FHDM Unit 1
Q: All are functions of the trans Golgi EXCEPT: A: Addition of GlcNAc B: Addition of Gal C: Addition of NANA D: Sulfanation
A: Addition of GlcNAc
Q: What causes Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
A: Administration of dopamine D2 antagonist
Q: What types of polypeptide chains make up the TCR?
A: Alpha beta TCR B: gamma delta TCR
Q: Which of the following describes the partial lysis of cells and leaves a greenish discoloration?
A: Alpha hemolysis
Q: What tick species leads to Ehrlichia chaffeensis?
A: Amblyomma americanum (Lone Star Tick)
Q: A patient presents to the clinic with fever, chills, and muscle spams. Upon looking at his labs, you notice that there is evidence of renal damage. Which antifungal causes these symptoms?
A: Amphotericin B
Q: Which drugs that treat fever act as IL-1 receptor antagonists?
A: Anakinra B: Rilonacept C: Canakinumab
Q: A patient comes into the clinic and test positive for the HLA-B27 allele. Which autoimmune disease is he most susceptible to?
A: Ankylosing spondylitis
Q: Humoral immunity is a type of adaptive immunity that results in the circulation of which of the following throughout the blood? A: Antigens B: Natural Killer Cells C: Antibodies D: Macrophages
A: Antigens
Q: What amino acid is converted to NO to cause vasodilation?
A: Arginine
Q: Which amino acid is converted to Ornithine?
A: Arginine
Q: What event is simultaneously occurring when immunoglobin gene fragments are being rearranged in the chromosome?
A: B cell development from B cell precursors in the bone marrow
Q: What cells would be affected if there was a defect in Bruton's Tyrosine kinase gene?
A: B cells would be affected B: Decrease in antibodies C: Also known as X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Q: what ligand does CTLA-4 bind to to elicit and inhibitory response?
A: B7-2
Q: What microbes are normally found as normal flora in the gut?
A: Bacteriodes fragilis and Echerochia coli (both are Gram negative rods)
Q: What protein is responsible for the transport of Lipid II across the inner membrane? A: Bactoprenol B: Transpeptidases C: Lysosome D: Glut 4
A: Bactoprenol
Q: A defect in the gene for MHC II expression would lead to what?
A: Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome (BLS)
Q: A man from Ecuador comes into the clinic complaining of a fever of 102 F. His CBC showed a low RBC count. What organism caused these symptoms?
A: Bartonella bacilliformis
Q: A patient presents to the ER due to blood-filled nodules forming on his legs. He states that he just recently travel to the Andes mountain. What organism caused the formation of these blood filled nodules?
A: Bartonella bacilliformis
Q: A young woman presents to the clinic complaining of fever and an enlarged lymph node in her groin. Upon examination, you see a scabbed scratch site on her legs. What organism is the cause of her symptoms?
A: Bartonella henselae
Q: A homeless man presents to the ER complaining of fever, headache, and pain in the back and bilateral legs. He reports of a similar bout of symptoms 5 days ago. He felt better but decided to come in today due to the severe back pain. What organism is responsible for his symptoms?
A: Bartonella quintana
Q: A 6 year old boy has a blood glucose of 300mg/dl and lethargy. Further investigation reveals that he has a decreased production of insulin than normal. What is his diagnosis?
A: Diabetes mellitus type 1
Q: When can spirochetes be observed in Borrelia infections?
A: During an active fever
Q: Which of the following terms represents pathobiont overgrowth and promotes the loss of barrier integrity?
A: Dysbiosis Dysbiosis represents pathobiont overgrowth and promotes the loss of barrier integrity
Q: In I-Cell Disease, where are lysosomal enzymes found? A: ECF because they were not tagged with Mann-6-P to be targeted to the lysosome B: ICF because they cannot cross the plasma membrane C: Within the lysosome, there is just excess amount of enzymes being produced D: The cytosol of the cell
A: ECF because they were not tagged with Mann-6-P to be targeted to the lysosome
Q: Which test is more sensitive for HIV?
A: ELISA
Q: A patient presents with flu-like symptoms and leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. What organisms if causing this patient's symptoms?
A: Ehrlicia chaffeensis
Q: A child comes into the clinic after excessive vomiting. What ions are lost and how is the body affected?
A: Loosing H+ through vomiting will lead to metabolic akalosis
Q: A 16-year old female comes into the clinic with water diarrhea. What ions are lost and how is the body affected?
A: Loss of bicarbonate resulting in metabolic acidosis
Q: What would be observed in a patient with common variable immunodeficiency?
A: Low levels of all Ig classes B: Normal levels of B cells
Q: Which enzyme is responsible for responsible for the cleavage between NAG and NAM? A: Lysozyme B: Catalase C: Peroxisome D: succinate dehydrogenase
A: Lysozyme
Q: Which protein causes Rheumatic Fever?
A: M Protein
Q: Which of the following help S. pyogenes to adhere to the host cell surface?
A: M protein and F protein
Q: Which of the following proteins block the binding of C3b protein to prevent phagocytosis?
A: M proteins
Q: Which of the following proteins is a C5a peptidase?
A: M proteins
Q: Which MHC complex will recognize viral proteins?
A: MHC I
Q: What leukocyte is responsible for releasing growth factors that stimulate various processes during the proliferative phase?
A: Macrophages
Q: What leukocytes are signals of the onset of the wound repair process when they arrive to the site?
A: Macrophages
Q: How will macrophages be activated when IL-13 and IL-4 are released?
A: Macrophages will be alternatively activated
Q: What is another name for desmosomes?
A: Macula adherens
Q: A patient was administered halothane and succinylcholine. He developed muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, tachycardia, and hyperkalemia. What is the name of this disorder?
A: Malignant Hyperthermia
Q: A 12 year old girl presents with generalized muscles wasting. She is eating a little bit so that she gets the proper nutrients but is not meeting her daily caloric intake needs. She does not have any edema. What does this child present with?
A: Marasmus
Q: Which lymphocyte is responsible for releasing herapin, histamine, and SRSA?
A: Mast cells
Q: Where are B cells most numerous in the lymph node?
A: Medulla
Q: A 2 month old infant presents to the ER with a faint pulse, slightly sunken eyes, and reduced urine output. You calculate his percent weight loss to be 7%. How severe is her dehydration?
A: Moderate
Q: Removal of TLR-4 receptor would cause?
A: More susceptible to gram negative bacteria
Q: What cell is responsible for contracting the wound edges together to promote closure?
A: Myofibroblasts
Q: What cells do Fc activate?
A: Natural killer cells
Q: Which of the following is a feature of the acquired immune system? A: Need to be induced B: No specificity C: fast D: Already present
A: Need to be induced
Q: A defect in the AIRE gene results in_____.
A: Negative selection is incomplete
Q: Which organisms have LOS?
A: Neisseria gonorrhoeae B: Neisseria meninigitidis
Q: A patient presents to the ER with "lead pipe" muscle rigidity and hyperthermia. He was just administered haloperidol because he was combative. His symptoms were treated with Dantrolene, which reduced the stiffness in his muscles. What syndrome describes the above scenario?
A: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Q: What is gamma hemolysis?
A: No lysis
Q: Where does Streptococcus mutans normally reside in the human body?
A: Normal comensal bacteria in the mouth
Q: Where are lactobacillus species found?
A: Normal flora of GI and GU
Q: Which structure is the adult remnant of the notochord?
A: Nucleus Pulposa
Q: What is the function of Artemis?
A: Opens up the up the hairpin structures found at the ends of DNA sequences after recombination
Q: What is the function of IFN-alpha and IFN-beta
A: Stimulate the synthesis of enzymes that interfere with viral replication and increase the expression of MHC I
Q: What bacteria serves as normal flora in the mouth?
A: Streptococcus viridans
Q: Which of the following is responsible for activating plasminogen to plasmin to dissolve blood clots?
A: Streptokinase A and B
Q: Which virulent factors lyse RBCs in Strep. pyogenes?
A: Streptolysin S and O Streptolysin S and O forms pores and lyse erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets.
Q: Which embryotic structure is responsible for the release for hCG?
A: Syncitiotrophoblast
Q: What role does copper play during the wound healing process?
A: Synthesize cross-linkages in collagen to increase tensile strength
Q: What occurs with an increased expression of LFA-1 and VLA-4?
A: T cell will migrate to the lymph node
Q: Which one is more variable: CD3 or TCR?
A: TCR because the variable ends are on the N-terminal side. CD3 is not variable
Q: What cytokine is important for class switching to IgA?
A: TGF-beta
Q: Which Theca cells are responsible for rheumatoid arthritis?
A: Th17 B: Th1
Q: Which of the following media will only allow the growth of Neisseria species? A: Thayer Martin Agar B: MacConkey agar C: Chocolate agar D: Mannitol Salt Agar
A: Thayer Martin Agar
Q: What happens to nucleotides in junctional diversity?
A: They are deleted
Q: What happens when macrophages are alternatively activated?
A: Tissue repair (Fibrosis) B: Anti-inflammatory effects
Q: A DNA gyrase antimicrobial is used for gram positive bacteria. What is its major target in gram positive bacteria?
A: Topoisomerase IV
Q: Which part of the Golgi apparatus is faces the plasma membrane? A: Trans Golgi B: Cis Golgi C: Medial Golgi
A: Trans Golgi
Q: What event happens after somatic rearrangment?
A: Transcription
Q: How are IgA dimers transported across epithelial cells?
A: Transcytosis
Q: Which mode of genetic transfer involves a bacteriophage?
A: Transduction
Q: Slides are stained and you observe a dome-shaped surface on the epithelium. Which type of epithelium is this? A: Transitional epithelium B: Pseudostratified epithelium C: Simple columnar epithelium D: Simple cuboidal epithelium
A: Transitional epithelium
Q: What enzyme does B-Lactam antibiotic inhibits? A: Transpeptidases B: NAM-NAG C: Bactoprenol D: LPS
A: Transpeptidases
Q: A patient was treated with a medication and developed an infection in the pharynx. As you examine his throat, you do not notice any sign of redness or swelling in his throat. He denies any pain in his throat. What could be the cause of this patient's clinical presentation?
A: Treatment with glucocorticoids
Q: What type of collagen is found in the maturation phase?
A: Type I
Q: Which of the following collagen types are found in the basement membrane?
A: Type IV
Q: Which of the following collagen types are responsible for anchoring fibrils to the ECM?
A: Type Vll
Q: Which of the following collagen types are found in fibrous supporting tissues?
A: Type l
Q: Which of the following collagen types are found in hylaine cartilage?
A: Type ll
Q: Which of the following collagen types are form delicate branched 'reticular' supporting meshwork?
A: Type lll
Q: What portion is glucose attached to in Glycogenin?
A: Tyr OH portion
Q: What occurs with a deficiency in Glucogenin?
A: Unable to synthesize glycogen
Q: What growth factor in the wound healing process is responsible for the proliferation of new blood vessels?
A: VEGF
Q: What antibiotic targets NAG-NAM peptide precursors to block its incorporation into the peptidoglycan chain and cross-linking?
A: Vancomycin
Q: What is responsible for the different specificities in the Vl and VH domain of human antibodies?
A: Variability in amino acid residues
Q: What vitamin helps promote the function of neutrophils in the inflammatory phase?
A: Vitamin C
Q: What vitamin is important in the synthesis of collagen?
A: Vitamin C
Q: A 34 year old man comes into the clinic with a history of Cystic Fibrosis. What nutrients is he most likely deficient in?
A: Vitamin D, E, A, and K
Q: What vitamin is important in blood clotting?
A: Vitamin K
Q: Water moves from an area of low concentration to high concentration. How does water move in terms of osmotic pressure?
A: Water moves from low osmotic pressure to high osmotic pressure
Q: Water moves from low concentration to high concentration. How does water move in terms of osmotic pressure?
A: Water moves from low osmotic pressure to high osmotic pressure
Q: When are embryos most susceptible to teratomas?
A: Weeks 3-8 (embryonic period)
Q: How much should a child's weight increase during the first 4-6 months?
A: Weight should double
Q: How much should a child's weight increase by the first year?
A: Weight should triple by the first year
Q: Which test is more specific for HIV?
A: Western Blot The Specific (Pacific) ocean is on the West(ern Blot) coast
Q: Which embryonic gene in development is important in the proper organization of the dorsal and ventral side?
A: Wnt-7 gene
Q: What is the complication of treating dehydration with fruit juices in pediatric cases?
A: Worsens dehydration symptoms by osmotic diarrhea
Q: A defect in the CD 40 ligand would cause?
A: X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
Q: What nutrient acts as a cofactor for enzymes involved in DNA synthesis, transcription, protein synthesis, and cellular immunity?
A: Zinc
Q: Where is the SHH gene expressed during development?
A: Zone of polarizing activity at the base of limbs
Q: What role do IL-12 play when released from macrophages?
A: activate NK cells
Q: Severe combined immunodeficiency results from a deficiency in_____?
A: adenosine deaminase deficiency
Q: What is the function of glutathione?
A: an antioxidant necessary for the stabilization of RBC to prevent them from being converted into Heinz bodies
Q: Which antibodies must the patient's serum react with to be positive for HIV?
A: at least two of gp24, gp41, and gp160
Q: what role does laminin play in the basal membrane?
A: attaches the epithelium to the basal lamina
Q: What is the definition of prophage?
A: bacterial chromosome that has recently taken up a piece of bacterial genome
Q: what is the function of Hyalurinidase?
A: breaks down hyaluroic acid between cells to help bacteria penetrate
Q: Which group is most at rick for Rheumatic fever?
A: children recently infected by group A strephococcus pharyngitis that was not diagnosed and treated properly.
Q: What happens when collagenase and hyaluronidase is release on host cells?
A: degradation of the ECM allowing the passage between cells that would otherwise be blocked
Q: T/F: Nerves and blood vessels an be found in cartilage
A: false, cartilage is avascular and aneural
Q: What is the significance of a high Km for glucokinase?
A: glucokinase only functions when the intracellular concentration of glucose is high
Q: What is the gram stain and shape of E. Coli?
A: gram negative rods
Q: What activates caspase-3?
A: granzyme B
Q: What weapons are used by neitrophls to kill?
A: h2O2, HOCl, ONOO peroxynitritle
Q: Which of the following components of the capsule helps disguise bacteria from macrophages?
A: hyaluronic acid
Q: What is the benefit of the colocalization of activated dendritic cells and naïve T cells?
A: maximizes the chance of T cells recognizing their specific antigen
Q: What significances does the biofilm serve for bacteria?
A: mediated virulence and can form resistance to antimicrobial therapy
Q: What are macrophages in the brain called?
A: microglia
Q: A child presents with 4% weight loss by dehydration. How severe is his dehydration?
A: mild
Q: Where is the monomer form of IgM located?
A: on the surface of B cells to act as a receptor for antigen
Q: What types of molecules can T cells recognize?
A: only protein (peptide) antigens
Q: What term describes pus forming?
A: pyogenic
Q: When skin temperature is greater than that of the surrounding, how is heat lost form the body?
A: radiation and conduction
Q: After VDJ has formed a unit, the V segment undergoes additional recombination in the variant unit. What is this process called?
A: receptor editing
Q: How does DNAase help bacteria spread?
A: reduced viscosity of the abscess material facilitating the spread of infection
Q: What role do IFN- gamma play once released from NK cells?
A: stimulated the macrophage to phagocytize pathogen
Q: Sweat glands are under __________ control.
A: sympathetic muscarinic
Q: How do major basic protein granules fight against parasitic infections?
A: toxic to parasites and cause lysis of mammalian epithelial cells
Q: A 37-year-old man comes into the clinic complaining of a fever, backaches, headache, and loss of appetite. He states that his fever seems to worsen during the say and gets better at night when he goes to bed. What bacterial family is responsible for this patient's symptoms?
A:Brucellosis
Q: What enzymes can be used to break up antibodies into fragments?
A:Papain B: Pepsin
Q: What makes up the backbone of Sphingolipids? A: Sphingomyelin B:Ceramide C: Phosphorylcholine D: Sphingosine
B:Ceramide
Q: Glucose is oxidized at C-1 and produces? A: Glucuronic acid B:Gluconic acid C:Glucaric acid
B:Gluconic acid
Q: Contents of a lipoprotein have been observed and you find which of the following inside? A: Triacylglycerol B: Cholesterol ester C: Cholesterol D: Phospholipids E: All the above F: A and B G: C and D
F: A and B
Q: Which of the following peripheral proteins are found in RBCs membrane? A: Fibrillin B: Ankyrin C: Spectrin D: Dynein E: A and B F: B and C G: All the above
F: B and C
Q: What can be found in the periplasmic space?
A: Degradative enzymes
Q: Which antigen presenting cell is responsible for presenting the antigen to a naïve T cell?
A: Dendritic cell
Q: What would be the last clinical finding seen in dehydrated patients?
A: Hypotension
Q: Which cytokines stimulate serum amyloid A protein (SAA)?
A: IL-1 and TNF
Q: Which cytokine stimulate fibrogen?
A: IL-6
Q: Which cytokine stimulates C reactive protein (CRP)?
A: IL-6
Q: Which interleukin is responsible for the survival and proliferation of memory B cells?
A: IL-7
Q: Where are J chains found?
A: IgA B: IgM
If a patient is deficient in J chain, what IG will he be unable to make?
A: IgA dimer B: IgM pentamer
Q: A mother can passage antibodies to the infant during pregnancy. Which of the following does the mother pass on?
A: IgG
Q: Which IgG subclass is the most abundant?
A: IgG1
Q: Which IgG subclass responds to carbohydrate antigens the best?
A: IgG2
Q: Which IgG subclass has the highest capacity to activate the complement system?
A: IgG3
Q: Which IgG subclass is the most susceptible to hinge proteolysis?
A: IgG3
Q: Which subclass of human IgG has the most disulfide bonds and is the biggest?
A: IgG3
Q: Which IgG subclass responds best to allergens?
A: IgG4
Q: When high levels of soluble CTLA-4 are circulating the body, how does the immune system respond?
A: Immune response will not be downregulated
Q: What term describes a group of receptors structurally related to Ig V or C?
A: Immunoglobin superfamily
Q: An increase in thrombin production would lead to what?
A: Increased coagulation
Q: A patient was given cardiac glycosides for CHF. What does the positive inotropic effect of cardiac glycoside result in?
A: Increased intracellular Na B: Decreases intracellular potassium C: Increased intracellular calcium
Q: A patient comes into the clinic and is diagnosed with ring worm. He is treated with Griseofulvin and recovers in 1 week. How does Griseofulvin act on fungal infections?
A: Inhibit formation of mitotic spindles in fungi
Q: A patient comes into the ER with a history of heroin abuse and reports that he is currently taking buspirone. What would you expect to observe in this patient?
A: Inhibition of shivering
Q: Which of the following describes the bacteria's ability to enter a host's tissue, multiple and spread to other tissues?
A: Invasiveness
Q: What benefit do Collodial and Liposomal antifungals have when given to patients?
A: It can be given at higher doses with less toxicities
Q: Why is Amphortercin B given via IV?
A: It is very poorly absorbed in the intestines
Q: How do IgG levels in preterm babies compare to babies born full term?
A: Its lower than average because the mother passes IgG to babies up until birth. Infant do not reach normal levels of IgG till 1 year of age.
Q: A patient presents to the clinic presenting with fever, rigors, and low blood pressure. He was recently treated with amoxicillin for Lyme disease. What is this syndrome called?
A: Jarish-Herxheimer reaction
Q: In the light chain, J gene segments are completely separate from the C gene segments in which type of light chain?
A: Kappa
Q: A patient has been fasting for the past 2 weeks. What is the main fuel source that his brain is utilizing right now? A: Ketones B: Glucose form gluconeogenesis C: Proteins
A: Ketones
Q: After an streptococcal infection, Antigen-antibody complex deposits have formed and traveled to which organ where it activated the complement system?
A: Kidneys Diagnosis: acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Q: Macrophages in liver cells that reside within the lumen of the liver sinusoids are called?
A: Kupffer cells
Q: A 4 year old boy from India presents to the clinic and appears malnourished. On exam, he is very thing when a swollen belly. He also presents with multiple areas on dyspigmentation on the extremities. What is the clinical diagnosis for this patient?
A: Kwashiorkor
Q: The majority of the surface epithelia are capable of replication and referred to as:
A: Labile cells Hematopoietic bone marrow is another example of viable cells
Q: How is LOS different from LPS?
A: Lacks the O antigen portion of LPS
Q: What helps sequester iron away from microbes in the host?
A: Lactoferrin
Q: In the light chain, alternating J and C gene segments are found in______?
A: Lambda chain
Q: The surface epithelium attaches to the ______ of the basement membrane. A: Lamina rara B: Lamina densa C: Lamina reticularis
A: Lamina rara
Q: Which of the following describes dendritic cells in the epithelium?
A: Langerhans cell
Q: How is pus formation a virulence factor?
A: Limits antibody or antibiotic access to the bacteria
Q: What does gram negative bacteria release when the cell dies? A: Lipid A B: LOS C: Core Polysaccharide D: O antigen
A: Lipid A
Q: Glucose is oxidized at C-6 and produces: A: Gluconic acid B: Glucuronic acid C:Glucaric acid
B: Glucuronic acid
Q: What do neural crest cells turn into?
1. PNS 2. Melanocytes 3. Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla 4. Structures of the face and neck 5. Aortico-pulmonary septum of the heart
Q: Which region of LPS is responsible for inflammation and fever? A: Lipid A B: LOS C: Core Polysaccharide D: O antigen
A: Lipid A
Q: Where are the acute phase proteins synthesized?
A: Liver
Q: The shape of a cell has been lost. What organelles has been damaged?
A. Actin filament/microfilaments
Q: Surface cells are often made up of?
A. Cuboidal and columnar cells
Q: Basal cells are typically made up of
A. Cuboidal cells
Q: T/F: Euchromatin is transcriptionally inactive
A. False
Q: A 2-year child presents to the clinic complaining of a long persistent history of diarrhea and bloated abdomen. His mother states that he has been unable to attend daycare for the past couple of days. What microbe is causing his symptoms? A. Giardia Lambia B. Celiac C. Clostridium Difficile D. Coxsackie A
A. Giardia Lambia
Q: What is produced as a byproduct in lysosomes due to the oxidation of organic substrates?
A. H202
Q: What is a byproduct of oxidation of glucose at C-1?
A. H2O2
Q: What structure of the cytoskeleton is used to resist mechanical stress?
A. Intermediate filaments
Q: A patient presents with damaged cells that line his respiratory tract and has a hard time expelling irritating materials from his trachea. Which cellular structures are responsible for this?
A. Microtubules
Q: Organelles within the cell membrane can move around. Which cellular structure moves these around?
A. Microtubules
Q: Sphingosine is made from a decarboxylation reaction between______
A. Palmitoyl CoA B. Serine
Q: Where are Goblet cells found?
A. Respiratory tract B. Gastrointestinal tract
Q: How do you calculate the Fluid Deficit Volume?
A:
Q: When are adult levels of immunoglobins reached?
A: 10 years old
Q: What will be the end product when an antibody is treated with papain?
A: 2 Fab fragments and 1 Fc fragment
Q: A child has lost 2 kilograms of weight. How much must be replaced in fluid replacement therapy to treat her dehydration?
A: 2 liters
Q: During fasting, how long does it take for gluconeogenesis to produce glucose? A: 24-hours B: 48-hours C: 1 week D: 2 weeks
A: 24-hours
Q: How many half lives does it take to reach steady state concentration?
A: 4-5 half lives
Q: What is the TBW for in term infants?
A: 80%
Q: What role does Activation-Induced Deaminase (AID) play in the immune system?
A: A key enzyme is class switching
Q: What kind of bacteria is Mycobacteria?
A: Acid fast bacteria
Q: A patient labs is showing high levels of TNF and IL-1. What response is the patient displaying?
A: Acute phase response
Q: Which of the following terms refers to the energy required for maintaining the body temperature, muscle tone, the circulation of blood, etc of a person who is awake? A: Basal metabolism B: Intermediate metabolism C: Catabolism D: Anabolism
A: Basal metabolism
Q: Which of the following cell types of the innate immune system does not perform phagocytosis? A: Basophils B: Dendritic cells C: Neutrophils D: Macrophages
A: Basophils
Q: Which lymphocytes are granulocytes?
A: Basophils, Eosinophils, and Neutrophils
Q: Which of the following respresents complete lysis and leaves behind a clear zone around colonies?
A: Beta hemolysis
Q: Where is the hinge of the antibody located?
A: Between Ch1 and Ch2 on the heavy chain
Q: Where does the peptide bind on the MHC I structure?
A: Between alpha 1 and alpha 2
Q: Which of the following terms describes a web of polysaccharides that bind organisms together and to cell surfaces?
A: Biofilm
Q: What 3 ways do amingoglycosides act as bactericidal agents?
A: Block initiation of translation B: Miscoded peptide chain C: Blocks translocation
Q: A patient presents to the clinic complaining of painful joints in the knee. He states that he was bitten by a tick 2 months ago. What is the cause of his complication thathe now experiences?
A: Borrelia burgdoferi
Q: A patient presents to the clinic with a 4 week history of headache, fatigue, fever and a bulls eye rash around an area that looks like a bite. What is the cause of his symptoms?
A: Borrelia burgdorferi
Q: A patient present with aa history of Lyme disease and has frequently been seen for fevers. What organism is the cause of his symptoms?
A: Borrelia hermsii
Q: Homeless shelter reports of a high frequency of lice being passed around from person to person. What organism is responsible for this type of infection?
A: Borrelia recurrentis
Q: A couple comes into the clinic and are interested in how tall their child will be. The woman is 63 inches tall and the man is 74 inches tall. How tall will their daughter be? How tall will their son be?
A: Boys= 75. Girls= 62
Q: What is the erythema migrans rash?
A: Bulls eye rash seen in Lyme disease diagnosis
Q: What CD fragment is associated with TCR?
A: CD3
Q: What do B1 cells express on the surface of their cells?
A: CD5 B: IgM
Q: What acts as a competitive inhibitor of CD28 by binding more strongly to B7?
A: CTLA-4
Q: Which of the following describe an organized layer firmly attached to the cell wall? A: Capsule B: Slime layer
A: Capsule
Q: What are the major cations and anions of the ECF?
A: Cations: Na+ Anions: Cl- and HCO3-
Q: T cells that have high avidity will die by apoptosis during maturation in the thymus. What kind of tolerance is this?
A: Central tolerance
Q: Which sphingolipid is sulfated in sulfatide? A: Cerebroside B: Globoside C: Ganglioside D: Sphingomyelin
A: Cerebroside
Q: Which of the following receptors helps activated dendritic cells migrate to naïve T cells?
A: Chemokine receptors (CCR7)
Q: which of the following terms describes the impairment of the host's cells cilium on their epithelium?
A: Cilliostasis
Q: What term describes transcriptional regions of bacteria?
A: Cistrons
Q: What collagen type is initial placed into the wound bed during the wound healing process?
A: Collagen III
Q: Which of the following is released by bacteria to degrade the host ECM?
A: Collagenase and Hyaluronidase
Q: Which of the following terms refer to the bacteria's ability to remain attached to the host and replicate?
A: Colonization
Q: When heat is lost by nearby objects through direct contact, it is called?
A: Conduction
Q: What is the function of myofibroblasts?
A: Contract to close the wound during the proliferative phase
Q: When heat is loss to the surrounding air, it is called?
A: Convection
Q: what nutrient acts as a cofactor for lysyl oxidase?
A: Copper
Q: Which virus is SARS associated with?
A: Coronovirus
Q: How does magnesium work on the nervous system?
A: Cutaneous vasodilation B: Reduced amplitude of shivering
Q: Which enzymes are involved in phase 1 reactions?
A: Cytochrome P450 B: Flavin-containing monooxygenases C: Epoxide hydrolyases
Q: Where does Rickettsia rickttsii live in the host organism?
A: Cytoplasm
Q: What amino acid does Vancomycin in the NAG-NAM-peptide precursor? A: D-Alanine B: L-Alanine C: D-Glu D: mDAP
A: D-Alanine
Q: What is an example of irreversible inhibitors?
A: DIPF containing compounds
Q: A DNA gyrase antimicrobial is used to treat gram negative bacteria. What is its major target in gram negative bacteria?
A: DNA gyrase
Q: Which drug is responsible for inhibiting ryanodine receptor1 (RyR1) channels in the sacroplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle?
A: Dantrolene
Q: What creates peptide antibiotics that form pores in and kill microbes?
A: Defensins
Q: A 3 year old male presents to the ER with weakness and dry mucus membranes. His mother reports of decreased kindey output. What would his kidney function tests and urine specific gravity show?
A: Elevated kidney function tests (BUN and creatinine) Urine specific gravity would be greater than 1.030
Q: Is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 encapsulated? What kind of genetic material can be found within this virus?
A: Encapsulated virus with dsDNA genome
Q: What describes the Decidual reaction?
A: Enlargement of uterine stromal cells, accumulate glycogen and lipids, breakdown capillaries to form lacunae
Q: A patient's sample was observed and Mullbery monocytes are found within the cytoplasm of some cells. What organsims has infected these cells?
A: Enrlichia chaffeensis
Q: What are ribozymes?
A: Enzymes with catalytic activity
Q: Where are major basic protein granules found?
A: Eosinophils
Q: Why are females more susceptible to autoimmune diseases?
A: Estrogen increases Ab responses
Q: Which form of chromatin is less densely packed? A: Euchromatin B: Heterochromatin
A: Euchromatin
Q: Which embryonic gene stimulates mitosis of the underlying mesoderm allowing lengthening of the limbs?
A: FGF gene
Q: Which growth factor in wound healing is involved in filling the wound bed with ECM and newly synthesized collagen?
A: FGF-2
Q: The GLUT 4 transporter is an example of what kind of transporter?
A: Facilitated diffusion
Q: What leads to chronic would healing?
A: Failure of progress in the stages in wound healing
T/F: Each antibody can have both kappa and lambda chains.
A: False. They will have either one but never both. Kappa and lambda are the two class of light chain isotypes.
Q: What do M proteins bind to to block phagocytosis and complement activation?
A: Fc fragment
Q: What does the yellow color indicate on mannitol salt agar plates?
A: Fermentation of mannitol
Q: Which cartilage is the only type to contain type l and type ll collagen?
A: Fibrocartilage
Q: Which of the following structures do bacteria use to attach to host cells and resist physical removal?
A: Fimbriae/pili
Q: A patient has been treated with an antibiotics and now presents to your clinic with myelosuppression. What drug has caused this?
A: Flucytosine
Q: What treatment is given to prevent neural tube defect?
A: Folic acid
Q: The cholera toxin infects the intestines and attached to which ganglioside? A: GM1 B: GD1 C: GM2 D: GD2
A: GM1
Q: What is the last stage of twinning?
A: Gastrulation
Q: What happens after a individual eats a high protein meal? A: Glucagon increases at levels higher than individuals who are fasting B: Significant increase in blood glucose C: Significant increase in insulin
A: Glucagon increases at levels higher than individuals who are fasting
Q: What are the preferred energy source for neutrophils and macrophages?
A: Glutamine
Q: What is the benefit of leukocytes using glutamine for energy metabolism over glucose metabolism?
A: Glutamine metabolism generates NADPH which has a potisive effect of superoxide formation by NADPH oxidase.
Q: Which fuel source is utilized first during the fasting state? A: Glycogen B: Ketones C: Protein
A: Glycogen
Q: What is the shape, gram stain, and location of infection of the host cell of rickettsia rickettsii
A: Gram negative, rod, intracellular, non-motile
Q: Which bacteria type is sporulation found? A: Gram positive B: Gram negative
A: Gram positive
Q: What type of bacteria is LPS found in? A: Gram-negative B:Gram-Positive
A: Gram-negative
Q: A patient presents to your clinic and labs show that he has dermaphytosis. What antifungal would you treat this patient with?
A: Griseofulvin
Q: A baby was born via vaginal delivery and developed neonatal. The mother had a negative PMH but a vaginal culture showed a bacterial strain that is normally present is the normal flora of some women. What organism do you think is the cause of the neonatal sepsis?
A: Group B streptococcus
Q: The D segment that codes for immunoglobin codes for which structure in Immunoglobins?
A: Heavy chain
Q: Which viral protein on the influenza virus helps it bind to sialic acid receptors on host cells?
A: Hemagglutinin
Q: Resident tissues macrophages are made from what sources?
A: Hemopoietic stem cell from bone marrow B: Progenitor cells in the fetal yolk sac C: fetal liver
Q: When does fibrin formation, degranulation, and platelet aggregation occur during the wound healing process?
A: Hemostasis
Q: What are the 4 phases of wound healing?
A: Hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation. And remodeling
Q: what are macrophages is connective tissues called?
A: Histiocytes
Q: A 7 year old boy was born with an extra finger. Which gene was mutated in development to cause this extra digit?
A: Hox
Q: Which gene is responsible for segmentation of body parts during embryonic development?
A: Hox gene
Q: What types of cartilage describes a glass-like cartilage?
A: Hyaline cartilage
Q: Arginine is important is the synthesis of collagen in wound repair. It is eventually converted to proline. What amino acid derivative is the precursor to Proline?
A: Ornithine Arginine is converted to ornithine and then converted to proline which is necessary for the formation of collagen in wound healing.
Q: Macrophages in bone are referred to as?
A: Osteoclats
Q: What are some examples of cardiac glysocides?
A: Ouabain, digitalis, and digoxin
Q: Which layer in the mitochondria in permeable to metabolites? A: Outer membrane B: Inner membrane C: Both D: Neither
A: Outer membrane
Q: What is found in the peroxisomes?
A: Oxidative enzymes
Q: Where are t cells most numerous in the lymph node?
A: Paracortex
Q: Which of the following describes an enriched region of chromosomes encoding for multiple virulence factors?
A: Pathogenicity Islands Pathogenicity Islands are enriched region of chromosomes encoding for multiple virulence factors
Q: Which of the following statements is true? A: Pathological hyperplasia is distinct from cancer because hyperplasia can regress with removal of the abnormal stimulus B: Metaplasia is increase in cell number C: Hyperplasia is the exchange of one cell type for another D: Atrophy is caused by an increase in growth factors
A: Pathological hyperplasia is distinct from cancer because hyperplasia can regress with removal of the abnormal stimulus
Q: What enzyme will give you peptide fragments and 2 F(ab')2 fragments?
A: Pepsin
Q: Some cells become anergic when they encounter self antigens. What type of tolerance is this referred to?
A: Peripheral tolerance
Q: What results when macrophages are classically activated?
A: Phagocytosis of bacteria and fungi B: Inflammation
Q: A patient injured his hand 2 weeks go and returns to the clinic because he states that it seems to be healing much more slower than it should. When asking about his diet, he admits to completely eliminated any and all lipids from his diet to prepare for an upcoming fitness competition. Why is his diet affecting how fast his wound is healing?
A: Phospholipids are precursors of prostaglandins and thromboxanes.
Q: Glucose is reduced to form: A: Polyols B: Gluconate C: Bilirubin D: Alcodonic acid
A: Polyols
Q: Streptococal pyogenes is gram______________
A: Positive
Q: Where is the temperature-regulating center found?
A: Preoptic area in the anterior portion of the hypothalamus
Q: A damage area of tissue is observed and undergoing re-epithelization, angiogenesis, and ECM formation. What phase of the wound healing process is this?
A: Proliferation
Q: Collagen synthesis is an important step in the wound healing process. What phase of the wound healing process does this occur?
A: Proliferation
Q: What happens to protein sequences that are missing the C-terminal KDEL sequence? A: Proteins are secreted B: Proteins are sent to the Golgi C: Protein are sent to peroxisomes D: Protein are sent to Lysosome
A: Proteins are secreted KDEL targets proteins to RER
Q: Macrophages in the lungs are called_____?
A: Pulmonary alveolar macrophages
Q: A patient presents with pus-filled vesicles on his face, arms, and legs. After further investigation, you learn that the child has been biten by a bug carrying streptococcal bacteria. What does the patient present with?
A: Pyoderma (Impetigo)
Q: What is another name for fever?
A: Pyrogenic
Q: Which structure is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane? A: RER B: SER C: Golgi apparatus D: Lysosomes
A: RER
Q: When heat is loss to the atmosphere or nearby object without touching them is called?
A: Radiation
Q: What route of drug administration only bypasses the liver by 50%?
A: Rectal
Q: A pre-term baby is born with respiratory distress. What abnormality in his lungs in causing his illness?
A: Reduced lecithin/sphingomyelin ration on the lung surface
Q: What results with administration of Dantrolene?
A: Reduced strength of muscle contration
Q: A patient presents to the clinic with high fever, headache, muscle aches, and spotted rash on the ankles, arms, hands, and soles of the feet. What is the cause of these symptoms?
A: Rickettsia rickettsii
Q: What is dermaphytosis?
A: Ring worm
Q: What are some potential pathogens that serve as normal flora of the gut?
A: S. auerus B: N. meningitis C: H. influenzae
Q: A patient is comes to your clinic and you find out that he is deficient in C1, C2, and C4. What disease is associated with these deficiencies?
A: SLE
Q: Which of the following is the name for a complication of streptococcal pharyngitis that occurs when the infecting strain is lysogenized by a temperate bacteriophage
A: Scarlet fever
Q: Which IG is the tail piece found on?
A: Secreted IgG
Q: What will a normal AIRE gene produce?
A: Self-proteins that are used in negative expression
Q: A child presents with 10% weight loss by dehydration. How severe is his dehydration?
A: Severe
Q: What shape do enzymes display on a graph when exhibting cooperative binding?
A: Sigmodial kinetics
Q: Macrophages in the spleen an lymph nodes are referred to as?
A: Sinus histiocytes
Q: What is an example of a secondary immune deficiency?
A: Splenectomy
Q: What is the function of the canaliculi in the bone?
Allows nutrition from the osteonal artery to reach all ostecytes in the osteon.
Q: What amino acids are released into the blood plasma during proteolysis of muscle tissue during fasting?
Alanine
Q: A patient comes into the clinic and you prescribe them a drug with a pH of 6.5. If the pka is 5.5, what percent of the drug is ionized? A. 50% B. 90% C. 99% D. 99.9
B. 90%
Q: In what types of bacteria are Teichoic acids found? A: Gram-Negative B: Gram-positive bacteria
B: Gram-positive bacteria
Q: Which term describes chromatin that very highly condensed? A: Euchromatin B: Heterochromatin
B: Heterochromatin
Q: Neutral/nonpolar lipids are found where in lipoproteins? A. Outer layer of lipoprotein B. Inner core of lipoprotein C. Neither D. Both
B. Inner core of lipoprotein
Q: A young mother brings her 2-year-old son to the pediatrician reporting that he has had recurrent "belly aches" and bloody "currant stools" for the past two weeks. The child experiences sudden, intermittent vomiting interspersed with periods of no complaints. The mother reports that she has seen him squatting with his knees to his chest, which seems to relieve him of his symptoms. Upon physical exam, you palpate a sausage like mass in the abdomen. Which GI finding do you suspect? A. Bowel obstruction B.Intussusception C.Volvulus D. Duodenal atresia
B. Intussusception
Q: Which transport mechanisms involve a protein carrier? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Simple diffusion C. primary active transport D. Secondary active transport
B. Simple diffusion
Q: Glucose is oxidize at C-1 and C-6 and produces: A: Gluconic acid B: Glucaric acid C: Glucuronic acid
B: Glucaric acid
Q: A 4-week-old first-born baby boy presents with non-bilious projectile vomiting after feedings over the last 24 hours. Mom says that he enjoys feeding, and even after he vomits, he appears eager and hungry. On physical exam, you palpate an olive-shaped mass in the epigastric region. Labs show blood pH 7.47 and potassium of 3.2 mmol/L. Which congenital abnormality does this infant have? A.Bowel obstruction B.Pyloric stenosis C.Volvulus D.Duodenal atresia
B.Pyloric stenosis
Q: Which of the following values represents the respiratory quotient during the complete oxidation of glucose? A: 0.5 B: 1.0 C: 0.7 D: 1.7
B: 1.0
Q: After how long is glycogen depleted from the liver? A: 48 hours B: 24 hours C: 1 week D: 2 weeks
B: 24 hours
Q: A patient comes in weighting 12kg. His pre-illness weight was 13kg. What is his % dehydration? A: 2% B: 8% C: 11% D: 9%
B: 8%
Q: What smooth muscle filament is found in myofibroblasts? A: Myosin B: Actin
B: Actin
Q: All of the following are functions of the Cis-golgi EXCEPT A: Phosphorylation of lysosomal oligosaccharides B: Addition of NANA C: O-linked glycosylation D: Removal of mannose
B: Addition of NANA
Q: What role does transpeptidases play in peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis? A: Transports NAM-NAG precursor across the membrane B: Catalyzes the reaction between mDAP or Lysine to alanine to connect peptide chains found in the cell wall C: Hydrolyzes NAM-NAG bonds
B: Catalyzes the reaction between mDAP or Lysine to alanine to connect peptide chains found in the cell wall
Q: The structure of peptidoglycan is composed of: A: N-acetyglucosamine chains B: Chain consisting of alternating N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic amino sugars C: Lipopolysaccharide D: Gangliosides
B: Chain consisting of alternating N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic amino sugars
Q: Where is the precursor for NAM-NAG found? A: Extracellular B: Cytoplasm C: Nucleus D: Periplasm
B: Cytoplasm
Q: NANA is attached to which sphingolipid? A: Globoside B: Ganglioside C:Sphingomyelin D: Cerebroside
B: Ganglioside
Q: Sialic acid is attached to which sphingolipid? A: Sphingomyelin B: Ganglioside C: Cerebroside D: Globoside
B: Ganglioside
Q: Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the liberation of fatty acids from stored triglycerides in adipose tissues? A: Glycogen phosphorylase B: Hormone-sensitive lipase C: Glucose-6-phosphatase D: PEPCK
B: Hormone-sensitive lipase
Q: Which of the following types of immune responses involves antigens binding directly to the B cells causing the production of antibodies? A: APC immunity B: Humoral immunity C: Cell-mediated immunity D: innate immunity
B: Humoral immunity
Q: A 55-year-old man diagnosed with a tumor known to increase anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) complains of dizziness and lethargy one evening and ultimately suffers a grand mal seizure. In the emergency department, his plasma Na+ concentration was 114mE1/L (normal, 140 mEq/L). He is treated with an infusion of hypertonic NaCl and released a few days later. What did the treatment do? A: Increase his ICF osmotic pressure B: Increase his ECF osmotic pressure C: Decrease his ICF osmotic pressure D: Decrease his ECF osmotic pressure
B: Increase his ECF osmotic pressure
Q: What is the consequence of adding glucuronate to billirubin: A: Decreasing conjugation B: Increase in solubility C: Formation of gluconate D:A and B E: All the above
B: Increase in solubility
Q: Which of the following occurs when insulin is decreased due to fasting? A: Decreased glucagon B: Increased glucocorticoids C: Decreased catecholamines D: Increased glucose
B: Increased glucocorticoids
Q: In what part of the mitochondria is succinate dehydrogenase found? A: Outer membrane B: Inner membrane C: Both D: Neither
B: Inner membrane
Q: Which of the following terms refers to all changes that occur in a food substance beginning with absorption and ending with excretion? A: Basal Metabolism B: Intermediate metabolism C: Catabolism D: Anabolism
B: Intermediate metabolism
Q: You are looking at the stratified surface epithelium of a cell and see flat, dead cells missing a nucleus. What are these cell types called? A: Non-keratinized epithelium B: Keratinized epithelium C: Pseudostratified columnar epithelium D: Transitional epithelium
B: Keratinized epithelium
Q: when a person is starving where do they most of their energy from? A: Protein B: Ketose C: Glucose
B: Ketose
Q: Which of the following is not a region of the Lipopolysaccharide? A: Lipid A B: LOS C: Core Polysaccharide D: O antigen
B: LOS
Q: Which lymphoid organ serves as the site in which the highest probability for a naïve T cell to see its antigen? A: Bone Marrow B: Lymph nodes C: Spleen D: Appendix
B: Lymph nodes
Q: Which medium will only grow gram-negative bacteria? A: Thayer Martin Agar B: MacConkey agar C: Chocolate agar D: Mannitol Salt Agar
B: MacConkey agar
Q: What molecule is used to target enzymes to the lysosome? A: C-terminal KDEL sequence B: Mannose-6-phosphate C: C-terminal SKL sequence D: ATP
B: Mannose-6-phosphate
Q: Which part of the Golgi is responsible for the removal of mannose and the addition of GlcNAc A: Trans Golgi B: Medial Golgi C: Cis Golgi
B: Medial Golgi
Q: You are looking at a blood smear under the microscope and see a cell with a large indented nucleus. What type of cell is this? A: Lymphocytes B: Monocytes C: Basophil D: Neutrophil
B: Monocytes
Q: The respiratory track is observed and viable cells with a nucleus are seen. What are these called? A: Keratinized B: Non-keratinized C: Simple squamous D: Pseudostratified epithelium
B: Non-keratinized
Q: Where does rRNA transcription occur? A: Ribosome B: Nucleolus C: Nucleus D: RER
B: Nucleolus
Q: Which part of the core polysaccharide has high structural variability? A: Inner core B: Outer core
B: Outer core
A standard treatment of animal bite victims, when there is a possibility that the animal was infected with the rabies virus, is administration of human immunoglobin preparations containing anti-rabies virus antibodies. Which type of immunity would be established by this treatment? A: Active humoral immunity B: Passive humoral immunity C: Active cell-mediated immunity D: Passive cell-mediate immunity E: Innate immunity
B: Passive humoral immunity
Q: Which fuel source is utilized last during the fasting state? A: Glycogen B: Proteins C: Ketones
B: Proteins
Q: what role do proteoglycans play in the basal lamina? A: Forms a meshwork that gives the lamina densa its strength B: Responsible for the permeability of the basal lamin C: Binds to Collagen type IV D: Binds to Heparin sulfate PG
B: Responsible for the permeability of the basal lamin
Q: Which organelle is responsible for N-Linked glycosylation? A: Golgi B: Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum C: SER D: Ribosome
B: Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
Q: What role do Goblet cells play in the epithelium? A: Gap junctions between each cells B: Secrete mucus in order to protect the mucous membrane C: Degradation of pathogenic objects D: Storage of degradative enzymes
B: Secrete mucus in order to protect the mucous membrane The main role of goblet cells is to secrete mucus in order to protect the mucous membranes where they are found. Goblet cells accomplish this by secreting mucins, large glycoproteins formed mostly by carbohydrates.
Q: Which of the following describe an unorganized polysaccharide layer that is loosely attached to the cell wall? A: Capsule B: Slime layer
B: Slime layer
Q: Myofibroblasts are intermediates between fibroblasts and ________ muscle. A: Cardiac B: Smooth C: Skeletal
B: Smooth
Q: A sphingolipid containing a ceramide attached to a phosphorylcholine? A: Cerebroside B: Sphingomyelin C: Globoside D: Ganglioside
B: Sphingomyelin
Q: What step in peptidoglycan synthesis does Bacitracin inhibit? A: Transpeptidases B: The recycling of BPP C: Transglycosylation D: Addition of amino acids to the precursor sugar
B: The recycling of BPP
Q: Ca+2 ATPase channels are found along the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) to maintain calcium levels within each muscle cell. How many Calcium ions are pumped into the SR? A. 5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 1
C. 2 Same for the Endoplasmic reticulum
Q: A patient with history of rheumatoid arthritis has been on antibiotics for a long period of time. She complains of a 1 week history of persistent diarrhea. What microbe may be responsible for her symptoms? A. Giardia Lambia B. Celiac C. Clostridium Difficile D. Coxsackie A
C. Clostridium Difficile
Q: A 10-day-old baby boy is brought to the emergency room for repeated episodes of vomiting. His mother describes the vomit as green and yellow. On physical exam, the physician has difficulty at first locating the heartbeat, but finally hears a heartbeat on the right side of the chest. Suspicious, he sends the baby for abdominal radiography and upper GI series. Imaging reveals dilated bowel loops and a "birds beak" or "coffee bean" appearance of bowel. What is his diagnosis? A.Bowel obstruction B.Pyloric stenosis C.Volvulus D.Duodenal atresia
C.Volvulus
Q: Which of the following values represents the respiratory quotient during the oxidation of palmitic acid? A: 0.5 B: 1.0 C: 0.7 D: 1.7
C: 0.7
Q: What is used as the decolorizer in the Gram Stain assay? A: Safranin red or Crystal violet B: Alcohol or Safranin red C: Acetone or alcohol D: None of the above
C: Acetone or alcohol
Q: How are proteins targeted to the Peroxisome? A: C-terminal KDEL sequence B: Mannose-6-phosphate C: C-terminal SKL sequence D: ATP
C: C-terminal SKL sequence
Q: Sphingosine and fatty acids combine to make? A: Ganglioside B: Triacylglycerol C: Ceramide D: Sphingomyelin
C: Ceramide
Q: what happens with the inhibition of SGLT1? A: Increased intracellular glucose concentration within epithelial cells lining the GI tract B: Decreased glucose in the lumen of the gut C: Decreased intracellular glucose concentration within epithelial cells lining the GI tract D: Increased intracellular sodium concentration
C: Decreased intracellular glucose concentration within epithelial cells lining the GI tract
Q: What is the function of glandular epithelia? A: Covers external surfaces of the body B: Lines vascular channels (Blood Vessels and Heart) C: Forms the secreting surface of glands and their ducts D: Protection
C: Forms the secreting surface of glands and their ducts
Q: Stratified tissues found in all except? A:Oral cavity B: Epidermis of skin C: Gallbladder D: Exocrine gland ducts E: Bladder
C: Gallbladder
Q: Which of the following will decrease after a high carbohydrate meal? A: Blood glucose B: Insulin C: Glucagon
C: Glucagon
Q: which part of the LPS structure consists of disaccharide-diphosphate and a fatty acid? A: Core Polysaccharide B: LOS C: Lipid A D: O antigen
C: Lipid A
Q: Which of the following will have the most severe endotoxin-like pyrogenic responses? A: Peptidoglycan B: Teichoic acid C: Lipopolysaccharide D: Lipoteichoic acid
C: Lipopolysaccharide
Q: Monocytes move from the systemic circulatory system into general connective tissues, where they differentiate into what phagocytic cell type? A: T Cell B: B Cell C: Macrophage D: Neutrophils
C: Macrophage
Q: Which medium can be used to isolate Staphylococci? A: Selective B: Differential C: Mannitol Salt Agar D: Blood Agar
C: Mannitol Salt Agar
Q: Which of the following routes of administration cannot avoid the Hepatic first pass elimination? A: Intravenous B: Inhalation C: Oral D: Sublingual route
C: Oral
Q: Which component can be found in lecithin, which lines the surface of the lungs? A: Ceramide B: Sphingomyelin C: Phosphatidylcholine D: Ganglioside
C: Phosphatidylcholine
Q: Which amino acid will disrupt the H-bonds between strands? A: Valine B: Alanine C: Proline D: Aspartate
C: Proline
Q: Which muscle cell type has nucleus located in the periphery? A: Cardiac muscle B: Smooth muscle C: Skeletal muscle
C: Skeletal muscle
Q: A sphingolipid containing a ceramide attached to a disaccharide A: Globoside B: Cerebroside C: Sphingomyelin D: Sulfatide
C: Sphingomyelin
Q: what is another name for penicillin-binding proteins A: Bactoprenol B: NAM-NAG C: Transpeptidases D: LPS
C: Transpeptidases
Q: What binds to Laminin?
Collagen type IV Heparin sulfate PG
Q: A 45-year-old women with polyhydramnios delivers a male infant with Down syndrome. Shortly after birth, the infant vomits greenish-yellow fluid. Imaging reveals two distinct pockets of air in the abdominal region. A.Bowel obstruction B.Pyloric stenosis C.Volvulus D.Duodenal atresia
D.Duodenal atresia
Q: A child comes into the clinic with 9% dehydration weighting 13kg. What is the fluid deficit volume? A: 0.91 B: 0.78 C: 0.44 D: 1.17
D: 1.17
Q: Which of the following will occur when LPS is released by gram-negative bacteria? A: Vasodilation and capillary leakage B: Activation of the complement system C: Reduced blood clotting D: A and B E: B and C F: All the above
D: A and B
Q: Which of the following is Acetyl CoA NOT converted to in the liver? A: Cholesterol B: CO2 C: Fatty acids D: Amino acids
D: Amino acids
Q: What would you expect to observe in cardiac muscle cells of a patient treated with digitalis glycosides compared to a normal individual? A: A net decrease in the intracellular sodium concentration B: An increase in the size of the electrochemical gradient for Na+ influx across the cell membrane C: An increase in the activity of the sodium-calcium exchanger D: An increased force of concentration in the heart secondary to an enhanced intracellular Ca+ concentration
D: An increased force of concentration in the heart secondary to an enhanced intracellular Ca+ concentration
Q: Which type of medium is used for detecting hemolytic ability? A: Selective B: Differential C: Mannitol Salt Agar D: Blood Agar
D: Blood Agar
Q: What causes Hereditary spherocytosis? A: Deficiency of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase B: Increase of UDP-glucuronosyltransferase C: Lysis of RBCs D: Deficiency in ankyrin and spectrin in RBC membranes that maintain RBC's membrane integrity
D: Deficiency in ankyrin and spectrin in RBC membranes that maintain RBC's membrane integrity
Q: Which of the following will decrease upon the release of glucagon? A: Glycogenolysis B: Gluconeogenesis C: Lipolysis D: Liver glycolysis
D: Liver glycolysis
Q: What is the last phase of the immune response? A: Antigen elimination B: Homeostasis C: Lymphocyte activation D: Memory
D: Memory
Q: A cerebroside is made up of a ceramide and what? A: Globoside B: Ganglioside C: Disaccharide D: Monosaccharide
D: Monosaccharide
Q: A patient with a history of diabetes presents to the clinic with bilateral cataracts. Which enzyme would normally be responsible for converting sorbitol to fructose? A: Aldose reductase B: Hydroxylase C: Glucose oxidase D: Sorbitol dehydrogenase
D: Sorbitol dehydrogenase
Q: What is the last step in the Gram stain assay? A: Add Iodine B: Decolorization C: Stain with Crystal violet D: Stain with Safranin
D: Stain with Safranin
Q: All are functions of the smooth ER except: A: Synthesis of lipids and steroids B: Metabolizes drugs, ethanol, and xenobtiotcs via Cyt P450 C: Storage of G-6-phosphatase D: Synthesis of proteins to be secreted
D: Synthesis of proteins to be secreted
Q: which collagen type makes up the basal lamina? A: Type l B: Type ll C: Type lll D: Type IV
D: Type IV
Q: What are the 4 types of phase 1 reactions?
Dealkylation Hydroxylation Oxidation Deamination "HODD"
Q: Which of the following is released when the hypothalamus detects low blood glucose? A: Cortisol B: Epinephrine C: Norepinephrine D: Glucagon E: All the above
E: All the above
Q: A 6-year-old girl has a respiratory tract infection caused by parovirus B19 and is admitted into the hospital in hemolytic crisis. She has jaundice and splenomegaly. Laboratory findings include an elevated mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and elevated reticulocyte count; spherocytes are present on the blood smear. Which of the following molecules has a defect that most likely is the cause of the patient's condition? A: Spingomyelin B: Fibrillin C: Dynein D: Kinesin E: Ankyrin
E: Ankyrin
Q: Where are Goblet cells found? A: Simple cuboidal epithelium B: Pseudostratified columnar epithelium C: Simple columnar epithelium D: A and B E:B and C F: All the above
E:B and C
Q: What are the types of phase II reactions?
Glucuronidation Acetylation Glutathione Conjugation Glycine Conjugation Sulfation Methylation "More GGGAS"
Q: How are Monocytes and Lymphocytes different?
Monocytes have larger indentation than Lymphocytes
Q: What 2 things does Cytochrome P require?
NADP O2