FINAL NASM
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? a. 20% b. 30% c. 5% d. 10%
10%
How is Fartlek training best described? a. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods. b. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. c. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption. d. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
D - Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week? Select one: a. 165 minutes per week b. 180 minutes per week c. 125 minutes per week d. 150 minutes per week
a. 165 minutes per week
ou have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 3 or 4 sets b. 7 to 8 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 5 or 6 sets
a. 3 or 4 sets
What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime? Select one: a. 80% b. 30% c. 90% d. 50%
a. 80%
What is forecasting? a. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal b. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs c. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale d. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well
a. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal
Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule? a. Acetyl CoA b. Amino acids c. Pyruvate d. ATP
a. Acetyl CoA
What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2? Select one: a. An RPE of 5 to 6 b. An RPE of 7 to 8 c. An RPE of 3 to 4 d. An RPE of 9 to 10
a. An RPE of 5 to 6
Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication? Select one: a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin) b. Insulin c. Painkillers d. Inhalers
a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
Which of the following is true about body image? Select one: a. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately. b. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves. c. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting. d. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual.
a. Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? a. Cleaning b. Moving a grocery cart c. Raking leaves d. Getting in and out of the car
a. Cleaning
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Select one: a. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities b. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness c. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going d. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise
a. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
Which of the following core exercises best suits stabilization training? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Barbell chest press c. Repeat step-ups d. Deadlifts
a. Floor bridge
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? a. Frank Starling Law of the Heart b. Valsalva maneuver c. Peripheral resistance d. Venous pooling
a. Frank Starling Law of the Heart
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Select one: a. Glucose b. Fat c. Protein d. Ketone bodies
a. Glucose
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors b. Adductor complex c. Upper trapezius d. Abdominals
a. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Depth jumps c. Proprioceptive plyometrics d. Squat jump
a. Ice skaters
Creatine is most effective for what purpose? a. Improving strength and muscle size b. Improving heart health c. Improving endurance d. Damaging the kidneys
a. Improving strength and muscle size
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Isometric c. Eccentric d. Concentric
a. Isokinetic
Which is involved in frontside mechanics? Select one: a. Lead leg b. Ankle plantar flexion c. Rear leg d. Knee extension
a. Lead leg
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core? a. Multifidus b. Pectoralis major c. Latissimus dorsi d. Iliopsoas
a. Multifidus
Which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is looking to improve their physique in a way similar to that of a bodybuilder? Select one: a. Muscular Development Training b. Maximal Strength Training c. Stabilization Endurance Training d. Power Training
a. Muscular Development Training
What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? Select one: a. Peripheral vasodilation b. Heart rate c. Thermoregulation d. Blood pressure
a. Peripheral vasodilation
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Select one: a. Power b. Muscular strength c. Aerobic fitness d. Flexibility
a. Power
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control? Select one: a. Pro shuttle b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) c. Long (broad) jump d. 40-yard dash
a. Pro shuttle
Which nutrient has the highest thermic effect? Select one: a. Protein b. Glycogen c. Fat d. Carbohydrate
a. Protein
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row b. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press c. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown d. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat
a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed? Select one: a. Small intestine b. Stomach c. Large intestine d. Esophagus
a. Small intestine
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction? Select one: a. Stretch-shortening cycle b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Series elastic component d. Reciprocal inhibition
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. The built environment b. The constructed environment c. The assembled environment d. The manufactured environment
a. The built environment
Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? Select one: a. Thoracic and sacral b. Cervical and thoracic c. Cervical and sacral d. Thoracic and lumbar
a. Thoracic and sacral
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? a. Tissue overload b. Functional movement c. Motor unit recruitment d. Force production
a. Tissue overload
Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement? a. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes b. Keeping the feet facing inward c. Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips d. Allowing the gaze to move freely
a. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes
When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? a. Transverse abdominis b. Sternocleidomastoid c. Diaphragm d. Rectus abdominis
a. Transverse abdominis
Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. Select one: a. Unilateral b. Loaded c. Proprioceptive d. Bilateral
a. Unilateral
What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Volume and progression b. Variables and progression c. Velocity and pattern d. Variables and pattern
a. Volume and progression
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels? Select one: a. YMCA 3-minute step test b. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test c. Rockport 1-mile walk test d. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
a. YMCA 3-minute step test
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. 25% per week b. 10% per week c. 20% per week d. <15% per week
b. 10% per week
When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less? Select one: a. 1.5 in. b. 2 in. c. 0.5 in. d. 1 in.
b. 2 in.
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records? Select one: a. 1 year b. 4 years c. Indefinitely d. 6 months
b. 4 years
What statement best describes a nonprofit health club? Select one: a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services b. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives c. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment d. A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare services for low-income families
b. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
What blood pressure is reflective of a hypertensive crisis? Select one: a. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg c. A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic d. A systolic reading of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic of 90 mm Hg or higher
b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating? Select one: a. Unequivocal b. Ambivalence c. Confusion d. Ambiguity
b. Ambivalence
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)? Select one: a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging c. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable d. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult
b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? Select one: a. Pulmonary hypoplasia b. Dyspnea c. Pneumonia d. Hypoxia
b. Dyspnea
Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins? Select one: a. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy. b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body. c. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body. d. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health.
b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved? Select one: a. Anterior deltoid b. Latissimus dorsi c. Pectoralis major d. Gluteus maximus
b. Latissimus dorsi
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. c. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. d. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.
If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do? Select one: a. High-intensity exercise for less than 10 minutes b. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes c. Walking for 5 minutes d. High-intensity exercise for 10 to 15 minutes
b. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Select one: a. 40-yard dash b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) c. Pro shuttle d. Vertical jump
b. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise? a. Single-leg cable row b. Medicine ball soccer throw c. Barbell squat d. Bench press
b. Medicine ball soccer throw
A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function? Select one: a. Neuroplasticity b. Motor function c. Wolff's law d. Muscle function
b. Motor function
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? a. Neurotransmitter b. Nociceptor c. Mechanoreceptor d. Action potential
b. Nociceptor
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example? Select one: a. Providing modifications during the workout b. Planning social gatherings for the group c. Setting the time for the group to meet d. Planning the workout for the group
b. Planning social gatherings for the group
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? a. Maintenance b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Action
b. Preparation
Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located? Select one: a. Left ventricle b. Right atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left atrium
b. Right atrium
Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Right ventricle b. Right atrium c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle
b. Right atrium
Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance? Select one: a. Static balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Stationary balance d. Dynamic balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine? a. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases b. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases c. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase d. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase
b. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers? Select one: a. Type Iic b. Type I c. Type IIb d. Type IIa
b. Type I
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries? a. Type III b. Type I c. Type IIa d. Type IIx
b. Type I
Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? a. Fruit juice b. Water c. An isotonic sports drink d. A hypertonic sports drink
b. Water
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? a. 0.62 b. 0.22 c. 0.72 d. 0.92
c. 0.72
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 6 to 8 sets b. 5 or 6 sets c. 1 or 2 sets d. 3 or 4 sets
c. 1 or 2 sets
Which of the following is an example of linear periodization? Select one: a. Phase 4 and 5, each trained 2 days per week b. Phases 1 and 5 every other day c. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2 d. Phase 1, 2, and 5, each trained 1 day per week
c. 4 weeks in Phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in Phase 2
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. A cadence of 36 steps per minute b. A cadence of 60 steps per minute c. A cadence of 96 steps per minute d. A cadence of 112 steps per minute
c. A cadence of 96 steps per minute
What is acidosis in muscle? Select one: a. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue b. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength c. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue d. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength Feedback
c. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
Circuit training is best described as what? Select one: a. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements b. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch c. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements d. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement Feedback
c. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body? Select one: a. Mechanoreceptors b. The brain c. Autonomic nervous system d. Somatic nervous system
c. Autonomic nervous system
Vitamin C has a role in which of these functions? Select one: a. Collagen synthesis only b. Increasing bone density c. Collagen synthesis and immunity d. Immunity only
c. Collagen synthesis and immunity
What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)? a. Inspiration is prolonged. b. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm. c. Expiration becomes more forceful. d. Breathing becomes more shallow. Feedback
c. Expiration becomes more forceful.
Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Upper trapezius c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Adductor complex
c. Gastrocnemius and soleus
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise? Select one: a. Informational support b. Companionship support c. Instrumental support d. Emotional support
c. Instrumental support
When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? Select one: a. Transformation b. Oxidation c. Phosphorylation d. ATP-PC
c. Phosphorylation
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Cable rotation b. Medicine ball soccer throw c. Side plank d. Floor crunch
c. Side plank
Maintaining one's balance while standing still on a single foot in contact with a firm surface can best be described as what type of balance? a. Semi-dynamic balance b. Motion balance c. Static balance d. Dynamic balance
c. Static balance
What is bioenergetics? Select one: a. The study of weight loss b. The study of aerobic metabolism c. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy d. The study of metabolism during exercise
c. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? a. Lumbar spine b. Frontal plane c. Thoracic spine d. Sagittal plane
c. Thoracic spine
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? a. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM c. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM d. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
d. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied? a. Being more explosive b. Switch to single-leg power step-ups c. Increasing speed d. Adding a stabilization pause between reps
d. Adding a stabilization pause between reps
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Select one: a. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries b. Medial collateral ligament injuries c. Concussions d. Ankle sprains
d. Ankle sprains
What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? a. Stabilize individual vertebral segments b. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments c. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs d. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
d. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance? Select one: a. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis b. Bony scoliosis c. Permanent scoliosis d. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
d. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus b. Adductors (inner thigh) and hip external rotators c. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum d. Hamstrings and erector spinae
d. Hamstrings and erector spinae
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased ventricular filling b. Venous pooling c. Decreased venous return d. Increased ventricular filling
d. Increased ventricular filling
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body? Select one: a. It increases both HDL and LDL cholesterol. b. It can lower both HDL and LDL cholesterol. c. It can increase LDL cholesterol. d. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
d. It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? a. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension c. Cancer and bleeding disorders d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
d. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Sandbag rotational lunge b. Cable machine single-arm row c. Stability ball abdominal crunches d. Kettlebell RDL
d. Kettlebell RDL
Which of the following compensations is most likely considered a predictive factor for developing a knee injury? Select one: a. Posterior pelvic tilt b. Anterior pelvic tilt c. Low-back arching d. Knee valgus
d. Knee valgus
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core? Select one: a. Back muscles only b. Local and global muscles c. Global muscles d. Local muscles
d. Local muscles
Repeat squat jumps are a progression for which of the following exercises? Select one: a. Power step-up b. Butt kick c. Tuck jump d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
d. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system? Select one: a. Axon b. Nucleus c. Spindles d. Neuron
d. Neuron
Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? Select one: a. Upper crossed syndrome b. Knee valgus c. Lower crossed syndrome d. Pes planus distortion syndrome
d. Pes planus distortion syndrome
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? a. Synergistic dominance b. Length-tension relationships c. Lengthening reaction d. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Reciprocal inhibition
What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Select one: a. Osteopenia b. Osteoarthritis c. Osteoporosis d. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? a. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension b. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation c. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure? Select one: a. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. b. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. c. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. d. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
d. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site? Select one: a. Actin b. Myosin c. Fascicles d. Troponin
d. Troponin
What type of diabetes occurs when cells are resistant to insulin, meaning that the insulin present cannot transfer adequate amounts of blood sugar into the cell? Select one: a. Type 1 b. Gestational c. Prediabetes d. Type 2
d. Type 2
Which type of muscle fiber is predominantly used during movements that require high levels of force and power, such as a sprint? Select one: a. Type Ia b. Type III c. Type I d. Type II
d. Type II
