Finance 3716 (6-8)
A bond certificate includes ________. A) the terms of the bond B) the individual to whom payments will be made C) the yield to maturity of the bond D) the price of the bond
a
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the payback rule? A) It does not consider the time value of money. B) Lacks a decision criterion that is economically based. C) It is difficult to calculate. D) It does not consider cash flows occurring after the payback period
c
A corporate bond which receives a BBB rating from Standard & Poor's is considered ________. A) a junk bond B) an investment grade bond C) a defaulted bond D) a high-yield bond
b
A "round lot" consists of how many shares? A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1,000
c
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the Net Present Value rule? A) can be misleading if inflows come before outflows B) not necessarily consistent with maximizing shareholder wealth C) ignores cash flows after the cutoff point D) relies on accurate estimate of the discount rate
d
Which of the following formulas is INCORRECT? A) g = Retention Rate × Return on New Investment B) Divt = EPSt × Dividend Payout Rate C) P0 = Div1 / (rE - g) D) rE = (Div1 / P0) - g
d. +g not -g
A university issues a bond with a face value of $5000 and a coupon rate of 4.41% that matures on July 15, 2018. The holder of such a bond receives coupon payments of $110.25. How frequently are coupon payments made in this case? A) monthly B) quarterly C) semiannually D) annually
c
According to Graham and Harvey's 2001 survey (Figure 8.2 in the text), the most popular decision rules for capital budgeting used by CFOs are ________. A) NPV, IRR, MIRR B) MIRR, IRR, Payback period C) IRR, NPV, Payback period D) Profitability index, NPV, IRR
c
Which of the following best describes a bond rated by Standard & Poor's and Moody as B? A) judged to be high quality by all standards B) considered to be medium grade obligations C) neither highly protected nor poorly secured D) generally lacks the characteristics of a desirable investment
d
Which of the following decision rules might best be used as a supplement to net present value (NPV) by a firm that favors liquidity? A) profitability index B) MIRR C) equivalent annual annuity D) payback period
d
Which of the following situations can lead to IRR giving a different decision than NPV? A) delayed investment B) multiple IRRs C) differences in project scale D) All of the above can lead to IRR giving a different decision than NPV
d
Internal rate of return (IRR) can reliably be used to choose between mutually exclusive projects
false
Treasury bonds have original maturities from one to ten years, while Treasury notes have original maturities of more than ten years
false
When different projects put different demands on a limited resource, then net present value (NPV) is always the best way to choose the best project
false
A firm can either pay its earnings to its investors, or it can keep them and reinvest them
true
What is the coupon payment of a 25-year $1000 bond with a 4.5% coupon rate with quarterly payments? A) $3.75 B) $11.25 C) $22.50 D) $45.00
b. 1000x.045/4 = 11.25
Which of the following formulas is INCORRECT? A) Divt = EPSt × Dividend Payout Rate B) PN = (rE - g) × DivN+1 C) earnings growth rate = retention rate × return on new investment D) rE = (Divt / P0) + g
b. divide by not multiply
You are trying to decide between three mutually exclusive investment opportunities. The most appropriate tool for identifying the correct decision is ________. A) net present value (NPV) B) profitability index C) internal rate of return (IRR) D) incremental internal rate of return (IRR)
a
What is the dirty price of a bond? A) the bond's price based only on the bond's yield B) the bond's actual cash price C) the bond's price based only on coupon payments D) the bond's price less an adjustment for changes in interest rates
b
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the payback period rule? A) It does not account for the time value of money. B) It is difficult to calculate. C) It ignores cash flows after payback. D) It does not account for changes in the discount rate
b
Which of the following models directly values all of the firm's equity, rather than a single share? I. Dividend-discount model II. Total payout model III. Discounted cash flow model A) I only B) II only C) III only D) II and III
b
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) As firms mature, their earnings exceed their investment needs and they begin to pay dividends. B) Total return equals earnings multiplied by the dividend payout rate. C) Cutting the firm's dividend to increase investment will raise the stock price if, and only if, the new investments have a positive net present value (NPV). D) We cannot use the constant dividend growth model to value the stock of a firm with rapid or changing growth.
b
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) The amount of each coupon payment is determined by the coupon rate of the bond. B) Prior to its maturity date, the price of a zero-coupon bond is always greater than its face value. C) The zero-coupon bond has no periodic interest payments. D) Treasury bills are U.S. government bonds with a maturity of up to one year
b
You placed an order to purchase stock where you specified the maximum price you were willing to pay. This type of order is known as a ________. A) maximum order B) limit order C) floor order D) market order
b
A bond has a $10,000 face value, ten years to maturity, and 8% semiannual coupon payments. What would be the expected difference in this bond's price immediately before and immediately after the next coupon payment? A) $800 B) $400 C) $1200 D) $200
b the epected difference in the bonds price will be $400 since the bond pays semiannual coupon of $400
A firm is considering several mutually exclusive investment opportunities. The best way to choose between them is which of the following? A) profitability index B) payback period C) net present value (NPV) D) internal rate of return (IRR)
c
If the yield to maturity of all of the following bonds is 6%, which will trade at the greatest premium per $100 face value? A) a bond with a $10,000 face value, four years to maturity and 6.2% semiannual coupon payments B) a bond with a $500 face value, seven years to maturity and 5.2% annual coupon payments C) a bond with a $5,000 face value, seven years to maturity and 5.5% annual coupon payments D) a bond with a $1,000 face value, five years to maturity and 6.3% annual coupon payments
d
Which of the following is true about the face value of a bond? A) It is the notional amount we use to compute coupon payments. B) It is the amount that is repaid at maturity. C) It is usually denominated in standard increments, such as $1,000. D) All of the above are true
d
Which of the following will be a source of cash flows for a shareholder of a certain stock? I. Sale of the shares at a future date II. The firm in which the shares are held paying out cash to shareholders in the form of dividends III. The firm in which the shares are held increasing the total number of shares outstanding through a stock split A) I only B) II only C) I and II D) II and III
d
You are opening up a brand new retail strip mall. You presently have more potential retail outlets wanting to locate in your mall than you have space available. What is the most appropriate tool to use if you are trying to determine the optimal allocation of your retail space? A) internal rate of return (IRR) B) payback period C) net present value (NPV) D) profitability index
d
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) In general, the difference between the cost of capital and the internal rate of return (IRR) is the maximum amount of estimation error in the cost of capital estimate that can exist without altering the original decision. B) The internal rate of return (IRR) can provide information on how sensitive your analysis is to errors in the estimate of your cost of capital. C) If you are unsure of your cost of capital estimate, it is important to determine how sensitive your analysis is to errors in this estimate. D) If the cost of capital estimate is more than the internal rate of return (IRR), the net present value (NPV) will be positive.
d. if the cost of capital estimates more than the internal rate of return the npv will be negative
Before it matures, the price of any bond is always less than its face value
false
The ownership in a corporation is divided into shares of stock, which carry rights to a share in the profits of the firm through future dividend payments
false
When using equivalent annual annuities to compare the costs of projects with different lives, you should not consider any changes in the expected replacement cost of equipment
false
A bond is said to mature on the date when the issuer repays its notional value
true
A bond will trade at a discount if its coupon rate is less than its yield to maturity
true
Net present value (NPV) is the difference between the present value (PV) of the benefits and the present value (PV) of the costs of a project or investment
true
The payback rule is based on the idea that an opportunity that pays back its initial investment quickly is a worthwhile opportunity
true
The profitability index can break down completely when dealing with multiple resource restraints
true
When an alternative decision rule disagrees with the net present value (NPV), the NPV should be followed
true
When comparing mutually exclusive projects which have different scales, you must know the dollar impact of each investment rather than percentage returns
true
When different investment rules give conflicting answers, then decisions should be based on the Net Present Value rule, as it is the most reliable and accurate decision rule
true
You can evaluate alternative projects with different lives by calculating and comparing their equivalent annual annuity
true
The owner of a hair salon spends $1,000,000 to renovate its premises, estimating that this will increase her cash flow by $220,000 per year. She constructs the above graph, which shows the net present value (NPV) as a function of the discount rate. If her discount rate is 6%, should she accept the project? A) Yes, because the NPV is positive at that rate. B) No, because the NPV is negative at that rate. C) No, because the NPV is positive at that rate. D) Cannot be determined from the information given
b
A floor broker is a person at the NASDAQ with a trading license who represents orders on the floor
false
The coupon value of a bond is the face value of the bond
false
The credit spread of a bond shrinks if it is perceived that the probability of the issuer defaulting increases
false
When comparing two projects with different lives, why do you compute an annuity with an equivalent present value (PV) to the net present value (NPV)? A) so that you can see which project has the greatest net present value (NPV) B) so that the projects can be compared on their cost or value created per year C) to reduce the danger that changes in the estimate of the discount rate will lead to choosing the project with a shorter timeframe D) to ensure that cash flows from the project with a longer life that occur after the project with the shorter life has ended are considered
b
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The payback investment rule is based on the notion that an opportunity that pays back its initial investments quickly is a good idea. B) An internal rate of return (IRR) will always exist for an investment opportunity. C) A net present value (NPV) will always exist for an investment opportunity. D) In general, there can be as many internal rates of return (IRRs) as the number of times the project's cash flows change sign over time
b
A lawn maintenance company compares two ride-on mowers—the Excelsior, which has an expected working-life of six years, and the Grassassinator, which has a working life of four years. After examining the equivalent annual annuities of each mower, the company decides to purchase the Excelsior. Which of the following, if true, would be most likely to make them change that decision? A) Fuel prices are expected to rise and raise the annual running costs of all mowers. B) The mower is only expected to be needed for three years. C) The prices of equivalent mowers are expected to grow in the future as lawnmower manufacturers consolidate. D) The number of customers requiring lawn-mowing services is expected to sharply increase in the near future.
b
How are investors in zero-coupon bonds compensated for making such an investment? A) Such bonds are purchased at their face value and sold at a premium on a later date. B) Such bonds make regular interest payments. C) Such bonds are purchased at a discount, below their face value. D) Such bonds have a lower face value as compared to other bonds of similar term
c
Which of the following bonds is trading at par? A) a bond with a $2,000 face value trading at $1,987 B) a bond with a $1,000 face value trading at $999 C) a bond with a $1,000 face value trading at $1,000 D) a bond with a $2,000 face value trading at $2,012
c
Which of the following bonds will be most sensitive to a change in interest rates if all bonds have the same initial yield to maturity? A) a ten-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually B) a ten-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose coupon rate is 7.4% APR paid semiannually C) a 20-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually D) a 20-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose coupon rate is 7.4% APR paid semiannually
c
Which of the following is true regarding the profitability index? A) It does not use the net present value (NPV) to assess benefits. B) It is very simple to compute. C) Attention must be taken when using it to make sure that all of the constrained resource is utilized. D) It is unreliable when used for choosing between different projects
c
Which of the following statements is true of bond prices? A) A fall in bond prices causes interest rates to fall. B) A fall in interest rates causes a fall in bond prices. C) A rise in interest rates causes bond prices to fall. D) Bond prices and interest rates are not connected
c
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) The bond certificate typically specifies that the coupons will be paid periodically until the maturity date of the bond. B) The bond certificate indicates the amounts and dates of all payments to be made. C) The only cash payments the investor will receive from a zero-coupon bond are the interest payments that are paid up until the maturity date. D) The face value of a bond is repaid at maturity.
c
Why are the interest rates of U.S. Treasury securities less than the interest rates of equivalent corporate bonds? A) The U.S. government has a high credit spread. B) There is significant risk that the U.S. government will default. C) U.S. Treasury securities are widely regarded to be risk-free. D) U.S. Treasury securities yield inflation adjusted interest rates.
c
Bonds with a high risk of default generally offer high yields
true
Which of the following bonds will be least sensitive to a change in interest rates? A) a ten-year bond with a $2,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.8% and coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually B) a 15-year bond with a $5,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 7.4% and coupon rate is 6.2% APR paid annually C) a 20-year bond with a $3,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 6.0% and coupon rate is 5.4% APR paid semiannually D) a 30-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.5% and coupon rate is 6.4% APR paid annually
a
Which of the following is NOT a way that a firm can increase its dividend? A) by increasing its retention rate B) by decreasing its shares outstanding C) by increasing its earnings (net income) D) by increasing its dividend payout rate
a
Which of the following is a limitation of the dividend-discount model? A) It cannot handle negative growth rates. B) It requires accurate dividend forecasts, which is not possible. C) It requires that the growth rate always be higher than the required rate of return, which is not realistic. D) It does not consider past earnings and performance
a
The present value (PV) of an investment is ________. A) the amount that an investment would yield if the benefit were realized today B) the difference between the cost of the investment and the benefit of the investment in dollars today C) the amount you need to invest at the current interest rate to re-create the cash flow from the investment D) the amount by which the cash flow of an investment exceeds or falls short of the cash flow generated by the same amount of money invested at market rate
a
Which of the following best describes the Net Present Value rule? A) Take any investment opportunity where the net present value (NPV) is not negative; turn down any opportunity when it is negative. B) Take any investment opportunity where the net present value (NPV) exceeds the opportunity cost of capital; turn down any opportunity where the cost of capital exceeds the net present value (NPV) C) When choosing among any list of investment opportunities where resources are limited, always choose those projects with the highest net present value (NPV). D) If the difference between the present cost of an investment and the present value (PV) of its benefits after a fixed number of years is positive the investment should be taken, otherwise it should be rejected
a
Which of the following bonds is trading at a premium? A) a five-year bond with a $2,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 7.0% and coupon rate is 7.2% APR paid semiannually B) a ten-year bond with a $4,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 6.0% and coupon rate is 5.9% APR paid semiannually C) a 15-year bond with a $10,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 8.0% and coupon rate is 7.8% APR paid semiannually D) a two-year bond with a $50,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.2% and coupon rate is 5.2% APR paid monthly
a
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding profitable and unprofitable growth? A) If a firm wants to increase its share price, it must diversify. B) If a firm retains more earnings, it will pay out less of those earnings, reducing its dividends. C) A firm can increase its growth rate by retaining more of its earnings. D) Cutting a firm's dividend to increase investment will raise the stock price if the new investment has a positive net present value (NPV)
a
Which of the following will NOT increase a company's dividend payments? A) It can issue more shares. B) It can increase its earnings. C) It can decrease the number of shares outstanding. D) It can increase its dividend payout rate
a
Why is the yield to maturity of a zero-coupon, risk-free bond that matures at the end of a given period the risk-free interest rate for that period? A) Since such a bond provides a risk-free return over that period, the Law of One Price guarantees that the risk-free interest rate equals the yield to maturity. B) Since a bond's price will converge on its face value as the bond approaches the maturity date, the Law of One Price dictates that the risk-free interest rate will reflect this convergence. C) Since interest rates will rise and fall in response to the movement in bond prices. D) Since there is, by definition, no risk in investing in such bonds, the return from such bonds is the best that can be expected from any investment over the period
a
Which of the following statements is FALSE of the dividend-discount model? A) We cannot use the dividend-discount model to value the stock of a firm with rapid or changing growth. B) As firms mature, their growth slows to rates more typical of established companies. C) The dividend-discount model values the stock based on a forecast of the future dividends paid to shareholders. D) The simplest forecast for the firm's future dividends states that they will grow at a constant rate, i.e., forever.
a. a multistage dividend discount model can be used to value the stock of a firm with rapid or changing growth
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The payback rule is useful in cases where the cost of making an incorrect decision might not be large enough to justify the time required for calculating the net present value (NPV). B) The payback rule is reliable because it considers the time value of money and depends on the cost of capital. C) For most investment opportunities, expenses occur initially and cash is received later. D) Fifty percent of firms surveyed reported using the payback rule for making decisions
b
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) Bonds are securities sold by governments and corporations to raise money from investors today in exchange for a promised future payment. B) By convention, the coupon rate is expressed as an effective annual rate. C) Bonds typically make two types of payments to their holders. D) The time remaining until the repayment date is known as the term of the bond
b
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) One advantage of quoting the yield to maturity rather than the price is that the yield is independent of the face value of the bond. B) Unlike the case of bonds that pay coupons, for zero-coupon bonds, there is no formula to solve for the yield to maturity. C) Because we can convert any bond price into a yield, and vice versa, bond prices and yields are often used interchangeably. D) The internal rate of return (IRR) of a bond is given a special name, the yield to maturity (YTM).
b
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) The internal rate of return (IRR) of an investment in a zero-coupon bond is the rate of return that investors will earn on their money if they buy a default-free bond at its current price and hold it to maturity. B) The yield to maturity of a bond is the discount rate that sets the future value (FV) of the promised bond payments equal to the current market price of the bond. C) Financial professionals also use the term spot interest rates to refer to the default-free zero-coupon yields. D) When we calculate a bond's yield to maturity by solving the formula, Price of an n-period bond = + + ... + , the yield we compute will be a rate per coupon interval
b
The Sisyphean Company has a bond outstanding with a face value of $1000 that reaches maturity in 5 years. The bond certificate indicates that the stated coupon rate for this bond is 8.1% and that the coupon payments are to be made semiannually. Assuming the appropriate YTM on the Sisyphean bond is 10.6%, then this bond will trade at ________. A) a premium B) a discount C) par D) none of the above
b. as the coupon rate of 8.1% is less than YTM of 10.6% on the bonds, so they will trade at a discount
A company releases a five-year bond with a face value of $1000 and coupons paid semiannually. If market interest rates imply a YTM of 6%, what should be the coupon rate offered if the bond is to trade at par? A) 3% B) 5% C) 6% D) 7%
c
A ten-year, zero-coupon bond with a yield to maturity of 4% has a face value of $1000. An investor purchases the bond when it is initially traded, and then sells it four years later. What is the rate of return of this investment, assuming the yield to maturity does not change? A) 3.20% B) 2.40% C) 4.00% D) 2.00%
c
An investor purchases a 30-year, zero-coupon bond with a face value of $5000 and a yield to maturity of 8.4%. He sells this bond ten years later. What is the rate of return on his investment, assuming yield to maturity does not change? A) 6.72% B) 5.04% C) 8.40% D) 4.20%
c
A bond is currently trading below par. Which of the following must be true about that bond? A) The bond's yield to maturity is less than its coupon rate. B) The bond is a zero-coupon bond. C) The bond's yield to maturity is greater than its coupon rate. D) B or C above
d
A company releases a five-year bond with a face value of $1000 and coupons paid semiannually. If market interest rates imply a YTM of 8%, which of the following coupon rates will cause the bond to be issued at a premium? A) 7% B) 6% C) 8% D) 10%
d
Most corporations measure the value of a project in terms of which of the following? A) discount value B) discount factor C) future value (FV) D) present value (PV)
d
Tanner is choosing between two investment options. He can invest $500 now and get (guaranteed) $550 in one year, or invest $500 now and get (guaranteed) $531.40 back later today. The risk-free rate is 3.5%. Which investment should Tanner prefer? A) $531.40 later today, since $1 today is worth more than $1 in one year. B) $550 in one year, since it is $50 more than he invested rather than $31.40 more than he invested. C) Neither - both investments have a negative NPV. D) Tanner should be indifferent between the two investments, since both are equivalent to the same amount of cash today
d
The owner of a hair salon spends $1,000,000 to renovate its premises, estimating that this will increase her cash flow by $220,000 per year. She constructs the above graph, which shows the net present value (NPV) as a function of the discount rate. At what dollar value should the NPV profile cross the vertical axis? A) $780,000 B) $1,000,000 C) Cannot be determined because inadequate information is given. D) The vertical axis crossing point cannot be calculated since the cash inflows are in perpetuity
d
What are dividend payments? A) payments made to a company by investors for a share of the ownership of that company B) incremental increases in the value of the stock held by an investor due to rises in share price C) the difference between the original cost price of a share and the price an investor receives when that share is sold D) a share of the profits paid to each shareholder on the basis of the number of shares they hold
d
Which of the following best illustrates why a bond is a type of loan? A) The issuers of bonds make regular payments to bondholders. B) When a company issues a bond, the buyer of that bond becomes an owner of the issuing company. C) Funds raised are used to finance long-term projects. D) When an investor buys a bond from an issuer, the investor is giving money to the issuer, with the assurance that it will be repaid at a date in the future
d
Which of the following bonds will be most sensitive to a change in interest rates? A) a ten-year bond with a $2,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.8% and coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually B) a 15-year bond with a $5,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 7.4% and coupon rate is 6.2% APR paid annually C) a 20-year bond with a $3,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 6.0% and coupon rate is 5.4% APR paid semiannually D) a 30-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.5% and coupon rate is 6.4% APR paid annually
d
Which of the following decision rules is best defined as the amount of time it takes to pay back the initial investment? A) internal rate of return (IRR) B) profitability index C) net present value (NPV) D) payback period
d
Which of the following is NOT a valid method of modifying cash flows to produce a MIRR? A) Discount all of the negative cash flows to time 0 and leave the positive cash flows alone. B) Leave the initial cash flow alone and compound all of the remaining cash flows to the final period of the project. C) Discount all of the negative cash flows to the present and compound all of the positive cash flows to the end of the project. D) Turn multiple negative cash flows into a single negative cash flow by summing all negative cash flows over the project's lifetime
d
Which of the following statements is FALSE about dividend payout and growth? A) A common approximation is to assume that in the long run, dividends will grow at a constant rate. B) The dividend each year is the firm's earnings per share (EPS) multiplied by its dividend payout rate. C) There is a tremendous amount of uncertainty associated with any forecast of a firm's future dividends. D) During periods of high growth, it is not unusual for firms to pay out 100% of their earnings to shareholders in the form of dividends
d
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Estimating dividends, especially for the distant future, is difficult. B) A firm can only pay out its earnings to investors or reinvest their earnings. C) Successful young firms often have high initial earnings growth rates. D) According to the constant dividend growth model, the value of the firm depends on the current dividend level, divided by the equity cost of capital plus the grow rate
d
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) Zero-coupon bonds are also called pure discount bonds. B) The internal rate of return (IRR) of an investment opportunity is the discount rate at which the net present value (NPV) of the investment opportunity is equal to zero. C) The yield to maturity for a zero-coupon bond is the return you will earn as an investor from holding the bond to maturity and receiving the promised face value payment. D) When prices are quoted in the bond market, they are conventionally quoted in increments of $1,000
d
Bond traders generally quote bond yields rather than bond prices, since yield to maturity depends on the face value of the bond
false
Preference for cash today versus cash in the future in part determines net present value (NPV)
false
Prior to its maturity date, the price of a zero-coupon bond is its face value
false
Stocks that do not pay a dividend must have a value of $0.
false
The internal rate of return (IRR) rule will agree with the Net Present Value rule even when positive cash flows precede negative cash flows
false
Forecasting dividends requires forecasting the firm's earnings, dividend payout rate, and future share count.
true
Net present value (NPV) is usefully supplemented by internal rate of return (IRR), since IRR gives a good indication of the sensitivity of any decision made to changes in the discount rate
true
The Net Present Value rule implies that we should compare a project's net present value (NPV) to zero
true
The Valuation Principle states that the value of a stock is equal to the present value (PV) of both the dividends and future sale price of that stock which the investor will receive
true
The only cash payment an investor in a zero-coupon bond receives is the face value of the bond on its maturity date
true
