flight ops
Part 135 Operational Control differs from Part 121 Operational Control because the Part 121 air carrier maintains operational control at the Dispatch Office throughout the entirety of the flight. How is Operational Control implemented during a Part 135 flight sequence?
"First Tier" actions are controlled by the Management Delegates prior to the flight departing. The Pilot in Command assumes "Second Tier" actions as soon as the aircraft begins taxiing and ends when the aircraft arrives (stops) at their destination. Management Delegates then take over operational control again until the next flight event.
In regard to being able to accept Hazardous Materials, Air Carriers will be authorized as follows:
"Will Carry" or Will Not Carry"
Which of the following part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) explains definitions and abbreviations?
14 CFR Part 1
From 1977 to 1994, scheduled commuter flights (Part 135) had a far higher crash rate than major airlines (Part 121). The FAA instituted which part of the code of federal aviation regulations in 1996 to bring air carriers of both Part 121 and Part 135 under the umbrella of "One Level of Safety"?
14 CFR Part 119
The list of operations you may perform as a Commercial Pilot, acting individually and without further certificates may be found in:
14 CFR Part 119
Where is the required content of operations specifications for a Commuter or On-Demand operator found?
14 CFR Part 119
Regarding air carrier operations, which statement is correct?
14 CFR Part 121 outlines operational requirements for Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Operations.
The Window of Circadian Low may be defined as follows:
2am to 6am and 3pm to 5pm
Transport Category Aircraft with pressurized cabins must be limited to a maximum cabin altitude at maximum PSI differential. What is that maximum cabin altitude?
8,000'
Part 121 Transport category Aircraft with 44 passengers seats or more installed must demonstrate evacuation of all passengers onboard in:
90 seconds or less
Which is the best response in describing Direct Air Carriers?
A Direct Air Carrier is a person who offers to provide air transportation and who has control over the operational functions performed in providing that transportation.
An air carrier's approved training program includes a required Qualification Segment. This is best described as:
A checkride
Which of the following are "legally enforceable rules issues by the FAA to correct an unsafe condition in a product?
Airworthiness Directives (ADs)
Holding out to the public would include:
All of the above.
What answer best describes an ATP Certification Training Program (ATP CTP)?
An elevated level of training for air carriers or training facilities to use when certifying pilots as ATPs with type ratings.
When 14 CFR regulations state a requirement for approval from "the Administrator", that means:
Approval from "The Administrator" may come from AFS-1, a FAA Regional Office, or a FAA District Office (Flight Standards District Office, FSD).
A copy of the Ops Specs must be maintained by the carrier at:
At its principle base of operations.
Where must an air carrier maintain a complete copy of the Section 121.133 manual(s)?
At the air carrier's principal base of operaitons.
When does a flight crewmember "look back" to determine if he or she has received the proper amount of rest?
At the start of a flight duty period or reserve availability period.
The FAA defines Flight Time in 14 CFR Part 1.1 as:
Block Time
A Part 121 Dispatcher has tasks that are substantially different from a Part 135 Flight Coordinator's tasks. Which response best outlines those tasks of a Part 121 Dispatcher.
Build manifest, review environmental factors, airport factors, aircraft criteria, and pilot criteria.
As a commercial pilot, acting individually and without further certificates, you may:
Charge a gas company to perform pipeline aerial spotter patrols.
A Rest Facility that qualifies as a rest area that provides flat, separated from cockpit and cabin, temperature controlled, controlled light, and isolated form noise and distraction is:
Class 1
What positions within an air carrier require an FAA airman certificate?
Cockpit crewmembers, dispatchers, and mechanics
A commuter operation is one that:
Conducts scheduled operations (five or more round trips per week) in non-turbojet aircraft that have nine or fewer passenger seats and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less.
Theater, used in flight and duty limitations for air carriers, may be defined as follows:
Crew's departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees of longitude.
What minimum required management personnel positions for Part 121 must be filled by a mechanic holding an airframe and powerplant certificate (A&P)?
Director of Maintenance and Chief Inspector.
Which required Management Personnel positions are shared between Part 121 air carriers and Part 135 air carriers?
Director of Maintenance, Director of Operations, Chief Pilot
If an air carrier conducts any operations in which the pilot-in-command is required to hold an airline transport pilot certificate, which two required management positions, for Part 121 and Part 135 air carriers, must be filled by a pilot holding an airline transport pilot certificate (ATP)?
Director of Operations and Chief Pilot.
Assume you were found to be operating as an on-demand air carrier but did not have an air carrier operating certificate. The potential penalty for this would be an $11,000 fine for:
Each provision of Part 135 applicable to each flight conducted.
To be employed as a pilot for a Part 121 air carrier, what pilot certificate must you hold?
Either a restricted ATP certificate or an ATP certificat
Who may conduct required Part 121 training?
Either the Part 121 certificate holder or a company holding a Part 142 flight training certificate may conduct required training
Prior to serving as a Pilot In Command, they must demonstrate their ability to operate over an unfamiliar route and demonstrate familiarity with all information related to the planned flight. This is called:
Enroute Qualification and in the Part 135 world, it is called a 135.299 Line Check
Which phrase best describes FAA Advisory Circulars?
FAA best policies and procedures
Flight Attendants are required to carry a FAA certificate of demonstrated proficiency on his/her person when performing their job functions.
False
Part 135 flight attendant training requires substantially fewer hours of training than piston aircraft pilot training.
False
In the 1940's the Flight Engineer was introduced. When was a Flight Engineer required?
Flight Engineers were required for overwater operations and on aircraft that had a gross takeoff weight of greater than 80,000 pounds.
Which of the following air carrier manuals is NOT regulatory?
Flight Operations Manual (FOM)
What is the FAA definition (14 CFR Part 1.1) of flight time?
Flight time is defined as block time. The time from when the aircraft begins moving until it comes to a stop after flight completion.
In reference to "Fractional Operators", which answer is most accurate?
Fractional operators used to operate without any of the restrictions or limitations that apply to Domestic, Flag, Commuter, or On-Demand operators. Fractional operators from 1986 to 2003 were only governed by 14 CFR Part 91 rules.
A list of Management Personnel who maintain operational control are included in the air carrier's:
General Operations Manual (GOM)
A critical phase of flight includes all of the following flight regimes:
Grond operaitons invovling taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000', except cruise flight.
In analyzing a situation in which a private pilot is accused of acting illegally as a common carrier, the FAA will, among other tests, look to see if the pilot:
Had an independent interest in taking the trip.
Density Altitude is Pressure Altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. It is affected by:
Height, Heat and Humidity.
Of the following list of qualifications, which is NOT a requirement for a Director of Maintenance (DOM) candidate to have prior to being approved as DOM by the FAA?
Hold an A & P and ATP certificate.
What qualifications must the Director of Operations have if they have never served as a Part 119 Director of Operations before?
Hold an ATP, have 3 years managerial experience in the last 6 years, and have 3 years' experience as a PIC in large airplanes within the last 6 years under Part 121 or Part 135.
The FAA has seven basic responsibilities. Which one of the following is NOT one of those responsibilities?
Increasing the number of commercial aircraft engaged in air travel
Which checkride for pilots is required every 6 months?
Instrument Proficiency Check
A Transport Category Aircraft's Cockpit Voice Recorder has the following features:
It automatically overwrites the last 30 minutes, records cockpit noises and cockpit voices.
Which one of the elements of Operational Control is true for Part 121 air carriers?
Licensed Dispatchers must maintain the capability of communication with company aircraft at all times. Pilots, even the Pilot in Command, retain only emergency authority.
One of the most dangerous inflight fire threats to passengers and crew comes from:
Lithium Ion batteries.
If crews can access a cargo compartment in flight, the cargo areas must be:
Loaded in a manner that will allow access to all parts of the compartment with a fire extinguisher.
In the mid-1920's what was the only example of a successful use of commercial aircraft?
Mail carrying
During the Part 135 flight release process, there are four approvals that must be collected prior to issuing the final trip sheet to the crew and approving their departure. In what order are those four approvals collected?
Maintenance approval, then operations approval, then owner approval, then financial approval.
Management Personnel are required to be trained, experienced, and have expertise. They are also required to be knowledgeable with operator safety practices, regulations, operations specifications, maintenance requirements, and the operator's general operations manual (GOM). How is this accomplished?
Management Personnel and all other Crewmembers will complete new-hire basic indoctrination training to gain these qualifications.
V1, or takeoff decision speed, is the:
Maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must first take action to stop.
Augmented Crew may be defined as follows:
More than the minimum number of flight crew required by the airplane type certificat
Which of the following is not required to be in a Domestic Air Carrier's Operations Specifications?
Names and addresses of the largest shareholders.
What is the mandatory retirement age for all pilots in Part 121 operations?
No person may serve as a PIC of an airplane engaged in operations under Part 121 if that person has reached his/her sixty-fifth birthday?
Which statement is true regarding Operations Specifications?
Operations Specifications can be issued in different forms such as M Specs for Part 91K fractional operators and Training Specs for Part 141 flight schools.
Which statement is true regarding Large Group Charter regulations? Large Group Charter operates under 14 CFR Part 125 with 20 or more passenger seats and a payload of greater than 6,000 pounds.
Part 125 operators have significantly lower regulatory requirements and standards as Part 121 operat
What is the difference between Passive and Active Operational Control?
Passive Control is the documented policies and procedures listed in the air carrier's General Operations Manual (GOM) and Active Control is executed by Management Delegates who make decisions and take action.
Training regulations break down aircraft into the following three categories:
Piston aircraft, turboprop aircraft, and turbojet aircraft.
If a pilot completes initial training as a SIC (first officer) on a specific aircraft on March 15 for an air carrier not using AQP, when would be the latest this pilot could complete recurrent training?
Recurrent must be completed before the end of April the next year.
Which type of training is used for employees that have been trained and qualified by the operator but they have become unqualified to serve in that duty position and/or aircraft due to not receiving recurrent training and checking?
Requalification training
The number of flight attendants required on certain aircraft is always based on:
Seating capacity of the aircraft
Control System Gust Locks must be installed on Transport Category Aircraft. Gust Lock systems must be installed as follows:
So that it automatically disengages, has an unmistakable warning alert for pilots, and must not engage in flight.
Which type of air carrier listed below is not required to maintain constant communication with their company aircraft?
Supplemental Operators
Which factor will actually reduce the takeoff speed for V1, VR, and V2?
Takeoff Flaps
On Part 91 flights that are conducted specifically for the Aircraft Owner, who has Operational Control?
The Aircraft Owner
What was the first Single-Pilot Jet certificated by the FAA?
The Cessna Citation
Which response best describes the difference between the Director of Maintenance duties and the Chief Inspector / Quality Assurance Manager duties?
The Director of Maintenance is responsible for work being completed on fleet aircraft and the Chief Inspector is responsible for checking that work.
Which Responsible Executive is responsible for issuing the operator's General Operations Manual?
The Director of Operations
Which response is most accurate regarding the required qualifications for the Director of Safety?
The Director of Safety requires no pilot certificate, no maintenance certificate an has no specific qualifications requirements under 14 CFR Part 119.67 but must complete New-Hire Basic Indoctrination Training.
A Dry Lease may be defined as:
The Lease Agreement ofr an aircraft that does not include crew.
What is the best definition of the term "Airworthy"?
The aircraft confirms to its type design and is in a condition for safe operation.
The FAA originally approved Single-Pilot flying of jets by certifying the:
The aircraft.
What does Accelerate-Go Distance mean?
The amount of runway required to accelerate to V1, lose an engine, and continue to takeoff to the the obstacle clearance altitude.
Critical Engine is best defined as follows:
The engine, when failed, most adversely affects the aerodynamic control of the aircraft.
Which best describes Operational Control?
The exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, and terminating a flight and Operational Control may be broken down into passive control and active control.
What process is used to ensure that any given manual is properly maintained and contains up-to-date information?
The manual(s) must contain a List of Effective Pages (LOEP) that shows the applicable effective dates of every page.
The number of onboard handheld fire extinguishers required on Transport Category Aircraft is based on:
The number of installed passenger seats.
What element is required to be listed in the air carrier's approved training program?
The number of programmed training curriculum hours in each category.
Which answer is most accurate regarding the operating manuals the FAA requires of Part 121 and Part 135 operators?
The operating manual required for Part 121 and Part 135 operators must be issued to safety-critical personnel and the FAA.
No person may serve as Pilot In Command unless that pilot has received a line check within:
The preceding 12 calendar months
Both the 1920's and 1930's saw a disastrous air safety record. Which statement is true related to aviation's safety record during this timeframe?
The use of airplanes rose from 6,000 in 1930 to 1.2 million by 1938
Which one of the 4 Climb Segments is the "Acceleration" segment?
Third
Transport category jet aircraft being produced today and used in Part 121 Domestic passenger carrying service but be equipped with a Landing Gear Aural Warning Device. This device must provide an aural warning to the pilots based on:
Throttle position and flap position.
Private carriage is distinguished from common carriage primarily by:
Transportation (carriage) of only one or a very small number of parties.
Both Part 121 and Part 135 flight attendants are required to attend annual training.
True
A deadhead leg that occurs after a flight segment is NOT considered part of a flight duty period.
True.
For passenger-carrying operators, flying cargo alone or flying unaccompanied baggage is prohibited.
True.
A Non-Ambulatory Person may be defined as:
Unable to egress unassisted.
A Domestic, Flag, Commuter, or On-Demand carrier's Operations Specifications are valid:
Until the air carrier fails to conduct the kind of approved operation for 30-days and does not give the FAA 5 days' notice before resuming operations.
Total Resource Management may be defined as:
Utilization of all resources available.
Place the following V-speeds in the correct order: - Rotate speed - Takeoff Safety Speed - Liftoff Speed - Takeoff Decision Speed
V1, VR, VLOF, V2
Intentional Risk Behavior means:
We know that certain activities are not safe; we knowingly increase risk by doing them.
What are WAT Limits?
Weight, Altitude, Temperature
Takeoff run must be accomplished:
Within the length of the runway.
If a flight crew needs to make a flight duty period (FDP) extension due to an unforeseen circumstance discovered after takeoff, are they allowed to exceed the cumulative FDP limits specified in 117.23?
Yes.
