Final lab exam study guide

The most recent cases of Acanthamoeba Keratitis have been associated with...

wearing of contact lens

Complement proteins are activated in a cascade. What does this mean?

where one reaction triggers another which in turn triggers another

Another name for small pox is...

varicella

Which is the etiological agent of chickenpox and shingles?

varicella-zoster virus

A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to

varicella-zoster virus.

How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?

they present antigens from engulfed foreign cells

Who is credited with first observing cells? -Robert Hooke -Robert Koch -Louis Pasteur -Carolus Linnaeus -Anton van Leeuwenhoek

-Robert Hooke

What mRNA sequence is synthesized from the DNA template strand AATCGAGT?

UUAGCUCA

In a typical brightfield microscope (seen in the animation), at which point does magnification begin? -The stage -The objective lens -The lamp -The condenser lens -The ocular lens

-The objective lens

Assume you stain Bacillus by applying malachite green with heat and then counterstaining with safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are -cell walls. -flagella. -capsules. -endospores. -The answer cannot be determined.

-Endospores

What is meant by light rays being divergent? -It is coming together to a focused beam -It is heading upwards -It is spreading out

-It is spreading out

Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by -Lister. -Koch. -Pasteur. -Wasserman. -Semmelweis.

-Koch

A student creates a Gram stain on a bacterial sample that has a mix of gram-negative and gram-positive organisms. The student accidentally forgets the decolorizer step. What would the outcome of the Gram stain be? -All organisms would appear purple (gram-positive). -The Gram stain would show pink (gram-negative bacteria) and purple (gram-positive bacteria). -All organisms would appear pink (gram-negative). -All organisms would appear colorless.

-All organisms would appear purple (gram-positive).

Why is a specimen smaller than 200 nm not visible with a light microscope? -It is too easy to lose on the stage. -Visible light is only good at wavelengths below 390 nm. -Anything smaller than 200 nm cannot interact with visible light. -The lenses only go to 100 X magnification power.

-Anything smaller than 200 nm cannot interact with visible light.

Viruses are not considered living organisms because they -are ubiquitous in nature. -can only be visualized using an electron microscope. -cannot reproduce by themselves. -are typically associated with disease. -are structurally very simple.

-Cannot reproduce by themselves

You are performing a Gram stain on gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the decolorizer step. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point? -purple -red -colorless -brown

-Colorless

In the figure, line "c" points to the microscope's -objective lens. -condenser. -ocular lens. -illuminator.

-Condenser, fig 3.1

Who was the first scientist to pursue a "magic bullet" that could be used to treat infectious disease? -Jenner -Semmelweis -Pasteur -Lister -Ehrlich

-Ehrlich

You are performing a Gram stain on gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the addition of the mordant. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point? -purple -red -colorless -brown

-Purple

What happens to the light rays when they hit the specimen? -They are absorbed by the stage. -They are diverted to the ocular lens. -They are focused into a small area towards the objective lens. -They are reflected, refracted, or absorbed by the specimen

-They are reflected, refracted, or absorbed by the specimen

What is the role of the ocular lens? -To focus the light to a high intensity in a small area -To recreate the image in the viewer's eye -To adjust the wavelength of light -To do the bulk of the magnification

-To recreate the image in the viewer's eye

Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three-domain system? -bacteria -animalia -archaea -eukarya

-animalia

Most polyhedral viruses have 20 triangular-shaped sides and are called ____________.

-icosahedral

The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to -prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells. -remove the simple stain. -make the flagella visible. -make gram-negative cells visible. -make the bacterial cells larger

-prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.

You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the first dye. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point? -purple -red -colorless -brown

-purple

A student is looking at a bacterial specimen using the oil immersion lens, but has forgotten to put immersion oil on the slide. The specimen will appear -larger than it would if immersion oil was used. -to have no color. -smaller than it would if immersion oil was used. -the same as it would if the immersion oil was used. -somewhat fuzzy and have poor resolution.

-somewhat fuzzy and have poor resolution.

In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the -species. -family name. -genus. -domain name. -kingdom.

-species

The observations of Hooke and van Leeuwenhoek documenting the existence of microscopic cells formed the basis of what important theory? -the germ theory of disease and causative agents -the theory of spontaneous generation, which held that life forms could arise spontaneously -the theory of chemotherapy, or use of antimicrobials to destroy pathogenic organisms -the cell theory, stating that all living things are composed of cells

-the cell theory, stating that all living things are composed of cells

If you were setting up an experiment to disprove spontaneous generation in a liquid medium, which of the following would be essential to the experiment? -using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms -adding antibiotics to the liquid -supplying the liquid with nutrients -adding carbon dioxide to the liquid -starting with a liquid that contains microorganisms

-using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms

Distinguish between binary fission and schizogony

. Binary fission is the most common method of asexual reproduction, but budding and multiple fission, also known as schizogony, are also used.Binary fission literally means "to divide in half", so the process produces 2 identical daughter cells that are approximately half the size of the original cell. When a protozoan undergoes schizogony (multiple fission) it replicates its DNA and forms new nuclei within the parental cell without proceeding to cytokinesis

Why doesn't Taq polymerase denature with the high temperatures used in PCR?

. Certain thermophilic bacteria can live in temperature in excess of 100oC, so their enzymes can function in these extreme temperatures

Progression of HIV Infection - The Basic Process The progress of HIV infection in adults can be divided into three clinical phases. Phase 1 is characterized as asymptomatic or chronic lymphadenopathy. Phase 2 is characterized as symptomatic, and Phase 3 is AIDS indicator conditions. Drag the description to the appropriate location on the image depicting the progression of the HIV infection.

1) In this phase the infection is asymptomatic even though HIV population in blood is at its highest. 2) The population of CD4+ cells undergoes a steady decline but few serious symptoms are apparent 3) CD4+ cell counts are below 350 cell. Appearance of Candida albicans infections in respiratory tract, cytomegalovirus eye infections, tuberculosis. These are the phases of HIV infection with the location in the image depicting the progression of HIV infection.

What complement result involves the use of phagocytes? A. Chemotaxis and opsonization B. Chemotaxis C. Cytolysis D. Opsonization

A. Chemotaxis and opsonization

How does cytolysis occur via the complement pathway? A. Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them B. Stimulation of the inflammatory response C. Triggering the release of histamine D. Disrupting cell wall of pathogens

A. Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them

A patient comes in with a possible C. difficile infection. Rank the following in order of occurrence.

1. antibiotic therapy killing normal gut microbiota 2. proliferation of Clostridium difficile 3.Clostridium difficile toxin production 4.intestinal inflammation and gas production 5.fecal microbiota transplants Antibiotic treatments can kill the normal gut microbiota. Without the competition from the normal gut microbes, Clostridium difficile is given the opportunity to proliferate and produce toxins. The toxins cause an inflammatory response and gas production that are common in inflammatory bowel diseases. A possible treatment is fecal microbiota transplants, which would allow the gut to be replenished with normal microbiota that would outcompete the opportunists for resources.

The progression from initial HIV infection to AIDS (in the US) usually takes:

10 years

How many possible answers are there to one question in a dichotomous key flowchart?

2

Part complete Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order? 1-Alcohol-acetone 2-Crystal violet 3-Safranin 4-Iodine 4-3-2-1 1-2-3-4 1-3-2-4 2-4-1-3 2-1-4-3

2-4-1-3

If a person lacked the ability to form C5, what direct result of complement could still occur? A. Opsonization B. Chemotaxis C. Cytolysis

A. Opsonization

An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight-year-old have?

chicken pox

How is phagocytosis in the immune system different from protozoan phagocytosis? A. Protozoan phagocytosis is used for feeding; phagocytosis by immune cells is used to fight infection. B. Protozoan phagocytosis is used to fight infection; phagocytosis by immune cells is used to feed the cells. C. There is no difference between the two

A. Protozoan phagocytosis is used for feeding; phagocytosis by immune cells is used to fight infection.

Bacterial conjunctivitis and inclusion conjunctivitis are both caused by bacterial pathogens. What microbe cause inclusion conjunctivitis?

chlamydia trachomatis

Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes A) Cystitis. B) Pyelonephritis. C) Vaginitis. D) Gonorrhea. E) Syphilis.

A) Cystitis.

Estimate the size of the DNA fragment labeled "B".

3500bp

A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate?

acyclovir

What results from the process of translation?

A polypeptide

What would happen if the mRNA codon that coded for Cys was mutated in the third position from a U to an A?

A stop codon would be introduced prematurely

Phagocytosis is defined as A. the ingestion of solid material by a eukaryotic cell. B. the feeding of protozoans. C. cells of the immune system that ingest pathogens. D. the uptake of liquid material by a eukaryotic cell

A. the ingestion of solid material by a eukaryotic cell.

Why is ATP required for glycolysis?

ATP makes it easier to break apart glucose into two three-carbon molecules.

Which codon sequence codes for the "start" codon and what amino acid does it code for?

AUG

Acanthamoeba keratitis (AK) is caused by the protozoan ___________.

Acanthamoeba polyphaga AK= Acanthamoeba keratitis

Be prepared to identify the organism that causes AK if shown this image.

Acanthamoeba polyphaga causes the eye disease Acanthamoeba keratitis (AK).

What molecule is formed during the bridge (Intermediate) step?

Acetyl CoA

What is the function of TH1 cells in cell-mediated immunity?

Activated cells related to cell-mediated immunity; macrophages, Tc cells, and natural killer cells

Where would you expect to find electron transport chains in a prokaryote?

Along the plasma membrane

Conjunctivitis can be caused by bacterial and viral pathogens. What microbe causes viral conjunctivitis?

adenoviruses

What happens during each phase of the HIV infection? This activity will explore the overall process of HIV infection in more detail. Drag each of the statements into the box indicating the appropriate phase of infection.

Asymptomatic infection: About two months following initial infection, the populations of HIV in the blood peaks at about 10 million/ml Population of CD4+ T cells plunges during acute phase of HIV infection HIV in blood stabilizes at 1000-10,000/ml Detectable antibodies against HIV appear Symptomatic infection: CD4+ population declines steadily Huge numbers of HIV, many in latent or proviral form AIDS indicator conditions: HIV levels in blood rise as immune system breaks down Clinical AIDS These are the phases in the progression of an HIV infection.

Nicole is very upset after receiving news that her ex-boyfriend Paul had tested positive for syphilis and gonorrhea. She makes an appointment with her physician. Nicole receives her test results, which indicate that she is positive for syphilis, but not for gonorrhea. What treatment will her doctor most likely prescribe?

Antibiotics Antibiotics such as penicillin would be the best method for treating a syphilis infection. The sooner it is detected, the better the chances for completely treating the infection. If left untreated, the syphilis can progress into secondary, latent, or tertiary syphilis. Only primary and secondary syphilis can be treated.

After completing the prescribed antibiotics, Robert's eye was still red, painful, and draining excessively. Why were the antibiotics prescribed for Robert not effective against the organism causing his eye infection?

Antibiotics are only effective against bacterial pathogens. Robert was suffering from a red and painful eye, excessive tearing or discharge, and sensitivity to light. Because these are similar to other, more common, eye infections, often the etiologic or causative agent goes undiagnosed. In the 2005-2006 outbreak, typical antibiotics were not effective in treating the infection, an observation that led to the discovery that the infections were caused by fungi rather than bacteria.

Some members of the normal microbiota can become opportunistic pathogens when given the proper conditions. The example given in the activity is the overgrowth of Clostridium difficile in an individual undergoing antibiotic therapy. Why might antibiotics increase the chances of an opportunistic infection by the normal microbiota?

Antibiotics that are nonspecific may affect pathogens as well as members of the normal microbiota. Antibiotics do not differentiate between pathogens and a host's natural microbiota, thus decreasing the overall number of both. As a result, antibiotics kill both "good" and "bad" bacteria within a host. This loss of normal microbiota can result in an overgrowth of other organisms and can lead to secondary infections. In women, yeast infections can occur as a secondary infection when antibiotics have been prescribed for a primary bacterial infection.

A response that is uniquely directed against pathogenic Bordetella pertussis would involve what component?

Antibodies

What is the result of the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes into organs or tissues during a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited into organs and tissues causing inflammation

What type of diseases are caused when the body's immune defenses react to "self" antigens?

Autoimmune disease- when the body immune defenses react to "self" antigens

Which phylum of protozoa contains organisms that are nonmotile obligate intracellular parasites? (Hint: They cause a well-known tropical disease.) A ciliates B Apicomplexa C Euglenozoa D Amoebozoa

B Apicomplexa

Which of the following statements about protozoa is true? A All protozoa can undergo sexual reproduction. B When conditions become harsh, some protozoa can form a protective capsule, which is called a cyst. C Some protozoa reproduce by schizogony, a process that is virtually identical to the budding process that happens in some yeast. D Most protozoa are photosynthetic.

B When conditions become harsh, some protozoa can form a protective capsule, which is called a cyst.

How is bacterial translation different from eukaryotic translation?

Bacteria can begin translation before transcription has terminated

Tetanus, diphtheria, and whooping cough are all bacterial infections. Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing whooping cough?

Bordetella pertussis whooping cough is caused by Bordetella pertussis, a small, obligately aerobic, gram-negative coccobacillus.

The exam room poster for whooping cough also listed the various vaccines that could be given. The three possible vaccines were the DTP, the DTaP, and the Tdap. The DTP was made with heat-killed whole cells of the bacterium B. pertussis, while the DTaP and the Tdap were made with acellular pertussis components. Which of the following statements regarding the vaccines explains why the DTP vaccine is no longer used?

Bordetella pertussis was not killed during the heating process used on the DTP vaccine and could cause an active infection Bordetella pertussis whole cells used in the vaccine were heat-killed before being included in the vaccine. If the heating process was not done properly, the cells were not killed. When this happened to an entire batch of the vaccine, an epidemic of whooping cough resulted. It was determined that the bacteria in the vaccines were living and capable of causing infection. This led the health officials to determine that a safer vaccine was necessary.

Bordatella pertussis is the etiological agent of ___________, and Neisseria meningitidis is the etiological agent of ____________.

Bordetella pertussis- pertussis (whooping cough) Neisseria meningitidis- meningococcal meningitis

A sequence of RNA derived from eukaryotic transcription that must be spliced out to achieve a mature strand of mRNA is called

Both are transcribed into mRNA, but the introns must be cut (spliced) out to form a mature strand of mRNA that possesses only the exon sequences.

Assume a patient has influenza. During which time on the graph in the figure would the patient show the symptoms of the illness?

C

Trichomonas vaginalis can be distinguished from other parasitic protozoa by which of the characteristics listed below? A It is a photosynthetic organism that lives in fresh water. B It is usually found in drinking water and is associated with fecal contamination. C It has an undulating membrane, infects the vagina, and is frequently transmitted by sexual contact. D It infects Anopheles mosquitoes and can be transmitted by a bite.

C It has an undulating membrane, infects the vagina, and is frequently transmitted by sexual contact.

Which of the following organisms requires an additional nonhuman host to complete its life cycle? A Enterobius vermicularis B Ascaris lumbricoides C Plasmodium species D Necator americanus

C Plasmodium species

Based on the animation, which of the complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of a bacterial cell? C5b C3b C2b C2a C4a

C3b

Which complement protein is used as an opsonin? C3a C3b C2a C7 C5b C4a

C3b

Campylobacter jejuni is the etiological agent of ___________, and Helicobacter pylori is the etiological agent of ____________.

Campylobacter jejuni- food poisoning Helicobacter pylori- peptic ulcers; stomach cancer

A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by

Candida albicans.

Megan learned from the poster that there were three main stages of whooping cough. Place the following in order of how they would occur during progression of the infection.

Catarrhal,Paroxysmal,Convalescence Catarrhal refers to the initial stage of whooping cough that closely resembles a common cold. This may lead to misdiagnosis or delay in treatment. Paroxysmal refers to the second stage of disease progression when the patient, usually a child, suffers prolonged sieges of coughing. This excessive coughing is a result of the body trying to clear the mucus that has accumulated after the cilia were destroyed in the trachea. The final stage of whooping cough is the convalescence stage and can last several months.

Two diseases that are associated with cell-mediated autoimmune disease are...

Cell-mediated- ie: multiple sclerosis, Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

What microbe is the etiological agent of the eye disease, trachoma?

Chlamydia trachomatis

Part complete What molecule is used to capture light energy?

Chlorophyll

What complement pathway is initiated by the binding of an antibody to an antigen?

Classical pathway

HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?

Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body.

Two diseases that are associated with cytotoxic autoimmune disease are...

Cytotoxic- ie: Graves disease, Myasthenia gravis

Cold sores (fever blisters) are vesicular/pustular rashes that usually occur around the mouth area. What is the etiological agent of cold sores? (see caption of Figure 21.12 on pg 593)

Cold sores, caused by herpesvirus infections

An individual born with a defective immune system has an immunodeficiency called...

Congenital- born with immune system defects

What enzyme do tears, salvia, and urine have that destroys cell walls of many gram-positive bacteria?

Contains lysozyme, urea, and uric acid

Which of the following represents the correct format for the scientific name? -Staphylococcus aureus -STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS

Correct. Scientific names are composed of the genus name, which is capitalized, and the species name, which is always lowercase. The entire scientific name is always underlined or italicized.

Coxiella burnetti is the etiological agent of ___________, and Vibrio cholerae is the etiological agent of ____________.

Coxiella burnetti- Q-fever Vibrio cholerae- cholera

Which of the following is a bacterium that performs oxygenic photosynthesis?

Cyanobacteria -Like plants and algae, cyanobacteria are oxygenic; meaning that their photosynthetic process generates oxygen.

Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?

Cytotoxic T-cells

Coating microbes with C3b which enhances phagocytosis is called _________.

opsonization

What is the defining characteristic of organisms belonging to the phylum Parabasalid?

Distinguishing feature: Lack mitochondria Non-pathogenic- Symbiotic relationships

HIV can evade the host's immune defenses by undergoing rapid antigenic changes. How do these antigenic changes occur?

HIV can evade the host immune system, b/c RT has no proofreading activity, so mutations are introduced frequently, Attachment to CD4+ cell Fusion of HIV with the cell Entry into the cell

Which statement regarding the infectiveness and pathogenicity of HIV is FALSE?

During latent infections, the provirus directs the synthesis of many new viruses.

20) In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are the ________ host as well as the vector. A) definitive; intermediate B) intermediate; intermediate C) temporary; final D) vector; intermediate E) intermediate; definitive

E) intermediate; definitive

Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection? A. Infection may initially be asymptomatic. B. There may be persistent yeast infections . C. The disease does not progress to AIDS. D. Virions may remain latent. E. All of the answers are correct.

E. All of the answers are correct.

Where are the complement proteins found in the body? A. The liver B. In every cell C. The spleen D. The thymus E. The blood serum E. The blood serum

E. The blood serum

Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT A. inhibition of viral proteases. B. termination of viral DNA. C. blockage of viral attachment. D. prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA. E. destruction of viral ribosomes.

E. destruction of viral ribosomes.

What makes agglutination by antibodies possible? -Antibodies are produced by plasma cells. -Antibodies can recognize bacteria as well as viruses. -Antibodies can inactivate toxins. -Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.

Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites

Escherichia coli is the etiological agent of ___________, and Salmonella typhi is the etiological agent of ____________.

Escherichia coli- food poisoning, UTIs Salmonella typhi- typhoid fever

Cystitis is most often caused by

Escherichia coli.

Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by

Escherichia coli.

Pyelonephritis usually is caused by

Escherichia coli.

Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan?

Euglena

Which of the following phagocytic processes occurs last in the sequence?

Exocytosis

Prokaryotic extremophiles are found in the domain __________.

Extremophiles- live under extreme environmental conditions Halophiles- salt loving Thermophiles- heat loving Acidophiles- acid loving Alkaliphiles- base (alkaline) loving

How is systemic anaphylaxis treated?

Fast treatment needed- injection of epinephrine via an Epi-pen or simila

What is a likely result of untreated systemic anaphylaxis?

Fast treatment needed- injection of epinephrine via an Epi-pen or similar or death will occur

Gram positive bacteria are divided into two phyla depending upon G+C content. The letter "G" represents _________ and the letter "C" represents _________.

Firmicutes (Low G+C content) Actinobacteria (High G+C content)

What gram-positive organism is associated with MRSA infections?

Firmicutes (continued) MRSA-methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus

Gram positive bacteria are divided into two phyla depending upon G+C content. The phylum ____________________ has low G+C content while the phylum _______________ has a high G+C content. not spirochaetes/fuso not fuso

Firmicutes/Actinobacteria

Francisella tularensis is the etiological agent of ___________, and Legionella pneumophila is the etiological agent of ____________.

Francisella tularensis- tularemia Legionella pneumophila- Legionnaire's disease (atypical pneumonia)

Rubella is also known as _____________ and is caused by ____________. (be specific)

German measles, human parvovirus/aerosol

What does the plasma membrane of a phagocyte attach to on a microorganism?

Glycoproteins

The most common reportable disease in the United States is A) Cystitis. B) Lymphogranuloma venereum. C) Gonorrhea. D) Syphilis. E) Candidiasis.

Gonorrhea.

What is the designation given to gram- negative rods belonging to the class gammaproteobacteria that live in the GI tract?

Gram negative rods Enterics- live in the GI tract; therefore clinically VERY important

Immune cells that secrete cytokines and activate other immune cells are:

Helper T-cells

How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?

Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system.

1) The virus family ___________________ has DNA as its nucleic acid AND uses reverse transcriptase.

Hepadnaviridae

Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families

Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.

What disease is caused by the viruses belonging to the viral family from question 1?

Hepatitis

List three chemical mediators that are released by basophils and mast cells.

Histamine-best known Leukotrienes Prostaglandins

Antibodies are a part of which type of immunity

Humoral

Which part of the adaptive immune response involves B cells?

Humoral

The body's response to an allergen which is beyond what is considered normal is called a/an _________ response.

Hypersensitivity- the body's response to an allergen (=an antigen) which is beyond what is considered normal.

Which immunoglobulin class has a dimeric structure with a secretory component?

IgA

What class of immunoglobulin is involved in Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

IgE

Which immunoglobulin class can cross the placenta to the fetus?

IgG

The at-home tests work similarly to pregnancy tests and are based on antigen-antibody reactions between the infectious agent and the patient's antibodies. Which class of antibody is most likely to give a result in the assay?

IgG The at-home STI tests are similar to ELISA tests and the assay for IgG antibodies because they last the longest in the bloodstream. If the individual is positive for the infection, they will have antibodies that will bind in the lab tests to the STI antigen.

Which immunoglobulin classes can fix complement?

IgG, IgM

Which immunoglobulin class has a pentameric structure?

IgM

Which immunoglobulin class is the first class produced in response to an initial infection?

IgM

Two diseases that are associated with immune complex autoimmune disease are...

Immune complex-ie: Rheumatoid arthritis, Systemic lupus erythematosus

Four Characteristics that Differentiate Viruses from Bacteria:

In general, they contain a single type of nucleic acid (not both) Contains a protein coat, that may or may not be enveloped, that surrounds the nucleic acid Can only multiply in a host and it uses the host's cellular machinery and enzymes to do so. Produce specialized structures used in viral transmission

The function of _____________ immunity is preventing pathogens from entering and infecting the body in a nonspecific fashion.

Innate immunity

What is the function of the parental DNA in replication? not gives the cell

It serves as the template for DNA replication

An inflammatory response would result from which of the following? -Vomiting -Jellyfish sting -A headache

Jellyfish sting

Klebsiella pneumoniae is the etiological agent of ___________, and Yersinia pestis is the etiological agent of ____________.

Klebsiella pneumoniae- pneumonia Yersinia pestis- plague (Black Death)

Use the dichotomous key to determine the bacteria with the following characteristics: The organism is a gram-positive bacillus Doesn't form spores Catalase negative Glucose (A)- this means that acid was formed from the metabolism of glucose Mannitol negative

Lactobacillus delbrueckii

Conditions such as asthma and hay fever are caused by which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Localized Anaphylaxis- Usually involves ingested or inhaled antigens Upper respiratory tract= symptoms of hay fever Lower respiratory tract= asthma

Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia? A) Gardnerella vaginosis B) Genital herpes C) Candidiasis D) Trichomoniasis E) Lymphogranuloma venereum

Lymphogranuloma venereum

Why is microscopic visualization not sufficient to properly identify bacteria?

Many unrelated bacteria can share the same shape.

What two cells are involved in Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

Mast Cells Basophils

Macular (Maculopapular) Rashes

Measles (rubeola), German Measles (rubella), Fifth Disease (Human parvovirus), Roseola (Herpes), Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease (enterovirus),Cutaneous Candidiasis (candidn albican).

Which cells are involved in a secondary response?

Memory B cells and plasma cells

What protein-coding type of RNA is synthesized during prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription

Messenger RNA

Sarcoptes scabiei, the etiological agent of scabies, is cause by a parasitic infestation. Which type of parasite is Sarcoptes scabiei?

Mite

According to the animation, which compounds provide electrons to the system?

NADH and FADH2

Which of the following is NOT a disease/pathogen associated with AIDS? (Kaposi's sarcoma, Candida albicans, Nagleria fowleri, Pneumocystis jirovecii)

Nagleria fowleri,

What substances are released by the innate second line defense cells, called natural killer cells, that function to rid the host of pathogens?

Natural killer cells-release perforins and granzymes

Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE?

Nearly all protozoa cause disease.

What is the etiological agent of ophthalmia neonatorum?

Neisseia goorrhoeaa

Nicole received her diagnosis at her physician's office. Which of the following procedures was most likely used by the physician to confirm her infection?

Nucleic Acid Amplification Testing (NAAT) The answer is NAAT or nucleic acid amplification testing screens for chlamydia, gonorrhea, and trichomoniasis. These tests amplify nucleic acids from the organism causing the sexually transmitted infection. The data is then compared to known results to diagnose possible infections. Individuals can obtain their results by phone using a password. Anyone with a positive result is encouraged to visit a physician's office.

The principle function of interferon is to....

One way an infected host cell counters viral infections is with a family of cytokines called interferons

What species of protozoa causes the STD, Trichomoniasis?

Pathogenic parasites -Trichomonas vaginalis STD Trichomoniasis

During which phase of HIV progression of infection does symptoms of immune system failure first occur?

Phase 2-symptoms associated with immune failure

Part complete What is the key difference between photoheterotrophs and photoautotrophs?

Photoheterotrophs use organic compounds as their carbon source; photoautotrophs use carbon dioxide as their carbon source.

What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity? -Plasma cells neutralize toxins. -Plasma cells produce antibodies. -Plasma cells are phagocytes. -Plasma cells activate the complement system. -Plasma cells engulf viruses.

Plasma cells produce antibodies

Extrachromosomal DNA that can carry antibiotic resistance genes are called ______.

Plasmids can carry antibiotic resistance genes and this process can confer different bacterial strains with the resistance to that particular antibiotic.

What cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway? Lipids Proteins Carbohydrates Nucleic acids

Proteins

ABO blood incompatibility reactions are an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Type II (Cytotoxic) Hypersensitivity Reactions: Results in the lysis of cells

Part complete Which of the following types of organisms uses hydrogen sulfide for reducing power?

Purple sulfur bacteria -employ anoxygenic photosynthesis with hydrogen gas, sulfur compounds such as hydrogen sulfide, or sulfur as an electron donor (reducing power) in photosynthesis.

A positive LE text and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates A) Cystitis. B) Gonorrhea. C) Urethritis. D) Pyelonephritis. E) Genital herpes.

Pyelonephritis.

Part complete What carbon molecules remain at the end of glycolysis?

Pyruvic acid

Agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA in a sample based on what physical characteristic?

Separates out DNA depending up its size

What enzyme is necessary for prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription?

RNA Polymerase

Part complete Which of the following statements regarding redox reactions is true?

Redox reactions involve an oxidation reaction coupled with a reduction reaction.

The virus family ___________________ has RNA as its nucleic acid AND uses reverse transcriptase?

Retroviridae

What would happen the FIRST time an Rh- woman is carrying an Rh+ fetus?

Rh- mother carrying her first Rh+ fetus. Rh antigens from the developing fetus can enter the mother's blood during delivery

Rickettsia rickettsii is the etiological agent of ____________, and Rickettsia prowazekii is the etiological agent of ____________.

Rickettsia rickettsii- Rocky Mountain Spotted fever Rickettsia prowazekii- endemic typhus

Rickettsia rickettsii is transmitted by ____________, and Rickettsia prowazekii is transmitted by ____________.

Rickettsia rickettsii- transmitted by ticks Rickettsia prowazekii- transmitted by lice

Tinea capitis (Tinea barbae) is the etiological agent of what fungal disease?

Ringworm?

A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis? A) Bacterial culture B) Microscopic examination of blood C) Serological test for antibodies D) Serological test for antigen E) Viral culture

Serological test for antibodies

A lab technician is directed to identify the source of infection in several cardiovascular patients. Nutrient agar cultures from the patient's wounds grow red colonies consisting of gram negative bacteria. The technician takes samples from selected staff and cultures them. The same bacterium is cultured from a scrub nurse who wears artificial fingernails. Remove of the nails ends the outbreak. What is the likely causative agent of the outbreak? not escherichia not bacteriodes

Serratia marcescens

Which statement concerning viral structure is true?

Spikes are found on some viruses. They are very consistent in structure and can be used for identification.

A child presents with large red patches of skin. The top layers are peeling off. Because the parents report that the child hasn't been burned, you suspect that the lesions are due to infection with __________.

Staphylococcus aureus

The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is

Staphylococcus aureus.

What beta-hemolytic bacteria causes strep throat, scarlet fever, and rheumatic fever?

Streptococcus pyogenes-

T cells can be classified by certain glycoproteins on their surface called clusters of differentiation (CD). T cytotoxic cells are classified as_______.

T Cytotoxic cells (CTL; CD8+)

T cells can be classified by certain glycoproteins on their surface called clusters of differentiation (CD). T helper cells are classified as_______.

T Helper cells (TH; CD4+) CD=clusters of differentiation TH1 TH2 TH17

HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on

T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

____ cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and ____ cells are involved in humoral immunity.

T-cells: cell-mediated immunity B-cells: humoral immunity

Which of the following statements concerning viruses is true? Viruses contain both DNA and RNA, and they undergo binary fusion. Viruses possess enzymes for protein synthesis and ATP generation. Viruses are usually about the same size as bacteria. The "host range" for a virus is determined by the presence or absence of particular components on the surface of a host cell that are required for the virus to attach.

The "host range" for a virus is determined by the presence or absence of particular components on the surface of a host cell that are required for the virus to attach. Correct. Attachment of the virus to the host cell (the first step in the viral life cycle) requires binding of complementary molecules on the virus and host cell.

Many possible explanations were given as to why the numbers of pertussis infections were increasing, but the most likely explanation was that the DTaP vaccine was not as effective as the DTP at protecting children long-term. Which of the following best describes why this is the case??

The DTaP vaccine is not made with cellular components that would stimulate the immune system as effectively as the DTP vaccine. Cellular components are more effective at stimulating the immune response than non-cellular or acellular components. The reason that the number of cases most likely rose after the switch to the DTaP is that it did not offer the same long-term effectiveness because it lacked cellular components. As a result, an additional booster called the Tdap vaccine helps to provide protection after the memory has worn off from the DTaP vaccine, but it is not recommended for teenagers and expectant moms.

What type of microbe contains the enzyme reverse transcriptase?

The RT enzyme is derived from a "retrovirus"—which is an RNA containing virus

If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred? The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch. The ankle is red. The ankle is very warm to the touch. The ankle swells.

The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch.

How might a pathogenic bacterium be affected by antibodies?

The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria

What would most likely occur if an individual with type A blood receives type B blood during a transfusion?

Type II (Cytotoxic) Hypersensitivity Reactions: Results in the lysis of cells

Lower respiratory system infections, such as whooping cough, can lead to bronchitis or pneumonia due to the inhibition of normal protective responses. Which of the following explains how the pathogen overcomes normal protective responses of the respiratory system?

The bacteria attach to the ciliated cells of the trachea, thus preventing mucus from being cleared Bordetella pertussis attaches to the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea, which impedes the movement of the cilia. Without being able to move, the cilia cannot clear the mucus from the respiratory system and excess amounts accumulate.

Based on the information from Part B, the causative agent of Robert's eye infection is most likely the fungus Fusarium. Some species of Fusarium are known to produce biofilms. Which of the following is NOT a way in which the biofilm helps in the fungal pathogenesis involved in keratitis?

The biofilm allows for the breakdown of cellulose by producing the enzyme cellulase. The cells forming the biofilms can aid in the digestion of cellulose by producing the enzyme cellulase. This often occurs in ruminant animals such as cows and does not contribute to an increase in pathogenesis.

Why is reduction the term used to describe the gain of an electron?

The electron acceptor's net charge decreases.

What enzyme is used to produce cDNA from an mRNA template?

The enzyme that is used to accomplish this is called "reverse transcriptase (RT)

What enzyme is needed to amplify the DNA target sequence?

The last reagent that is required is a heat stable DNA polymerase. DNA polymerase used in PCR was originally derived from the thermophilic bacterium, Thermus aquaticus

A condition called glomerulonephritis results from what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

Type III (Immune Complex) Hypersensitivity Reactions

Nagleria fowleri is a protozoan that causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). It is contracted from the introduction of contaminated water into the nasal passages while swimming in freshwater lakes and ponds. Because of the symptomology of PAM, N. fowleri is often referred to as the ________________?

The only pathogenic species is the so-called "brain-eating amoeba", Nagleria fowleri.

A technician is staining organisms in a fecal sample collected from a boy complaining of abdominal cramping and diarrhea. The results show a protozoan that has eight flagella and two structures that give the organism the appearance of having large "eyes". The technician identifies the organism as Giardia intestinalis. What are the structures that resemble eyes in this organism?

The organisms possess 2 nuclei which look like 2 eyes when the parasites are stained for diagnostic purposes

What type of hypersensitivity is associated with allergic contact dermatitis?

Type IV (Delayed) Hypersensitivity Reactions

An organism's inheritable traits that are physically observed is its _____________.

The phenotype of an organism is the set of genes that are being expressed and gives the organism its traits

Part complete Which of the following is a trait unique to photosynthetic eukaryotes?

The presence of chloroplasts -Chloroplasts are membrane-bound organelles, and thus unique to eukaryotes.

Genetically, a recessive trait is only observed if...

The recessive trait is only visible if the organism possess two recessive copies (alleles)

How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood?

The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.

What is a phagolysosome?

The structure that results from the fusion of a phagosome and a lysosome.

The symptoms of malaria are.... (list 5)

The symptoms of malaria are diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, fatigue and fever.

In general, viruses contain either ________ or _________ as their nucleic acid.

The viral nucleic acid composition is either DNA OR RNA which can be single or double stranded.

Plasmodium falciparum causes the most deadly form of __________.

There are five different species of Plasmodium that cause malaria, but P. falciparum causes the most deadly form.

The protozoan that causes malaria is transmitted to humans by the bite of an insect in the genus Anopheles. What kind of insect is Anopheles?

These protozoans are transmitted to humans by the bite of the Anaopholes mosquito.

Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?

They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.

First line defenses have what aspect in common with each other?

They are physical barriers against invading pathogens.

What is the hallmark of dichotomous keys?

They consist of a series of paired statements, in which only one statement of each pair applies to a given organism.

What is the role of opsonins?

They create "handles" that make it easier for the pseudopods of phagocytes to attach to the microbe invader.

How are viruses different from eukaryotic cells?

They require a host in order to reproduce.

DNA called ktDNA is found in protozoans in genera Leishmania, and Trypanosoma. Where is ktDNA located?

This image shows both T. brucei and T. cruzi. Their ktDNA is indicated by arrow. The large, pale-purple donut-like structures are red blood cells.

What is the function of the structural elements of a virus?

To package and protect the viral genome

What is the role of light energy in photosynthesis?

To produce a proton gradient to make ATP

What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron? -To limit the effects of the agent on the rest of the body -To destroy the agent causing injury, to limit the effects of the agent on the rest of the body, and -to repair the damaged tissue -To destroy the agent causing injury -To repair the damaged tissue

To repair the damaged tissue

How does the physical factor, cilia, function in innate immunity?

Together with mucus form a ciliary escalator, which traps and removes microbes from upper respiratory tract

Nicole knew that these were both sexually transmitted infections caused by bacteria. Which of the following is correct regarding the causative agents for these diseases?

Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, while Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea.

Trypanosoma brucei causes ____________ and T. cruzi causes ___________.

Trypanosoma brucei (2 subspecies) African trypanosomiasis ("sleeping sickness") Trypanosoma cruzi Chagas' disease

What type of hypersensitivity is associated with transplant rejection?

Type IV (Delayed) Hypersensitivity Reactions

"Naked" viruses lack what structural component?

Viruses can have an envelop or can be "naked"-without an envelop.

Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? Viruses have genes. Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both. Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes. Viruses contain a protein coat. Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell.

Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.

According to the animation, what does oxygen get reduced to at the end of the electron transport chain?

Water

Which of the following is used in photosynthesis by both plants and cyanobacteria?

Water, sunlight, and carbon dioxide

The full complement of genes that an organism possesses in its genome is its _____________.

We have 2 copies (called alleles) of each gene in our genome; we inherited 1 set of genes from our father and one set from our mother.

The level of HIV population in the blood is highest:

When the patient is asymptomatic

Which of the following organisms produce the DNA polymerase used in PCR?

Which of the following organisms produce the DNA polymerase used in PCR?

If a new bacterial pathogen entered a human body through an accidental needle stick, the first cell that would try to kill the pathogen would likely be

a phagocyte.

A reaction that involves the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another is referred to as

a redox reaction.

PCR uses oligonucleotide primers during DNA amplification. What is a primer?

a short sequence of DNA that binds to a complementary region of the denatured DNA

Which of the following can release histamines? a) Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway b) Invading bacterial cells c) Cells from damaged tissues d) The complement system e) Wood from a splinter

a) Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway

Emigration is a) the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage. b) the increase in the diameter of blood vessels. c) the attachment of phagocytes to the walls of capillaries. d) the production and release of chemicals during inflammation.

a) the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site

What is being studied by the human microbiome project?

all microorganisms living in or on the human body The introduction of this Big Picture Activity focuses on the interactions between a human host and the microbes that live within the host's body. The relationships are usually commensal (where the organism is providing a benefit to the host without harming it) or mutual (both organisms benefit). While bacteria make up a good percentage of these communities, other members can include fungi or archaea. On rare occasions, some members of the normal microbiota can become opportunistic pathogens.

What complement pathway is initiated by contact between certain complement proteins and a lipid-carbohydrate complex located on the pathogen's surface?

alternative pathway

Systemic anaphylaxis is also known as....

anaphylactic shock

An anamnestic response is

another name for secondary response

Clostridium difficile causes severe diarrhea that is associated with the altering of intestinal microbiota by ___________.

antibiotics

Clostridium difficile causes severe diarrhea that is associated with the altering of intestinal microbiota by ___________. not high fats not indeges

antibiotics

Scientists are especially interested antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) for a number of reasons. List four properties of AMPs that are of special interest. 462-463

antimicrobial activities against bacteria, viruses, fungi, and eukaryotic parasites , show synergy with other antimicrobial agents, very stable over PH, do not appear to develop resistance even though exposed to long periods of time, AMP can sequester the LPS shed from gram-negative bacteria

How are the questions in a dichotomous key phrased?

as yes/no statements, allowing for multiple characteristics to be applied to an unknown specimen

Robert went from being fine to having a full-blown eye infection. Thinking about how his eye infection could have developed, rank the following in order from the first to the last step of this disease.

attaches to eye, biofilm forms, inflammation, eye red and drains, meds. Fusarium species can cause fungal keratitis, an inflammation of the cornea. Once the fungi adhere, they begin to form fungal mat known as a biofilm. The host immune response is inflammation and causes the symptoms of redness, pain, and excessive tearing or drainage from the eye. If diagnosed properly, the physician will prescribe antifungal drops that will treat the infection. A proper diagnosis usually involves plating the specimen and observing samples on the microscope and is important for the treatment of this type of infection. Proper maintenance of contact lenses and their cleaning solutions are key in preventing these types of eye infections.

Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV?

attenuated virus

The importance of gastrointestinal microbiota is a focus of this Big Picture Activity and stems from the need to better understand the causes of several gastrointestinal diseases. Which of the following terms describes the cause of inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD)?

autoimmune disease IBD is considered to be an autoimmune disease because the tissue damage that results is due to the inflammatory response of the host. It is hypothesized that antibiotic therapies increase the incidence of IBD by removing host microbiota that would normally keep inflammation in check.

What is the etiological agent of impetigo?

staphylococcus aureus

What organism causes toxic shock syndrome?

staphylococcus aureus

What is the function of TH2 cells in cell-mediated immunity?

stimulates production of eosinpphils, igM, and IgE

How is Streptococcus pneumoniae able to avoid destruction by a phagocyte? a) They prevent the fusion of the lysosome and phagosome. b) Their capsules make them "slippery" to phagocytes. c) They cause the lysosomes to empty their contents into the phagocyte, killing it. b) Their capsules make them "slippery" to phagocytes.

b) Their capsules make them "slippery" to phagocytes.

_________ fission literally means "to divide in half", so the process produces two identical daughter cells that are approximately half the size of the original cell.

binary fission

The main method of identifying unknown bacteria identification is ___________.

biochemical tests

Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?

biochemical tests

When the antibiotics failed to work against Robert's infection, the doctor was concerned that it might be caused by a fungal pathogen. The lab technician collected a sample from the pair of contacts he was wearing when he first started having symptoms, as well as the cleaning solution that he was using. The lab technician plated the samples on Sabaroud-Dextrose agar and incubated it for 5 days at 26 degrees C. After growth appeared on the agar, a microscope slide was made, stained with Lactophenol Cotton Blue, and observed. Which of the following would the lab technician most likely see?

blue filaments and conidiospores Lactophenol cotton blue is a stain used commonly for fungal microscopy. The organism growing on the SDA plates is a mold rather than yeast and would be confirmed by the presence of filaments known as hyphae and spore-producing structures that produce the conidiospores. Fusarium species are common causes of fungal keratitis, especially in individuals that wear contact lenses.

Which microorganism requires the low pH inside a phagolysosome in order to reproduce? a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Coxiella burnetii d) Haemop

c) Coxiella burnetii

Pus is comprised of a) excess fluid from leaky blood vessels. b) collected cells from damaged tissue. c) dead phagocytes. d) unused histamines and leukotrienes.

c) dead phagocytes.

Which of the following is an early indication of immune system failure? a) high levels of HIV in the blood b) seroconversion c) repeated Candida albicans infections such as thrush and vaginitis

c) repeated Candida albicans infections such as thrush and vaginitis

What type of pathogen causes cutaneous candidiasis? Not the genus/species of the organism itself

candida albicans?

Viruses are surrounded by a protein capsid which is composed of individual units called ____________.

capsomeres

The process of generating ATP using a proton gradient is referred to as

chemiosmosis.

The process by which a phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is called

chemotaxis.

Which of the following organisms wouldn't belong in the Domain archaea?

ciliates

Which of the following characteristics is NOT shared by both archaea and eukarya?

circular chromosome

The biochemical test shown in the image is used to detect the presence or absence of a certain enzyme. Using the results observed in this image, name the enzyme that can distinguish Staphylococcus aureus (positive) from other species of staphylococci (negative).

coagulase

What is the function of the MAC complex?

complement proteins C5-C9, whih together make lesions in cell membranes that lead to cell death, fluid inflow bursts microbial cell

The biochemical test shown in the image is used to identify bacteria that produce a certain enzyme of the bacterial electron transport chain that is present in aerobic bacteria. Name the enzyme and state which of the results observed in the image is a negative result.

cytochrome C oxidase; swab B

Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair? a) It allows more nutrients to be delivered to the site of damage. b) It allows more phagocytes to travel to the site of damage. c) It allows for an increase in oxygen to the site of damage. d) It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage.

d) It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage.

Which of the following microorganisms use M protein to avoid destruction of a phagocyte? a) Coxiella burnetii b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Haemophilus influenzae d) Streptococcus pyogenes

d) Streptococcus pyogenes

What step in PCR "melts" double stranded DNA?

denaturing step

Once a sample containing DNA fragments is electrophoresed, the gel is placed in a solution containing the DNA stain, ___________, which binds to the DNA, so it can be visualized.

ethidium bromide

The most common reservoir for leptospirosis within the United States is

domestic dogs.

One of the proposed treatments for IBD mentioned in the activity is transplant of microbes from one individual to another using what is referred to as "fecal microbiota transplantation" (FMT), which includes treatment with oral "poop pills" and also injection of donated stool samples into the rectum. The idea behind this treatment is to replenish microbiota that has been lost from the digestive tract. This treatment has shown to be successful in helping patients with C. difficile infections. Which of the following represents another means of replenishing the microbiota of the gastrointestinal tract?

eating yogurt containing live Lactobacillus cultures

Agarose gel electrophoresis uses _________________ to separate fragments of DNA.

electrical charge

Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?

eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes

Shingles is caused by the same virus as chickenpox. The difference between the longer time associated for shingles to manifest in an individual is because ..

endogenus infection of peripheral nerve, recurrence of latent chickenpox infection

What is the function of activated macrophages in cell-mediated immunity?

enhance phagocytic activity; attacks cancer cells

Which genus of viruses cause hand-foot-and-mouth disease?

enterovirus

Fifth disease is sometimes called _______________ disease, because of the appearance of the rash

erythema infectiosum

Which macular rash causing disease is caused by human parvovirus B19

fifth disease

How does the physical factor, hair, function in innate immunity?

filter and traps microbes and dust in nose

How does the physical factor, sebum, function in innate immunity?

forms a protective acidic film over the skin surface that inhibits microbial growth

Which macular rash causing disease is confirmed by gram staining of skin scrapings?

fungal disease, candidiasis

Ringworm and sporotrichosis are caused by what type of microbe? (not the specific pathogen name)

fungal disease?

Which of the following statements about genetic modification is FALSE?

genetic modification can only occur under highly acidic conditions

Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on

gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor

Bacterial conjunctivitis and inclusion conjunctivitis are both caused by bacterial pathogens. What microbe causes bacterial conjunctivitis?

haemophilus influenzae

What is the etiological agent of herpes simplex

herpes simple virus type 1

Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is

heterosexual intercourse.

How does the chemical factor, gastric juice, function in innate immunity?

high acidity destroys bacteria and most toxins in stomach

What is the etiological agent that causes roseola?

human herpevirus 6 & 7

What is the result of histamine release from basophils?

increase blood vessel permeability during inflammation

How do iron-binding proteins such as transferrin inhibit the growth of certain bacteria?

inhibit growth of certain bacteria by reducing the amount of available iron.

Fevers are caused by the release of _________.

interferons

Antigen processing and presentation A) is a way for a cell to give information about its activities. B) is the way foreign cells engulf macrophages. C) is a way for viruses to infect cells. D) is only accomplished by bacterial cells

is a way for a cell to give information about its activities

Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they

lack mitochondria

Pediculus humanus capitis, the etiological agent of pediculosis, is cause by a parasitic infestation. Which type of parasite is Pediculus humanus capitis?

lice

Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because

maternal antibodies offer protection.

Rubeola is also known as ___________ and is caused by ____________. (be specific)

measles, aerosol, measles virus to respiratory tract,

A patient is experiencing profuse greenish-yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment?

metronidazole

The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings. The etiology is

microsporum

Which is the etiological agent of monkeypox?

monkeypox virus

What does it mean when scientists state that there is a "degeneracy in the genetic code"?

most amino acids are signaled by several alternative codons, redundancy of genetic code

Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?

non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus

What is another name for stop codons?

nonsense codons

Horn-like projections of the skin formed by the proliferation of cells are known as warts. What is the etiological agent of warts?

papillomavirus

Scabies and pediculosis are caused by what type of microbe? (not the specific pathogen name)

parasitic infestations?

The definition of lysogeny is

phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.

How do perforins function to destroy pathogens?

phagocytosis

An organism's inheritable traits that are physically observed is its _____________.

phenotype

A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a

plaque

Activated B cells called ________ cells, produce antibodies.

plasma cells

A viruss ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the

presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.

STI home test kits are still relatively new on the market. Given their newness, it is necessary to weigh the benefits and the risks to doing the tests at home. Place each statement below in the appropriate bin.

pros: anyone can purchase and use improved communication increased treatment cons: information leaks increased costs kits can make mistakes

A patient presents with a fever and flank pain. Microscopic analysis of the urine reveals bacteria at a concentration above 10,000 colony-forming units (CFUs) per milliliter. You perform a leukocyte esterase (LE) test, and it is positive. What is the diagnosis?

pyelonephritis

What is the function of TH17 cells in cell-mediated immunity

recruits neutrophils; stimulated production of antimicrobial proteins

What is the function of T reg cells in cell-mediated immunity?

regulates immune response an helps maintain self-tolerance

What is the function of snRNPs in eukaryotic transcription?

remove introns and splices exons together

What type of microbe contains the enzyme "reverse transcriptase"?

retrovirus

What disease is caused by the viruses belonging to the viral family from question 3?

retroviruses

The enzyme contained in an HIV virion is called...

reverse transcriptase(RT)

What is the function of HIV reverse transcriptase?

reverse transcriptase(RT) (reverse transcribes viral RNA to viral DNA)

What type of RNA forms an integral part of the ribosome?

ribosomal RNA

The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small eight-legged animals. The etiology is The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings. The etiology is

sarcoptes

Multiple fission, which is also called _________, produces cells with the identical DNA of the parent, but they are much smaller in size due to dividing the cytoplasm among multiple nuclei.

schizogony

Treating fungal infections can be challenging. Fungi are classified as eukaryotic organisms, the same as their human host. The idea that antimicrobial drugs should only affect the microbe without harming the host is an important principle in microbiology. It is referred to as the principle of __________.

selective toxicity Selective toxicity is the principle that states that antimicrobial drugs must often act within the host without damaging the host. This is a key principle in microbiology because it is important to not damage host cells while we are trying to treat an infection with a pathogen, no matter what the specific pathogen is that is causing the disease. In addition, antimicrobials should have minimal side effects. "Selective" refers to the target of the therapy being specific and "toxicity" refers to being toxic to cells in general.

Shigella sp is the etiological agent of ___________, and Haemophilus influenzae is the etiological agent of ____________.

shigellosis/meningitis

List three characteristics that bacteria and archaea do NOT share

slide 5 pp 4 lab 4

List three characteristics that archaea and eukarya do NOT share

slide 5 pp4

Which is the etiological agent of smallpox?

smallpox (variola) virus

What group A strep is the etiological agent of necrotizing fasciitis?

streptococcus pygenes

Which of the following correctly lists the current distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in order of DECREASING prevalence?

sub-Saharan Africa, Latin America, Western Europe, Australia / New Zealand

Glycolysis literally means

sugar splitting.

What type of RNA possesses an anticodon?

tRNA

During an oxidation reaction,

the donor molecule loses an electron and becomes oxidized.

What is a thermocycler?

the machine that controls the heat of the reaction, cycling between the different temperatures of the different steps during PCR

Both the innate and adaptive defenses of the immune system work to prevent

the penetration and colonization by pathogens, and the diseases they cause.

Use the information in the image to answer the following: Which of the following statements describing the unknown bacterial sample is incorrect?

the unknown belongs to the genus Citrobacter

When can hemolytic disease of the newborn occur?

the woman becomes pregnant with another Rh+ fetus, her anti-Rh antibodies will cross the placenta and damage fetal red blood cells.

what direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries?

they allow capillary walls to open and become leaky

The most common cause of infectious blindness is caused by the eye disease called... pg 599

trachoma

Francisella tularensis is the etiological agent of ___________, and Legionella pneumophila is the etiological agent of ____________. Not Francis' disease/atypical pneumonia not lyme

tularemia/Legionnaire's disease

Part complete How many net ATPs can be made from one molecule of glucose in glycolysis?

two