final bio
look at picture The energy of activation in the presence of an enzyme is shown
C
All of the following are examples of tumor-suppressor proteins except: A. DNA repair enzyme MSH3 B. The G2 checkpoint protein CHFR C. Protein phosphatase 2A D. Cyclin dependent kinase 2 (cdk2) E. The cell cycle inhibitor p21
D
The loci of four different genes, A, B, C, and D, are shown on the diagram of a chromosome, below Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination? A. A and B B. B and C C. C and D D. A and D E. A and C
D
Which of the following statements correctly describes malignant tumors? A. Malignant tumors are metastatic. B. Malignant tumor cells break away from the primary tumor, migrate through the vasculature, and establish secondary tumors. C. Malignant tumors cells reactivate segments of the genome that encode proteins that initiate cell migration. D. All of the above
D
Which of the following statements describes energy coupling? A. Energy released from exergonic reactions used for endergonic reactions. B. The intermediate molecule in energy coupling is adenosine triphosphate. C. Energy coupling can occur through the phosphorylation of an enzyme endergonic reaction. D. All of the above.
D
Refer to the reaction coordinate diagram Energy is required for the enzyme to release the product. (T or F)
T
1. A. Transcribe the DNA template, shown below, into a single primary messenger RNA. (Hint: Use the promoter region as a guide for transcription initiation.) 5'-(TATA)-GGGGCTATGAAGTCTGCTCAGCAGCAGCAGCTCCGCAGCTGA-3' 3'-(ATAT)-CCCCGATACTTCAGACGAGTCGTCGTCGTCGAGGCGTCGACT-5'
5'-(TATA)-GGGGCUAUGAAGUCUGCUCAGCAGCACGACGUCCGCAGCUGA-3'
A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically identical A. The statement is true for mitosis only. B. The statement is true for meiosis I only. C. The statement is true for meiosis II only. D. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
A
A cell in a banana leaf has very high levels of NADPH in the stroma of the chloroplasts, and inadequate amounts of ATP to power the Calvin Cycle. The mechanism the cell will use to balance ATP and NADHP+ levels is A. Cyclic electron flow B. Noncompetitive inhibition of NADP+ reductase C. Noncompetitive inhibition of Ferredoxin D. Competitive inhibition of ATP synthase
A
A mutation that inactivates the Ras GTPase activity is a dominant mutation. A. True B. False
A
A recent epidemic of influenza A killed hundreds of individuals in several countries. What molecular markers were used to identify this strain of influenza A? A. Hemagglutinin and Neuraminidase B. Viral DNA and RNA C. Viral reverse transcriptase D. Capsid proteins
A
All of the following chromatin modifications lead to the transcriptional activity of a gene except: A. Methylation of cytosine residues (5-methyl-cytosine) in the promoter of the gene B. Acetylation of lysine residues in the amino terminus of histone H3 C. Methylation of lysine residue 4 in the amino terminus tail of histone H3 D. Acetylation of lysine residues in the amino terminus of histone H4
A
An enzyme increases the rate of a reaction by A. Lowering the energy of activation (EA) B. Lowering the standard free energy (ΔG°) of the reaction C. Lowering the free energy (ΔG) of the products D. Increasing the tendency of the reaction to go to equilibrium
A
Angelman syndrome patients are profoundly impaired due to the absence of ubiquitin ligase in certain cells of the brain. Ubiquitin ligase attaches a ubiquitin molecule to old, damaged, or unnecessary cellular proteins, thus marking them for degradation. (Brain cell function is compromised in Angelman patients due to the failure to eliminate damaged cellular proteins.) Ubiquittinated proteins are eliminated by the: A. Proteosome B. Nucleosome C. Apoptosome D. Degradasome
A
Determine the standard free energy (ΔG°) for the following coupling reactions. Is this coupled reaction exergonic or endergonic? W-X + ATP → Y-Z + ADP + Pi W-X → Y-Z ΔG° = -49.5 kJoules/mole ADP + Pi → ATP ΔG° = 30.5 kJoules/mole A. -19 kJoules/mole, exergonic B. 80 kJoules/mole, endergonic C. 19 kJoules/mole, endergonic D. -80 kJoules/mole, exergonic
A
During the elongation stage of translation, which site on the ribosome does an activated t-RNA first bind? A. A site B. E site C. P site
A
In the crocus, the gene for plant height (T) and the gene for flower color (Y) are on the same chromosome. A tall yellow-flowered crocus (TTYY) was crossed with a short white-flowered crocus (ttyy) to product the F1 generation with the genotype TtYy. The F1 generation was backcrossed to the homozygous recessive plant (ttyy) to produce the following progeny: 75 TtYy 80 ttyy 25 Ttyy 20 ttYy 42. If the genes for plant height (T) and flower color (Y) were not linked, how many of each phenotype would be expected? A. 50 TtYy: 50 ttyy: 50 Ttyy: 50 ttYy B. 75 TtYy: 75 ttyy: 25 Ttyy: 25 ttYy C. 100 TtYy: 100 ttyy: 0 Ttyy: 0 ttYy D. 25 TtYy: 50 ttyy: 100 Ttyy: 25 ttYy
A
In the tryptophan operon, the trp repressor blocks transcription when it binds to A. The operator B. The promoter C. The inducer
A
Origins of genetic variation among offspring include all of the following except: A. Independent segregation B. Independent assortment C. Crossing over D. Random fertilization
A
SU5416 is a cancer drug that interferes with the function of the vascular endothelial growth factor receptor (VEGF-R). Which of the following pathways does this drug directly inhibit? A. Mitotic spindle formation B. Metastasis E. Angiogenesis C. Cell motility D. Cleavage furrow formation
A
The energy of activation (ΔGuncat) needed to convert reactants to products is 9.9 kJoules/mol. When the reaction is catalyzed by an enzyme that's activation energy (ΔGcat) is 3.6 kJoules/mol. The binding energy (ΔGB) of the reaction is A. 6.3 kJoules/mol B. 10.5 kJoules/mol C. 3.6 kJoules/mol D. 9.9 kJoules/mol
A
The light reactions of photosynthesis yield three products. They are: A. O2, NADPH, and ATP B. CO2, NADP, and ATP C. O2, NADP, and ATP
A
Use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation to calculate the pH of a one-liter solution containing 0.09 moles of cacodylic acid and 0.9 moles of its conjugate base, cacodylate. The pKa of cacodylic acid is 6.27. pH = pKa + log [Proton acceptor] [Proton donor] A. 7.27 B. 6.27 C. 5.27 D. 8.27
A
When proto-oncogenes mutate, they can become oncogenes. All of the following statements describe oncogenes and/or their oncoprotein products except: A. The retinoblastoma protein (pRb) is an example of a tumor promoter. B. Oncogenes encode proteins that promote cellular growth and division. C. Examples of proteins that have the potential to become oncoproteins include cyclins, tyrosine kinase receptors, and G-proteins. D. Oncogenes frequently overexpress their protein product.
A
Which of the following statements does not describe a mechanism that converts a proto-oncogene to an oncogene? A. A proto-oncogene is translocated to another chromosome and is now regulated by a very active promoter. B. A segment of a chromosome that contains a proto-oncogene is deleted (removed) during S-phase of the cell cycle. C. A segment of a proto-oncogene that encodes the ligand binding domain of a receptor protein is deleted during S-phase of the cell cycle. D. A segment of a chromosome that contains a proto-oncogene is copied three times during S-phase of the cell cycle, resulting in amplification of that region of the chromosome. E. A promoter regulating transcription of a proto-oncogene becomes constitutively (constantly) active.
A
Which of the following statements does not describe benign tumors? A. Benign tumors are never life threatening. B. Benign tumors contain cells that have lost control of the cell cycle. C. Cells from benign tumors do not migrate into the surrounding connective tissue. D. Benign tumors contain cells that have sustained mutations in both tumor suppressor genes and tumor promoter genes.
A
Which of the following statements does not describe the flow of enzymes? A. Glycogen synthesis is achieved through a series of exergonic reactions. B. Lipids are broken down by the cell in order to generate ATP. C. Glycolysis is a catabolic process that yields energy for the cell. D. Nucleic acid synthesis is a process that is both anabolic and endergonic.
A
A DNA sequence that can activate expression of a tissue-specific gene located 10,000 base pairs away is a(n): A. Promoter B. Enhancer C. TATA box D. Intervening sequence
B
A reductional division halves the number of chromosome sets per cell from diploid to haploid. A. The statement is true for mitosis only. B. The statement is true for meiosis I only. C. The statement is true for meiosis II only. D. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
B
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that binds to receptors that signals muscle contraction. After the signal for muscle contraction the enzyme acetylcholinesterase clears away excess acetylcholine breakdown into acetic acid and choline, thus terminating acetylcholine. Sarin is a chemical warfare "nerve agent" that functions as an inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase and preventing neuromuscular signals from transmitting between neurons from the central nervous system to muscle fibers. The action of Sarin is an example of: A. Feedback inhibition B. Noncompetitive inhibition C. Competitive inhibition D. Allosteric inactivation
B
Chiasmata hold homologous chromosomes together A. The statement is true for mitosis only. B. The statement is true for meiosis I only. C. The statement is true for meiosis II only. D. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
B
Different breeds of horses exhibit significant differences in size. The genetic basis for size difference among horses is likely to result form: A. Genomic imprinting of the ubiquitin gene. B. Allelic variation in growth factor receptor genes. C. Alternative splicing in tubulin genes. D. All of the above
B
Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs A. The statement is true for mitosis only. B. The statement is true for meiosis I only. C. The statement is true for meiosis II only. D. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
B
Homologous chromosomes, in the form of tetrads, are arranged on the metaphase plate A. The statement is true for mitosis only. B. The statement is true for meiosis I only. C. The statement is true for meiosis II only. D. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
B
Important differences between the electron transport chain (ETC) in the chloroplasts of plant cells and the ETC in the mitochondria of animal cells include all of the following expect: A. The source of electronegativity used to "pull" electrons down the ETC B. The structure and function of ATP synthase C. The splitting of a water molecule D. The use of Ferredoxin as an electron carrier
B
In a yeast cell undergoing mitosis, several chromosomes are not yet attached to kinetochore microtubules. For this reason, the yeast cell halts its progress until all its chromosomes are associated with kinetochore microtubules. The yeast cell then resumes cell division. In which phase of mitosis did the yeast cell stall? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase/cytokinesis
B
Look at picture Penicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus produces an enzyme, beta-lactamase, that hydrolyzes and inactivates penicillin. Using the data below estimate the Km of Β-lactamase. The estimated Km is A. 4 um B. 6 um C. 8 um D. 10 um E. 21 um
B
Match each description with the appropriate inheritance pattern (A-E). A. Incomplete dominance B. Polygenic inheritance C. Pleiotropy D. Epistasis E. Codominance Traits that exhibit quantitative variation (skin color or height) and are under the control of several genes
B
On a genetic linkage map, how many map units apart are the Y and T genes? A. 50% B. 22.5% C. 25% D. 45%
B
The energy released from chemical bonds formed between the site of the enzyme
B
The enzyme Methylenetetrahydrofolate Dehydrogenase-Cyclohydrolase forms with Magnesium (Mg2+) and Folate (Folic acid). This complex functions in the acid and nucleic acid biosynthetic pathways. What is the role of Magnesium (Mg2+) in its association with the enzyme? A. Apoenzyme B. Cofactor C. Coenzyme D. Holoenzyme
B
The highest frequency of recombination expected between these two genes is: A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%
B
The incidence of age-related diseases has decreased significantly in the 21st century. A. True B. False
B
The phenotype associated with any gene is a reflection of the molecular interactions of the protein product encoded by each allele. Based on that fact, which of the following statements is false? A. A mutant phenotype is recessive when the mutant polypeptide does not interfere with the function of the polypeptide encoded by the normal allele. B. The son of a man with dwarfism, an autosomal dominant disease, has 100% chance of also having dwarfism. C. Alleles that encode lethal autosomal dominant diseases are less common in the population than alleles that encode lethal autosomal recessive diseases. D. A mutant phenotype is dominant when the mutant polypeptide interferes with the function of the polypeptide encoded by the normal allele.
B
The probability that the daughter described in question 55 (above) is a carrier of hemophilia is: A. 2/3 B. 1 C. 1/4 D. 1/2
B
The rhinovirus infects the epithelial cells that line your respiratory tract. As mature virus is synthesized in the infected cells, the cells fill with virus particles until the cells burst (lysis). The newly replicated virus particles then infect surrounding cells and the cycle continues, producing the symptoms of the common cold that we all have enjoyed from time to time. The best defense(s) against rhinovirus infection is (are): A. Warm, moist air B. Leukocytes and lymphocytes C. Antibiotics D. Milligram doses of vitamin C
B
Viruses are not considered living organisms because they cannot replicate their genomes or translate their mRNA independently. Components of the host cell that are required for the production of a mature DNA virus include al of the following except: A. Ribosomes B. Major histocompatibility complex C. Aminoacyl tRNA D. DNA polymerase E. RNA polymerase
B
What is the recombination frequency between the Y and T genes? A. 50% B. 22.5% C. 25% D. 45%
B
What would occur if the operator sequence is removed from the lac operon? A. The operon would be transcribed continuously B. The operon would no longer be transcribed C. The operon would be transcribed at a very slow rate D. The lac repressor would bind to the first gene in the operon
B
look at picture A titration curve for acetic acid and its conjugate base, acetate, is attempted twice. A) A group of students attempted the same titration. The graph of each titration experiment is labeled. B) What is the reason for the lack of buffering in the students experiment? A. OH- was added too slowly B. OH- was added too rapidly C. H+ was added by mistake D. H2O was added by mistake
B
A biology student is sunbathing on "Beury Beach". UV radiation from the sun causes the development of several thymine dimers in the genome of a keratinocyte (skin cell). Which of the following groups of enzymes will remove the damaged nucleotide bases and restore the normal DNA structure? A. Helicase, Primase, DNA polymerase B. Ribonuclease III, DNA polymerase, Cohesin C. DNA methyltransferase, Histone acetylase, Histone methyltransferase D. Exonuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
C
A primary cause of aging are reactive oxygen species (ROS). The following statements describe ROS except: A. Reactive oxygen species are insufficiently reduced oxygen molecules produced during electron transport. B. Reactive oxygen species damage nucleic acids, proteins, and membranes of the cell and its organelles. C. ROS damage nuclear DNA at a rate 10-20 times higher than mitochondrial DNA D. ROS are converted first to hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and then to water by superoxide dismutase and glutathione peroxidase, respectively.
C
Four genetically varied haploid cells are produced A. The statement is true for mitosis only. B. The statement is true for meiosis I only. C. The statement is true for meiosis II only. D. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
C
Look at diagram In the human pedigree shown below, the son of a phenotypically normal couple has a form of deafness determined by an autosomal recessive allele (d). The normal allele is dominant (D). The probability that the daughter, II-3, is a carrier of the deafness allele is: A. 1 B. 1/2 C. 2/3 D. 1/4
C
Match each description with the appropriate inheritance pattern (A-E). A. Incomplete dominance B. Polygenic inheritance C. Pleiotropy D. Epistasis E. Codominance Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreases, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections
C
Refer to color spectrum of visible light diagram Compared to the corn plant with normal pigments, the growth and corn production of the mutant plant will be: A. Less growth and less corn production than the normal plant. B. The same levels of growth and corn production as the normal plant. C. Greater growth and greater corn production than the normal plant. D. Less plant growth but greater corn production than the normal plant.
C
The enzyme Methylenetetrahydrofolate Dehydrogenase-Cyclohydrolase forms with Magnesium (Mg2+) and Folate (Folic acid). This complex functions in the acid and nucleic acid biosynthetic pathways What is the role of Folate in its association with the enzyme? A. Apoenzyme B. Cofactor C. Coenzyme D. Holoenzyme
C
There are hundreds of species of bacteria that occupy the human large ... regions of the intestine are anaerobic, meaning there is very little O2 available ... species of bacteria generate ATP by: A. Chemiosmosis B. Oxidative phosphorylation C. Substrate level phosphorylation D. All of the above
C
What is the buffering range of cacodylic acid (pKa = 6.27)? A. pH 8.56 - 9.56 B. pH 2.78 - 10.78 C. pH 5.27 - 7.27 D. pH 3.42 - 6.42
C
What type of mutation occurs when an error in DNA replication inserts two nucleotides into the coding region of a gene? A. Missense B. Nonsense C. Frameshift D. Silent
C
What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were muted so that it could not bind to the operator? A. Irreversible binding of the repressor to the promoter B. Reduced transcription of the operon's genes C. Continuous transcription of the operon's genes D. Overproduction of the Catabolite Activator Protein (CAP)
C
Which of the following is not a factor in the aging process? A. Mitochondrial genome damage B. The insulin pathway C. Macrophage migration D. Accumulation of mutations throughout the nuclear genome
C
look at picture Pictured above are four amino acids labeled A-D. Which amino acid has amino group that will be most affected when the pH of the surrounding buffer goes from pH
C
. NADH AND FADH2 deliver electron transport chains to the matrix of the mitochondria. Which of the following statements describes ____ H+ ions? A. The H+ ions form a proton motive force that powers the synthesis of _______ B. The H+ ions are pumped out of the mitochondria, and then out of the ______ electrochemical gradient across the cell membrane C. The H+ ions function in chemiosmosis D. A and C
D
A list of weak acids with their pKa's is given below. Which will best ionize into its conjugate base? Acid pKa Boric acid 9.24 Citric acid 3.13 Formic acid 3.75 Oxalic acid 1.27 Succinic acid 4.21 A. Boric acid B. Citric acid C. Formic acid D. Oxalic acid E. Succinic acid
D
A protein in muscle cells has an amino acid sequence that is 90% identical to a protein expressed only in neurons. Interestingly, both proteins are encoded by the same gene. How did this single gene give rise to slightly different proteins in two different cell types? A. Tissue-specific splicing factors B. Alternative mRNA splicing C. Micro RNA binding D. A and B
D
A yeast cell that has been exposed to ultraviolet light has sustained a ... gene that encodes the enzyme phosphofructokinase. The gene now encoded ... nonfunctional enzyme. Which one of the following statements best describes ... of this mutation on the yeast cell? A. The citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation will be unaffected by...mutation B. Glycolysis will continue to generate ATP, NADH, and pyruvate C. The yeast cell will respond to changes in levels of ATP, citrate, and AMP D. The yeast cell will die, due to lack of ATP E. The yeast cell will generate ATP by substrate level phosphorylation
D
All of the following statements about peptide bond formation are true except: A. The peptide bond is catalyzed by a ribosomal RNA B. The peptide bond is formed in the A site C. Peptide bond formation is energetically favorable D. The peptide bond is catalyzed by a peptide synthetase
D
All of the following statements describe DNA synthesis except A. Helicase unwinds the DNA helix and topoisomerase II cleaves both strands of DNA in order to relieve strain from unwinding B. Okazaki fragments are joined together by DNA ligase C. An RNA primer is used for both leading and lagging strands D. Okazaki fragments are generated by leading strand synthesis
D
Arranges the descriptions below in an order that most logically illustrates a sequence of meiosis. 1. Formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus 2. Alignment of tetrads at the metaphase plate 3. Separation of sister chromatids 4. Separation of the homologues; no uncoupling of the centromere 5. Synapsis; chromosomes moving to the middle of the cell in pairs A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 C. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1 D. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
D
Factors that are critical for the light reaction in plants are: A. Photons (light energy) B. Water (H2O) C. A complex of Ca2+, Mn ions, and Mg2+ D. All of the above E. A and B only
D
Features that stabilize a messenger RNA in the cytoplasm include all of the following except: A. 3' untranslated region (3' UTR) B. 5' cap (7-methyl guanine) C. Poly (A) tail D. Introns
D
Females with trisomy X are indistinguishable from women with the normal number of X chromosomes. The reason these women have a normal phenotype is: A. X-inactivation B. Xist RNA expression C. Cytosine methylation D. All of the above
D
Hemophilia is an X-inked disease. A man with hemophilia marries a normal woman who is not a carrier of the disease. They have a normal son and daughter. The probability that their next son will have hemophilia is: A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 1 D. 0
D
Look at picture The energy profile of an exergonic biochemical reaction is shown above with arrows to identify the following features of the reaction. The difference in free energy between the reactants and the products is
D
Match each description with the appropriate inheritance pattern (A-E). A. Incomplete dominance B. Polygenic inheritance C. Pleiotropy D. Epistasis E. Codominance The phenotype of the heterozygote differs from the phenotypes of both homozygotes
D
Mendel's law of independent assortment is demonstrated by: A. The 9:3:3:1 ratio of phenotypes in an F2 generation. B. The assortment of different traits into separate gametes. C. The phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross D. All of the above
D
Mutation of the Ras G-protein can contribute to the development of a variety of cancers including lung, urinary bladder, and colon. Which of the following activities in the cancer-inducing Ras G-protein is lost due to mutation? A. GDP release B. GTP binding C. ATPase D. GTPase E. ATP binding
D
Refer to color spectrum of visible light diagram A corn plant is developed with a mutant chlorophyll a that absorbs light from 475-600nm, and a mutant chlorophyll b that absorbs light from 600-750nm. What color are the leaves and stalks of this corn plant? A. Green/Yellow B. Orange/Red C. Yellow/Orange D. Violet/Blue
D
The number of division a cell can undergo is limited by: A. Cell age B. Cell size C. Telomere length D. All of the above
D
The process is preceded by replication of the DNA A. The statement is true for mitosis only. B. The statement is true for meiosis I only. C. The statement is true for meiosis II only. D. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
D
The region of a gene that binds to general transcription factors and RNA polymerase II is a(n): A. Enhancer B. Intervening sequence C. Intron D. Promoter
D
Trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome) can occur when two chromosomes 21 remain together during meiosis I in sperm or egg maturation. Which of the following statements is false regarding Down's syndrome? A. The term for the meiotic malfunction that leads to Down's syndrome is nondisjunction. B. Down's syndrome results from a meiotic malfunction when a microtubule fails to bind to the kinetochore of one of the chromosomes 21. C. Down's syndrome is an aneuploid condition. D. Down's syndrome has the most sever phenotype of all known trisomy conditions.
D
Which of the following is true for alleles? A. They can be identical or different for any given gene in a somatic cell. B. They can be dominant or recessive. C. They represent alternative forms of a gene. D. All of the above
D
look at picture A Lineweaver-Burk plot is used to accurately determine the Km and Vmax of an enzyme. Use the Lineweaver-burk plot shown below to determine the Km and Vmax values of Hexokinase, the enzyme that catalyzes the following chemical reaction. A. Km = 1 mM, Vmax = 0.5 µM/sec B. Km = 0.1 mM, Vmax = 2 µM/sec C. Km = 3 mM, Vmax = 4 µM/sec D. Km = 0.33 mM, Vmax = 0.4 µM/sec
D
. What are the functions of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) and (FAD) that function with the enzyme described in question above? A. Coenzymes B. Electron shuttles C. Cofactors D. All of the above E. A and B
E
As a biochemist in a pharmaceutical company, you are working to develop a drug that will stop the cell cycle in tumor cells. Which of the following factors should the drug target in order to halt the cell cycle? A. Cyclin dependent kinase B. Cyclin C. Mitotic spindle D. Kinetochore E. All of the above
E
Centromeres uncouple and chromatids are separated from each other A. The statement is true for mitosis only. B. The statement is true for meiosis I only. C. The statement is true for meiosis II only. D. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I. E. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
E
In a cross AaBbCc x AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC? (Hint: Use a Punnett Square for each gene separately) A. 1/4 B. 1/8 C. 1/16 D. 1/32 E. 1/64
E
Match each description with the appropriate inheritance pattern (A-E). A. Incomplete dominance B. Polygenic inheritance C. Pleiotropy D. Epistasis E. Codominance The ABO blood group system
E
The Deadly Amanita mushroom (with a distressing resemblance to the delightful Morel) produces a toxin, a-amanitin, that inhibits the activity of mammalian RNA polymerase II. What category of RNA is not transcribed when the Deadly Amanita is eaten? (Death occurs after 24-48 hours following great discomfort) A. micro RNA B. Transfer RNA C. Ribosomal RNA D. Messenger RNA E. A and D
E
The following statements describe the function of the p53 tumor suppressor except: A. p53 activates genes that encode DNA repair enzymes B. p53 activates expression of genes encoding proteins that stop the cell cycle C. p53 activates apoptosis D. p53 prevents cells from passing on mutations due to DNA damage. E. p53 slows down the rate of DNA replication by binding DNA polymerase.
E
The translation complex includes all of the following except: A. Transfer RNA B. Small ribosomal subunit C. Large ribosomal subunit D. Messenger RNA E. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
E
Which of the following is false, regarding the law of segregation? A. It states that each of two alleles for a given trait segregate into different gametes. B. It can be explained by the segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis. C. It can account for the 3:1 ratio seen in the F2 generation of Mendel's crosses. D. It can be used to predict the likelihood of transmission of certain genetic diseases within families. E. It reveals the distance between two genes on a chromosome.
E
Refer to the reaction coordinate diagram Energy is released as the enzyme catalyzes the conversion of substrate to product. (T or F)
T
Refer to the reaction coordinate diagram Energy is released when weak chemical bonds form between acids within the catalytic cavity of the enzyme. (T or F)
T
Refer to the reaction coordinate diagram Energy is required for the enzyme to stress the chemical bonds. (T or F)
T
The pH of human blood plasma is controlled by the partial pressure of CO2 in the gas phase and the concentration of HCO3- in the aqueous phase. Based on this information, is the following statement true or false? The pH of blood plasma is regulated by the rate of inhaling and exhaling. (T or F)
T
Synthesis catalyzed by the enzyme ATP synthase is shown in the diagram below. Which one following choices best describes the flow of energy transformation
potential -> kinetic -> potential