Genetics Final Exam

The following two genotypes are crossed: CcSpaspaEe X CcSpaspaEe What will the probability be of having progeny with the ccSpa-ee phenotype? 3/4 27/64 3/16 1/64 3/64

3/64

Gametes... A produced during oogenesis include four primary oocytes. B produced during spermatogenesis include four haploid spermatids. C in animals are diploid. D produced by female animals include a secondary oocyte and polar bodies that all have equal amounts of cytoplasm.

B

Genetic diversity arises from which of the following? A. crossing over of sister chromatids B. independent assortment C. identical alleles D. All of the above E. A and B only

B

Sister chromatids... A are connected at the telomere. B separate during anaphase of mitosis. C separate during anaphase I. D are held together by adhesin.

B

Crossing over occurs during... A the tetrad stage of prophase II. B the terminalization stage of anaphase I. C the chiasma stage of prophase I. D the bivalent stage of prophase I.

C

Harlequin chromosomes are the result of what phenomenon? genetic anticipation A nondisjunction B complementation C sister-chromatid exchange D independent assortment

C

The lac I gene... A all of the responses are accurate. B codes for the inducer (I) of the lac operon. C product is allosterically regulated by lactose (allolactose). D product is a cis-acting protein. E is only expressed in merozygotes.

C

Epigenetic traits... A can be passed through mitosis but not meiosis. B are unstable. C involve changes to the nucleotide sequence of genes. D include traits that result from the action of non-coding RNAs. E none of the above.

D

During a normal cell cycle, which phase occurs immediately after S phase?

G2

What type of analysis compares genomes of thousands of unrelated individuals with a particular disorder to the genomes of those without the disorder in order to identify variations that confer risk of developing the disease? ELSI sc-RNA seq SNP RFLP GWAS PCR ASO

GWAS

Restriction fragment length polymorphisms

RF

The genotype of the mutant Drosophila parent in the first fly cross that you performed of the chromosome mapping experiment was which of the following? white-eyed, miniature-winged, forked bristle Xw+m+f+/Yw+m+f+ red-eyed, long winged, curved bristle Xwmf/Xwmf none of the above

Xwmf/Xwmf (mutant)

Alternative forms of a gene are most accurately called...

alleles

The accompanying sketch depicts a cell from an organism in which 2n = 2 and each chromosome is metacentric: Which of the following is the correct stage for this sketch? anaphase of mitosis anaphase of meiosis I telophase of mitosis anaphase of meiosis II telophase of meiosis II

anaphase of meiosis II

The condition that exists when an organism gains or loses one or more chromosomes but not a complete haploid set is known as ________. triploidy euploidy aneuploidy trisomy polyploidy

aneuploidy

Which of the following uses hardware and software for processing nucleotide and protein data?

bioinformatics

What is the term for the production of proteins in genetically modified plants and animals?

biopharming

a form of genetic drift, occurs when a population size is drastically reduced in size, could be due to natural disaster or other, tends to drastically change the allelic frequencies in the population

bottleneck effect

Multiple mutations within the same gene belong to the same _________________ group.

complementation

What do the double lines mean in a pedigree?

consanguineous marriage

Alleles that differ by as little as a single nucleotide can be distinguished by synthetic probes known as antigen-sensitive oligonucleotides (ASOs). True False

false

The cultivated American cotton plant has multiple copies of the genome contributed from the Old World strain and from the wild American strain; consequently, the cultivated cotton is accurately said to be autopolyploid. True False

false

In Drosophila an X:A ratio of 1.00 indicates an individual of what sex?

female

What does this pedigree diagram depict?

female heterozygous carrier

Random change in allelic frequency in a population due to chance is called... natural selection. mutation migration genetic drift. non-random mating.

genetic drift

More than 1000 mutations in the CFTR gene can cause Cystic Fibrosis (CF). Which test would be most useful in identifying carriers of CF? Genotyping microarray Gene expression microarray Genome-wide association study Whole exome sequencing Individual genome sequencing

genotyping microarray

Which term is used to describe cells with a variable mixture of normal and abnormal organelles? heteroduplex heteroplasmy heterozygous polygamy merozygosity

heteroplasmy

Pre-zygotic isolating mechanisms include each of the following except: behavioral incompatibility mechanical isolation ecological isolation temporal isolation hybrid sterility

hybrid sterility

(For inheritance of disease osteogenesis imperfecta/OI) However, some people can carry the mutation but have no symptoms. Thus, families can unknowingly transmit the mutation from one generation to the next through someone who carries the mutation but does not express the OI phenotype. This is an example of which of the following? variable expressivity incomplete penetrance incomplete dominance epistasis

incomplete penetrance

Translocations, aneuploidy, chromosome loss, DNA amplification, and chromosomal deletions are hallmarks of ... somatic cells. heteroplasmy. mutator phenotype. genomic stability.

mutator phenotype

The failure of chromosomes to separate properly during meiosis is best referred to as: _______________

nondisjunction

hypothesis that assumes that there is no statistical difference between the expected values and the observed values; if it is rejected it indicates that there is a statistical difference between the expected and observed values and the results were not due to chance (there are other factors/forces interfering with the data), if it is failed to be rejected it will still assume there is no difference between the data and any data collected was due to chance alone

null hypothesis

In the lac operon, lacY encodes for which of the following? beta-galactosidase operator permease transacetylase promoter

permease

Which of the following is the phenotype of the F1 plants we are using for the Mendelian inheritance experiment?

purple stem

Which of the following techniques allows investigators to analyze the number of genes present within a cell as well as the expression levels of those genes in the same cell? scRNA-seq Gene-expression microarrays GWAS ELSI

scRNA-seq

Traits that are controlled by autosomal genes and appear in one sex but not the other are called ... y-linked traits. x-linked traits. sex limited traits. sex influenced traits.

sex limited traits

Fill-in-the blank: The probability of obtaining any single outcome, where that outcome can be achieved by two or more events, is equal to the_________ of the individual probabilities of all such events sum product dividend quotient

sum

Which branch of biology aims to design and build new biological systems? Systems biology Pharmacogenomics Synthetic biology RNA seq Bioinformatics

synthetic biology

Fragile-X syndrome is a dominant mental retardation trait. True False

true

Subunits of a virus or bacterium can be expressed by recombinant DNA techniques for the development of a vaccine. The hepatitis B vaccine was developed this way. True False

true

Duplication mutations of a region of a chromosome are thought to arise from which of the following? ionizing radiation exposure unequal crossing over depletion of folic acid chromosome breakage without rejoining

unequal crossing over

Investigators analyze a representative sample of the population consisting of 100 individuals. Their data follows a theoretical normal distribution. What is the probability that a given individual will fall within 2 standard deviations of the mean?

95%

Analysis of the covariance between infant head circumference and IQ yields a correlation coefficient of 0.7. Which of the following is the correct interpretation? A Head circumference and IQ are directly correlated. B Head circumference and IQ are inversely correlated. C Large head circumference causes high IQ. D High IQ causes large head circumference. E Small head circumference causes high IQ.

A

Assume that a cross is made between red-eyed, normal-winged fruit flies and fruit flies with white eyes and no wings. The resulting F2 offspring are all red-eyed with normal wings, or wingless with white eyes. This is consistent with: A complete linkage B hemizygosity C complementation D incomplete dominance E independent assortment

A

Cri-du-chat is the result of... A deletion of part of a chromosome. B a pericentric chromosomal inversion. C duplication of part of a chromosome. D unequal crossing over.

A

In phylogenetic trees... A common ancestors are shown at nodes. B common ancestors are shown at roots. C common ancestors are shown at branches. D common ancestors are shown at tips. E none of the choices are accurate.

A

Preferential mating between dissimilar genotypes... A. is called negative assortive mating. B. is called positive assortive mating. C. ,like other forms of non-random mating, changes allelic frequencies in a population without modifying genotypic frequencies. D. A and C only. E. B and C only.

A

Which of the following epigenetic modifications appear to occur in many cancer cells? A. global hypomethylation B. selective hypermethylation of proto-oncogenes/oncogenes C. hypomethylation of tumor suppressor genes D. all of the above E. B and C only

A

Which of the following is an example of a real-life genetically modified organism? mastitis resistant dairy cows that express anti-microbial lysostaphin. golden rice, naturally fortified with antibiotics to prevent diarrheal diseases in children. transgenic mosquitos with heavy-metal-inducible red fluorescent protein zebrafish engineered to limit the spread of Zika

A

Yellow seed coat color (Y) is dominant to green seed coat color (y) and round seed shape (R) is dominant to wrinkled seed shape (r). In a dihybrid testcross involving these traits... A one of the parents is of a known genotype, yyrr. B the parent of unknown genotype has the recessive phenotype for both of the traits. C the progeny of the testcross will always occur in a 1:1:1:1 ratio. D the progeny of the testcross must have their DNA sequenced to understand the genotypes of the parents. E one of the potential genotypes of the parent in question is Yyrr.

A

Dosage compensation results in which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A mosaicism B random Lyonization C formation of Barr bodies D gene linkage E genetic anticipation F Y-chromosome silencing

A,B,C

Evidence in support of the clonal origin of cancer includes which of the following? (select all that apply) A X chromosome inactivation B incidence of cancer increases with age C capacity for self-renewal D reciprocal translocations

A,D

Which of the following are reasons to generate transgenic crops? Select all that apply. A increase nutritional value B select for glyphosate-resistant weeds. C generate new allergens D herbicide or pest resistance E drought resistance F increase yield

A,D,E,F

Which of the following correctly describes CAR T cell therapy? engineering T cells to express Herceptin expression of neoantigen-specific chimeric antigen receptors in T cells adoptive transfer of tumor infiltrating lymphocytes expression of chimeric antigen receptors in cancer cells

B

Which of the following statements is(are) true? A In plants sporophytes are haploid. B In plants sporophyte and gametophyte stages alternate. C all of the responses are true. D In plants gametophytes are diploid.

B

Which statement is true? A Non-human organisms are not used as models for human diseases. B Model organisms usually produce many offspring. C Model organisms are difficult to grow. D Model organisms typically have long life cycles.

B

The human ABO blood types are an example of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A epigenetics B multiple allelic series C codominance D dominant/recessive genes E incomplete dominance

B,C,D

Which of the following are tools used in human chromosome mapping (both past and present)? (Select all that apply.) A harlequin chromosomes B microsatellites C LOD score analysis D nondisjunction E complementation groups F three-point testcross G restriction fragment length polymorphism H single nucleotide polymorphism

B,C,G,H

Methylation of DNA as an epigenetic mechanism... A. is catalyzed by HATs and HDACs. B. involves the addition of methyl groups to guanines in CpG islands. C. transcriptionally silences the genes that are methylated. D. all of the above. E. B and C only.

C

The first carcinogenic virus to be discovered was Rous sarcoma virus (RSV), which transmits sarcomas in chickens. Given that RSV has an RNA genome and encodes reverse transcriptase, it is most likely that RSV is ... A an activating provirus. B HTLV-1 C an acute transforming retrovirus. D carrying a cell-derived tumor suppressor gene.

C

Which of the following is the evidence that best supports the multistep, multi-mutation nature of cancer? A reciprocal translocations B immediate development of malignancies after carcinogen exposure C incidence of most cancers increases with age D X chromosome inactivation

C

Which of the following statements is(are) true? A. miRNAs are methyl inhibitory RNAs. B. miRNAs associate with protein complexes to increase gene transcription. C. miRNAs are short, non-coding RNAs that act as one kind of epigenetic mechanism. D. all of the above. E. A and C only.

C

Klinefelter and Turner syndromes provided evidence for ... A X chromosome determines femaleness. B genomic imprinting. C genetic anticipation. D Y chromosome determines maleness. E X:Y ratio determines human sex.

D

Mendel's first postulate (as discussed in the text and Power Point lecture)... A is independent assortment. B is segregation. C is dominance and recessiveness. D is unit factors exist in pairs.

D

The Agouti viable yellow allele... A. causes yellow fur and obesity if its promoter is unmethylated. B. causes brown fur and reduced weight when its promoter is methylated. C. in pregnant mice fed methylation precursors (like folic acid) demonstrates that diet can epigenetically alter gene expression. D. all of the above. E. A and B only.

D

The F factor... A is transferred from an F- to an F+ cell. B is transferred from a bacteriophage to a host bacterium during lysogeny. C is called the functionality factor. D can sometimes integrate into the host chromosome to produce an Hfr strain. E is transferred from a bacteriophage to a host bacterium during the lytic cycle.

D

Which of the following epigenetic modifications that would be most likely to result in a cancer cell? A X chromosome inactivation. B Histone core modifications such as sumoylation. C Hypermethylation and silencing of a proto-oncogene. D Hypermethylation of a tumor-suppressor gene.

D

Which of the following is a purpose of the Punnett square? A Display of different information than that possible through a branch diagram B Although useful for genotype prediction, progeny phenotypes can not be predicted through a Punnett square C Visualize just the most probable fertilization events in a given cross D Visualize genotypes of all possible progeny in a given cross

D

Which of the following is likely an example of incomplete dominance? A A white Andalusian chicken is bred with a black Andalusian hen and produces albino offspring. B A white Andalusian chicken is bred with a black Andalusian hen and produces male offspring with black plumage and female offspring with white plumage. C A white Andalusian chicken is bred with a black Andalusian hen and produces offspring with black heads and white wings. D A white Andalusian chicken is bred with a black Andalusian hen and produces offspring with grey plumage.

D

lncRNAs... A. bind to chromatin-modifying enzymes. B. affect chromatin modification and hence gene expression. C. can act as decoys, guides, adapters, or enhancers. D. all of the above. E. B and C only.

D

Which of the following statements is(are) true? A. The one gene-one enzyme hypothesis was initially modified due to findings showing that not all proteins are enzymes. B. The one gene-one enzyme hypothesis was modified in part from studies that showed the multi-subunit nature of hemoglobin. C. Most recent in time, the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis has been modified to account for functional RNA products of some genes. D. All of the above are true. E. A and C only.

D (all of the above)

Histone acetylation... A. makes the associated DNA less accessible to transcription factors. B. opens up chromatin structure. C. is catalyzed by a transferase that adds acetyl groups to histone proteins. D. all of the above. E. B and C only.

E

Imprinting... A. is reprogrammed during gamete formation. B. often involves genes that direct aspects of growth during prenatal development. C. is not considered a form of monoallelic gene expression. D. all of the above. E. A and B only.

E

Inbreeding... A. is the mating of unrelated individuals. B. is a form of non-random mating. C. taken to the extreme results in a population of only homozygotes. D. all of the above. E. B and C only.

E

Polydactyly in cats is caused by a dominant gene and results in one or more extra toes on one or more paws. This is an example of which of the following? A codominance B incomplete penetrance C epistasis D incomplete dominance E both variable expressivity and incomplete penetrance variable expressivity

E

Stabilizing selection... A. involves selection for both phenotypic extremes. B. involves selection for intermediate types. C. involves selection for one of the extreme phenotypes. D. is seen in human baby birth weight data. E. B and D only.

E

When a population expands from a small number of ancestors, as demonstrated by the islanders of Tristan da Cunha and the Navajo, which of the following is said to have occurred? A. the founder effect B. limited succession C. a form of genetic drift D. all of the above E. A and C only

E

Which of the following statements are true of cytokinesis in plant cells? A. The plasma membrane of the parent cell grows inward, eventually joining with the cell plate. B. The cell plate consists of the plasma membrane and cell wall that will eventually separate the two daughter cells. C. After chromosome separation is complete, a network of microfilaments forms near the plane of cell division that will separate the two new cells. D. Vesicles from the Golgi apparatus move along microtubules, coalesce at the plane of cell division, and form a cell plate. E. B and D only.

E

Which one of the following statements is true? A The F factor is part of the transduction process. B Transduction is not used to map bacterial genes. C Transformation involves the uptake of small pieces of DNA by bacteriophages. D Bacteriophages participate in bacterial transformation. E Bacterial conjugation involves direct cell-to-cell contact.

E

Which of the following statements is (are) true? Development involves major changes in gene expression. Specification occurs earlier in time than differentiation. Determination is one phase of development. Differentiation is a process by which a cell achieves its final form and function. All of the above are true.

all of the above

In the Beadle and Tatum experimental design discussed in lecture what did the experiments study in strains of bacteria?

different intermediates of the metabolic pathway

The West African black-bellied seedcracker finch exists in 2 primary forms: thick-beaked and thin-beaked. Which type(s) of selection does this demonstrate? disruptive directional both disruptive and directional stabilizing both directional and stabilizing

disruptive

includes: maternal-effect inheritance > occurs when the phenotype of the individual depends upon the phenotype of the mother, not its genotype (ex: snails) mitochondrial/chloroplast inheritance > individuals only receive mitochondria and chloroplasts from their mother (mtDNA and cpDNA) infectious heredity > organisms can inherit DNA from a virus

extranuclear inheritance

Adoptive cell transfer of tumor infiltrating lymphocytes requires engineering recombinant genes. True False

false

Formation of the CAP-cAMP complex is greatest under conditions of high glucose. True False

false

In 2013, the United States Supreme Court ruled that under some circumstances patents may be held on natural gene sequences. True False

false

The development pattern in flowering plants is under the control of HOX proteins. True False

false (it's under MADS proteins)

Mitochondrial DNA is less susceptible to mutation than nuclear DNA due to histone packaging and low exposure to reactive oxygen species. True False

false (more likely to mutate!)

An individual organism's genetic contribution to the future generation is a term designated as "w." What is the name for this term? Darwinian quotient fitness survival ratio reproducibility fecundity

fitness

Which choice below involves the use of naturally occurring mutations or induced mutations to alter phenotype and identify the responsible gene so that it can be sequenced?

forward genetics

order of zygotic genes in Drosophila

gap genes > pair-rule genes > polarity genes > homeotic genes

assumes that a population is not changing, the allelic frequencies stay the same for every generation 5 assumptions: -no mutations -random mating -infinitely large population -no selection -no migration

hardy-weinburg equilibrium

What does this pedigree diagram depict?

male proband

Fill-in-the blank: The probability of two or more events occurring simultaneously is equal to the _________ of their individual probabilities. quotient sum product dividend

product

in normal cells, these genes promote cell growth and division, when they mutate they become oncogenes which are kept on for transcription 24/7 so cancerous cells can continue growing and dividing indefinitely *gain of function mutation!

proto-oncogene

in normal cells, these genes regulate the checkpoints in the cell cycle to make sure the cell is ready to divide and does not have any mutations/issues in the cell, also regulates apoptosis, when they mutate the cell can no longer regulate its checkpoints or check for mutations so it flies right through the cell cycle to divide, cell can no longer undergo apoptosis even when it is heavily mutated, ex: p53, *loss of function mutation!

tumor suppressor gene