Final MS

5. A client has just had a hemorrhoidectomy. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client? Select all that apply. A. Administer stool softeners as prescribed. B. Instruct the client to limit fluid intake to avoid urinary retention. C. Encourage a high-fiber diet to promote bowel movements without straining. D. Apply cold packs to the anal-rectal area over the dressing until the packing is removed. E. Help the client to a Fowler's position to place pressure on the rectal area and decrease bleeding

A. Administer stool softeners as prescribed. C. Encourage a high-fiber diet to promote bowel movements without straining. D. Apply cold packs to the anal-rectal area over the dressing until the packing is removed.

4. The nurse knows that the valve that allows the passage of blood from left ventricle to the body is called? A. Aortic semilunar valve B. Pulmonary semilunar valve C. Mitral valve D. Tricuspid valve

A. Aortic semilunar valve

3. The nurse is assessing an intubated patient who returned from coronary artery bypass surgery 3 hours ago. Which assessment finding might indicate that this patient is experiencing pain? A. Blood Pressure 160/82 mmHg B. Temperature 100.6 F C. Heart Rate 80 beats/min D. Oxygen Saturation 95%

A. Blood Pressure 160/82 mmHg

5. In reviewing the results of the client's blood work, the nurse recognizes that the unexpected value that should be reported to the physician is: A. Calcium 7.2 mEq/L B. Sodium 140 mEq/L C. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L D. Magnesium 2.1 mEq/L

A. Calcium 7.2 mEq/L

5.A 27-year-old female presents with the following signs and symptoms to the left eye - Redness - Pain - Photophobia - Blurred Vision - Floaters seem in the vision The nurse should expect which of the following conditions? A. Corneal abrasion B. Iritis C. Retinal artery occlusion D. Ocular burn

B. Iritis

3.The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following gastrectomy and would instruct the client to take which measure to assist in preventing dumping syndrome? A. ambulate following a meal. B. Limit the fluids taken with meals. C. Eat cakes and pastries only if they are homemade. D.Eat three meals a day rather than small frequent.

B. Limit the fluids taken with meals.

2. Before the administration of preoperative medications, the nurse is preparing to witness the patient signing the operative consent form when the patient says, I do not really understand what the doctor said. Which action is best for the nurse to take? A. Provide an explanation of the planned surgical procedure. B. Notify the surgeon that the informed consent process is not complete. C. Administer the prescribed preoperative antibiotics and withhold any ordered sedative medications. D. Notify the operating room staff that the surgeon needs to give a more complete explanation of the procedure

B. Notify the surgeon that the informed consent process is not complete.

2.A nurse is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with hepatitis C. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect? A. Presence of immunoglobin G antibodies (IgG) B. Positive EIA test C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 35 units/L D. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 15 IU/L

B. Positive EIA test

3. A nurse is providing instructions about pursed-lip breathing for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with emphysema. This breathing technique accomplishes which of the following? A. Increases oxygen intake B. Promotes carbon dioxide elimination C. Uses the intercostal muscles D. Strengthens the diaphragm

B. Promotes carbon dioxide elimination

3. A postoperative patient has not voided for 7 hours after return to the postsurgical unit. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the surgeon. b. Perform a bladder scan. c. Assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom. d. Insert a straight catheter as indicated on the PRN order

b. Perform a bladder scan.

6. What is a major difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is that A. Hodgkin's lymphoma occurs only in young adults B. Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can manifest in multiple organs D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is treated only with radiation therapy

C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can manifest in multiple organs

5. The nurse prints a rhythm strip on a patient and notices that the P wave cannot be detected and QRS complex is at 0.24 seconds. What is the best action for the nurse to take? A. Measure the PR interval B. Prepare the patient for discharge C. Notify the physician of this abnormal strip D. Continue to monitor for abnormalities

C. Notify the physician of this abnormal strip

4. For each client finding, check to indicate if the finding is consistent with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). 1. Dyspnea 2. Productive Cough 3. Barrel Chest 4. Digital Clubbing 5. Expiratory Wheezing

1. Dyspnea 2. Productive Cough 3. Barrel Chest 4. Digital Clubbing 5. Expiratory Wheezing

1. Nasopharynx a. stridor 2. Bronchiole b. rhonchi 3. Trachea c. wheezes

1.B 2. C 3. A

1- A genetic trait is normally expressed when a person has a gene mutation on ONE of a pair of chromosomes and the "normal" form of a gene is on the other chromosome. 2- A person's entire physical, biochemical, and physiologic genetic makeup that generates the physical presentation of the person. 3- A person who is heterozygous possessing two different alleles of a gene pair, with one allele typically altered/mutated; therefore, the expression of the altered gene may not be expressed. 4-A genetic trait that Is expressed only when a person has two copies of a mutant autosomal gene or a single copy of a mutant X-linked gene in the absence of another X-chromosome. A. Phenotype B. Carrier C. Recessive D. Dominant

1.C 2. A 3. B 4. D

2. The nurse is assessing an ECG strip and begins measuring at the beginning of the p-wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. What is the nurse measuring? A. P-wave B. ST segment C. PR interval D. PR segment

C. PR interval

4.The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client with cirrhosis and notes that the ammonia level is 85 mcg/dL (51 mcmol/L). Which dietary selection does the nurse suggest to the client? A. Roast pork B. Cheese omelet C. Pasta with sauce D. Tuna fish sandwich

C. Pasta with sauce

2. Which electrolyte is important for keeping the resting membrane potential of the skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Magnesium

C. Potassium

4. A client with a first-degree heart block has an ECG taken during an episode of chest pain. The nurse knows that which ECG finding would be an indication of first-degree heart block. A. presence of Q waves B. Tall, peaked T waves C. Prolonged PR intervals D. Widened QRS complex

C. Prolonged PR intervals

1. Which part of PQRST complex represents ventricular repolarization? A. QRS complex B. ST segment C. T-wave D. P-wave

C. T-wave

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicated an inadequate understanding of the peak actin of NPH insulin and exercise? A. "The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon" B. "The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat" C. "The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast" D. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack

A. "The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon"

5. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Which of the following is the most likely age range of the patient? A. 3-10 years B. 25-35 years C. 45-55 years D. Over 60 years

A. 3-10 years

4. A 64-year-old client has returned from surgery after a right mastectomy and is very anxious. The client doesn't want any medications. What is the best intervention the nurse could employ to manage the client's anxiety at this time? A. Encourage a brisk walk around the nurse's station. B. Review post-operational orders and procedural information. C. Use guided imagery and deep breathing exercises. D. Turn off the television and lights and encourage rest.

C. Use guided imagery and deep breathing exercises.

4. The main regulator of water reabsorption is A. renin B. angiotensin C. antidiuretic hormone D. aldosterone

C. antidiuretic hormone

5. The nurse on the orthopedic unit receives information during the evening report. Which client should the nurse see first? A. Client 3 hours postoperative tibial fracture repair who reports severe pain and pressure under the cast and is requesting opioids every hour B. Client 6 hours postoperative rotator cuff repair with a sling immobilizer who has moderate swelling and tingling of the hand and fingers C. Client 8 hours postoperative total knee arthroplasty who has 2 closed-wound suction drains and a total output of 200 mL sanguineous drainage D. Male client 1-day postoperative total hip replacement prescribed enoxaparin who has a hematocrit of 37% (0.37) and hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)

A. Client 3 hours postoperative tibial fracture repair who reports severe pain and pressure under the cast and is requesting opioids every hour

4. A group of nursing students are discussing Autosomal Dominant inheritance disorders. The instructor recognizes the need for further teaching if the students select what disorders as Autosomal dominant. Select all that apply. A. Color blindness. B. Tay Sachs. C. Marfan Syndrome. D. Hereditary breast/ovarian cancer. E. Leigh Syndrome.

A. Color blindness. B. Tay Sachs. E. Leigh Syndrome.

3.A 25-year-old male presents with the following signs and symptoms - Left Eye Redness - Excessive Tearing - Eye Discharge - Photophobia - Pain The nurse suspects which of the following? A. Corneal Ulcer B. Retinal Detachment C. Hyphema D. Globe Rupture

A. Corneal Ulcer

3.The nurse is caring for a client who is deficient in T cells. The nurse should anticipate that the cause of the T cell deficiency is related to which manifestation? Select all that apply. A. Decrease in leukocytes B. Decrease in monocytes C. Decrease in granulocytes D. Hypersensitivity reaction E. Impaired cellular immunity

A. Decrease in leukocytes E. Impaired cellular immunity

1. Which dietary recommendation is generally advised for older adult patients to promote health? A. Diet rich in calcium and vitamin D B. Increased intake of refined sugars C. Unrestricted fluid intake regardless of medical conditions D. High-saturated fat diet E. High-sodium diet

A. Diet rich in calcium and vitamin D

2. A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis is being treated in the ER. Which finding would a nurse expect to note as confirming this diagnosis? A. Elevated blood glucose level and low plasma bicarbonate B. Decreased urine output C. Increased respirations and increase in pH D. Comatose State

A. Elevated blood glucose level and low plasma bicarbonate

4. Which action should the post anesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse delegate to nursing assistive personnel (NAP) who help with the transfer of a patient to the surgical unit? A. Help with the transfer of the patient onto a stretcher. B. Give a verbal report to the surgical unit charge nurse. C. Document the appearance of the patient's incision in the chart. D. Ensure that the receiving nurse understands the postoperative orders

A. Help with the transfer of the patient onto a stretcher.

4. What are the signs and symptoms of hyponatremia and hypovolemia? Select all that apply. A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. Poor skin turgor D. Dry mucous membranes E. Thready pulse F. Dark yellow urine

A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. Poor skin turgor D. Dry mucous membranes E. Thready pulse F. Dark yellow urine

5. Which step is 7th in the cardiac blood flow? A. Left atrium B. Pulmonary vein C. Mitral valve D. Superior vena cava

A. Left atrium

4.A patient with Meniere's disease will present with which of the following: A. Loss of hearing B. Positive Romberg Test C. Positive Fukuda stepping test D. Positive Dix-Hallpike test E. Nystagmus

A. Loss of hearing E. Nystagmus

1.Which cell types provide protective responses during inflammation? A. Macrophages and neutrophils B. Erythrocytes and platelets C. Eosinophils and basophils D. Natural killer cells

A. Macrophages and neutrophils

2. Upon cardiac assessment the mitral valve no longer allows adequate blood volume to pass and has hardened, what can the nurse conclude has happened? A. Mitral valve stenosis B. Atrial stenosis C. Mitral regurgitation D. Atrial regurgitation

A. Mitral valve stenosis

1. A nurse admits a client with a heart rate if 45 bpm which electrical node does the nurse know is underperforming A. SA node B. AV node C. Purkinje fibers D. Bundle of his

A. SA node

3. The nurse knows that blood that enters through the vena cava into the right atrium comes from where? A. The BODY B. The lungs C. Long Bone marrow D. Muscles

A. The BODY

3. What criteria should the nurse use to determine normal sinus rhythm for a client on ac cardiac monitor? Select all that apply. A. The RR intervals are relatively consistent B. One P wave precedes each QRS complex C. Four to eight complexes occur in a 6 second strip D. The ST segment is higher than the PR interval E. The QRS complex ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 second

A. The RR intervals are relatively consistent B. One P wave precedes each QRS complex

4. A patient arrives at the clinic reporting a sore throat and a fever of 101 F.A rapid strep test returns a positive result, and the patient is given a prescription for an antibiotic. How did the streptococcal organism gain access to the patient to cause an infection. A. Through the mucous membrane of the throat. B. Through the skin C. Breathing in airborne dust D. Being outside in the cold weather and decreasing resistance

A. Through the mucous membrane of the throat.

1.A 70-year-old comes to the clinic with a complaint of hearing loss. The nurse suspects Presbycusis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend to the patient? Select all that apply. A. Use of hearing aids B. Avoid loud noises. C. Wear ear plugs. D. Corticosteroids

A. Use of hearing aids B. Avoid loud noises.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who smokes cigarettes and has a new diagnosis of emphysema. How should the nurse assist the client with smoking cessation? A. Discourage the use of nicotine gum B. Suggest the client switch from smoking cigarettes to smoking a pipe C. Inform the client that treatment will be ineffective if smoking continues D. Discuss ways the client can reduce the number of cigarettes smoked per day

D. Discuss ways the client can reduce the number of cigarettes smoked per day

2. Which hormone prevents excessive loss of water? A. Atrial natriuretic peptide B. Antidiuretic hormone C. Renin D. Cortison

B. Antidiuretic hormone

3. A nurse is preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client who has a Hgb of 8 g/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take during the first 15 min of the transfusion? A. Obtain consent from the client for the transfusion B. Assess for an acute hemolytic reaction. C. Explain the transfusion procedure to the client. D. Obtain blood culture specimens to send to the lab

B. Assess for an acute hemolytic reaction.

5. A patient is being treated in the intensive care unit for sepsis related to ventilator associated pneumonia. The patient is taking large doses of three different antibiotics. Which severe outcome will the nurse monitor for in the lab studies? A. Leukocytosis B. Bone marrow suppression C. Oral Thrush D. Rash

B. Bone marrow suppression

4. The long-term care nurse is performing assessments on several of the residents. Which are normal age-related physiological change(s) the nurse expects to note? Select all that apply. A. Increased heart rate B. Decline in visual acuity C. Decreased respiratory rate D. Decline in long-term memory E. Increased susceptibility to urinary tract infections F. Increased incidence of awakening after sleep onset

B. Decline in visual acuity E. Increased susceptibility to urinary tract infections F. Increased incidence of awakening after sleep onset

1. A clinical feature that distinguishes a hypoglycemic reaction from a ketoacidosis reaction is: A. Blurred Vision B. Diaphoresis C. Nausea D. Weakness

B. Diaphoresis

1. A client with early-stage Hodgkin's lymphoma is being evaluated by a nurse in the oncology clinic. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Bone and joint pain B. Enlarged lymph nodes C. Intermittent hematuria D. Productive cough

B. Enlarged lymph nodes

A male client presents with positive Chvostek's sign, hand tremors, and muscle twitching. Which electrolyte imbalance is this indicative of? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypokalemia

B. Hypocalcemia

1. Which brain structure plays a key role in the thirst mechanism? A. Thalamus B. Hypothalamus C. Medulla oblongata D. Frontal lobe

B. Hypothalamus

2. A hospitalized client tells the nurse about feeling anxious about "being in this place." The client's blood pressure and heart rate are elevated but return to normal after 10 minutes. The client asks the nurse whether there is a concern for hypertension. What statement will guide the nurse's response? A. The client should not worry because the increased blood pressure was stress-related and the client's regular blood pressure is good. B. The first blood pressure reading was part of a stress response; the long-term blood pressure is controlled by negative feedback systems. C. Blood pressure is the only measure of hypertension; the client needs to recheck it regularly. D. A respiratory infection is probably the cause of the elevated blood pressure and will return to normal after treatment.

B. The first blood pressure reading was part of a stress response; the long-term blood pressure is controlled by negative feedback systems.

1. A patient arrives at the ambulatory surgery center for a scheduled outpatient surgery. Which information is of most concern to the nurse? A. The patient has not had outpatient surgery before. B. The patient is planning to drive home after surgery. C. The patient's insurance does not cover outpatient surgery. D. The patient had a glass of water a few hours before arriving.

B. The patient is planning to drive home after surgery.

1. The nurse is in the clinic assisting a couple both are carriers for PKU. They have a daughter 3-year-old with PKU. The couple tells the nurse that they are planning to have another child. They ask the nurse if their next baby will have PKU. What is the nurse's best answer? A. I think you better check with your doctor first. B. You are both carriers, so each baby has a 25% chance of being affected. C. The ultrasound indicates a boy, and boys are not affected by PKU. D. I have no idea, sorry.

B. You are both carriers, so each baby has a 25% chance of being affected.

2. The nurse caring for a client with suspected appendicitis knows that the pain associated with appendicitis is A. cutaneous pain. B. visceral pain. C. superficial pain. D. somatic pain.

B. visceral pain.

2. A nurse is providing preoperative teaching for a client who requests autologous donation in preparation for a scheduled orthopedic surgical procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "You should make an appointment to donate blood 8 weeks prior to the surgery." B. "If you need an autologous transfusion, the blood your brother donates can be used." C. " You can donate blood each week if your hemoglobin is stable." D. "Any unused blood that is donated can be Us"

C. " You can donate blood each week if your hemoglobin is stable."

1. A patient was infected with HIV after sharing needles with another IV drug abuser, upon infection with the HIV, the immune system responds by making antibodies against the virus usually within how many weeks after infection? A. 1 to 2 weeks B. 3 to 6 weeks C. 3 to 12 weeks D. 6 to 18 week

C. 3 to 12 weeks

1. The nurse is caring for a client whose spouse died 4 months ago. The client states feelings of "not doing well" and that friends and family seem hesitant to talk about the loss of the spouse. What type of referral would be most helpful for the nurse to make for the client? A. A consciousness-raising group B. A psychiatrist C. A support group D. A church or temple

C. A support group

5. Angiotensin II acts directly on: A. Kidneys B. Arterioles C. Adrenal cortex D. B and C

C. Adrenal cortex

5. After removal of the nasogastric (NG) tube on the second postoperative day, the patient is placed on a clear liquid diet. Four hours later, the patient complains of sharp, cramping gas pains. Which action should the nurse take? A. Reinsert the NG tube. B. Give the PRN IV opioid. C. Assist the patient to ambulate. D. Place the patient on NPO status.

C. Assist the patient to ambulate.

3. A patient has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. Which of the following symptoms would a health care professional expect to see given this diagnosis? A. Bradycardia, hypotension, and palpitations B. Dyspnea, malaise, and hypotension C. Bruising, fatigue, and bone pain D. Paresthesia, facial rash, and abdominal pain

C. Bruising, fatigue, and bone pain

2. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient hospitalized with cellulitis of the right lower extremity. Why is it important that the nurse continually assess the physical and emotional status of the patient? A. Older patients are at risk for developing dementia. B. The patient will not respond to the antibiotic treatment as well as a younger patient would. C. Early detection and management of factors influencing immune response may decrease morbidity and mortality. D. Older adult patients develop depression and suicidal tendencies when they are faced with chronic illness.

C. Early detection and management of factors influencing immune response may decrease morbidity and mortality.

2. A nurse is providing care for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who reports having fever, chills, exhaustion, and pallor throughout the last seven days. Which of the following values should the nurse look for when reviewing the client's laboratory results to determine what's causing the client's pallor and fatigue? A. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL B. WBC count 9.6/mm3 C. Hgb 6.5 g/dL D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

C. Hgb 6.5 g/dL

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a 20-year history of COPD and is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The client is dyspneic and has an oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry of 85%. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Place a nonrebreather mask on the client and increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min B. Prepare the client for possible endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation C. Increase the oxygen flow and request an arterial blood gas determination D. Position the client supine and administer an antianxiety medication

C. Increase the oxygen flow and request an arterial blood gas determination

2.A client with severe ulcer disease in the distal stomach undergoes a gastrojejunostomy (Billroth II procedure). Which postoperative prescription would the nurse question and verify? A. Leg exercises B. Early ambulation C. Irrigating the nasogastric tube D. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises

C. Irrigating the nasogastric tube

3. While caring for a patient with Pneumocystis pneumonia, the nurse assesses flat purplish lesions on the back and trunk. Which condition correlates with the assessment findings. A. Molluscum Contagiosum B. Tuberculosis of the skin C. Kaposi Sarcoma D. Seborrheic dermatitis

C. Kaposi Sarcoma

3. The nurse is caring for an older adult client who is being treated for acute anxiety. The client has a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective Coping related to a feeling of helplessness. What would be the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Put the primary onus for planning care on the client. B. Assess and provide constructive outlets for anger and hostility. C. Assess the client's sources of social support. D. Encourage an attitude of realistic hope to help the client deal with helpless feelings.

D. Encourage an attitude of realistic hope to help the client deal with helpless feelings.

1.The nurse is monitoring a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate perforation of the ulcer? A. Bradycardia B. Numbness in the legs C. Nausea and vomiting D. A rigid, board-like abdomen

D. A rigid, board-like abdomen

2.What medications are used to treat Meniere's disease? A. Anti Histamines B. Diuretics C. Corticosteroids D. All of the Above

D. All of the Above

3. Which of the following is a function of the urinary system? A. Regulates water B. Regulates balance of acids, bases, and electrolytes C. Filters waste from blood D. All of the above

D. All of the above

5.An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) determination is prescribed for a client with a connective tissue disorder. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the test. What should the nurse tell the client about the purpose of the test? A. Determines the presence of antigens B. Identifies which additional tests need to be performed C. Confirms the diagnosis of a connective tissue disorder D. Confirms the presence of inflammation or infection in the body

D. Confirms the presence of inflammation or infection in the body

2. An older adult client is admitted to the nursing unit for a cough and increasing fatigue. Which assessment finding should the nurse recognize as an expected age-related change? A. Hyperactive cough reflex B. Decreased anterior-posterior (AP) chest diameter C. High-pitched wheezing sounds on expiration D. Decreased ciliary action

D. Decreased ciliary action

4. Reed-Sternberg cells are presented in what type of cancer? A. Acute myeloblastic leukemia B. Chronic lymphatic leukemia C. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma D. Hodgkin's lymphoma

D. Hodgkin's lymphoma

3. A pregnant mom is at the clinic for her first prenatal visit and tells the nurse that her husband has Hemophilia and is concerned if her baby will have the disease too. What should the nurse answer? A. If your baby is female will have the disease because has one single copy of the X chromosome. B. If your baby is male will be a carrier of the disease because has a second X chromosome to counteract the affected one. C. Tell me more about what is worrying you. D. If your baby is a female will be a carrier of the disease because has a second X chromosome to counteract the affected one

D. If your baby is a female will be a carrier of the disease because has a second X chromosome to counteract the affected one

2. A client is in the doctor's office and asks the nurse what is the Genotype. The nurse answered: A. Is the number of chromosomes in the individual. B. Is the karyotype in the individual. C. Is an abnormality in the chromosome. D. Is the individual genetic makeup.

D. Is the individual genetic makeup.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. In the client's medical record, the nurse notes a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following oxygen-delivery methods should the nurse plan to use for this client? A. Simple face mask B. Nonrebreather mask C. Bag-valve-mask device D. Nasal cannula

D. Nasal cannula

3. Which serum electrolyte will decrease if serum calcium is elevated and increase if the calcium is lowered? A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. Sodium D. Phosphorous

D. Phosphorous

1.A nurse on a medical surgical unit is admitting a patient positive for hepatitis B with ascites. What are the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Initiate contact precaution B. Weigh the client weekly C. Measure abdominal girth at the base of the ribcage D. Provide a high calorie, high carbohydrate diet

D. Provide a high calorie, high carbohydrate diet

1. The patient has been diagnosed with Hodgkins's lymphoma. The nurse is aware that this patient has which type of cells present in the blood? A. Abnormal B cells B. Abnormal T cells C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Reed-Sternberg (R-S) cells

D. Reed-Sternberg (R-S) cells

3. A nurse performs a physical assessment on a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Findings include: • Fasting blood glucose of 120md/dL • Temperature of 101 F • Pulse of 88 bpm • Blood Pressure of 140/84 Which Finding would be of most concern? A. Pulse B. Blood Pressure C. Respiration D. Temperature

D. Temperature

2.A patient is brought to the health care facility with abdominal pain and fever. A complete blood count (CBC) is done and the WBC is elevated. The nurse understands that increases in the WBC primarily reflect increases in: A. eosinophils B.lymphocyte C. monocytes D. neutrophils

D. neutrophils

3. How does social engagement in older adult patients contribute to their health management? A. It leads to an increased risk of chronic disease B. It is generally discouraged due to the high risk of infectious diseases C. It decreases cognitive function D. It has no impact on physical health E. It promotes mental health and can help delay the progression of dementia

E. It promotes mental health and can help delay the progression of dementia

1.What includes total lung capacity? a. Inspiratory reserve vol. b. Functional reserve c. Tidal vol. d. Expiratory reserve vol. e. Residual vol.

a. Inspiratory reserve vol. c. Tidal vol. d. Expiratory reserve vol. e. Residual vol.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has hepatitis B about home care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (select all that apply) a. Limit physical ability b. Avoid alcohol c. Take acetaminophen for comfort d. Wear a mask when in public places e. Eat small frequent meals

a. Limit physical ability b. Avoid alcohol e. Eat small frequent meals

3.A nurse is assessing a client who has advanced cirrhosis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as indicators of hepatic encephalopathy? (select all that apply) a. Anorexia b. Change in orientation c. Asterixis d. Ascites e. Fetor hepaticus

b. Change in orientation c. Asterixis e. Fetor hepaticus

5. You are the nurse assessing a 28-year-old woman who has presented to the emergency department with vague complaints of malaise. You note bruising to the patient's upper arm that corresponds to the outline of fingers as well as yellowish bruising around her left eye. The patient makes minimal eye contact during the assessment. How might you best inquire about the bruising? a. "Is anyone physically hurting you?" b. "Tell me about your relationships." c. "Do you want to see a social worker?" d. "Is there something you want to tell me?"

a. "Is anyone physically hurting you?"

4.A nurse is assessing an older client for the presence of infection. The client's temperature is 97.6 F (36.4 C). What response by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client for more specific signs. b. Conclude that an infection is not present. c. Document findings and continue to monitor. d. Request that the provider order blood cultures

a. Assess the client for more specific signs.

4. What physical problems could precipitate hypovolemic shock? (Select all that apply) a. Burns b. Ascities c. Vaccines d. Insect bites e. Hemorrhage f. Ruptured spleen

a. Burns b. Ascities e. Hemorrhage f. Ruptured spleen

4.A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following medications can the nurse expect to administer to this client? (select all that apply) a. Diuretic b. Beta-blocking agent c. Opioid analgesic d. Lactulose e. Sedative

a. Diuretic b. Beta-blocking agent d. Lactulose

The nurse assesses clients for the cardinal signs of inflammation. Which signs/symptoms does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Edema b. Pulselessness c. Pallor d. Redness e. Warmth

a. Edema d. Redness e. Warmth

1.A patient with massive trauma and possible and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department. Which finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. Cool, clammy skin b. crackles c. Apical heart rate 48 bpm d. Temperature 101.2 F

c. Apical heart rate 48 bpm

2.After receiving 1000mL of normal saline, the blood pressure is still 82/40. What will the nurse anticipate giving to the patient? a. Nitroglycerin b. Drotrecogin c. Norepinephrine d. Sodium nitroprusside

c. Norepinephrine

3.What is the key factor in describing any type of shock? a. Hypoxemia b. Hypotension c. Vascular collapse d. Inadequate tissue perfusion

d. Inadequate tissue perfusion

5.The most accurate assessment parameters for the nurse to use to determine adequate tissue perfusion in a patient with MODS are? a. Blood pressure, pulse, and respirations b. Breath sounds, blood pressure, and body temperature c. Pulse pressure, level of consciousness, and pupillary response d. Level of consciousness urine output, and skin color and temperature

d. Level of consciousness urine output, and skin color and temperature