Final 3

The nurse assesses a patient with a skull fracture to have a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3. Additional vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, heart rate 55 beats/min, respiratory rate 10 breaths/min, oxygen saturation (SpO2) 94% on oxygen at 3 L per nasal cannula. What is the priority nursing action? a. Monitor the patients airway patency. b. Elevate the head of the patients bed. c. Increase supplemental oxygen delivery. d. Support bony prominences with padding.

ANS: A A GCS score of 3 is indicative of a deep coma. Given the assessed respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min combined with the GSC score of 3, the nurse must focus on maintaining the patients airway. There is no evidence to support the need for increased supplemental oxygen. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min may result in increased CO2 retention, which may further increase ICP through dilatation of cerebral vessels. Elevating the head of the bed and supporting bony prominences are appropriate nursing interventions for a patient in a deep coma; however, airway patency is the immediate priority.

18. A patient presents to the emergency department with suspected thyroid storm. The nurse should be alert to which of the following cardiac rhythms while providing care to this patient? a. Atrial fibrillation b. Idioventricular rhythm c. Junctional rhythm d. Sinus bradycardia

ANS: A Increased heart rate and tachydysrhythmia, including atrial fibrillation, may accompany thyroid storm. Bradycardiac rhythms may be suggestive of hypothyroidism.

Pain control is a nursing priority in patients with acute pancreatitis because pain: a. increases pancreatic secretions. b. is caused by decreased distention of the pancreatic capsule. c. decreases the patients metabolism. d. is caused by dilation of the biliary system

ANS: A Pain control is a nursing priority in patients with acute pancreatitis not only because the disorder produces extreme patient discomfort but also because pain increases the patients metabolism and thus increases pancreatic secretions. The pain of pancreatitis is caused by edema and distention of the pancreatic capsule, obstruction of the biliary system, and peritoneal inflammation from pancreatic enzymes. Pain is often severe and unrelenting and is related to the degree of pancreatic inflammation.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for peptic ulcer disease. Suddenly, the patient yells that her abdomen is killing her. The nurse notes that the patients abdomen is rigid. The nurse should: a. call the provider immediately. b. give the patient pain medication. c. remove the NG tube. d. give the patient an antacid.

ANS: A Perforation of the gastric mucosa is the major GI complication of peptic ulcer disease. The most common signs of this complication are an abrupt onset of abdominal pain, followed rapidly by signs of peritonitis. Emergent surgery is indicated for treatment. Pain medication is not the treatment of choice in this situation. These patients almost always have nasogastric tubes placed for gastric decompression. Antacids and histamine blockers may or may not be indicated, depending on the cause of the upper GI bleeding. Mortality rates for patients with perforations range from 10% to 40%, depending on the age and condition of the patient at the time of surgery; therefore, it is essential that the provider be called immediately.

ALERT3. Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of ARDS? (Select all that apply.) a. Increase functional residual capacity b. Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli c. Improve arterial oxygenation d. Open collapsed alveoli

ANS: A, B, C, D Ventilatory support for ARDS typically includes PEEP to restore functional residual capacity, open collapsed alveoli, prevent collapse of unstable alveoli, and improve arterial oxygenation.

When dealing with hematological malignancies, therapies that have significant management roles include: (Select all that apply.) a. chemotherapy. b. biotherapy. c. bone marrow transplantation. d. surgery. e. radiation.

ANS: A, B, C, E Therapy commonly includes chemotherapy and biotherapy. Bone marrow transplantation is used in selected cases. Surgery may be performed to establish a pathological diagnosis by excisional or incisional biopsy but has no other significant role in the management of hematological malignancies. Radiation may be used to treat lymphoma when the disease is limited to single nodes or node groups.

ALERT 6. When dealing with hematological malignancies, therapies that have significant management roles include: (Select all that apply.) a. chemotherapy. b. biotherapy. c. bone marrow transplantation. d. surgery. e. radiation.

ANS: A, B, C, E Therapy commonly includes chemotherapy and biotherapy. Bone marrow transplantation is used in selected cases. Surgery may be performed to establish a pathological diagnosis by excisional or incisional biopsy but has no other significant role in the management of hematological malignancies. Radiation may be used to treat lymphoma when the disease is limited to single nodes or node groups.

ALERT 2. In an unconscious patient, eye movements are tested by the oculocephalic response. Which statements regarding the testing of this reflex are true? (Select all that apply.) a. Dolls eyes absent indicate a disruption in normal brainstem processing. b. Dolls eyes present indicate brainstem activity. c. Eye movement in the opposite direction as the head when turned indicates an intact reflex. d. Eye movement in the same direction as the head when turned indicates an intact reflex. e. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a contraindication to the assessment of this reflex. f. Presence of cervical injuries is a contraindication to the assessment of this reflex.

ANS: A, B, C, E, F In unconscious patients with stable cervical spine, assess oculocephalic reflex (dolls eye): turn the patients head quickly from side to side while holding the eyes open. Note movement of eyes. The dolls eye reflex is present if the eyes move bilaterally in the opposite direction of the head movement.

Which of the following statements about defibrillation are correct? (Select all that apply.) a. Early defibrillation (if warranted) is recommended before other actions. b. It is not necessary to ensure that personnel are clear of the patient if hands-off defibrillation is used. c. It is not necessary to synchronize the defibrillation shocks. d. Paddles/patches can be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.

A, C, D Defibrillation is indicated as soon as possible because early defibrillation and CPR increase the chance of survival. Regardless of the method of defibrillation, all personnel must avoid contact with the patient or bed during the shock delivery. Shocks are delivered without synchronization. Anterior paddle placement is used most often; however, the alternative method is anteroposterior placement.

The nurse is caring for a 100-kg patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate 110 beats/min, respirations 36/min, oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula. Bilateral crackles are audible upon auscultation. Which hemodynamic value requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Cardiac index (CI) of 1.2 L/min/m3 b. Cardiac output (CO) of 4 L/min c. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) of 80 dynes/sec/cm-5 d. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of 1800 dynes/sec/cm-5

ANS: A A cardiac index of 1.2 L/min/m3 combined with the identified clinical assessment findings indicate a low cardiac output with fluid overload (bilateral crackles) requiring intervention. The remaining hemodynamic values are within normal limits: cardiac output of 4 L/min; pulmonary vascular resistance of 80 dynes/sec/cm-5 ; and the systemic vascular resistance of 1800 dynes/sec/cm-5

The charge nurse is supervising the care of four critical care patients being monitored using invasive hemodynamic modalities. Which patient should the charge nurse evaluate first? a. A patient in cardiogenic shock with a cardiac output (CO) of 2.0 L/min b. A patient with a pulmonary artery systolic pressure (PAP) of 20 mm Hg c. A hypovolemic patient with a central venous pressure (CVP) of 6 mm Hg d. A patient with a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 10 mm Hg

ANS: A A cardiac output of 2.0 L/min in a patient with cardiogenic shock warrants immediate assessment. A PAP of 20 mm Hg, CVP of 6 mm Hg, and a PAOP of 10 mm Hg are all within normal limits.

As part of nursing management of a critically ill patient, orders are written to keep the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees, awaken the patient from sedation each morning to assess readiness to wean from mechanical ventilation, and implement oral care protocols every 4 hours. These interventions are done as a group to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia. This group of evidence-based interventions is often called a: a. bundle of care. b. clinical practice guideline. c. patient safety goal. d. quality improvement initiative.

ANS: A A group of evidence-based interventions done as a whole to improve outcomes is termed abundle of care. This is an example of the ventilator bundle. Oftentimes these bundles are derived from clinical practice guidelines and are monitored for compliance as part of quality improvement initiatives. At some point, these may become part of patient safety goals.

💲💲Which patient being cared for in the emergency department should the charge nurse evaluate first?💲💲 a. A patient with a complete spinal injury at the C5 dermatome level b. A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 on 3-L nasal cannula c. An alert patient with a subdural bleed who is complaining of a headache d. An ischemic stroke patient with a blood pressure of 190/100 mm Hg

ANS: A A patient with a C5 complete spinal injury is at risk for ineffective breathing patterns and should be assessed immediately for any airway compromise. A GCS score of 15 indicates a neurologically intact patient. The patient with a subdural bleed is alert and not in danger of any immediate compromise. The goal for ischemic stroke is to keep the systolic BP less than 220 mm Hg and the diastolic.

The charge nurse is reviewing the status of patients in the critical care unit. Which patient should the nurse notify the organ procurement organization to evaluate for possible organ donation? a. A 36-year-old patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 with no activity on electroencephalogram b. A 68-year-old male admitted with unstable atrial fibrillation who has suffered a stroke c. A 40-year-old brain-injured female with a history of ovarian cancer and a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 7 d. A 53-year-old diabetic male with a history of unstable angina status post resuscitation

ANS: A A patient with a GCS score of 3 and no activity on EEG is facing impending death. The OPO should be notified. There are no indications of impending death in any of the other patient scenarios.

Acute kidney injury from post renal etiology is caused by: a. obstruction of the flow of urine. b. conditions that interfere with renal perfusion. c. hypovolemia or decreased cardiac output. d. conditions that act directly on functioning kidney tissue.

ANS: A Acute kidney injury resulting from obstruction of the flow of urine is classified as postrenal or obstructive renal injury. Conditions that result in AKI by interfering with renal perfusion are classified as prerenal and include hypovolemia and decreased cardiac output. Conditions that produce AKI by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue are classified as intrarenal.

A 58 year old female patient has superficial partial-thickness burns to the anterior head and neck, front and back of the left arm, front of the right arm, posterior trunk, front and back of the right leg, and back of the left leg. Using the Rule of Nines, calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned? A. 63% B. 81% C. 72% D. 54%

ANS: A Anterior head and neck (4.5%), front and back of the left arm (9%), front of the right arm (4.5%), posterior trunk (18%), front and back of the right leg (18%), back of the left leg (9%) which equals 63%.

A critically ill patient has a living will in his chart. His condition has deteriorated. His wife says she wants everything done, regardless of the patients wishes. Which ethical principle is the wife violating? a. Autonomy b. Beneficence c. Justice d. Nonmaleficence

ANS: A Autonomy is respect for the individual and the ability of individuals to make decisions with regard to their own health and future. The wife is violating the patients autonomy in decision making. Beneficence consists of actions intended to benefit the patients or others. Justice is being fair. Nonmaleficence is the duty to prevent harm.

Laypersons should use which device to treat lethal ventricular dysrhythmias that occur outside a hospital setting? a. Automatic external defibrillator b. Carbon dioxide detector c. Pocket mask d. Transcutaneous pacemaker

ANS: A Because of the ease of use and efficacy in treating lethal ventricular dysrhythmias, automatic external defibrillators are recommended to be placed in a variety of public settings where they may be used by laypersons.

The patient presents to the ED with severe chest discomfort. He is taken for cardiac catheterization and angiography that shows 80% occlusion of the left main coronary artery. Which procedure will be most likely followed? a. Coronary artery bypass graft surgery b. Intracoronary stent placement c. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) d. Transmyocardial revascularization

ANS: A Coronary artery bypass graft surgery is indicated for significant left main coronary occlusion (>50%)

The nurse is caring for a patient following insertion of an intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) for cardiogenic shock unresponsive to pharmacotherapy. Which hemodynamic parameter best indicates an appropriate response to therapy? a. Cardiac index (CI) of 2.5 L/min/m2 b. Pulmonary artery diastolic pressure of 26 mm Hg c. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 22 mm Hg d. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of 1600 dynes/sec/cm-5

ANS: A Desired outcomes for a patient in cardiogenic shock with an IABP include decreased SVR, diminished symptoms of myocardial ischemia (chest pain, ST-segment elevation), increased stroke volume, and increased cardiac output and cardiac index. A cardiac index of 2.5 L/min is within normal limits. All other values are high and would not indicate an appropriate response to therapy.

The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old patient with a diagnosis of head trauma. The nurse notes that the patients urine output has increased tremendously over the past 18 hours. The nurse suspects that the patient may be developing: a. diabetes insipidus. b. diabetic ketoacidosis. c. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. d. syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone.

ANS: A Diabetes insipidus results in large volumes of urine; dehydration and hypovolemia can result. Head trauma and resulting increased intracranial pressure are potential causes of diabetes insipidus. High urine output following head trauma is associated with diabetes insipidus. Even though hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome results in osmotic diuresis, the cause is a deficiency in insulin in type 2 diabetes, not head trauma. SIADH may occur with head trauma but results in reduced urine output and, potentially, hypervolemia.

The nurse is caring for a renal transplant recipient in the post-anesthesia care unit. Blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg; heart rate is 115 beats/min; respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min; oxygen saturation (SpO2) is 95% on 3 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula, temperature is 97.8 F, and the central venous pressure (CVP/RAP) is 2 mm Hg. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Administer fluid replacement therapy; monitor intake and output closely. b. Increase supplemental oxygen to 100% non-rebreather mask; notify physician. c. Apply thermal warming blanket; administer all fluids through warming device. d. Assess the patient for pain; administer pain medications as ordered.

ANS: A Fluid replacement therapy is a priority in a postoperative renal transplant patient with a CVP of 2 mm Hg and elevated heart rate. An oxygen saturation of 95% on 3 L/min via cannula is an acceptable value. The patient is normothermic; application of active warming measures is not indicated. Although pain assessment is an important part of postoperative nursing care, it is not the priority in this scenario

After receiving a handoff report from the night shift, the nurse completes the morning assessment of a patient with severe sepsis. Vital sign assessment notes blood pressure 95/60 mm Hg, heart rate 110 beats/min, respirations 32 breaths/min, oxygen saturation (SpO2) 96% on 45% oxygen via Venturi mask, temperature 101.5 F, central venous pressure (CVP/RAP) 2 mm Hg, and urine output of 10 mL for the past hour. The nurse initiates which active physician orders first? a. Administer infusion of 500 mL 0.9% normal saline every 4 hours as needed if the CVP is < 5 mm Hg. b. Increase supplemental oxygen therapy to maintain SpO2 greater than 94%. c. Administer 40 mg furosemide (Lasix) intravenous as needed if the urine output is less than 30 mL/hr. d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650-mg suppository per rectum as needed to treat temperature > 101 F.

ANS: A Fluid volume resuscitation is the priority in patients with severe sepsis to maintain circulating blood volume and end-organ perfusion and oxygenation. A 500-mL IV bolus of 0.9% normal saline is appropriate given the patients CVP of 2 mm Hg and hourly urine output of 10 mL/hr. There is no evidence to support the need to increase supplemental oxygen. Administration of furosemide (Lasix) in the presence of a fluid volume deficit is contraindicated.

A patient is admitted to the cardiac care unit with an acute anterior myocardial infarction. The nurse assesses the patient to be diaphoretic and tachypneic, with bilateral crackles throughout both lung fields. Following insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter by the physician, which hemodynamic values is the nurse most likely to assess? a. High pulmonary artery diastolic pressure and low cardiac output b. Low pulmonary artery occlusive pressure and low cardiac output c. Low systemic vascular resistance and high cardiac output d. Normal cardiac output and low systemic vascular resistance

ANS: A In cardiogenic shock, cardiac output and cardiac index decrease. Right atrial pressure, pulmonary artery pressures, and pulmonary artery occlusion pressure increase and volume backs up into the pulmonary circulation and the right side of the heart. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure increases in cardiogenic shock. Systemic vascular resistance is high and cardiac output is low in cardiogenic shock. Cardiac output is low and systemic vascular resistance is high in cardiogenic shock.

The patient is admitted with pancreatitis and has severe ascites. In caring for this patient, the nurse should: a. monitor the patients blood pressure and evaluate for signs of dehydration. b. restrict intravenous and oral fluid intake because of fluid shifts. c. avoid the use of colloid IV solutions in managing the patients fluid status. d. only use crystalloid fluids to prevent IV lines from clotting.

ANS: A In patients with severe acute pancreatitis, some fluid collects in the retroperitoneal space and peritoneal cavity. Patients sequester up to one third of their plasma volume. Initially, most patients develop some degree of dehydration and, in severe cases, hypovolemic shock. Fluid replacement is a high priority in the treatment of acute pancreatitis. The IV solutions ordered for fluid resuscitation are usually colloids or lactated Ringers solution; however, fresh frozen plasma and albumin may also be used. IV fluid administration with crystalloids at 500 mL/hr is at times required to maintain hemodynamic status. Often, vigorous IV fluid replacement at 250 to 300mL/hr continues for the first 48 hours or a volume adequate to maintain a urine output of greater than or equal to 0.5 mL/kg body weight per hour. Fluid replacement helps to maintain perfusion to the pancreas and kidneys, reducing the potential for complications.

A patient presents to the emergency department with suspected thyroid storm. The nurse should be alert to which of the following cardiac rhythms while providing care to this patient? a. Atrial fibrillation b. Idioventricular rhythm c. Junctional rhythm d. Sinus bradycardia

ANS: A Increased heart rate and tachydysrhythmia, including atrial fibrillation,

Infection by Helicobacter pylori bacteria is a major cause of: a. duodenal ulcers. b. Cushings ulcers. c. Curlings ulcers. d. stress ulcers.

ANS: A Infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria is a major cause of duodenal ulcers. A stress ulcer is an acute form of peptic ulcer that often accompanies severe illness, systemic trauma, or neurological injury. Stress ulcers that develop as a result of burn injury are often called Curlings ulcers. Stress ulcers associated with severe head trauma or brain surgery are called Cushings ulcers.

The nurse is having difficulty inserting a large caliber intravenous catheter to facilitate fluid resuscitation to a hypotensive trauma patient. The nurse recommends which of the following emergency procedures to facilitate rapid fluid administration? a. Placement of an intraosseous catheter b. Placement of a central line placement c. Insertion of a femoral catheter by a trauma surgeon d. Rapid transfer to the operating room

ANS: A Infusion of volume is required for optimal fluid resuscitation and may be achieved through large caliber venous cannulation or intraosseous access. A central line or femoral vein access may be obtained by the physician, but the procedure requires time. Transport to the operating room is not a priority in the goal to obtain intravenous access for fluid resuscitation.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been struck by lightning. Because of the nature of the injury, the nurse assesses the patient for which of the following? a. Central nervous system deficits b. Contractures c. Infection d. Stress ulcers

ANS: A Lightning injury frequently causes cardiopulmonary arrest. However, of those patients who survive, 70% will have transient central nervous system deficits. Contractures, infection, and stress ulcer risks are no greater than with other causes of burn injury

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with clinical indications of an acute myocardial infarction. Symptoms began 3 hours ago. The facility does not have the capability for percutaneous coronary intervention. Given this scenario, what is the priority intervention in the treatment and nursing management of this patient? a. Administer thrombolytic therapy unless contraindicated b. Diurese aggressively and monitor daily weight c. Keep oxygen saturation levels at least 88% d. Maintain heart rate above 100 beats/min

ANS: A Medical treatment of AMI is aimed at relieving pain, providing adequate oxygenation to the myocardium, preventing platelet aggregation, and restoring blood flow to the myocardium through thrombolytic therapy or acute interventional therapy such as angioplasty. Since interventional cardiology is not available, thrombolytic therapy is indicated. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at higher levels to ensure adequate oxygenation to the heart muscle. An elevated heart rate increases oxygen demands and should be avoided. Diuresis is not indicated with this scenario.

Which of the following would be seen in a patient with myxedema coma? a. Decreased reflexes b. Hyperthermia c. Hyperventilation d. Tachycardia

ANS: A Myxedema coma is characterized by a hypometabolic state, and all body functions are slowed including cardiovascular function, decreased gastrointestinal mobility, cold intolerance, and diminished reflexes. Hyperthermia is characteristic of thyroid storm. Hyperventilation is characteristic of thyroid storm and diabetic ketoacidosis. Tachycardia is characteristic of thyroid storm.

💲💲Which of the following interventions would not be appropriate for a patient who is admitted with a suspected basilar skull fracture?💲💲 a. Insertion of a nasogastric tube b. Insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter c. Endotracheal intubation d. Placement of an oral airway

ANS: A Nasogastric tubes are contraindicated in basilar skull fractures because insertion may result in penetration of the meninges. An indwelling urinary catheter may be necessary to monitor fluid balance. Protection of the airway to include placement of an oral airway or endotracheal tube may be indicated.

The nurse is a member of a committee to design a critical care unit in a new building. Which design trend would best to facilitate family-centered care? a. Ensure that the patient's room is large enough and has adequate space for a sleeper sofa and storage for family members personal belongings. b. Include a diagnostic suite in close proximity to the unit so that the patient does not have to travel far for testing. c. Incorporate a large waiting room on the top floor of the hospital with a scenic view and amenities such as coffee and tea. d. Provide access to a scenic garden for meditation.

ANS: A New unit design trends to promote family-centered care include larger patient rooms that include a larger family space and comfortable furniture and storage to promote open visitation, including overnight stays in the patients room. Ready access to diagnostic testing, including portable equipment, is an important trend; however, the purpose for this is to prevent the need for transport, not to foster family-centered care. A waiting room in close proximity to the unit with amenities is a nice feature; however, it does not need to be large if adequate space is incorporated into the patients room. A scenic garden for medication may assist in reducing family members stress, but proximity to the patient is the greatest need.

A patient has been on daily, high-dose glucocorticoid therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. His prescription runs out before his next appointment with his physician. Because he is asymptomatic, he thinks it is all right to withhold the medication for 3 days. What is likely to happen to this patient? a. He will go into adrenal crisis. b. He will go into thyroid storm. c. His autoimmune disease will go into remission. d. Nothing; it is appropriate to stop the medication for 3 days.

ANS: A Patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy are at high risk for adrenal crisis, because therapy suppresses the endogenous production of steroids. Adrenal crisis may be precipitated by sudden withdrawal of glucocorticoid therapy. Thyroid storm may occur when antithyroid medications are suddenly withdrawn. Rheumatoid arthritis is likely to exacerbate with the withdrawal of glucocorticoids. Adrenal crisis may occur shortly after withdrawal of glucocorticoids.

The patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would exhibit which of the following symptoms? a. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration b. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels c. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration d. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation

ANS: A Patients with ARDS often have hypoxemia refractory to treatment. Surfactant levels are often diminished in ARDS. Compliance decreases in ARDS. In early ARDS, hyperventilation may occur along with respiratory alkalosis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with severe pancreatitis and who is orally intubated and on mechanical ventilation. The patients calcium level this morning was 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse notifies the provider and: a. places the patient on seizure precautions. b. expects that the provider will come and remove the endotracheal tube. c. withhold any further calcium treatments. d. place an oral airway at the bedside.

ANS: A Patients with severe hypocalcemia (serum calcium level less than 6 mg/dL) should be placed on seizure precaution status, and respiratory support equipment should be available (e.g., oral airway, suction). In this case, the patient is already intubated so an oral airway is not needed. This value is critically low and replacement of calcium is expected.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patients temperature is elevated. The nurse should: a. assess peritoneal dialysate return. b. check the patients blood sugar. c. evaluate the patients neurological status. d. inform the provider of probable visceral perforation.

ANS: A Peritonitis is the most common complication of peritoneal dialysis therapy and is usually caused by contamination in the system. Peritonitis is manifested by abdominal pain, cloudy peritoneal fluid, fever and hills, nausea and vomiting, and difficulty in draining fluid from the peritoneal cavity.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with cardiogenic shock. Hemodynamic readings obtained with a pulmonary artery catheter include a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 18 mm Hg and a cardiac index (CI) of 1.0 L/min/m2. What is the priority pharmacological intervention? a. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) d. Sodium nitroprusside (Nipride)

ANS: A Positive inotropic agents (e.g., dobutamine) are given to increase the contractile force of the heart. As contractility increases, cardiac output and index increase and improve tissue perfusion. Administration of furosemide will assist only in managing fluid volume overload. Phenylephrine administration enhances vasoconstriction, which may increase afterload and further reduce cardiac output. Sodium nitroprusside is given to reduce afterload. There is no evidence to support a need for afterload reduction in this scenario.

The patient is admitted with a suspected acute myocardial infarction (MI). In assessing the 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, which findings would indicate to the nurse that the patient is in the process of an evolving Q wave myocardial infarction(MI)? a. ST-segment elevation on ECG and elevated CPK-MB or troponin levels b. Depressed ST-segment on ECG and elevated total CPK c. Depressed ST-segment on ECG and normal cardiac enzymes d. Q wave on ECG with normal enzymes and troponin levels

ANS: A ST segment elevation and elevated cardiac enzymes are seen in Q wave MI

The nurse is caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock who is being treated with an intraaortic balloon pump (IABP). The family inquires about the primary reason for the device. What is the best statement by the nurse to explain the IABP? a. The action of the machine will improve blood supply to the damaged heart. b. The machine will beat for the damaged heart with every beat until it heals. c. The machine will help cleanse the blood of impurities that might damage the heart. d. The machine will remain in place until the patient is ready for a heart transplant.

ANS: A The IABP improves coronary artery perfusion, reduces afterload, and improves perfusion to vital organs. An IABP acts through counterpulsation, augmenting the pumping action of the heart, displacing blood to improve both forward and backward blood flow. It does not beat for the damaged heart. An IABP does not filter blood impurities. An IABP is designed as a temporary therapy for use when pharmacological interventions alone are not effective. It is indicated for short-term use, not as a bridge to transplant.

A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) with chest pain that he has had for the past 2 hours. He is nauseous and diaphoretic, and his skin is dusky in color. The electrocardiogram shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which therapeutic intervention would the nurse question? a. Emergent pacemaker insertion b. Emergent percutaneous coronary intervention c. Emergent thrombolytic therapy d. Immediate coronary artery bypass graft surgery

ANS: A The goals of management of AMI are to dissolve the lesion that is occluding the coronary artery and to increase blood flow to the myocardium. Options include emergent percutaneous intervention, such as angioplasty, emergent coronary artery bypass graft surgery, or thrombolytic therapy if the patient has been symptomatic for less than 6 hours. No data in this scenario warrant insertion of a pacemaker.

Upon entering the room of a patient with a right radial arterial line, the nurse assesses the waveform to be slightly dampened and notices blood to be backed up into the pressure tubing. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Check the inflation volume of the flush system pressure bag. b. Disconnect the flush system from the arterial line catheter. c. Zero reference the transducer system at the phlebostatic axis. d. Reduce the number of stopcocks in the flush system tubing.

ANS: A To maintain the patency of the arterial line, the inflation volume of the flush system pressure bag should be inflated to 300 mm Hg to ensure a constant flow of fluid through the system, preventing backward flow of blood into the system tubing. Disconnecting the flush system from the arterial line is not appropriate and could increase the risk of infection to the patient. Zero referencing the system will not help clear the blood from the system tubing. Reducing the number of stopcocks helps reduce the risk of a disconnection that could lead to excessive blood loss.

ALERT In which of the following situations would a healthcare surrogate or proxy assume the end-of-life decision- making role for a patient? a. When a dying patient requires extensive heavy sedation, such as benzodiazepines and narcotics, to control distressing symptoms b. When a dying patient who is competent requests to withdraw treatment against the wishes of the family c. When a dying patient who is competent requests to continue treatment against the recommendations of the healthcare team d. When a dying patient who is competent is receiving prn treatment for pain and anxiety

ANS: A A patient who requires heavy sedation, such as IV infusions of pain medications or anxiolytic medications, would not be competent to make healthcare decisions. A healthcare proxy or surrogate would be required in this situation. A patient who is deemed competent by the medical team may be responsible for healthcare decisions even if these are not consistent with family beliefs. A surrogate would not assume decision-making responsibilities in this situation. A healthcare team member who cannot support decisions would be responsible for finding an alternative care provider who could support the patients wishes.

ALERT4. A statement that provides a legally recognized description of an individuals desires regarding care at the end of life is a (an): a. advance directive. b. guardianship ad litem. c. healthcare proxy. d. power of attorney.

ANS: A Legally recognized documents that provide guidance on an individuals end-of-life choices are advance directives. Advance directives include living wills, durable power of attorney for health care, and healthcare surrogate designations. A guardianship ad litem is a parent who files legal action on the behalf of a child. A healthcare proxy is an individual who is legally designated through statute to make decisions for an incapacitated person. A power of attorney is an individual who is, through filing of legal papers, authorized to act on the behalf of an incapacitated person in legal matters.

Which of the following statements is true regarding venous thromboembolism (VTE) and pulmonary embolus (PE)? a. PE should be suspected in any patient who has unexplained cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE. b. Bradycardia and hyperventilation are classic symptoms of PE. c. Dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis occur in nearly all patients with PE. d. Most critically ill patients are at low risk for VTE and PE and do not require prophylaxis.

ANS: A PE should be suspected in any patient who has unexplained cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE. Dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain have been called the classic signs and symptoms for PE, but the three signs and symptoms actually occur in less than 20% of cases. Bradycardia and hyperventilation are not classic signs of PE. Most critically ill patients are at high risk for VTE and all should receive prophylaxis.

Which nursing actions are most important for a patient with a right radial arterial line?(Select all that apply.) a. Checking the circulation to the right hand every 2 hours b. Maintaining a pressurized flush solution to the arterial line setup c. Monitoring the waveform on the monitor for dampening d. Restraining all four extremities with soft limb restraints

ANS: A, B, C Options A, B, and C are required to ensure proper functioning of the arterial line.

Select the strategies for preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolus (PE).(Select all that apply.) a. Graduated compression stockings b. Heparin or lowmolecular weight heparin for patients at risk c. Sequential compression devices d. Strict bed rest

ANS: A, B, C Graduated compression stockings, sequential compression devices, and anticoagulation can reduce the risk for DVT. Physical activity can also reduce the risk; bed rest increases the risk.

A patient is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The nurse monitors for which potential complications? (Select all that apply.) a. Cardiac dysrhythmias b. Heart failure c. Pericarditis d. Ventricular rupture

ANS: A, B, C, D All are potential complications of AMI

💲💲Which of the following are documented as part of the cardiopulmonary arrest record? (Select all that apply.)💲💲 a. Medication administration times b. Defibrillation times, joules, outcomes c. Rhythm strips of cardiac rhythm(s) noted d. Signatures of recorder and other personnel

ANS: A, B, C, D Documentation includes the time the code is called, the time CPR is started, any actions that are taken, and the patients response (e.g., presence or absence of a pulse, heart rate, blood pressure, cardiac rhythm). Intubation and defibrillation (and the energy used) must be documented, along with the patients response. The time and sites of IV initiations, types and amounts of fluids administered, and medications given to the patient must be accurately recorded. Rhythm strips are recorded to document events and response to treatment. Signatures of those involved in the code effort, including the recorder, are essential.

Warning signs that can assist the critical care nurse in recognizing that an ethical dilemma may exist include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Family members are confused about what is happening to the patient. b. Family members are in conflict as to the best treatment options. They disagree with each other and cannot come to consensus. c. The family asks that the patient not be told of treatment plans. d. The patient's condition has changed dramatically for the worse and is not responding to conventional treatment. e. The physician is considering trying a medication that is not approved to treat the patient's condition.

ANS: A, B, C, D, E All of these are potential signs of an ethical dilemma

Which of the following are common causes of sinus tachycardia? (Select all that apply.) a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypovolemia c. Hypothyroidism d. Heart Failure e. Sleep

ANS: A, B, D Common causes of sinus tachycardia include hyperthyroidism, hypovolemia, heart failure, anemia, exercise, use of stimulants, fever, and sympathetic response to fear or pain and anxiety. Hypothyroidism and sleep tend to slow the heart rate.

The critical care environment is stressful to the patient. Which interventions assist in reducing this stress? (Select all that apply.) a. Adjust lighting to promote normal sleep-wake cycles. b. Provide clocks, calendars, and personal photos in the patients room. c. Talk to the patient about other patients you are caring for on the unit. d. Tell the patient the day and time when you are providing routine nursing interventions.

ANS: A, B, D Manipulation of the environment, such as adjusting lighting, is helpful in promoting sleep and rest; clocks, calendars, photos, and other personal items promote orientation and personalize the environment; telling the patient the day and time and other current events assists in maintaining the patients orientation. Conversations about other patients are private and should take place away from other patients.

Identify the priority interventions for managing symptoms of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in the ED. (Select all that apply). a. Administration of morphine b. Administration of nitroglycerin (NTG) c. Dopamine infusion d. Oxygen therapy

ANS: A, B, D The initial pain of AMI is treated with morphine sulfate administered intravenously. NTG may be given to reduce the ischemic pain of AMI. NTG increases coronary perfusion because of its vasodilatory effects. Oxygen administration is important for assisting the myocardial tissue to continue its pumping activity and for repairing the damaged tissue around the site of the infarct.

ALERT 9. In the critically ill patient, an incomplete assessment and/or management of pain or anxiety may be hampered by which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Administration of neuromuscular blocking agents b. Delirium c. Effective nurse communication and assessment skills d. Nonverbal patients e. Ventilated patient

ANS: A, B, D Delirium appears in approximately 80% of patients in the intensive care unit. Delirium is characterized by changing mental status, inattention, disorganized thinking, and altered levels of consciousness. Patients in the intensive care unit may not be able to verbalize because of the presence of an artificial airway, sedative medication, neuromuscular blocking agents, or brain injury. Effective nurse-to-patient communication and assessment skills would facilitate assessment of pain and anxiety. There are tools and assessment methods to assess pain in ventilated patients.

Nursing priorities for the management of acute pancreatitis include: (Select all that apply.) a. managing respiratory dysfunction. b. assessing and maintaining electrolyte balance. c. withholding analgesics that could mask abdominal discomfort. d. stimulating gastric content motility into the duodenum. e. utilizing supportive therapies aimed at decreasing gastrin release.

ANS: A, B, E Nursing and medical priorities for the management of acute pancreatitis include several interventions. Managing respiratory dysfunction is a high priority. Fluids and electrolytes are replaced to maintain or replenish vascular volume and electrolyte balance. Analgesics are given for pain control, and supportive therapies are aimed at decreasing gastrin release from the stomach and preventing the gastric contents from entering the duodenum. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis

The family of a critically ill patient has asked to discuss organ donation with the patient's nurse. When preparing to answer the family's questions, the nurse understands which concern(s) most often influence a family's decision to donate? (Select all that apply.) a. Donor disfigurement influences on funeral care b. Fear of inferior medical care provided to donor c. Age and location of all possible organ recipients d. Concern that donated organs will not be used e. Fear that the potential donor may not be deceased f. Concern over financial costs associated with donation

ANS: A, B, E, F Common fears and concerns that can influence a family's decision to donate include fear of disfigurement of the donor, fear of inferior medical care being provided to the donor in order to hasten the process, fear that the donor may not really be deceased, and concern that the family of the donor will assume the financial burden associated with the donation. The number of individuals awaiting transplant along with the current UNOS registry system ensures all procured organs will be transplanted. The age and location of recipients are not disclosed by the OPO.

Which of the following patients would require greater amounts of fluid resuscitation to prevent acute kidney injury associated with rhabdomyolysis? (Select all that apply.) a. Crush injury to right arm b. Gunshot wound to the abdomen c. Lightning strike of the left arm and chest d. Pulmonary contusion and rib fracture

ANS: A, C Causes of rhabdomyolysis include crush injuries, compartment syndrome, burns, and injuries from being struck by lightning. Acute kidney injury may result from a gunshot wound related to prolonged hypotension. Acute kidney injury would not have a direct cause associated with a pulmonary contusion

3. Calorie-dense feedings: (Select all that apply.) a. are most useful in heart failure and liver disease. b. are most useful in malabsorption syndromes. c. contain 2 kcal/mL and 70 g protein/L. d. include increased fiber.

ANS: A, C Calorie-dense feedings are used when volume should be minimized and protein requirements are high, such as in heart failure or liver disease. They contain 2 kcal/mL and 70 g protein/L. OBJ: Describe interventions to achieve nutritional goals.

ALERT1. Identify diagnostic criteria for ARDS. (Select all that apply.) a. Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study b. Decreased cardiac output c. PaO2 / FiO2 ratio of less than 200 d. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of more than 18 mm Hg

ANS: A, C Diagnostic criteria for ARDS include bilateral infiltrates, or white out, on chest x-ray study and a low PaO2 /FiO2 ratio. Decreased cardiac output and a high PAOP are seen in pulmonary edema associated with cardiac causes. Decreased cardiac output and a high PAOP are seen in pulmonary edema associated with cardiac causes.

💲💲Which of the following is a National Patient Safety Goal? (Select all that apply.) a. Accurately identify patients. b. Eliminate use of patient restraints. c. Reconcile medications across the continuum of care. d. Reduce risks of healthcare-acquired infection.

ANS: A, C, D All except for eliminating use of restraints are current National Patient Safety Goals. Hospitals have policies regarding use of restraints and are attempting to reduce the use of restraints; however, this is not a National Patient Safety Goal.

The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient and responds to a high inspiratory pressure alarm. Recognizing possible causes for the alarm, the nurse assesses for which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Coughing or attempting to talk b. Disconnection from the ventilator c. Kinks in the ventilator tubing d. Need for suctioning

ANS: A, C, D Coughing, kinks, and mucus in the airway can cause the inspiratory pressure to increase; ventilator disconnects result in low-volume alarms. A disconnection from the ventilator would result in a low exhaled volume alarm, not a high-pressure alarm.

Which of the following are appropriate nursing interventions for the patient in myxedema coma? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer levothyroxine (Synthroid) as ordered. b. Encourage the intake of foods high in sodium. c. Initiate passive rewarming interventions. d. Monitor airway and respiratory effort. e. Monitor urine osmolality.

ANS: A, C, D Myxedema coma is a severe manifestation of hypothyroidism. Treatment entails replacement of thyroid hormone, airway management related to respiratory depression and potential airway obstruction related to tongue edema, thermoregulation, management of edema and congestive heart failure symptoms, and patient education. Edema may accompany myxedema and necessitate use of sodium restriction. Urine osmolality is monitored in conditions that affect antidiuretic hormone levels.

ALERT 13. The nurse is assessing the critically ill patient for delirium. The nurse recognizes which characteristics that indicate hyperactive delirium? (Select all that apply.) a. Agitation b. Apathy c. Biting d. Hitting e. Restlessness

ANS: A, C, D, E All except for apathy are characteristics of hyperactive delirium. Apathy is seen in hypoactive cases

It is important for critically ill patients to feel safe. Which nursing strategies help the patient to feel safe in the critical care setting? (Select all that apply.) a. Allow family members to remain at the bedside. b. Be sure to consult with the charge nurse before making any patient care decisions. c. Provide informal conversation by discussing your plans for after work. d. Respond promptly to call bells or other communication for assistance.

ANS: A, D Patients feel safe when nurses exhibit technical competence, meet their needs, and provide reorientation. Family member presence may also contribute to feeling safe. Consulting with the charge nurse before making decisions may be interpreted as incompetence or insecurity. The nurses personal activities should never be discussed with patients.

The nurse is preparing to obtain a right atrial pressure (RAP/CVP) reading. What are the most appropriate nursing actions? (Select all that apply.) a. Compare measured pressures with other physiological parameters. b. Flush the central venous catheter with 20 mL of sterile saline. c. Inflate the balloon with 3 mL of air and record the pressure tracing. d. Obtain the right atrial pressure measurement during end exhalation. e. Zero reference the transducer system at the level of the phlebostatic axis.

ANS: A, D, E To obtain an accurate right atrial pressure (RAP/CVP) reading, the transducer system should be zero referenced and leveled with the phlebostatic axis to ensure accurate readings; the value should be obtained during end exhalation, and any obtained measure should be evaluated in light of the patients physiological parameters and physical assessment. The catheter does not need to be flushed before measurement because continuous saline flush is part of the RAP system. There is no balloon with a right atrial pressure (RAP/CVP) catheter.

The nurse is caring for a patient 3 days following a complete cervical spine injury at the C3 level. The patient is in spinal shock. Following emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation, what is the priority nursing action? a. Maintain body temperature. b. Monitor blood pressure. c. Pad all bony prominences. d. Use proper hand washing.

ANS: B

The nurse calculates the PaO2/FiO2 ratio for the following values: PaO2 is 78 mm Hg; FiO2 is 0.6 (60%). a. 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS b. 130; meets criteria for ARDS c. 468; normal lung function d. Not enough data to compute the ratio

ANS: B 78/0.60 = 130, which meets the criteria for ARDS.

💲💲The nurse admits a patient to the emergency department (ED) with a suspected cervical spine injury. What is the priority nursing action?💲💲 a. Keep the neck in the hyperextended position. b. Maintain proper head and neck alignment. c. Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation. d. Remove cervical collar upon arrival to the ED.

ANS: B Alignment of the head and neck may help prevent spinal cord damage in the event of a cervical spine injury. Hyperextension of the neck is contraindicated with a cervical spine injury. Immediate endotracheal intubation is not indicated with a suspected cervical spine injury unless the patients airway is compromised. The use of assist devices to maintain immobilization of the cervical spine is indicated until injury has been ruled out

Acute adrenal crisis is caused by: a. acute renal failure. b. deficiency of corticosteroids. c. high doses of corticosteroids. d. overdose of testosterone.

ANS: B An adrenal crisis occurs because of a lack of corticosteroids. This may be due to lack of endogenous cortisol production, lack of ACTH production, or inhibition of natural cortisol production by exogenous cortisol administration. Acute renal failure would not be associated with adrenal crisis. High doses of corticosteroids are associated with Cushings syndrome. Testosterone overdose would not be associated with adrenal crisis. Steroid hormones may possess some corticoid properties.

The nurse has just completed administration of a 1000-L bolus of 0.9% normal saline. The nurse assesses the patient to be slightly confused, with a mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) of 50 mm Hg, a heart rate of 110 beats/min, urine output of 10 mL for the past hour, and a central venous pressure (CVP/RAP) of 3 mm Hg. What is the best interpretation of these results by the nurse? a. Patient response to therapy is appropriate. b. Additional interventions are indicated. c. More time is needed to assess response. d. Values are normal for the patient's condition.

ANS: B Assessed vital signs and hemodynamic values indicate decreased circulating volume. The patient has not responded appropriately to therapy aimed at increasing circulating volume. Additional intervention is needed because response to therapy is not appropriate, values are abnormal, and timely intervention is critical for a patient with low circulating blood volume

Which interventions can the nurse implement to assist the patient's family in coping with the traumatic event? (Select all that apply.) a. Establish a family spokesperson and communication system. b. Ask the family about their normal coping mechanisms. c. Limit visitation to set times throughout the day. d. Coordinate a family conference.

ANS: A, B, D The trauma team can assist the patient and family in crisis by helping them establish a consistent communication process between the healthcare team and family. Other interventions include exploring the family's perceptions of the event, support systems, and coping mechanisms. Family conferences early in the emergent phase and frequently during the critical care phase assist with communication and with understanding the patients and family's expectations for care. Limiting visitation will not assist the patient or the family's ability to cope with the traumatic event.

💲💲The nurse is caring for a patient from a rehabilitation center with a preexisting complete cervical spine injury who is complaining of a severe headache. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg, heart rate 60 beats/min, respirations 24 breaths/min, and 50 mL of urine via indwelling urinary catheter for the past 4 hours. What is the best action by the nurse?💲💲 a. Administer acetaminophen as ordered for the headache. b. Assess for a kinked urinary catheter and assess for bowel impaction. c. Encourage the patient to take slow, deep breaths. d. Notify the physician of the patients blood pressure.

ANS: B Autonomic dysreflexia, characterized by an exaggerated response of the sympathetic nervous system can be triggered by a variety of stimuli, including a kinked indwelling catheter, which would result in bladder distention. Other causes that should be ruled out prior to pharmacological intervention include fecal impaction. Treating the patient for a headache will not resolve symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Treatment must focus on identifying the underlying cause. Slow deep breathes will not correct the underlying problem. Assessing for underlying causes of autonomic dysreflexia should precede contacting the physician.

💲💲Which of the following is a high-priority nursing diagnosis for both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?💲💲 a. Activity intolerance b. Fluid volume deficient c. Hyperthermia d. Impaired nutrition, more than body requirements

ANS: B Both diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome result in dehydration and hypovolemia; therefore, fluid volume deficit is a priority nursing diagnosis. Even though activity intolerance is a potential nursing diagnosis related to the fatigue associated with metabolic changes in hyperglycemic conditions, it is not a first priority. Hyperthermia is associated with thyroid crisis. Although overweight and obesity are risk factors for type 2 diabetes, during metabolic crisis, the patient has inadequate energy available to tissues because of limited availability and poor utilization of insulin.

The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient following bilateral lung transplantation. When planning the care of this patient, what is the priority nursing intervention? a. Thirty-degree elevation of head of bed b. Endotracheal suctioning as needed c. Frequent side to side repositioning d. Sequential compression stockings

ANS: B Denervation of the lung that occurs during lung transplantation causes changes in mucus production and ciliary movement. As a result, to promote the drainage of secretions and prevent mucus plugging, endotracheal and oral suctioning should be a priority of nursing care in the postoperative lung transplant patient. Head of bed elevation, side to side repositioning, and application of sequential compression stockings are appropriate nursing interventions, but they are not the priority intervention.

The nurse is managing a donor patient six hours prior to the scheduled harvesting of the patient's organs. Which assessment finding requires immediate action by the nurse? a. Morning serum blood glucose of 128 mg/dL b. pH 7.30; PaCO2 38 mm Hg; HCO3 16 mEq/L c. Pulmonary artery temperature of 97.8 F d. Central venous pressure of 8 mm Hg

ANS: B Donor management, focuses on maintaining hemodynamic stability and normal laboratory parameters. Care of the patient is under the direction of the OPO coordinator working collaboratively with the physician and critical care nurses. Standardized order sets are usually used, and they focus on preserving organ function and viability.Immediate action is required for an arterial blood gas value of pH 7.30; PaCO2 38 mmHg; HCO3 16 mEq/L which indicates metabolic acidosis. All other values are within normal limits.

The patient's husband is very upset because his wife, who is near death, has dyspnea and restlessness. The nurse explains to him that there are some ways to decrease her discomfort, including: a. respiratory therapy treatments. b. opioid medications given as needed. c. incentive spirometry. d. increased hydration.

ANS: B Dyspnea is best managed with close evaluation of the patient and the use of opioids, sedatives, and nonpharmacologic interventions (oxygen, positioning, and increased ambient air flow)

A 36-year-old driver was pulled from a car after it collided with a tree and the gas tank exploded. What assessment data suggest the patient suffered tissue damage consistent with a blast injury? a. Blood pressure 82/60, heart rate 122, respiratory rate 28. b. Crackles (rales) on auscultation of bilateral lung fields. c. Responsive only to painful stimuli. d. Irregular heart rate and rhythm.

ANS: B Explosive blast energy generates shock waves that create changes in air pressure, causing tissue damage. Initially after an explosion, there is a rapid increase in positive pressure for a short period, followed by a longer period of negative pressure. The increase in positive pressure injures gas-containing organs. The tympanic membrane ruptures, and the lungs may show evidence of contusion, acute edema, or rupture. A low blood pressure and corresponding tachycardia is more suggestive of hypovolemia. Lack of response to stimuli suggests a neurological injury. An irregular heart rate and rhythm may be associated with blunt trauma to the heart (e.g. cardiac contusion).

The nurse is to administer 100 mg phenytoin (Dilantin) intravenous (IV). Vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, heart rate 52 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% on supplemental oxygen at 3 L/min by cannula. To prevent complications, what is the best action by the nurse? a. Administer over 2 minutes. b. Administer over 5 minutes. c. Mix medication with 0.9% normal saline. d. Administer via central line.

ANS: B In the presence of hypotension and bradycardia, administering the medication over 2 minutes is too fast. Mixing medication with 0.9% normal saline prevents precipitation of the medication but will not prevent complications related to this scenario. Administering the medications via central line will not prevent complications related to this scenario.

The nurse is caring for a critically ill patient on mechanical ventilation. The physician identifies the need for a bronchoscopy, which requires informed consent. If the physician were to obtain consent from the patient, the patient must be able to: a. be weaned from mechanical ventilation. b. have knowledge and competence to make the decision. c. nod his head that it is okay to proceed. d. read and write in English.

ANS: B Informed consent requires that a person know what is to be done and have the competence to make an informed decision. Most critically ill patients do not have this capacity; however, an assessment should be made to determine the patients capacity. Some patients on mechanical ventilation are able to give written consent. Reading and writing in English are not requirements for informed consent.

The nurse has just completed an infusion of a 1000 mL bolus of 0.9% normal saline in a patient with severe sepsis. One hour later, which laboratory result requires immediate nursing action? a. Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL b. Lactate 6 mmol/L c. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L d. Sodium 140 mEq/L

ANS: B Lactate level has been used as an indicator of decreased oxygen delivery to the cells, adequacy of resuscitation in shock, and as an outcome predictor. All other listed values are within normal limits and do not require additional follow-up.

The nursing is caring for a patient who has had an arterial line inserted. To reduce the risk of complications, what is the priority nursing intervention? a. Apply a pressure dressing to the insertion site. b. Ensure all tubing connections are tightened. c. Obtain a portable x-ray to confirm placement. d. Restrain the affected extremity for 24 hours.

ANS: B Loose connections in hemodynamic monitoring tubing can lead to hemorrhage, a major complication of arterial pressure monitoring. Application of a pressure dressing is required only upon arterial line removal. Blood return is adequate confirmation of arterial line placement; x-ray studies are not performed to confirm arterial line placement. Neutral positioning of the extremity and use of an arm board, without limb restraint, is the standard of care.

A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam (Ativan) 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam (Ativan) during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to control agitation? a. Administer fentanyl (Duragesic) 25 mg IV bolus. b. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg IV now. c. Increase the rate of the morphine infusion by 50%. d. Request an order for a paralytic agent.

ANS: B Lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg IV is an appropriate loading dose for a patient who is benzodiazepine nave and experiencing agitation during withdrawal of life support. Fentanyl treats pain and morphine controls pain. Paralytic agents are not warranted.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a renal transplant recipient. The patient has a follow-up appointment the next day for routine post-transplant laboratory bloodwork, including trough levels of anti rejection medications.Which instruction describes what the patient should do regarding the anti-rejection medications the next day? a. Take your morning dose of medications at midnight with sips of water. b. Take your morning dose of medications after labs have been drawn. c. Skip your morning dose of medications and then resume your evening doses. d. Hold all doses of your medications the day you have labs drawn.

ANS: B Medication trough levels are used to guide dosing. The patient should not take his morning dose of medications until labs have been drawn so that an accurate trough level is obtained. Transplant medication is administered at regular dosing intervals (e.g. every 12 hours) to maintain therapeutic drug levels and intervals should not be independently adjusted. Medication should not be skipped when lab is drawn. The patient should be instructed to take the medication immediately after lab work has been drawn. Medication is not to be held for an entire day as doing so places the patient at risk for rejection.

A patient with acute pancreatitis is started on parenteral nutrition. The student nurse listed possible interventions for this patient. Which intervention needs correction before finalizing the plan of care? a. Change the intravenous tubing every 24 hours. b. Infuse antibiotics through the intravenous line. c. Monitor the blood glucose every 6 hours. d. Monitor the fluid and electrolyte balance.

ANS: B Medications should not be infused through the IV line infusing parenteral nutrition.

A patient with end-stage heart failure is experiencing considerable dyspnea. Appropriate pharmacological management of this symptom includes: a. administration of 6 mg of midazolam (Versed) and initiation of a continuous midazolam infusion. b. administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. c. hourly increases of the midazolam (Versed) infusion by 100% dose increments. d. hourly increases of the morphine infusion by 100% dose increments.

ANS: B Morphine is an excellent agent to control the symptom of dyspnea. A 5-mg IV bolus and initiation of a morphine drip is an appropriate initial intervention to control dyspnea. Initial dosing of midazolam should be 2 to 4 mg, and more is indicated for anxiety. The morphine dose should be titrated incrementally by 50% dose increases. Midazolam is indicated for management of dyspnea and is titrated incrementally by 50% dose increases.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC) and a left radial arterial line. Which assessment finding by the nurse requires immediate action? a. A dampened arterial line waveform b. Numbness and tingling in the left hand c. Slight bloody drainage at subclavian insertion site d. Slight redness at subclavian insertion site

ANS: B Numbness and tingling in the left hand, which is the location of an arterial catheter, indicates possible neurovascular compromise and requires immediate action. A dampened waveform can indicate problems with arterial line patency but is not an emergent situation. Slight bloody drainage at the subclavian insertion site is not an unusual finding. Slight redness at the insertion site, while of concern, does not require immediate action

The nurse is caring for a renal transplant patient admitted with an acute rejection episode. The patient asks the nurse how the doctors will know if the kidney has been rejected. What is the best response by the nurse? a. Your admission lab results will determine if your kidney is being rejected. b. A procedure called a renal biopsy will be the best way to confirm rejection. c. Monitoring over the next few days will determine if your kidney is failing. d. An ultrasound of your kidney will determine if your kidney has failed.

ANS: B Renal biopsy confirms the presence of rejection. Admission lab results will provide information related to the current functional level of the kidney but will not confirm rejection. Monitoring the patient will not confirm the presence of rejection. An ultrasound of the kidney will determine if there is blood flow to the kidney but will not provide information at the cellular level.

The patient is admitted with a fever and rapid heart rate. The patients temperature is 103 F (39.4 C).The nurse places the patient on a cardiac monitor and finds the patients atrial and ventricular rates are above 105 beats per minute. P waves are clearly seen and appear normal in configuration. QRS complexes are normal in appearance and 0.08 seconds wide. The rhythm is regular, and blood pressure is normal. The nurse should focus on providing: a. medications to lower heart rate. b. treatment to lower temperature. c. treatment to lower cardiac output. d. treatment to reduce heart rate.

ANS: B Sinus tachycardia results when the SA node fires faster than 100 beats per minute. Sinus tachycardia is a normal response to stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system. Sinus tachycardia is also a normal finding in children younger than 6 years. Both atrial and ventricular rates are greater than 100 beats per minute, up to 160 beats per minute, but may be as high as 180 beats per minute. Sinus tachycardia is regular or essentially regular. PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. QRS interval is 0.06 to 0.10 seconds. P and QRS waves are consistent in shape. P waves are small and rounded. A P wave precedes every QRS complex, which is then followed by a T wave. The fast heart rhythm may cause a decrease in cardiac output because of the shorter filling time for the ventricles. Lowering cardiac out further may complicate the situation. The dysrhythmia itself is not treated, but the cause is identified and treated appropriately. For example, if the patient has a fever or is in pain, the infection or pain is treated appropriately.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has circumferential full-thickness burns of his forearm? A priority in the plan of care is : a. Keeping the extremity in a dependent position b. Active and passive range of motion every hour. c. Preparing for an escharotomy as a prophylactic measure d. Splinting the forearm

ANS: B Special attention is given to circumferential (completely surrounding a body part) full thickness burns of the extremities. Pressure from bands of eschar or from edema that develops as resuscitation proceeds may impair blood flow to underlying and distal tissue. Therefore, extremities are elevated to reduce edema. Active or passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises are performed every hour for 5 minutes to increase venous return and to minimize edema. Peripheral pulses are assessed every hour, especially in circumferential burns of the extremities, to confirm adequate circulation. If signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome are present on serial examination, preparation is made for an escharotomy to relieve pressure and to restore circulation.

It is determined that the patient needs a transcutaneous pacemaker until a transvenous pacemaker can be inserted. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Apply conductive gel to the skin. b. Provide adequate sedation and analgesia. c. Recheck leads to make sure that the rhythm is asystole. d. Set the milliamperes to 2 mA below the capture level.

ANS: B The alert patient who requires transcutaneous pacing may experience some discomfort. Because the skeletal muscles are stimulated, as well as the heart muscle, the patient may experience a tingling, twitching, or thumping feeling that ranges from mildly uncomfortable to intolerable. Sedation, analgesia, or both may be indicated.

Which nursing interventions would best support the family of a critically ill patient? a. Encourage family members to stay all night in case the patient needs them. b. Give a condition update each morning and whenever changes occur. c. Limit visitation from children into the critical care unit. d. Provide beverages and snacks in the waiting room.

ANS: B The need for information is one of the highest identified by family members of critically ill patients. New room designs provide space for family members to spend the night if desired; however, if the patient is stable, family members should be encouraged to sleep at home to ensure that they are well rested and can support the patient. Restriction of children in the critical care unit is not supported by research evidence. Child visitation should be individualized based on the needs and wishes of the patient and family. Beverages and snacks are important but not as important as information.

💲💲Family members have a need for information. Which interventions best assist in meeting this need?💲💲 a. Handing family members a pamphlet that explains all of the critical care equipment b. Providing a daily update of the patient's progress and facilitating communication with the intensivist c. Telling them that you are not permitted to give them a status report but that they can be present at 4:00 PM for family rounds with the intensivist d. Writing down a list of all new medications and doses and giving the list to family members during visitation

ANS: B The nurse can give a status report related to the patient's condition and current treatment plan as well as ensure that the family has daily meeting time with the intensivist for an update on diagnoses, prognoses, and the like. Pamphlets are helpful; however, the nurse should also explain the equipment that is at this patient's bedside and not assume that everyone can read and understand written material. Limiting the information to that provided by the physician is unnecessary and will not meet the family's information needs. Most family members are concerned about the patient's general condition and treatment plan. They do not want or need a detailed list of medications, doses, or other treatments.

The nurse is caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock experiencing chest pain. Hemodynamic values assessed by the nurse include a cardiac index (CI) of 2.5 L/min/m2, heart rate of 70 beats/min, and a systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of 2200 dynes/sec/cm-5. Upon review of physician orders, which order is most appropriate for the nurse to initiate? a. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg intravenous (IV) every 4 hours as needed for CVP > 20 mm Hg b. Nitroglycerin infusion titrated at a rate of 5-10 mcg/min as needed for chest pain c. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) infusion at a rate of 2-20 mcg/kg/min as needed for CI < 2 L/min/m2 d. Dopamine (Intropin) infusion at a rate of 5-10 mcg/kg/min to maintain a systolic BP of at least 90 mm Hg

ANS: B The patient is complaining of chest pain and has an elevated systemic vascular resistance (SVR). To reduce afterload, ease the workload of the heart, and dilate the coronary arteries, improving oxygenation to the heart muscle, initiation of a nitroglycerin infusion is most appropriate. Assessment data do not support the initiation of other listed physician order options.

Which of the following injuries would result in a greater likelihood of internal organ damage and risk for infection? a. A fall from a 6-foot ladder onto the grass b. A shotgun wound to the abdomen c. A knife wound to the right chest d. A motor vehicle crash in which the driver hits the steering wheel

ANS: B The penetrating injury of the gunshot wound would cause the greatest amount of injury because of the kinetic energy and dispersion pattern of the shotgun ammunition once it penetrated the body. A fall would cause a compression injury from the blunt force of the fall. The knife wound would cause a penetrating injury in which the magnitude of the injury would depend on damage to the vessels and lung. Blunt chest trauma that may include a cardiac contusion is possible following an injury in which the patient hits the steering column.

The patient is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Three days later the nurse is concerned that the patient may have a papillary muscle rupture. Which assessment data may indicate a papillary muscle rupture? a. Gallop rhythm b. Murmur c. S1 heart sound d. S3 heart sound

ANS: B The presence of a new murmur warrants special attention, particularly in a patient with an AMI. A papillary muscle may have ruptured, causing the valve to close incorrectly, which can be indicative of severe damage and impending complications

The nurse is caring for a postoperative renal transplant recipient in the critical care unit. After seeing minimal urine output in the catheter for most of the day, the patient expresses concern to the nurse. What is the best response by the nurse? a. Your kidney has unfortunately failed and will be removed. b. It can take a few days for your kidney to start working c. You are experiencing an acute rejection episode. d. You will have to undergo daily hemodialysis treatments.

ANS: B There are many factors that can delay normal functioning of a transplanted renal graft (e.g., prolonged cold times, altered perfusion states during surgery). It can take a few days for the transplant to function optimally. Low urine output alone is not the sole indicator of kidney failure or an acute rejection episode. Hemodialysis treatments are not routine in the presence of low urine output following a renal transplant.

💲💲You work in an intermediate care unit that has experienced high nursing turnover. The nurse manager is often considered to be an autocratic leader by staff members and her leadership style is contributing to turnover. You have asked to be involved in developing new guidelines to prevent pressure ulcers in your patient population. The nurse manager tells you that you do not yet have enough experience to be on the prevention task force. This situation and setting is an example of:💲💲 a. a barrier to handoff communication. b. a work environment that is unhealthy. c. ineffective decision making. d. nursing practice that is not evidence-based.

ANS: B These are examples of an unhealthy work environment. A healthy work environment values communication, collaboration, and effective decision making. It also has authentic leadership. It is not an example of handoff communication, which is communication that occurs to transition patient care from one staff member to another. Neither does it relate to ineffective decision making. As a nurse, you can still implement evidencebased practice, but your influence in the unit is limited by the unhealthy

💲💲You receive a patient who has experienced a burn on the right leg. You note the burn contains small blisters and is extremely pinkish red and shiny/moist. The patient reports severe pain. You document this burn as:💲💲 A. 1st Degree (superficial) B. 2nd Degree (partial-thickness) C. 3rd Degree (full-thickness) D. 4th Degree (deep full-thickness)

ANS: B These are the classic characteristics of a 2nd degree (partial-thickness) burn.

The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who is in cardiogenic shock. The patient has failed to respond to medical treatment. The intensivist in charge of the patient conducts a conference to explain that they have exhausted treatment options and suggest that the patient be made a do not resuscitate status. This scenario illustrates the concept of: a. brain death. b. futility. c. incompetence. d. life-prolonging procedures.

ANS: B This is the definition of futility. Brain death is cessation of brain function and is not described in this scenario. Incompetence (in this chapter) is when a patient is unable to make decisions regarding healthcare treatment. A life-prolonging procedure is one that sustains, restores, or supplants a spontaneous vital function

Following insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC), the physician orders the nurse to obtain a blood sample for mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2). Which action by the nurse best ensures the obtained value is accurate? a. Zero referencing the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis following insertion b. Calibrating the system with a central venous blood sample and arterial blood gas value c. Ensuring patency of the catheter using a 0.9% normal saline solution pressurized at 300 mm Hg d. Using noncompliant pressure tubing that is no longer than 36 to 48 inches and has minimal stopcocks

ANS: B To ensure that an accurate SvO2 is obtained, calibration of the invasive monitoring system (e.g., PAC) is accomplished upon insertion and requires both a central venous blood sample from the PAC and an arterial blood gas sample. This process is unique to the accuracy of venous oxygen saturation monitoring systems. Zero referencing the transducer at the level of the phlebostatic axis, ensuring patency of the catheter with a pressurized flush system, and using tubing of adequate length ensure accuracy of all hemodynamic monitoring systems.

The transplant clinic coordinator is evaluating relatives of a patient with end-stage renal disease, whose blood type is A positive, for suitability as a living donor for kidney transplantation. Which family member best qualifies for evaluation? a. A 65-year-old brother with a history of hypertension; blood type A positive b. A 35-year-old female with a history of food allergies; blood type O negative c. A 14-year-old son, otherwise healthy with no history; blood type B negative d. A 70-year-old mother, with a history of sinus infections; blood type A positive

ANS: B To qualify as a living donor, an individual must be free from hypertension, diabetes, cancer, kidney disease, and heart disease and generally between 18 and 60 years of age. A 35-year-old female with a history of food allergies; blood type O negative (universal donor) best qualifies for evaluation. The brother and mother, although blood-type compatible, are outside of acceptable age ranges for living donation. The minor son does not qualify based on blood type.

The physician writes an order to discontinue a patient's left radial arterial line. When discontinuing the patient's invasive line, what is the priority nursing action? a. Apply an air occlusion dressing to insertion site. b. Apply pressure to the insertion site for 5 minutes. c. Elevate the affected limb on pillows for 24 hours. d. Keep the patients wrist in a neutral position.

ANS: B Upon removal of an invasive arterial line, adequate pressure must be applied for at least 5 minutes to ensure adequate hemostasis. Application of an air occlusion dressing is not standard of care following removal of an arterial line. Elevation of the affected limb following removal of an arterial line is not a necessary intervention. Neutral wrist position is optimum while the catheter is in place and not necessary after catheter discontinuation

18. A patient with a history of emphysema, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia is in the critical care unit on a ventilator. The nutrition assessment notes that the patient has a protein and vitamin deficiency and is underweight. Which formula for nutritional assessment is most appropriate? a. Elemental protein formula b. Fiber-added formula c. High mediumchain triglyceride formula d. Lactose-free formula

ANS: B Added fiber helps control blood glucose and reduce hyperlipidemia. OBJ: Describe interventions to achieve nutritional goals.

*ALERT 6. Critical illness often results in family conflicts. Which scenario is most likely to result in the greatest conflict? a. A 21-year-old college student of divorced parents hospitalized with multiple trauma. She resides with her mother. The parents are amicable with each other and have similar values. The father blames the daughters boyfriend for causing the accident. b. A 36-year-old male admitted for a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. He has been living with his 34- year-old girlfriend for 8 years, and they have a 4-year-old daughter. He does not have written advance directives. His parents arrive from out-of-state and are asked to make decisions about his health care. He has not seen them in over a year. c. A 58-year-old male admitted for coronary artery bypass surgery. He has been living with his same- sex partner for 20 years in a committed relationship. He has designated his sister, a registered nurse, as hi

ANS: B Each of these situations may result in family conflict. The situation with the unmarried couple without written advance directives results in the distant parents being legally responsible for his healthcare decisions. Because of his long-standing commitment with his partner, and lack of recent contact with his parents, this scenario is likely to cause the most conflict. The parents may make decisions based on their wishes, as they may not be knowledgeable of the patients wishes. The supportive parents of the college student may create conflict with the boyfriend, but their ongoing friendship and shared values will assist in reducing conflict. The male admitted for bypass surgery, although in a same-sex relationship, has clearly identified who he wants to make healthcare decisions for him. The elderly female may have conflict with her son; however, she is capable of making her own decisions and has written advance directives to support her decisions.

ALERT 19. The nurse is assisting the patient to select foods from the menu that will promote wound healing. Which statement indicates the nurses knowledge of nutritional goals? a. Avoid foods that have saturated fats. Fats interfere with the ability of the burn wound to heal. b. Choose foods that are high in protein, such as meat, eggs, and beans. These help the burns to heal. c. It is important to choose foods like bread and pasta that are high in carbohydrates. These foods will give you energy and help you to heal faster. d. Select foods that have lots of fiber, such as whole grains and fruits. These will promote removal of toxins from the body that interfere with healing.

ANS: B Nutritional therapy must be instituted immediately after burn injury to meet the high metabolic demands of the body. Oral diets should be high in calories and high in protein to meet the demands of the body.

ALERT 9. The most critical element of effective early end-of-life decision making is: a. control of distressing symptoms such as nausea, anxiety, and pain. b. effective communication between the patient, family, and healthcare team throughout the course of the illness. c. organizational support of palliative care principles. d. relocation the dying patient from the critical care unit to a lower level of care.

ANS: B The failure of clinicians, family members, and patients to openly discuss prognoses, end-of-life wishes, and preferences contributes to care conflicts such as in the Schiavo case. Early discussion of end-of-life wishes is required to promote positive outcomes for the patient and family, and actually should predate illness. Even though symptom control is a significant dimension of palliative care, it is not involved in initial end-of-life decision making. Adequate staffing and facility policies that support the dying patient are critical but should not impact family decision making. The patient should be cared for in an environment that best supports the needs of the patient and family. Even though organizational support of palliative principles is important, it should not drive individual decision making.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. The nurse understands that the most common cause of a pulmonary embolus is: a. amniotic fluid embolus. b. deep vein thrombosis from lower extremities. c. fat embolus from a long bone fracture. d. vegetation that dislodges from an infected central venous catheter.

ANS: B The most common cause of a pulmonary embolus is deep vein thrombosis. The other responses are less common causes.

Fluid resuscitation is an important component of managing the trauma patient. Which of the following statements are true regarding the care of a trauma patient? (Select all that apply.) a. 5% Dextrose is recommended for rapid crystalloid infusion. b. IV fluids may need to be warmed to prevent hypothermia. c. Massive transfusions should be avoided to improve patient outcomes. d. Only fully cross-matched blood products are administered.

ANS: B, C Lactated Ringers and normal saline are the crystalloids of choice in trauma resuscitation. Because hypothermia is a concern, fluids should be warmed. Massive blood transfusions are associated with poor outcomes. Crossmatched blood is preferred, but blood type O, universal donor blood, can be administered in an emergency.

The first critical care units were: (Select all that apply.) a. burn units. b. coronary care units c. recovery rooms. d. neonatal intensive care units.

ANS: B, C Recovery rooms and coronary care units were the first units designated to care for critically ill patients. Burn and neonatal intensive care units were established as specialty units evolved.

​​Which of the following statements is true regarding oral care for the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Tooth brushing is performed every 2 hours for the greatest effect. b. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. c. Oral care protocols should include oral suctioning and brushing teeth. d. Protocols that include chlorhexidine gluconate have been effective in preventing VAP.

ANS: B, C, D A comprehensive oral care protocol is an intervention for preventing VAP. It includes oral suction, brushing teeth every 12 hours, and swabbing. Chlorhexidine gluconate has been effective in patients who have undergone cardiac surgery.

The nurse is caring for a critically ill patient with respiratory failure who is being treated with mechanical ventilation. As part of the patients care to prevent stress ulcers, the nurse would provide: (Select all that apply.) a. vagal stimulation. b. proton pump inhibitors. c. anticholinergic drugs d. antacids. e. cholinergic drugs.

ANS: B, C, D Administration of antacids and H2-receptor blockers, and the suppression of vagal stimulation with anticholinergic drugs and proton pump inhibitors (PPI) are effective forms of therapy.

💲💲Which of the following factors increase the burn patients risk for venous thromboembolism?(Select all that apply.)💲💲 a. Burn injury less than 10% b. Bedrest c. Burns to lower extremities d. Electrical burn injury e. Delayed fluid resuscitation

ANS: B, C, E Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a significant risk for patients who have thermal injury, venous stasis associated with immobility/bedrest, hypercoagulability seen with burn injuries greater than 10% TBSA, and hypovolemia associated with delayed fluid resuscitation. Burns to lower extremities will limit mobility and use of sequential compression devices, increasing the potential risk for VTE. Electrical burn injury may pose a risk for VTE; however, VTE is more closely associated with thermal injuries greater than 10% TBSA.

💲💲A patient has been successfully converted from ventricular tachycardia with a pulse to a sinus rhythm. Upon further assessment, it is noted that she is hypotensive. The appropriate treatment for her hypotension may include:(Select all that apply.)💲💲 a. adenosine. b. dopamine infusion. c. magnesium. d. normal saline infusion. e. sodium bicarbonate.

ANS: B, D The patient may need fluid resuscitation; dopamine is indicated for hypotension once hypovolemia has been corrected.

The charge nurse is supervising care for a group of patients monitored with a variety of invasive hemodynamic devices. Which patient should the charge nurse evaluate first? a. A patient with a central venous pressure (RAP/CVP) of 6 mm Hg and 40 mL of urine output in the past hour b. A patient with a left radial arterial line with a BP of 110/60 mm Hg and slightly dampened arterial waveform c. A patient with a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 25 mm Hg and an oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula d. A patient with a pulmonary artery pressure of 25/10 mm Hg and an oxygen saturation of 94% on 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula

ANS: C A high pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 25 mm Hg combined with low oxygen saturation is indicative of fluid volume overload and warrants priority action because the patient is at risk for hypoxemia. A CVP of 6 mm Hg with 40 mL of hourly urine output are acceptable assessment findings. A patient with a normal blood pressure and with a slightly dampened waveform does not require immediate action. A pulmonary artery pressure of 25/10 mmHg and a normal oxygen saturation does not require immediate treatment.

Which statement regarding ethical concepts is true? a. A living will is the same as a healthcare proxy. b. A signed donor card ensures that organ donation will occur in the event of brain death. c. A surrogate is a competent adult designated by a person to make healthcare decisions in the event the person is incapacitated. d. A persistent vegetative state is the same as brain death in most states.

ANS: C A surrogate is a competent adult designated by a person to make healthcare decisions if that person becomes incapacitated. A living will is a witnessed document that states a persons wishes regarding life-prolonging procedures, whereas a healthcare proxy is a person authorized by state statute to make healthcare decisions. In many states, consent by family members or healthcare proxy is required for organ donation even if an individual has a signed donor card. A persistent vegetative state is a permanent, irreversible unconscious condition that demonstrates an absence of voluntary action or cognitive behavior, or an inability to communicate or interact; brain death is cessation of brain function.

While instructing a patient on what occurs with a myocardial infarction, the nurse plans to explain which process? a. Coronary artery spasm. b. Decreased blood flow (ischemia). c. Death of cardiac muscle from lack of oxygen (tissue necrosis). d. Sporadic decrease in oxygen to the heart (transient oxygen imbalance).

ANS: C Acute myocardial infarction is death (tissue necrosis) of the myocardium that is caused by lack of blood supply from the occlusion of a coronary artery and its branches

The most significant clinical finding of acute adrenal crisis associated with fluid and electrolyte balance is: a. fluid volume excess. b. hyperglycemia. c. hyperkalemia d. hypernatremia

ANS: C Adrenal insufficiency may be characterized by inadequate amounts of cortisol and aldosterone. Aldosterone acts to retain sodium, resulting is water retention and potassium loss. Inadequate levels of aldosterone therefore result in hyponatremia, fluid loss, and hyperkalemia. Inadequate cortisol levels may cause weight loss, weakness, and hypoglycemia. Fluid volume deficit may accompany adrenal crisis as a result of sodium loss from decreases in cortisol and aldosterone. Hypoglycemia may accompany adrenal crisis as a consequence of inadequate amounts of cortisol, which limits gluconeogenesis. Hyponatremia may accompany adrenal crisis because of sodium losses secondary to aldosterone insufficiency that often accompanies the condition.

The patient has just returned from having an arteriovenous fistula placed. The patient asks, When will they be able to use this and take this other catheter out? The nurse should reply, a. It can be used immediately so the catheter can come out anytime. b. It will take 2 to 4 weeks to heal before it can be used. c. The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks. d. The fistula was made using graft material so it depends on the manufacturer.

ANS: C An arteriovenous fistula is an internal, surgically created communication between an artery and a vein. This method produces a vessel that is easy to cannulate but requires 4 to 6 weeks before it is mature enough to use.

During a code, the nurse would place paddles for anterior defibrillation in what locations? a. Second intercostal space, left sternal border and fourth intercostal space, left midclavicular line b. Second intercostal space, right sternal border and fourth intercostal space, left midaxillary line c. Second intercostal space, right sternal border and fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line d. Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border and fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line

ANS: C Anterior paddle placement is used most often for defibrillation. In the anterior method, one paddle or adhesive electrode pad is placed at the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum, and the other paddle or adhesive electrode pad is placed at the fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line, to the left of the sternum.

A patient is admitted with an angina attack. The nurse anticipates which drug regimen to be initiated? a. ACE inhibitors and diuretics b. Morphine sulfate and oxygen c. Nitroglycerin, oxygen, and beta-blockers d. Statins, bile acid, and nicotinic acid

ANS: C Conservative intervention for the patient experiencing angina includes nitrates, beta-blockers, and oxygen.

The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of: a. dialyzer membrane incompatibility. b. a shift in potassium levels. c. dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. d. hypothermia.

ANS: C Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome often occurs after the first or second dialysis treatment or in patients who have had sudden, large decreases in BUN and creatinine levels as a result of the hemodialysis. Because of the blood-brain barrier, dialysis does not deplete the concentrations of BUN, creatinine, and other uremic toxins in the brain as rapidly as it does those substances in the extracellular fluid. An osmotic concentration gradient established in the brain allows fluid to enter until the concentration levels equal those of the extracellular fluid. The extra fluid in the brain tissue creates a state of cerebral edema for the patient, which results in severe headaches, nausea and vomiting, twitching, mental confusion, and occasionally seizures. Dialyzer membrane incompatibility may cause hypotension. Hyperthermia, not hypothermia, may result if the temperature control devices on the dialysis machine malfunction. Potassium shifts may occur but would be manifested in cardiac dysrhythmias

The nurse is caring for a patient in cardiogenic shock who is being treated with an infusion of dobutamine (Dobutrex). The physician's order calls for the nurse to titrate the infusion to achieve a cardiac index of >2.5 L/min/m2. The nurse measures a cardiac output, and the calculated cardiac index for the patient is 4.6 L/min/m2. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Obtain a stat serum potassium level. b. Order a stat 12-lead electrocardiogram. c. Reduce the rate of dobutamine (Dobutrex). d. Assess the patients hourly urine output.

ANS: C Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is used to stimulate contractility and heart rate while causing vasodilation in low cardiac output states improving overall cardiac performance. The patients cardiac index is well above normal limits, so the rate of infusion of the medication should be reduced so as not to overstimulate the heart. There is no evidence to support the need for a serum potassium or 12-lead electrocardiogram. Assessment of hourly urine output is important in the care of the patient in cardiogenic shock, but it is not a priority in this scenario.

The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas is ordered and shows that the patients pH is 7.19, with a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to: a. administer morphine to slow the respiratory rate. b. prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. c. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate. d. cancel tomorrows dialysis session.

ANS: C Metabolic acidosis is the primary acid-base imbalance seen in acute kidney injury. Treatment of metabolic acidosis depends on its severity. Patients with a serum bicarbonate level of less than 15 mEq/L and a pH of less than 7.20 are usually treated with intravenous sodium bicarbonate. The goal of treatment is to raise the pH to a value greater than 7.20. Rapid correction of the acidosis should be avoided, because tetany may occur as a result of hypocalcemia. Renal replacement therapies also may correct metabolic acidosis because it removes excess hydrogen ions and bicarbonate is added to the dialysate and replacement solutions; therefore, dialysis would not be cancelled. The tachypnea is a compensatory mechanism for the metabolic acidosis, and treatments to decrease the respiratory rate are not indicated. Treatment is aimed at correcting the metabolic acidosis, and this scenario does not provide data to support the need for intubation

The nurse is caring for a patient who is not responding to medical treatment. The intensivist holds a conference with the family, and a decision is made to withdraw life support. The nurses' religious beliefs are not in agreement with withdrawal. However, she assists with the process to avoid confronting the charge nurse. Afterward she feels guilty and believes she killed the patient. This scenario is likely to cause: a. abandonment. b. family stress. c. moral distress. d. negligence.

ANS: C Moral distress occurs when the nurse acts in a manner contrary to personal or professional values. Abandonment is defined as the unilateral severance of a professional relationship while a patient is still in need of health care. Family stress would not be impacted in this situation if the nurse responded appropriately during the procedure. Negligence is failure to act according to the standard of care.

A patient is admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The nurse knows that an angiotensin converting enzymes (ACE) inhibitor should be started within 24 hours to reduce the incidence of which process? a. Myocardial stunning b. Hibernating myocardium c. Myocardial remodeling d. Tachycardia

ANS: C Myocardial remodeling is a process mediated by angiotensin II, aldosterone, catecholamine, adenosine, and inflammatory cytokines, which causes myocyte hypertrophy and loss of contractile function in the areas of the heart distant from the site of infarctions. ACE inhibitors reduce the incidence of remodeling.

A nurse caring for a patient with neurological impairment often must use painful stimuli to elicit a patient's response. The nurse uses subtle measures of painful stimuli, such as nail bed pressure. She neither slaps the patient nor pinches the nipple to elicit a response to pain. In this scenario, the nurse is exemplifying the ethical principle of: a. beneficence. b. fidelity. c. nonmaleficence. d. veracity.

ANS: C Nonmaleficence is not to intentionally harm others. Beneficence demonstrates actions intended to benefit the patients or others. Fidelity is the moral duty to be faithful to the commitments that one makes to others. Veracity is the obligation to tell the truth.

The code team has just defibrillated a patient in ventricular fibrillation. Following CPR for 2 minutes, what is the next action to take? a. Administer amiodarone. b. Administer lidocaine. c. Assess rhythm and pulse. d. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.

ANS: C Reassess the patient frequently. Check for return of pulse, spontaneous respirations, and blood pressure.

Which of the following laboratory values would be found in a patient with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone? a. Fasting blood glucose 156 mg/dL b. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L c. Serum sodium 115 mEq/L d. Serum sodium 152 mEq/L

ANS: C SIADH causes a dilutional hyponatremia, and central nervous system symptoms can occur. A low serum sodium (below 135 mEq/L) may accompany the syndrome. Glucose elevation is not a classic sign of SIADH. Hyperkalemia does not accompany the dilutional hyponatremia of SIADH. Serum sodium levels are typically lower in the dilutional hyponatremia that accompanies SIADH.

A 72-year-old woman is brought to the ED by her family. The family states that shes just not herself. Her respirations are slightly labored, and her heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia (rate 110 beats/min) with frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). She denies any chest pain, jaw pain, back discomfort, or nausea. Her troponin levels are elevated, and her 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows elevated ST segments in leads II, III, and AVF. The nurse knows that these symptoms are most likely associated with which diagnosis? a. Hypokalemia b. NonQ wave MI c. Silent myocardial infarction d. Unstable angina

ANS: C Some individuals may have ischemic episodes without knowing it, thereby having a silent infarction. These can occur with no presenting signs or symptoms. Asymptomatic or nontraditional symptoms are more common in elderly persons, in women, and in diabetic patients.

The nurse is caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube. The nurse understands that endotracheal suctioning is needed to facilitate removal of secretions and that the procedure: a. decreases intracranial pressure. b. depresses the cough reflex. c. is done as indicated by patient assessment. d. is more effective if preceded by saline instillation to loosen secretions.

ANS: C Suctioning is performed as indicated by patient's assessment. Suctioning is associated with increases in intracranial pressure; therefore, it is important to hyperoxygenate the patient prior to suctioning to reduce this complication. Suctioning can stimulate the cough reflex rather than depress this reflex. Saline instillation is associated with negative physiological outcomes and is not recommended as part of the suctioning procedure; it does not loosen secretions, which is a common misperception.

The nurse is caring for a renal transplant recipient in the postanesthesia care unit. Handoff communication from the OR included a reported output of 500 mL following anastomosis of the renal vessels and reperfusion. One hour after the transplant recipient was admitted to the PACU, the RN notes no urine output. Which physician order should the nurse implement first? a. Administer 20 mg furosemide intravenous (IV) every 4 hours as needed for urine output < 30mL/hr. b. Administer a 500-mL bolus of 0.9% normal saline intravenously over 2 hours. c. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter gently with 30 mL 0.9% normal saline. d. Provide maintenance IV fluids of D5 NS to infuse at 100 mL/hr.

ANS: C Surgical complications following renal transplantation include ureteral obstruction. The nurse should gently irrigate the Foley catheter to determine patency. Furosemide administration should not occur until catheter obstruction has been ruled out. Administration of a fluid bolus should not occur until catheter obstruction has been ruled out. Maintenance fluids administration should be a part of the plan of care but is not the priority in this scenario.

Maintaining perfusion to the spinal cord is critical in the management of spinal cord injury. Monitoring blood pressure is a priority. The physician has opted to treat a patient with a complete spinal cord injury with glucocorticoids. The physician orders 30 mg/kg over 15 minutes followed in 45 minutes with an infusion of 5.4 mg/kg/min for 23 hours. What is the total 24-hour dose for the 70-kg patient? a. 2478 mg b. 5000 mg c. 10,794 mg d. 12,750 mg

ANS: C The dosing regimen is initiated with a bolus of 30 mg/kg over 15 minutes, followed in 45 minutes by a continuous intravenous infusion of 5.4 mg/kg/hr for 23 hours. (30 mg 70 kg) + (5.4 mg 70 kg) 23 hours = 10,794 mg.

The patient has a transcutaneous pacemaker in place. Pacemaker spikes followed by QRS complexes are noted on the cardiac rhythm strip. To determine if the pacemaker is working, the nurse must do which of the following? a. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). b. Call for a pacemaker interrogation. c. Palpate the pulse. d. Run a 2-minute monitor strip for analysis.

ANS: C The electrical and mechanical effectiveness of pacing is assessed. The electrical activity is noted by a pacemaker spike that indicates that the pacemaker is initiating electrical activity. The spike is followed by a broad QRS complex. Mechanical activity is noted by palpating a pulse during electrical activity.

A patient with pancreatic cancer has been admitted to the critical care unit with clinical signs consistent with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse anticipates that clinical management of this condition will include: a. administration of 3% normal saline. b. administration of exogenous vasopressin. c. fluid restriction. d. low sodium diet.

ANS: C The first treatment of this condition is volume restriction; other treatments may not be needed if restrictions work. Extreme fluid restrictions (800 to 1000 mL/day) may be required in the treatment of SIADH. Hypertonic saline administration may be used to treat severe hyponatremia (serum sodium < 110 mEq/L) but is not used in most cases. The administration of hypertonic saline carries significant risk. Vasopressin replacement would provide additional ADH and further complicate SIADH. Sodium replacement may be required to treat the hemodilution associated with SIADH.

After pulmonary artery catheter insertion, the nurse assesses a pulmonary artery pressure of 45/25 mm Hg, a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 20 mm Hg, a cardiac output of 2.6 L/min and a cardiac index of 1.9 L/min/m2. Which physician order is of the highest priority? a. Apply 50% oxygen via venture mask. b. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. c. Begin a dobutamine (Dobutrex) infusion. d. Obtain stat cardiac enzymes and troponin.

ANS: C The pulmonary pressures are higher than normal, indicating elevated preload, and the cardiac index and output values are low. The priority order for the nurse to implement is to begin a dobutamine (Dobutrex) infusion to improve cardiac output, possibly reducing pulmonary artery occlusion pressures. The other treatments are important, but the dobutamine infusion is the most important at this time.

💲💲Comparing the patients current (home) medications with those ordered during hospitalization and communicating a complete list of medications to the next provider when the patient is transferred within an organization or to another setting are strategies to: a. improve accuracy of patient identification. b. prevent errors related to look-alike and sound-alike medications. c. reconcile medications across the continuum of care. d. reduce harms associated with administration of anticoagulants.

ANS: C These are steps recommended in the National Patient Safety Goals to reconcile medications across the continuum of care. Improving accuracy of patient identification is another National Patient Safety Goal. Preventing errors related to look-alike and sound-alike medications is done to improve medication safety, not medication reconciliation. Reducing harms associated with administration of anticoagulants is another National Patient Safety Goal.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a diminished level of consciousness and who is mechanically ventilated. While performing endotracheal suctioning, the patient reaches up in an attempt to grab the suction catheter. What is the best interpretation by the nurse? a. The patient is exhibiting extension posturing. b. The patient is exhibiting flexion posturing. c. The patient is exhibiting purposeful movement. d. The patient is withdrawing to stimulation.

ANS: C This is a good example of purposeful movement that is sometimes seen in patients with reduced consciousness. Flexion posturing is characterized by rigid flexion and extension of the arms, wrist flexion, and clenched fists. Extension posturing is characterized by rigid extension of arms and legs with plantar extension of the feet. Withdrawing occurs when a patient moves an extremity away from a painful source of stimulation.

💲💲Which rhythm would be an emergency indication for the application of a transcutaneous pacemaker?💲💲 a. Asystole b. Bradycardia (heart rate 40 beats/min) normotensive and alert c. Bradycardia (heart rate 50 beats/min) with hypotension and syncope d. Supraventricular tachycardia (heart rate 150 beats/min), hypotensive

ANS: C Transcutaneous (external noninvasive) cardiac pacing is used during emergencies to treat symptomatic bradycardia (hypotension, altered mental status, angina, pulmonary edema) that has not responded to atropine. This patient is symptomatic.

Common to both the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathway is: a. factor XII b. factor VII. c. factor X. d. subendothelial collagen.

ANS: C When blood is exposed to subendothelial collagen or is injured, factor XII is activated, which initiates coagulation via the intrinsic pathway. In the extrinsic pathway, tissue injury precipitates release of a substance known as tissue factor, which activates factor VII. Factor VII is key in initiating blood coagulation, and the two pathways intersect at the activation of factor X. Both coagulation pathways illustrate a final common pathway of clot formation, retraction, and fibrinolysis.

A strategy for preventing thromboembolism in patients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants is: a. administration of two aspirin tablets every 4 hours. b. infusion of thrombolytics. c. insertion of a vena cava filter. d. subcutaneous heparin administration every 12 hours.

ANS: C A filter may be inserted as a prevention measure in patients who are at high risk for thromboembolism. Aspirin is not a preventive therapy. Thrombolytics are given to treat, not prevent, pulmonary embolism. Heparin is administered as a prophylaxis in acute care settings. Coumadin is given for long-term prevention in patients at high risk for VTE.

ALERT 7. The basic underlying pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome results from: a. a decrease in the number of white blood cells available. b. damage to the right mainstem bronchus. c. damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce surfactant. d. decreased capillary permeability.

ANS: C Acute respiratory distress syndrome results in damage to the pneumocytes, increased capillary permeability, and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema.

ALERT Ideally, an advance directive should be developed by the: a. family, if the patient is in critical condition. b. patient as part of the hospital admission process. c. patient before hospitalization. d. patients healthcare surrogate

ANS: C Advance directives should be made and signed while a person is in good health and in a state of mind to make decisions about what should happen if he or she becomes incapacitated (e.g., during a critical illness). Families help to make decisions based on written advance directives, but families are not responsible for developing them for the patient. Developing advance directives during the admission process is not feasible, and the patient may not be capable of making an advance directive. The surrogate or proxy is one who has been already designated by a person to make healthcare decisions based on written advance directives.

The patient is admitted with multiple myeloma. The nurse assesses the patient and is aware that the symptom most unique to this disease is: a. fever. b. night sweats. c. bone pain. d. lymph node enlargement.

ANS: C Bone pain is common in multiple myeloma, whereas lymph node enlargement is more representative of lymphoma. Fever is particularly difficult to interpret because it may be a manifestation of the disease process or may accompany an infectious complication. General signs and symptoms such as fatigue

ALERT 15. The nurse is caring for four patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing delirium? a. 36-year-old recovering from a motor vehicle crash; being treated with an evidence-based alcohol withdrawal protocol. b. 54-year-old postoperative aortic aneurysm resection with a 40 pack-year history of smoking c. 86-year-old from nursing home with dementia, postoperative from colon resection, still being mechanically ventilated d. 95-year-old with community-acquired pneumonia; family has brought in eyeglasses and hearing aid

ANS: C From this list, the 86-year-old postoperative nursing home resident is at greatest risk due to advanced age, cognitive impairment, and some degree of respiratory failure. The 96-year-old has been provided eyeglasses and a hearing aid, which will decrease the risk of delirium. Smoking is a possible risk for delirium. The 36- year-old is receiving medications as part of an alcohol withdrawal protocol, which should decrease the risk for delirium.

15. An important nutritional consideration in the elderly population is: a. decreased protein requirements. b. increasing caloric requirements with age. c. potential for drug-nutrient interaction related to polypharmacy. d. presence of other diseases that decrease caloric needs.

ANS: C Patients taking multiple medications have a greater potential for drug-nutrient interactions; elderly persons may be taking multiple medications. OBJ: Describe interventions to achieve nutritional goals.

22. Patients experiencing severe physiological stress increase their nutritional requirements to: a. 20 kcal/kg/day. b. 30 kcal/kg/day. c. 35 kcal/kg/day. d. 50 kcal/kg/day.

ANS: C Severely stressed individuals require 35 kcal/kg/day; 50 kcal/kg/day exceeds caloric needs. A total of 20 kcal/kg/day is less than normal caloric requirements. A total of 30 kcal/kg/day is the caloric requirement for a moderately stressed individual.

ALERT3. While caring for a patient with a traumatic brain injury, the nurse assesses an ICP of 20 mm Hg and a CPP of 85 mm Hg. What is the best interpretation by the nurse? a. Both pressures are high. b. Both pressures are low. c. ICP is high; CPP is normal. d. ICP is high; CPP is low.

ANS: C The ICP is above the normal level of 15 mm Hg. The CPP is within the normal range. All other listed responses are incorrect.

A definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism can be made by: a. arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. b. chest x-ray examination. c. pulmonary angiogram. d. ventilation-perfusion scanning.

ANS: C The angiogram is the only test that can confirm pulmonary embolism. ABG would only indicate hypoxemia and/or acid-base abnormalities. A chest x-ray study is nonconclusive. A ventilation-perfusion scan is nonconclusive.

ALERT 16. The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperactive delirium. The nurse focuses interventions toward keeping the patient: a. comfortable. b. nourished. c. safe. d. sedated.

ANS: C The greatest priority in managing delirium is to keep the patient safe. Sedation may contribute to the development of delirium. Comfort and nutrition are important, but they are not priorities.

ALERT 7. Which statement made by a staff nurse identifying guidelines for palliative care would need corrected? a. Basic nursing care is a critical element in palliative care management. b. Common conditions that require palliative management are nausea, agitation, and sleep disturbance. c. Palliative care practices are reserved for the dying client. d. Palliative care practices relieve symptoms that negatively affect the quality of life of a patient.

ANS: C The purpose of palliative care is to relieve negative symptoms that affect the quality of life of a patient. Palliative care is an integral part of every injured or ill patients care. Basic nursing care, including repositioning, skin care, and provision of a peaceful environment, promote comfort. These conditions all commonly require palliative care techniques.

Which scenarios contribute to effective handoff communication at change of shift? (Select all that apply.) a. The nephrology consultant physician is making rounds and asks you to update her on the patients status and assist in placing a central line for hemodialysis. b. The noise level is high because twice as many staff members are present and everyone is giving report in the nurses station. c. The unit has decided to use a standardized checklist/tool for change-of-shift reports and patient transfers. d. You and the oncoming nurse conduct a standardized report at the patients bedside and review key assessment findings.

ANS: C, D A reporting tool and bedside report improve handoff communication by ensuring standardized communication and review of assessment findings. Conducting report at the bedside also reduces noise that commonly occurs at the nurses station during a change of shift. The nephrologist has created an interruption that can impede handoff with the next nurse. Likewise, noise in the nurses station can cause distractions that can impair concentration and listening

The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 125 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 90% on a 50% venturi mask. Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following physicians order? a. Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO2 > 94%. b. Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour. c. Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes. d. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg intravenously.

ANS: D A central venous pressure of 1 mm Hg, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of 1 mm Hg along with a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg and heart rate of 125 are indicative of a low volume state. Infusion of 500 mL of 0.9% normal saline will increase circulating fluid volume. Administration of furosemide (Lasix) is contraindicated and could further reduce circulating fluid volume. Titrating supplemental oxygen, obtaining serum blood gas and electrolyte samples, although not a priority, are appropriate interventions.

💲💲Which clinical scenario best represents hyperacute rejection?💲💲 a. A cardiac transplant patient with a 3-month history of shortness of breath b. A lung transplant patient with small pustules that follow a dermatome c. A liver transplant patient with several small lumps under the skin d. An implanted renal transplant that, upon reperfusion, becomes cyanotic

ANS: D A hyperacute rejection occurs within hours or days of the transplanted organ. An implanted renal transplant that becomes cyanotic upon reperfusion represents a hyperacute rejection. A cardiac transplant patient with a 3-month history of shortness of breath represents an acute rejection. Small pustules that follow a dermatome most likely represent herpes zoster. Several small lumps under the skin may indicate squamous cell carcinoma.

The nurse is caring for a patient with the diagnosis of sepsis. The patient is on a ventilator in the critical care unit, and is receiving a proton pump inhibitors (PPI) to reduce the risk for a stress ulcer. In this scenario, a stress ulcer is likely secondary to: a. infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria. b. decreased acetylcholine production. c. a decreased number of parietal cells. d. ischemia associated with sepsis.

ANS: D A stress ulcer is an acute form of peptic ulcer that often accompanies severe illness, systemic trauma, or neurological injury. Ischemia is the prior etiology associated with stress ulcer formation. Ischemic ulcers develop within hours of an event such as hemorrhage, multisystem trauma, severe burns, heart failure, or sepsis. The shock, anoxia, and sympathetic responses decrease mucosal blood flow leading to ischemia. The secretion of acid is important in the pathogenesis of ulcer disease. Acetylcholine (a neurotransmitter), gastrin (a hormone), and secretin (a hormone) stimulate the chief cells, which stimulate acid secretion. Parietal cell mass in people with peptic ulcer disease is 1.5 to 2 times greater than in persons without disease. Infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria is a major cause of duodenal ulcers.

An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that: a. peritoneal dialysis is time intensive. b. a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. c. biochemical disturbances are corrected rapidly. d. the danger of hemorrhage is minimal.

ANS: D Advantages of peritoneal dialysis include that the equipment is assembled easily and rapidly, the cost is relatively inexpensive, the danger of acute electrolyte imbalances or hemorrhage is minimal, and dialysate solutions can be individualized. In addition, automated peritoneal dialysis systems are available. Disadvantages of peritoneal dialysis include that it is time intensive, requiring at least 36 hours for a therapeutic effect to be achieved; biochemical disturbances are corrected slowly; access to the peritoneal cavity is sometimes difficult; and the risk of peritonitis is high.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the early stages of septic shock. The patient is slightly confused and flushed, with bounding peripheral pulses. Which hemodynamic values is the nurse most likely to assess? a. High pulmonary artery occlusive pressure and high cardiac output b. High systemic vascular resistance and low cardiac output c. Low pulmonary artery occlusive pressure and low cardiac output d. Low systemic vascular resistance and high cardiac output

ANS: D As a consequence of the massive vasodilation associated with septic shock, in the early stages, cardiac output is high with low systemic vascular resistance. In septic shock, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure is not elevated. In the early stages of septic shock, systemic vascular resistance is low and cardiac output is high. In the early stages of septic shock, cardiac output is high.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with severe sepsis. Vital signs assessed by the nurse include blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg, heart rate 120 beats/min, respirations 28 breaths/min, oral temperature of 102 F, and a right atrial pressure (RAP) of 1 mm Hg. Assuming physician orders, which intervention should the nurse carry out first? a. Acetaminophen suppository b. Blood cultures from two sites c. IV antibiotic administration d. Isotonic fluid challenge

ANS: D Early goal-directed therapy in severe sepsis includes administration of IV fluids to keep RAP/CVP at 8 mm Hg or greater (but not greater than 15 mm Hg) and heart rate less than 110 beats/min. Fluid resuscitation to restore perfusion is the immediate priority. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are recommended within the first hour; however, volume resuscitation is the priority in this scenario.

The nurse has been administering 0.9% normal saline intravenous fluids as part of early goal-directed therapy protocols in a patient with severe sepsis. To evaluate the effectiveness of fluid therapy, which physiological parameters would be most important for the nurse to assess? a. Breath sounds and capillary refill b. Blood pressure and oral temperature c. Oral temperature and capillary refill d. Right atrial pressure and urine output

ANS: D Early goal-directed therapy includes administration of IV fluids to keep central venous pressure at 8 mm Hg or greater. Combined with urine output, fluid therapy effectiveness can be adequately assessed. Evaluation of breath sounds assists with determining fluid overload in a patient but does not evaluate the effectiveness of fluid therapy. Capillary refill provides a quick assessment of the patient's overall cardiovascular status, but this assessment is not reliable in a patient who is hypothermic or has peripheral circulatory problems. Evaluation of oral temperature does not assess the effectiveness of fluid therapy in patients in shock. Evaluation of oral temperature does not assess the effectiveness of fluid therapy in patients in shock. Capillary refill provides a quick assessment of the patient's overall cardiovascular status, but this assessment is not reliable in a patient who is hypothermic or has peripheral circulatory problems.

The nurse is providing care to manage the pain of a patient with burns. The physician has ordered opiates to be given intramuscularly. The nurse contacts the physician to change the order to intravenous administration a. Intramuscular injections cause additional skin disruption. b. burn pain is so severe it requires relief by the fastest route available. c. hypermetabolism limits effectiveness of medications administered intramuscularly. d. tissue edema may interfere with drug absorption of injectable routes.

ANS: D Edema and impaired circulation of the soft tissue interfere with absorption of medications administered subcutaneously or intramuscularly. Even though it is true intramuscular injections disrupt tissue, medication absorption is not effective. Burn pain is severe and intravenous administration is desired to relieve pain, but this is not the physiological basis for giving medications intravenously. Hypermetabolism affects medication effectiveness but is not the rationale for administering opioids intravenously.

While caring for a patient with a closed head injury, the nurse assesses the patient to be alert with a blood pressure 130/90 mm Hg, heart rate 60 beats/min, respirations 18 breaths/min, and a temperature of 102 F. To reduce the risk of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in this patient, what is (are) the priority nursing action(s)? a. Ensure adequate periods of rest between nursing interventions. b. Insert an oral airway and monitor respiratory rate and depth. c. Maintain neutral head alignment and avoid extreme hip flexion. d. Reduce ambient room temperature and administer antipyretics.

ANS: D In this scenario, the patients temperature is elevated, which increases metabolic demands. Increases in metabolic demands increase cerebral blood flow and contribute to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Cooling measures should be implemented. Insertion of an oral airway in an alert patient is contraindicated. While maintaining neutral head position and ensuring adequate periods of rest between nursing interventions are appropriate actions for patients with elevated ICP, treatment of the fever is of higher priority.

The patient is complaining of severe joint pain as well as fatigue and shortness of breath. The nurse notices that the patients joints are swollen and his legs are edematous. The nurse realizes that these are symptoms of: a. anemia reflective of low volume. b. aplastic anemia. c. hemolytic anemia. d. sickle cell anemia.

ANS: D Patients with sickle cell anemia may have joint swelling or pain, and delayed physical and sexual development. In crisis, the sickle cell patient often has decreased urine output, peripheral edema, and signs of uremia because renal tissue perfusion is impaired as a result of sluggish blood flow. Decreased circulating volume is manifested by clinical findings reflective of low blood volume (e.g., low right atrial pressure) and the effects of gravity on the lack of volume (e.g., orthostasis). The patient with aplastic anemia may have bruising, nosebleeds, petechiae, and a decreased ability to fight infections. These effects result from thrombocytopenia and decreased WBC counts, which occur when the bone marrow fails to produce blood cells. Assessment of the patient with hemolytic anemia may reveal jaundice, abdominal pain, and enlargement of the spleen or liver. These findings result from the increased destruction of RBCs, their sequestration (abnormal distribution in the spleen and liver), and the accumulation of breakdown products.

A patient is admitted to the oncology unit with a small cell lung carcinoma. During the admission, the patient is noted to have a significant decrease in urine output accompanied by shortness of breath, edema, and mental status changes. The nurse is aware that this clinical presentation is consistent with: a. adrenal crisis. b. diabetes insipidus. c. myxedema coma. d. syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

ANS: D SIADH may be induced by ectopic sources of antidiuretic hormone, including small cell lung carcinoma. The clinical presentation of a dilutional hypervolemia is consistent with SIADH. Adrenal crisis is characterized by fluid loss if secondary to decreased cortisol and aldosterone levels resulting in sodium loss. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by increased urine output and is not typically caused by lung tumors. Myxedema coma,is characterized by increased urine output and is not typically caused by lung tumors.

The charge nurse is responsible for making the patient assignments on the critical care unit. She assigns the experienced, certified nurse to care for the acutely ill patient with sepsis who also requires continuous renal replacement therapy and mechanical ventilation. She assigns the nurse with less than 1 year of experience to two patients who are more stable. This assignment reflects implementation of the: a. crew resource management model b. National Patient Safety Goals c. Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) model d. synergy model of practice

ANS: D This assignment demonstrates nursing care to meet the needs of the patient. The synergy model notes that the nurse competencies are matched to the patient characteristics. Crew resource management concepts related to team training, National Patient Safety Goals are specified by The Joint Commission to promote safe care but do not incorporate the synergy model. The Quality and Safety Education for Nurses initiative involves targeted education to undergraduate and graduate nursing students to learn quality and safety concepts.

An elderly female patient has presented to the emergency department with altered mental status, hypothermia, and clinical signs of heart failure. Myxedema is suspected. Which of the following laboratory findings support this diagnosis? a. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone b. Elevated cortisol levels c. Elevated T3 and T4 d. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone

ANS: D Thyroid hormones are low in myxedema. Thyroid-stimulating hormone is usually high in relation to the feedback mechanisms for hormone regulation if myxedema is caused by primary hypothyroidism. Elevated adrenocorticotropic hormone may be seen in pituitary conditions or adrenal insufficiency. Elevated cortisol levels accompany Cushings syndrome. Elevated T3 and T4 levels are consistent with hyperthyroidism.

A patient is receiving enteral tube feedings and has developed drug-nutrient interactions. The nurse recognizes which drug as having the potential for causing drug-nutrient reactions? a. Aspirin b. Enoxaparin c. Ibuprofen d. Phenytoin

ANS: D Bioavailability of phenytoin is reduced when administered with enteral feedings OBJ: Describe interventions to achieve nutritional goals.

The nurse is concerned that a patient is at increased risk of developing a pulmonary embolus and develops a plan of care for prevention to include which of the following? a. Antiseptic oral care b. Bed rest with head of bed elevated c. Coughing and deep breathing d. Mobility

ANS: D Mobility helps to prevent deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolus. Oral care, head of bed elevation, and coughing and deep breathing assist in preventing pneumonia.

ALERT The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a benzodiazepine intermittently. The nurse understands that the best way to administer such drugs is to: a. administer around the clock, rather than as needed, to ensure constant sedation. b. administer the medications through the feeding tube to prevent complications. c. give the highest allowable dose for the greatest effect. d. titrate to a predefined endpoint using a standard sedation scale.

ANS: D The best approach for administering benzodiazepines (and all sedatives) is to administer and titrate to a desired endpoint using a standard sedation scale. Administering around the clock as well as giving the highest allowable dose without basing it on an assessment target may result in excessive sedation. For greatest effect, most benzodiazepines are given intravenously

Which of the following treatments may be used to dissolve a thrombus that is lodged in the pulmonary artery? a. Aspirin b. Embolectomy c. Heparin d. Thrombolytics

ANS: D Thrombolytics are useful in the management of pulmonary embolus and are given to dissolve the clot. Heparin will prevent further clot formation, but it will not dissolve the clot. Aspirin is not a thrombolytic agent. An embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the clot. Heparin will prevent further clot formation, but it will not dissolve the clot.

16. Objective data designating that the nutrition goals are not being met include: a. hyperglycemia, normovolemia, and increased protein level. b. overhydration, hypoglycemia, and weight gain. c. weight gain, inconsistent glucose, and normovolemia. d. weight loss, elevated glucose, and dehydration.

ANS: D When nutritional goals are not being met, the patient experiences weight loss, elevated glucose levels, and either overhydration or dehydration.

ALERT Which of the following statements about resuscitation is true? a. Family members should never be present during resuscitation. b. It is not necessary for a physician to write do not resuscitate orders in the chart if a patient has a healthcare surrogate. c. Slow codes are ethical and should be considered in futile situations if advanced directives are not available. d. Withholding extraordinary resuscitation is legal and ethical if specified inadvance directives and physician orders.

ANS: D Withholding resuscitation and other care is legal and ethical if based on the patients wishes. Formal orders should be written that specify what is to be done if a patient suffers a cardiopulmonary arrest. Family presence during resuscitation and invasive procedures should be encouraged. A written order for do not resuscitate must be documented in the medical record. The decision to write the order is made in collaboration with the healthcare surrogate. Slow codes sometimes occur in the clinical setting while attempts are made to contact the healthcare surrogate or proxy; however, they are neither legal nor ethical. Specific written orders determine what is to be done for resuscitation efforts.

💲💲Which of the following situations may result in a low cardiac output and low cardiac index? (Select all that apply.)💲💲 a. Exercise b. Hypovolemia c. Myocardial infarction d. Shock

B, C, D Hypovolemia, myocardial infarction, and shock often result in a decreased cardiac output. Cardiac output is usually increased with exercise.

Which of the following findings require immediate nursing interventions related to the assessment of a patient with a traumatic brain injury? (Select all that apply.) a. Mean arterial pressure 48 mm Hg b. Elevated serum blood alcohol level c. Non-reactive pupils d. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute

ANS: A, C, D Rapid assessment of patients with neurological injury is vital to the treatment of patients with traumatic brain injury. Preventing hypotension (mean arterial pressure less than 50 mm Hg) is essential to maintain cerebral perfusion; non-reactive pupils are an abnormal finding and require immediate attention to evaluate the cause. Adequate oxygenation and ventilation are necessary to deliver oxygen to the brain; thus, a respiratory rate of 10 requires further evaluation. An elevated blood alcohol level interferes with the ability to conduct a neurological examination but does not require immediate intervention

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has atrial fibrillation. Sequelae that place the patient at greater risk for mortality/morbidity include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Stroke b. Ashman beats c. Pulmonary emboli d. Prolonged PR interval e. Decreased cardiac output

ANS: A, C, E One complication of atrial fibrillation is thromboembolism. The blood that collects in the atria is agitated by fibrillation, and normal clotting is accelerated. Small thrombi, called mural thrombi, begin to form along the walls of the atria. These clots may dislodge, resulting in pulmonary embolism or stroke. The ineffectual contraction of the atria results in loss of atrial kick. If too many impulses conduct to the ventricles, atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response may result and compromise cardiac output. Ashman beats are not clinically significant. No recognizable or discernible P waves are present; therefore, PR interval is absent

Peritoneal dialysis is different from hemodialysis in that peritoneal dialysis: a. is more frequently used for acute kidney injury. b. uses the patients own semipermeable membrane (peritoneal membrane). c. is not useful in cases of drug overdose or electrolyte imbalance. d. is not indicated in cases of water intoxication.

ANS: B Peritoneal dialysis is the removal of solutes and fluid by diffusion through a patients own semipermeable membrane (the peritoneal membrane) with a dialysate solution that has been instilled into the peritoneal cavity. This renal replacement therapy is not commonly used for the treatment of acute kidney injury because of its comparatively slow ability to alter biochemical imbalances. Clinical indications for peritoneal dialysis include acute and chronic kidney injury, severe water intoxication, electrolyte disorders, and drug overdose.

The patient is admitted with anemia caused by blood loss and thrombocytopenia. His platelet count is 22,000/microliter. The patient is scheduled for a transfusion of RBCs and a transfusion of platelets. The nurse should: a. give the RBCs before the platelets. b. give the platelets before the RBCs. c. use local therapies to stop the bleeding. d. give the platelets and RBCs at the same time.

ANS: B When the patients blood does not clot because of thrombocytopenia, administration of RBCs before platelets will result in RBC loss from disrupted vascular structures. Platelets should be given first. Local therapies to stop bleeding are used when systemic anticoagulation is necessary for treatment of another health condition (e.g., myocardial infarction, ischemic stroke, or pulmonary embolism). Local procoagulants act by direct tissue contact and initiation of a surface clot.

ALERT24. The nurse is assessing a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome. An expected assessment is: a. cardiac output of 10 L/min and low systemic vascular resistance. b. PAOP of 10 mm Hg and PaO2 of 55. c. PAOP of 20 mm Hg and cardiac output of 3 L/min. d. PAOP of 5 mm Hg and high systemic vascular resistance.

ANS: B A normal PAOP with hypoxemia is an expected assessment finding in ARDS. Cardiac output of 10 L/min and low systemic vascular resistance are expected findings in sepsis. PAOP of 20 mm Hg and cardiac output of 3 L/min are expected findings in heart failure. PAOP of 5 mm Hg and high systemic vascular resistance are expected findings in hypovolemic shock.

A patient at high risk for pulmonary embolism is receiving Lovenox. The nurse explains to the patient: a. Im going to contact the pharmacist to see if you can take this medication by mouth. b. This injection is being given to prevent blood clots from forming. c. This medication will dissolve any blood clots you might get. d. You should not be receiving this medication. I will contact the physician to get it stopped.

ANS: B Lovenox, or lowmolecular weight heparin, is recommended for patients at high risk for PE. This patient is at high risk and the medication is indicated. It is given subcutaneously, not by mouth. The drug prevents clots from forming but does not dissolve them.

ALERT5. A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the progressive care unit with a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and diabetes. A set of arterial blood gases obtained on admission without supplemental oxygen shows pH 7.35; PaCO2 55 mm Hg; bicarbonate 30 mEq/L; PaO2 65 mm Hg. These blood gases reflect: a. hypoxemia and compensated metabolic alkalosis. b. hypoxemia and compensated respiratory acidosis. c. normal oxygenation and partly compensated metabolic alkalosis. d. normal oxygenation and uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

ANS: B The PaO2 of 65 mm Hg is lower than normal range (80-100 mm Hg), indicating hypoxemia. The high PaCO2 indicates respiratory acidosis. The elevated bicarbonate indicates metabolic alkalosis. Because the pH is normal, the underlying acid-base alteration is compensated. Given the patients history of chronic pulmonary disease and a pH that is at the lower end of normal range, it can be determined that this patient is hypoxemic with fully compensated respiratory acidosis.

ALERT17. In vivo, the primary activator of the coagulation cascade occurs via the: a. intrinsic pathway. b. extrinsic pathway. c. common pathway. d. either intrinsic or extrinsic pathway.

ANS: B The classic theory of coagulation is viewed as occurring through two distinct pathways, intrinsic and extrinsic, which share a common final pathway, formation of insoluble fibrin. It is now known that the classic cascade theory of coagulation illustrates what occurs in vitro. In vivo, the primary activator of the coagulation cascade occurs via the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway serves to amplify the coagulation cascade.

ALERT12. The nurse is discharging a patient home following treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. As part of the discharge teaching, the nurse instructs: a. If you get the pneumococcal vaccine, youll never get pneumonia again. b. It is important for you to get an annual influenza shot to reduce your risk of pneumonia. c. Stay away from cold, drafty places because that increases your risk of pneumonia when you get home. d. Since you have been treated for pneumonia, you now have immunity from getting it in the future.

ANS: B The influenza vaccine reduces the risk of pneumonia by over a half. The pneumococcal vaccine is important but only protects against pneumococcal infection. Cold, drafty environments will not cause infection. Immunity for pneumonia does not occur as a result of getting it.

In the trauma patient, symptoms of decreased cardiac output are most commonly caused by: a. cardiac contusion. b. cardiogenic shock. c. hypovolemia. d. pericardial tamponade.

ANS: C Hypovolemia is commonly associated with traumatic injury resulting from acute blood loss. Cardiac contusion may decrease cardiac output, but hypovolemia occurs more often. Cardiogenic shock is not typically associated with trauma. Pericardial tamponade would decrease cardiac output but is not as common as hypovolemia.

While caring for a patient with a basilar skull fracture, the nurse assesses clear drainage from the patients left naris. What is the best nursing action? a. Have the patient blow the nose until clear. b. Insert bilateral cotton nasal packing. c. Place a nasal drip pad under the nose. d. Suction the left nares until the drainage clears.

ANS: C In the presence of suspected cerebrospinal fluid leak, drainage should be unobstructed and free flowing. Small bandages may be applied to allow for fluid collection and assessment. Patients should be instructed not to blow their nose because that action may further aggravate the dural tear. Suction catheters should be inserted through the mouth rather than the nose to avoid penetrating the brain due to the dural tear.

The nurse is assessing a patient with a new arteriovenous fistula, but does not hear a bruit or feel a thrill. Pulses distal to the fistula are not palpable. The nurse should: a. reassess the patient in an hour. b. raise the arm above the level of the patients heart. c. notify the provider immediately. d. apply warm packs to the fistula site and reassess.

ANS: C Inadequate collateral circulation past the fistula or graft may result in loss of this pulse. The physician is notified immediately if no bruit is auscultated, no thrill is palpated, or the distal pulse is absent. Loss of bruit and thrill indicate a loss of blood flow most likely due to clotting. The patient will need to return to surgery as soon as possible for declotting. Raising the arm above the level of the heart will not help. Warm packs may or may not help.

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is: a. 70 to 120 mg/dL. b. a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL compared with admitting values. c. a decrease of 50 to 75 mg/dL compared with admitting values. d. less than 200 mg/dL.

ANS: C Initial insulin infusions should be administered with a target blood glucose reduction of 50 to 75 mg/dL per hour. Decreases of less than this rate may be associated with inadequate insulin replacement and allow for the persistence of the ketotic state. Rapid reductions of blood glucose may precipitate life-threatening cerebral edema; thus, controlled reduction of glucose is required.

The patient is diagnosed with lymphoma, but has a normal white blood cell (WBC) count. The nurse understands that this patient a. has normal WBC function since the WBC is normal. b. will have increased bruising and bleeding. c. is at risk for infection. d. is at risk for an allergic reaction.

ANS: C Malignant diseases involving WBCs are termed leukemia, lymphoma, and plasma cell neoplasm (multiple myeloma). Regardless of the specific neoplastic disorder, a deficiency of functional WBCs is a common problem. Despite normal serum cell counts, WBC activity is always impaired, and infection is the most common complication of all these disorders.

ALERT39. The patient comes to the hospital complaining of headache, fever, and sore throat for the past 2 weeks and is concerned that he might have acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). The patients blood work shows the presence of HIV antibodies. The nurse should explain that: a. HIV symptoms will continue throughout the patients life. b. HIV is an acute disease with a short prognosis. c. AIDS is considered a chronic disease. d. very few people with HIV develop AIDS.

ANS: C Seroconversion is manifested by the presence of HIV antibodies and usually occurs 2 to 4 weeks after the initial infection. Symptoms associated with seroconversion include flu-like symptoms such as fever, sore throat, headache, malaise, nausea and usually last 1 to 2 weeks. The earlier stages of HIV infection may last as long as 10 years and may produce few or no symptoms, although viral particles are actively replacing normal cells. AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection. It is estimated that 99% of untreated HIV-infected individuals will progress to AIDS. Treatment regimens with combined antiviral drug regimens are controlling the progression to AID. AIDS is now considered, for many infected individuals, a chronic disease.

ALERT2. A patient with a head injury has an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 18 mm Hg. Her blood pressure is 144/90 mm Hg, and her mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 108 mm Hg. What is the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)? a. 54 mm Hg b. 72 mm Hg c. 90 mm Hg d. 126 mm Hg

ANS: C CPP = MAP ICP. In this case, CPP = 108 mm Hg 18 mm Hg = 90 mm Hg. All other calculated responses are incorrect.

ALERT14. Which of the following patients have the greatest risk of developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) after traumatic injury? a. A patient who has a closed head injury with a decreased level of consciousness b. A patient who has a fractured femur and is currently in traction c. A patient who has received large volumes of fluid and/or blood replacement d. A patient who has underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

ANS: C During states of hypoperfusion and acidosis, inflammation occurs and vessels become more permeable to fluid and molecules. With aggressive fluid resuscitation, this change in permeability allows the movement of fluid from the intravascular space into the interstitial spaces (third spacing). As more IV fluids are given to support systemic circulation, fluids continue to migrate into the interstitial space, causing excessive edema and predisposing the patient to additional complications such as abdominal compartment syndrome, ARDS, acute kidney injury, and MODS. A patient with a closed head injury, a patient with a fractured femur stabilized by traction, and a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may develop ARDS, but it would be related to fluid resuscitation and excessive inflammation associated with traumatic injury.

ALERT9. A patient presents to the emergency department in acute respiratory failure secondary to community- acquired pneumonia. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse anticipates which treatment to facilitate ventilation? a. Emergency tracheostomy and mechanical ventilation b. Mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube c. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV) d. Oxygen at 100% via bag-valve-mask device

ANS: C Noninvasive measures are often recommended in the initial treatment of the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to prevent intubation and ventilator dependence. The history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease increases the risk for ventilator dependence, so noninvasive options are a priority. Bag- valve ventilation with 100% oxygen is not required at this time and could depress the respiratory drive that exists. Emergency tracheostomy is not indicated, as there is an indication of an obstructed airway.

ALERT1. The nurse is preparing to monitor intracranial pressure (ICP) with a fluid-filled monitoring system. The nurse understands which principles and/or components to be essential when implementing ICP monitoring? (Select all that apply.) a. Use of a heparin flush solution b. Manually flushing the device prn c. Recording ICP as a mean value d. Use of a pressurized flush system e. Zero referencing the transducer system

ANS: C, E Neither heparin nor pressure bags nor pressurized flush systems are used for ICP monitoring setups. ICP is recorded as a mean value with the transducer system zero referenced at the level of the foramen of Munro. Manually flushing the device may result in an increase in ICP.

Which of the following laboratory values would be more common in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Blood glucose >1000 mg/dL b. Negative ketones in the urine c. Normal anion gap d. pH 7.24

ANS: D A pH of 7.24 is indicative of an acidotic state that may accompany diabetic ketoacidosis. Glucose values of more than 1000 mg/dL are more commonly associated with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. Diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with positive urine ketones and an increased anion gap.

The patient is in progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should: a. draw blood from the left arm. b. take blood pressures from the left arm. c. start a new intravenous line in the left lower arm. d. auscultate the left arm for a bruit and palpate for a thrill.

ANS: D An arteriovenous fistula should be auscultated for a bruit and palpated for the presence of a thrill or buzz every 8 hours. The extremity that has a fistula or graft must never be used for drawing blood specimens, obtaining blood pressure measurements, administering intravenous therapy, or giving intramuscular injections. Such activities produce pressure changes within the altered vessels that could result in clotting or rupture.

Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome? a. An 18-year-old college student with type 1 diabetes who exercises excessively b. A 45-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes who forgets to take her insulin in the morning c. A 75-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease who has recently started on insulin injections d. An 83-year-old, long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimers disease who recently developed influenza

ANS: D Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is more common in type 2 diabetes; influenza is a stressor that would result in further increases in blood sugar. Some individuals with advanced Alzheimers disease cannot communicate thirst needs and may be incontinent, making hypertonic fluid loss more difficult to estimate. Uncontrolled type 1 diabetes is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Interruption of insulin delivery related to a missed insulin dose in type 1 diabetes creates a situation of absolute insulin deficiency in type 1 diabetes and is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. A patient with type 2 diabetes who is new to insulin is at risk for hypoglycemia.

ANS: A In patients with severe acute pancreatitis, some fluid collects in the retroperitoneal space and peritoneal cavity. Patients sequester up to one third of their plasma volume. Initially, most patients develop some degree of dehydration and, in severe cases, hypovolemic shock. Fluid replacement is a high priority in the treatment of acute pancreatitis. The IV solutions ordered for fluid resuscitation are usually colloids or lactated Ringers solution; however, fresh frozen plasma and albumin may also be used. IV fluid administration with crystalloids at 500 mL/hr is at times required to maintain hemodynamic status. Often, vigorous IV fluid replacement at 250 to 300mL/hr continues for the first 48 hours or a volume adequate to maintain a urine output of greater than or equal to 0.5 mL/kg body weight per hour. Fluid replacement helps to maintain perfusion to the pancreas and kidneys, reducing the potential for comp

ANS: D Nasogastric suction and nothing by mouth status were classic treatments for patients with acute pancreatitis to suppress pancreatic exocrine secretion by preventing the release of secretin from the duodenum. Normally, secretin, which stimulates pancreatic secretion production, is stimulated when acid is in the duodenum; therefore, nasogastric suction has been a primary treatment. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain may also be decreased with nasogastric suctioning. A nasogastric tube is also necessary in patients with ileus, severe gastric distention, and a decreased level of consciousness to prevent complications resulting from pulmonary aspiration. Trends in nutritional management are changing. Early nutritional support may be ordered to prevent atrophy of gut lymphoid tissue, prevent bacterial overgrowth in the intestine, and increase intestinal permeability. Immediate oral feeding in patients with mild acute pancreatitis is safe and may accelerate

A patient presents to the emergency department (ED) with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 104.8 F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder? a. Adrenal crisis b. Myxedema coma c. Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) d. Thyroid storm

ANS: D Tachycardia, vascular collapse, rapid cardiac rhythms, congestive heart failure, and severe hyperthermia are consistent with the clinical manifestations of the hypermetabolic state of thyroid storm. Adrenal insufficiency presents with weakness, fatigue, weight loss, anorexia, abdominal pain, and hyperpigmentation. Myxedema coma is an extreme form of hypothyroidism and is characterized by signs of hypometabolism, including bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, cold intolerance, and neurological sluggishness. SIADH is characterized by fluid retention, hyponatremia, and hemodilution. Heat intolerance and atrial fibrillation are not typical characteristics of the condition.

The patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse should: a. assess pain level because pancreatic pain is unique in character. b. examine laboratory values for low amylase levels. c. expect lipase levels to decrease within 24 hours. d. evaluate C-reactive protein as a gauge of severity.

ANS: D The diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is based on clinical findings, the presence of associated disorders, and laboratory testing. Pain associated with acute pancreatitis is similar to that associated with peptic ulcer disease, gallbladder disease, intestinal obstruction, and acute myocardial infarction. This similarity exists because pain receptors in the abdomen are poorly differentiated as they exit the skin surface. Serum lipase and amylase tests are the most specific indicators of acute pancreatitis because as the pancreatic cells and ducts are destroyed, these enzymes are released. An elevated serum amylase level is a characteristic diagnostic feature. Amylase levels usually rise within 12 hours after the onset of symptoms and return to normal within 3 to 5 days. Serum lipase levels increase within 4 to 8 hours of clinical symptom onset and then decrease within 8 to 14 days. C-reactive protein increases within 48 hours and is a marker of severity.

The patient has a total white blood cell (WBC) count of 600 cells/microliter. The differential shows a normal neutrophil level of 70% with 5% bands. This patient: a. is at low risk for infection. b. is at mild risk for infection. c. is at moderated risk for infection. d. is at severe risk for infection.

ANS: D The differential demonstrates the percentage of each type of WBC circulating in the bloodstream. The absolute neutrophil count is calculated by multiplying the total WBC count (without a decimal point) by the percentages (with decimal points) of polymorphonuclear leukocytes (polys; also called segs or neutrophils) and bands (immature neutrophils). WBC (segs + bands) 600 (0.70 + 0.05) 600 0.75 = 450 cells/microliter This gives an actual number that is translated into the categories of mild, moderate, or severe neutropenia. Neutropenia is classified based on the patients predicted risk for infection: mild (1000 to 1500 cells/microliter), moderate (500 to 1000 cells/microliter), and severe (<500 cells/microliter)

The nurse is caring for a patient who was hit on the head with a hammer. The patient was unconscious at the scene briefly but is now conscious upon arrival at the emergency department (ED) with a GCS score of 15. One hour later, the nurse assesses a GCS score of 3. What is the priority nursing action? a. Stimulate the patient hourly. b. Continue to monitor the patient. c. Elevate the head of the bed. d. Notify the physician immediately.

ANS: D These are classic symptoms of epidural and acute subdural hematomas: injury, lucid period, and progressive deterioration. The physician must be notified of this neurological emergency so appropriate interventions can be implemented. Although elevating the head of the bed, continuously monitoring the patient and applying stimulation as necessary to assess neurological response are appropriate interventions, notification of the physician is a priority given the severity in change of neurological status.

ALERT 4. 12. While caring for a patient with a closed head injury, the nurse assesses the patient to be alert with a blood pressure 130/90 mm Hg, heart rate 60 beats/min, respirations 18 breaths/min, and a temperature of 102 F. To reduce the risk of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in this patient, what is (are) the priority nursing action(s)? a. Ensure adequate periods of rest between nursing interventions. b. Insert an oral airway and monitor respiratory rate and depth. c. Maintain neutral head alignment and avoid extreme hip flexion. d. Reduce ambient room temperature and administer antipyretics.

ANS: D In this scenario, the patients temperature is elevated, which increases metabolic demands. Increases in metabolic demands increase cerebral blood flow and contribute to increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Cooling measures should be implemented. Insertion of an oral airway in an alert patient is contraindicated. While maintaining neutral head position and ensuring adequate periods of rest between nursing interventions are appropriate actions for patients with elevated ICP, treatment of the fever is of higher priority.

ALERT4. 7. The nurse is caring for a patient with an ICP of 18 mm Hg and a GCS score of 3. Following the administration of mannitol (Osmitrol), which assessment finding by the nurse requires further action? a. ICP of 10 mm Hg b. CPP of 70 mm Hg c. GCS score of 5 d. CVP of 2 mm Hg

ANS: D Osmotic diuretics draw water from normal brain cells, decreasing ICP and increasing CPP and urine output. An ICP of 10 mm Hg and CPP of 70 mm Hg are within normal limits. A GCS score of 5, while not optimum indicates a slight improvement. A CVP of 2 mm Hg indicates hypovolemia. To ensure adequate cerebral perfusion, further action on the part of the nurse is necessary.

ALERT4. The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient with a sustained ICP of 18 mm Hg. The nurse needs to perform an hourly neurological assessment, suction the endotracheal tube, perform oral hygiene care, and reposition the patient to the left side. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Hyperoxygenate during endotracheal suctioning. b. Elevate the patients head of the bed 30 degrees. c. Apply bilateral heel protectors after repositioning. d. Provide rest periods between nursing interventions

ANS: D Sustained increases in ICP lasting longer than 5 minutes should be avoided. This is accomplished by spacing nursing care activities to allow for rest between activities. All other nursing actions are a part of the patients plan of care; however, spacing out interventions is the priority.

ALERT30. After receiving the hand-off report from the day shift charge nurse, which patient should the evening charge nurse assess first? a. A patient with meningitis complaining of photophobia b. A mechanically ventilated patient with a GCS of 6 c. A patient with bacterial meningitis on droplet precautions d. A patient with an intracranial pressure ICP of 20 mm Hg and an oral temperature of 104F

ANS: D The charge nurse should assess the patient with an ICP of 20 mm Hg and a temperature of 104F as this is an abnormal finding and should be investigated further. A patient with a GCS of 6 being mechanically ventilated has a secure airway and there is no indication of distress. Photophobia is an expected

A 20-year-old female with a history of type 1diabetes and an eating disorder is found unconscious. In the emergency department, the following lab values are obtained: Glucose648 mg/dL pH6.88 PaCO220 mm Hg PaO295 mm Hg HCO3 undetectable Anion gap>31 Na+127 mEq/L K+ 3.5 mEq/L Creatinine1.8 mg/dL After the patients airway and ventilation have been established, the next priority for this patient is: a. administration of a 1-L normal saline fluid bolus. b. administration of 0.1 unit of regular insulin IV push followed by an insulin infusion. c. administration of 20 mEq KCl in 100 mL. d. IV push administration of 1 amp of sodium bicarbonate.

a. administration of a 1-L normal saline fluid bolus

A(An) ____________________ often produces a superficial cutaneous injury but may cause cardiopulmonary arrest and transient but severe central nervous system deficits. a. chemical burn b. electrical burn c. heat burn d. Infection

b. electrical burn Tissue damage results from the conversion of electrical energy into heat. Monitor the patient for cardiac dysrhythmias.

💲💲The optimal measurement of intravascular fluid status during the immediate fluid resuscitation phase of burn treatment is:💲💲 a. blood urea nitrogen. b. daily weight. c. hourly intake and urine output. d. serum potassium.

c. hourly intake and urine output. During initial fluid resuscitation, urine output helps guide fluid resuscitation needs. Measuring hourly intake and output is most effective in determining the needs for additional fluid infusion than is urine output alone. Blood urea nitrogen may be used to monitor volume status, but it is affected by the hypermetabolic state seen after burns, so it is not the optimal measure of intravascular fluid status. Daily weight measures overall volume status, not just intravascular volume. Serum potassium is released with tissue damage and thus is not the optimum measure of intravascular fluid status.

A patient admitted with severe burns to his face and hands is showing signs of extreme agitation. The nurse should explore the mechanism of burn injury possibly related to: a. excessive alcohol use. b. methamphetamine use. c. posttraumatic stress disorder. d. subacute delirium.

ANS: B A vague or inconsistent injury history, burns to the face and hands, and signs of agitation or substance withdrawal should alert the nurse to a potential methamphetamine-related injury.

The nurse is assessing a patient being admitted with complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath as well as abdominal tenderness. The nurse notes that the patient is jaundiced; the physical examination reports an enlarged liver The nurse suspects that the patient has: a. aplastic anemia. b. hemolytic anemia. c. sickle cell anemia. d. anemia due to acute blood loss.

ANS: B Assessment of the patient with hemolytic anemia may reveal jaundice, abdominal pain, and enlargement of the spleen or liver. These findings result from the increased destruction of RBCs, their sequestration (abnormal distribution in the spleen and liver), and the accumulation of breakdown products. The patient with aplastic anemia may have bruising, nosebleeds, petechiae, and a decreased ability to fight infections. These effects result from thrombocytopenia and decreased WBC counts, which occur when the bone marrow fails to produce blood cells. Patients with sickle cell anemia may have joint swelling or pain, and delayed physical and sexual development. Decreased circulating volume is manifested by clinical findings reflective of low blood volume (e.g., low right atrial pressure) and the effects of gravity on the lack of volume (e.g., orthostasis).

A burn patient in the rehabilitation phase of injury is increasingly anxious and unable to sleep. The nurse should consult with the provider to further assess the patient for: a. acute delirium. b. posttraumatic stress disorder. c. suicidal intentions. d. bipolar disorder.

ANS: B Burn-injured patients experience psychologically devastating injuries in addition to physical injuries. Burn patients that demonstrate changes in behavior, anxiety, insomnia, regression, and acting out should be evaluated for posttraumatic stress disorder. Acute delirium is more likely to occur during the acute phase of injury. Suicidal ideations should always be addressed if the patient expresses or shows signs of suicidal thoughts. Burn-injured patients may have an underlying mental health disorder that requires treatment, such as bipolar disorder or schizophrenia.

💲💲The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone skin grafting of the face and arms for burn wound treatment. A primary nursing diagnosis is:💲💲 a. altered nutrition, less than body requirements. b. body image disturbance. c. decreased cardiac output. d. fluid volume deficit.

ANS: B Burns, scarring, and skin grafting can all affect appearance. Body image disturbances may result. Nutritional support is started early in management of the patient with burns, and there is no indication that this patient has a nutritional deficit. Nursing care plan priorities would also continue to focus on nutritional needs to optimize healing. Decreased cardiac output and fluid volume deficit should not be priority concerns during the wound closure phase of burn wound management by grafting

A patient with type 1 diabetes who is receiving a continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion via an insulin pump contacts the clinic to report mechanical failure of the infusion pump. The nurse instructs the patient to begin monitoring for signs of: a. adrenal insufficiency. b. diabetic ketoacidosis. c. hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state. d. hypoglycemia.

ANS: B If the insulin pump fails, the patient with type 1 diabetes will have a complete interruption of insulin delivery; diabetic ketoacidosis will occur. Adrenal insufficiency would not result from insulin pump failure. Hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state is a hyperglycemic complication associated with type 2 diabetes; this patient has type 1 diabetes. Interruption of insulin delivery in type 1 diabetes would result in hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

When paramedics notice singed hairs in the nose of a burn patient, it is recommended that the patient be intubated. What is the reasoning for the immediate intubation? a. Carbon monoxide poisoning always occurs when soot is visible. b. Inhalation injury above the glottis may cause significant edema that obstructs the airway. c. The patient will have a copious amount of mucus that will need to be suctioned. d. The singed hairs and soot in the nostrils will cause dysfunction of cilia in the airways.

ANS: B In inhalation injury, the airway may become edematous quickly, making intubation difficult. Early intubation is recommended to protect the airway. Carbon monoxide poisoning may be present, but singed nose hairs are neither a symptom nor a reason for early intubation. Management of secretions is not an indication for intubation. Singed hairs and soot are more commonly symptoms of injury above the glottis rather than lower airway, below-the-glottis, signs and symptoms that will interfere with oxygenation and ventilation.

The nurse is assessing a patient. Which assessment would cue the nurse to the potential of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? a. Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry b. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator c. Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures d. PaO2/FiO2 ratio > 300

ANS: B Increased peak inspiratory pressures are often early indicators of ARDS. Oxygen saturation decreases in ARDS. Chest x-ray study will show progressive infiltrates. In ARDS, a PaO2 /FiO2 ratio less than 200 is a criterion