passive insufficiency C. Hypomobility D. Muscle contracture E. None of the above
B
When using massage to reduce edema in an extremity, the athletic trainer should begin the technique _______ and move ______. A. Medially, laterally B. Proximally, distally C. Distally, proximally D. Deeply, superficially E. Superficially, deeply
B
Which of the following structures is responsible for relaying information regarding muscle dynamics to the conscious and subconscious parts of the central nervous system? A. Muscle spindle B. Proprioceptors C. Golgi tendon organs D. Type III muscle fibers E. Brain stem
B
Which of the following types of electrical stimulators is considered "sub sensory"? A. Interferential stimulator B. Low-intestinty stimulator C. TENS D. Diathermy E. High-intestinty stimulator
B
A baseball player who has sprained her ankle for the second time in three months reports to the athletic training facility for her third treatment session. The athletic trainer notices she is demanding and wants to know why the athletic trainer "did not fix her ankle the right way the first time." She becomes somewhat threatening, stating that she will find someone else to help her if she is not successfully helped this time. What would be the best response to an attention-seeking athlete? A. Give up and let her seek help elsewhere B. Work with the athlete as long as necessary to satisfy her need for attention C. Set specific but reasonable time limits with the athlete per treatment session so the athletic trainer is not overtaxed D. Encourage the athlete to take a more positive position on her rehabilitation and use humor to divert her attention away from the injury E. None of the above
C
All of the following are contraindications for electrical stimulation electrode placement except: A. Stimulation across the heart B. Stimulation over an acute thrombophlebitis C. Control of the labor pains by stimulation of the lower back D. Stimulation over the temples E. Directly over the spine
C
All of the following are contraindications for the use of aquatic therapy except: A. An excessive fear of the water B. An open wound C. An athlete who is unable to tread water D. Urinary tract infection E. A skin infection
C
All of the following are indications of ice massage application except: A. Subacute injuries B. Contusions C. Anesthetized skin D. Muscle spasm E. Overuse injuries
C
All of the following principles must be considered before the athletic trainer begins an activity designed to improve balance except: A. Multiple places of motion must be stressed B. The activities must progress to sports-specfic activities C. The activity should incorporate a unisensory approach D. The exercises must be safe but challenging E. None of the above
C
Injury or disease to the pancreas creates pain in which quadrant of the abdomen? A. Lower right B. Upper right C. Upper left D. Lower left E. Central
C
Paraffin bath therapy is commonly used on hands and feet as a method of superficial heating. To keep the paraffin mixture in a molten state, the temperature should be maintained between: A. 100 F to 115 F B. 80 F to 105 F C. 126 F to 130 F D. 118 F to 125 F E. 140 F to 150 F
C
The term dexamethasone is the ______ name of this medication A. Secondary B. Brand C. Generic D. FDA approved E. Trade
C
Two exercises that are designed to stabilize the lumbar spine during low back rehabilitation include _____ and _____. A. Single knee-to-chest exercise, double knee to chest B. Hamstring stretching, bridging exercises C. Partical sit-ups, active truck extension in prone D. Resisted hip abduction exercise, iliotibial band stretching E. Hamstring stretching, piriformis strengthening
C
What are heat-producing currents in the body that are formed by a magnetic field that is externally applied in short-wave diathermy called? A. Induction currents B. Magnetic currents C. Eddy currents D. Alternating currents E. Interferential currents
C
What is a vascular reaction to cold that results in a white, red, or blue discoloration of the extremities? A. Neurapraxia B. Analgesia C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Hypothermia E. Cyanosis
C
What is the internal reaction or resistance of tissue to an external load called? A. Mechanical failure B. Strain C. Stress D. Yield point E. Threshold
C
What type of exercises may be safely initiated immediately after knee surgery? A. Closed-chain eccentric exercises B. Isotonic exercises C. Isometric exercises D. Functional exercises E. None of the above
C
When rehabilitating the shoulder, in what area should strengthening exercises be initiated first? A. Rotator cuff muscles B. Cervical musculature C. Scapular musculature D. Shoulder abductors, flexors, and internal rotators E. A and D
C
When using fluidotherapy, the treatment temperature range is normally set at which of the following temperatures? A. 60 F to 70 F B. 85 F to 100 F C. 100 F to 113 F D. 75 F to 96 F E. 40 F to 60 F
C
Which of the following PNF techniques is not a strengthening technique? A. Slow reversal B. Rhythmic stabilization C. Slow-reversal-hold-relax D. Rhythmic initiation E. All of the above
C
Which of the following components of rehabilitation program is most often overlooked by the athletic trainer during rehabilitation? A. Endurance B. Flexibility C. Proprioception D. Functional testing prior to returning to the sport E. Strength
C
Which of the following electrode placement techniques is most commonly used when treating an individual with "brief-intense" TENS? A. Direct placement B. Dermatome placement C. Stimulation point placement D. Continuous placement E. Bracket placement
C
Which of the following is an example of muscle spindle activity? A. Nystagmus B. Babinski's reflex C. Knee-jerk reflex D. Moro's reflex E. None of the above
C
Which of the following is defined as an uninterrupted direct current? A. Interferential current B. Mircocurrent C. Galvanic current D. Pulsed current E. None of the above
C
Which of the following positions must be avoided when rehabilitating an athlete who has posterior instability of the GH joint? A. Abduction with ER B. Full forward flexion C. IR with horizontal adduction and flexion D. IR with shoulder extension E. A and B
C
A tight achilles tendon can cause ______ or ______ in order to allow the lower leg to move over the foot during running. A. Late heel-off, early heel strike B. Early heel-off, excessive supination C. Late heel-off, late toe off D. Early heel-off, excessive pronation E. Early heel-off, early heel strike
D
An athlete is recovering from a partial meniscectomy performed 5 days ago. All of the following actions would be appropriate at this time exceptL A. Achilles stretching B. Four quadrant straight leg raises C. Stationary bike with minimal/no resistance D. Eccentric quadriceps strengthening E. Hip flexor strengthening
D
An involvuntary muscle contraction characterized by alternate contraction and relaxation in rapid succession is known as which of the following? A. Tonic contraction B. Alternating contraction C. Eccentric contraction D. Clonic contraction E. Phasic contraction
D
Balance and coordination are critical for athletic performance. Feedback from the muscles as to what they are doing during a particular activity is known as _________. The area of the brain that assist in controlling movement is the ________. A. Proprioception, brain stem B. Muscle perception, medulla C. Kinesthesia, cortex D. Proprioception, cerebellum E. Kinesthesia, cerebrum
D
Bone grows via a process of apposition and resorption on its surface. Which of the following cells are responsible for the resorption of bone during its growth or repair? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteophils D. Osteoclasts E. None of the above
D
During a lower extremity D1 flexion PNF pattern, what movements are taking place at the hip? A. Extension, abduction, internal rotation B. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation C. Extension, adduction, external rotation D. Flexion, adduction, external rotation E. Flexion, abduction, external rotation
D
High-voltage pulsed monophasic generators deliver current to deep tissues without damaging superficial tissues and are used for pain modulation. What type of waveform is used with this type of stimulator? A. Asymmetric biphasic spiked pulse B. Monophasic squared pulse C. Symmetrical biphasic pulses D. Monophasic spike delivered in pairs E. None of the above
D
If an athlete needs to lose weight for health reasons, how many calories must his or her daily diet be reduced by in order to lose 1 to 2 pounds per week? A. 250 to 500 calories/day B. 1000 to 2000 calories/week C. 1000 to 2000 calories/day D. 500 to 1000 calories/day E. None of the above
D
Isotonic ER of the GH joint during shoulder rehabilitation focuses on what muscles? A. Infraspinatus B. Teres minor C. Posterior deltoid D. All of the above E. None of the above
D
Massage can be sued as an effective modality to control pain because it activates which of the following? A. Central nervous system and chemosensitive receptors B. Parasympathetic nervous system and mechanosensitive receptors C. Parasympathetic nervous system and the pacinian receptors D. Autonomic nervous system and the pacinian receptors E. Autonomic nervous system and chemosensitive receptors
D
One of your male patients notices a tingling sensation in his urethra followed by a discharged of greenish-yellow pus from his penis. He is also complaining of pain during urination. You suspect which sexual transmitted disease and recommend which of the following actions? A. Syphilis; have the patient take Zovirax for 7 to 10 days B. Trichomoniasis; have the patient drink acidic fluids call his family physician, and have the patient refrain from all sexual contact C. Genital candidiasis; have the patient apply a fungicide to his penis D. Gonorrhea; refer the patient to a physician and have him refrain from all sexual contact E. Genital herpes; have the patient take Difucan
D
The effects of treating a subacute musculoskeletal injury with a warm whirlpool include all of the following except: A. Analgesia B. Stimulation of local circulation C. Decreased muscle spasm D. Increased deep tissue temperature E. Decreased joint stiffness
D
Treatment of "snapping hip" syndrome includes all of the following except: A. Ice and NSAIDs B. Biomechaincal correction C. Flexibility exercises D. Excision of the greater tuberosity in severe cases E. Instruction in proper training techniques
D
What are the 4 sensations an athlete will experience with the application of cryotherapy? A. Cold, burning, cramping, numbness B. Pain, aching, stinging, cold C. Aching, burning, pain, numbness D. Cold, burning, aching, numbness E. Cold, burning, stinging, aching
D
What is an upward force experienced by a body in a fluid that acts in the opposite direction of gravity and is responsible for the feeling of weightlessness in water? A. Specific gravity B. Viscosity C. Hydrostatic pressure D. Buoyancy E. None of the above
D
What is the term used in ultrasound to describe the time that sound waves are being emitted during one pulse period? A. Ultrasound frequency B. Cavitation C. Attenuation D. Duty cycle E. Intensity
D
What should a postseason conditioning program specifically focus on? A. Endurance activities B. Strengthening and flexibility exercises C. Sport-specific activities D. Identifying and improving the areas of conditioning in which the athlete is deficient E. All of above
D
Which of the following exercises are appropriate in attempting to decrease the symptoms of TOS? A. Cervical range of motion exercises, anterior shoulder strengthening B. Cervical range of motion exercises, cervical isometrics C. Anterior chest wall strengthening, cervical isometrics D. Stretching the anterior chest wall (pecs), strengthening the posterior mid thoracic area (rhomboids and traps) E. None of the above
D
Which of the following medications is not a medication that could predispose an athlete to heat illness? A. Decongestant B. Antihistamines C. Diruetics D. NSAIDs E. Beta-adrenergic blockers
D
A patient presents to the athletic training facility complaining of a "sore spot" on the back of his neck. It appears as a dark red, hard area, which later develops as a lesion discharging yellowish-red pus from numerous areas. The athletic trainer suspects the patient has what type of infection? A. Viral B. Fungal C. Systemic D. Parasitic E. Bacterial
E
Diaphoresis is also known as which of the following? A. Rapid heart beat B. Body odor C. Bad breath D. Slow heart beat E. Sweating
E
In terms of specificity of training, which type of exercise would be appropriate during the late phases of rehabilitation of a soccer player? A. Stairmaster B. Swimming C. Stationary bike D. Leg press E. Treadmill exercise
E
Polydipsia is also known as which of the following? A. Excessive urination B. Excessive hunger C. Excessive blood glucose D. Low urine pH E. Excessive thirst
E
Strengthening of which muscle is vital in the throwing athlete? A. Lower trapezius B. Pectineus C. Serratus posterior D. Obliques E. Rhomboids
E
The condition intertrigo is treated by which of the following? A. Application of a topical astringent B. Application of a topical antibiotic C. There is no known treatment for intertrigo D. Application of a warm compress E. Application of a cold compress, cleaning the area with mild soap and water, followed by the application of a soothing ointment
E
Ultrasound is based on the ______ effect. A. Resonance B. Sounding C. Cavitation D. Phoresor E. Reverse piezoelectric
E
What amount of time may it take for a complete remodeling of tissues to occur after a soft tissue injury? A. 1 to 3 months B. 6 to 9 months C. 4 to 6 weeks D. 12 to 24 months E. Up to 1 year
E
What are the most appropriate exercises for a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis? A, Kegel exercises B. McKenzie extension exercises C. Lumbar stabilization D. Postural awareness exercises E. Williams flexion exercises
E
What is a form of exercise that helps develop eccentric control during dynamic movements? A. Isometric B. PNF C. Hydraulic training D. Isokinetics E. Plyometric
E
When following the DAPRE technique of progressive resistive exercise, the first set of 10 repetitions is performed with a weight that is ________ of the weight that will be lifted in set 3. A. 10% B. 25% C. 100% D. 75% E. 50%`
E
When rehabilitating a patient who has undergone an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction, which of the following muscle groups must be strengthened to support the graft A. Triceps surae B. Hip adductors C. Quadriceps D. Gluteals E. Hamstrings
E
When rehabilitating an athlete, goal setting influences performance by increasing confidence levels and reduce anxiety. Which of the following is not a specific type of goal that is found in the goal-setting literature? A. Subjective goals B. General objective outcome goals C. Specific objective/performance goals D. Process goals E. Reward-based goals
E
Which of the following medications has antipyretic properties? A. Tylenol B. Aspirin C. Benadryl D. Codeine E. A and B
E
Which of the following modalities should be used sparingly, if at all, with a patient who has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis? A. Cold whirlpool B. Interferential current C. TENS D. Ice pack E. Moist heat pack
E
the "half-life" of a drug referees to which of the following? A. The amount of time it takes for a drug to lose half its potency while it is in storage B. Half the amount of time it takes for a drug to reach its therapeutic level in the blood stream C. The time required for the amount of the drug in the blood to be increased by one-half D. The time required for half the therapeutic drug level to be excreted in the urine E. The time requires for the amount of drug in the blood to be reduced by one half
E
