HESI ADULT HEALTH

To ensure the correct amount of oxygen delivery for a patient receiving 35% oxygen via a Venturi mask, it is most important that the nurse: A. keep the air-entrainment ports clean and unobstructed. B. apply an adaptor to increase humidification of the oxygen. C. drain moisture condensation from the oxygen tubing every hour. D. keep the flow rate high enough to keep the bag from collapsing during inspiration.

A. keep the air-entrainment ports clean and unobstructed. Oxygen is delivered to a small jet in the center of a wide-based cone. Air is entrained (pulled through) openings in the cone as oxygen flows through the small jet. The degree of restriction or narrowness of the jet determines the amount of entrainment and the dilution of pure oxygen with room air and thus the concentration of oxygen. Although applying an adaptor can increase the humidification with the Venturi mask, it is not the best answer, because an open port is essential to proper functioning. Draining moisture condensation from the oxygen tubing is performed as often as needed, not on an hourly schedule. A plastic face mask with a reservoir bag needs to have sufficient flow rate to keep the bag inflated.

To ensure the correct amount of oxygen delivery for a patient receiving 35% oxygen via a Venturi mask, it is most important that the nurse: A. keep the air-entrainment ports clean and unobstructed. B. apply an adaptor to increase humidification of the oxygen. C. drain moisture condensation from the oxygen tubing every hour. D. keep the flow rate high enough to keep the bag from collapsing during inspiration.

A. keep the air-entrainment ports clean and unobstructed. Oxygen is delivered to a small jet in the center of a wide-based cone. Air is entrained (pulled through) openings in the cone as oxygen flows through the small jet. The degree of restriction or narrowness of the jet determines the amount of entrainment and the dilution of pure oxygen with room air and thus the concentration of oxygen. Although applying an adaptor can increase the humidification with the Venturi mask, it is not the best answer, because an open port is essential to proper functioning. Draining moisture condensation from the oxygen tubing is performed as often as needed, not on an hourly schedule. A plastic face mask with a reservoir bag needs to have sufficient flow rate to keep the bag inflated.

While caring for a patient with respiratory disease, a nurse observes that the oxygen saturation drops from 94% to 85% when the patient ambulates. The nurse should determine that: A. supplemental oxygen should be used when the patient exercises. B. ABG determinations should be done to verify the oxygen saturation reading. C. this finding is a normal response to activity and that the patient should continue to be monitored. D. the oximetry probe should be moved from the finger to the earlobe for an accurate oxygen saturation measurement during activity.

A. supplemental oxygen should be used when the patient exercises. An oxygen saturation lower than 90% indicates inadequate oxygenation. If the drop is related to activity of some type, supplemental oxygen is indicated.

If a patient states, "It's hard for me to breathe and I feel short-winded all the time," what is the most appropriate terminology to be applied in documenting this assessment by a nurse? A. Apnea B. Dyspnea C. Tachypnea D. Respiratory fatigue

B. Dyspnea Dyspnea is a subjective description reflective of the patient's statement indicating difficulty in breathing. Apnea refers to absence of breath or breathing. Tachypnea refers to an increased rate of breathing, usually greater than 20 breaths per minute. Respiratory fatigue is subjective and usually refers to the patient exhibiting signs and symptoms associated with a comprehensive respiratory assessment including laborious breathing, use of accessory muscles, and slowing of respirations.

Which of the following nursing interventions is of the highest priority in helping a patient expectorate thick secretions related to pneumonia? A. Humidify the oxygen as able B. Increase fluid intake to 3L/day if tolerated. C. Administer cough suppressant q4hr. D. Teach patient to splint the affected area.

B. Increase fluid intake to 3L/day if tolerated. Although several interventions may help the patient expectorate mucus, the highest priority should be on increasing fluid intake, which will liquefy the secretions so that the patient can expectorate them more easily. Humidifying the oxygen is also helpful, but is not the primary intervention. Teaching the patient to splint the affected area may also be helpful, but does not liquefy the secretions so that they can be removed.

Two hours before a client's scheduled surgery, the nurse is completing the preoperative checklist. Which information requires the most immediate action by the nurse? A. Surgical consent form is not signed B. Preoperative serum potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L (2.8mmol/L) C.Preoperative chest x-ray report is not available D. Client's pulse oximeter reading is 96%

B. Preoperative serum potassium level is 2.8 mEq/L (2.8mmol/L)

The nurse is caring for a 73-year-old patient who underwent a left total knee arthroplasty. On the third postoperative day, the patient complains of shortness of breath, slight chest pain, and that "something is wrong." Temperature is 98.4o F, blood pressure 130/88, respirations 36, and oxygen saturation 91% on room air. Which of the following should the nurse first suspect as the etiology of this episode? A. Septic embolus from the knee joint B. Pulmonary embolus from deep vein thrombosis C. New onset of angina pectoris D. Pleural effusion related to positioning in the operating room

B. Pulmonary embolus from deep vein thrombosis. The patient presents the classic symptoms of pulmonary embolus: acute onset of symptoms, tachypnea, shortness of breath, and chest pain.

If a patient with an uncuffed tracheostomy tube coughs violently during suctioning and dislodges the tracheostomy tube, a nurse should first: A. call the physician. B. attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube. C. position the patient in a lateral position with the neck extended. D. cover the stoma with a sterile dressing and ventilate the patient with a manual bag-mask until the physician arrives.

B. attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube. Retention sutures may be grasped (if present) and the tracheostomy opening spread, or a hemostat may be used to spread the opening. The obturator is inserted into the replacement tube (one size smaller than the original tube), lubricated with saline solution, and inserted into the stoma at a 45-degree angle to the neck. If the attempt is successful, the obturator tube should immediately be removed.

A male client who reports feeling chronically fatigued has a hemoglobin of 11.0 grams/dl (110mmol/L), hematocrit of 34%, and microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells (RBCs). Based on these findings, which dinner selection should the nurse suggest to the client?

Beef steak with steamed broccoli and orange slices

Which of the following statements made by a nurse would indicate proper teaching principles regarding feeding and tracheostomies? A. "Follow each spoon of food consumed with a drink of fluid." B. "Thin your foods to a liquid consistency whenever possible." C. "Tilt your chin forward toward the chest when swallowing your food." D. "Make sure your cuff is overinflated before eating if you have swallowing problems."

C. "Tilt your chin forward toward the chest when swallowing your food." A nurse should instruct a patient to tilt the chin toward the chest, which will close the glottis and allow food to enter the normal passageway. Ideally, foods should be of a thick consistency to enable effective swallowing and reduce the risk of aspiration. Overinflation of the cuff causes swallowing difficulties. Fluids should be consumed in small amounts after swallowing to prevent the risk of aspiration.

The nurse is caring for an immobile client after spinal surgery. Which action is most important for the nurse to take to prevent postoperative complications?

C. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression devices

Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find during assessment of a patient admitted with pneumococcal pneumonia? A. Hyperresonance on percussion B. Fine crackles in all lobes on auscultation C. Increased vocal fremitus on palpation D. Vesicular breath sounds in all lobes

C. Increased vocal fremitus on palpation. A typical physical examination finding for a patient with pneumonia is increased vocal fremitus on palpation. Other signs of pulmonary consolidation include dullness to percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and crackles in the affected area.

While ambulating a patient with metastatic lung cancer, the nurse observes a drop in oxygen saturation from 93% to 86%. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate based upon these findings? A. Continue with ambulation as this is a normal response to activity. B. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe for more accurate monitoring during activity. C. Obtain a physician's order for supplemental oxygen to be used during ambulation and other activity. D. Obtain a physician's order for arterial blood gas determinations to verify the oxygen saturation.

C. Obtain a physician's order for supplemental oxygen to be used during ambulation and other activity. An oxygen saturation level that drops below 90% with activity indicates that the patient is not tolerating the exercise and needs to have supplemental oxygen applied.

A 71-year-old patient is admitted with acute respiratory distress related to cor pulmonale. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate during admission of this patient? A. Delay any physical assessment of the patient and review with the family the patient's history of respiratory problems. B. Perform a comprehensive health history with the patient to review prior respiratory problems. C. Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress. D. Complete a full physical examination to determine the effect of the respiratory distress on other body functions.

C. Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress. Because the patient is having respiratory difficulty, the nurse should ask specific questions about this episode and perform a physical assessment of this system. Further history taking and physical examination of other body systems can proceed once the patient's acute respiratory distress is being managed.

If a nurse is assessing a patient whose recent blood gas determination indicated a pH of 7.32 and respirations are measured at 32 breaths/min, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing assessment? A. The rapid breathing is causing the low pH. B. The nurse should sedate the patient to slow down respirations. C. The rapid breathing is an attempt to compensate for the low pH. D. The nurse should give the patient a paper bag to breathe into to correct the low pH.

C. The rapid breathing is an attempt to compensate for the low pH. The respiratory system influences pH (acidity) through control of carbon dioxide exhalation. Thus, rapid breathing increases the pH. Breathing into a paper bag aids a patient who is hyperventilating; in respiratory alkalosis, it aids in lowering the pH. The use of sedation can cause respiratory depression and hypoventilation, resulting in an even lower pH.

A nurse establishes the presence of a tension pneumothorax when assessment findings reveal a(n): A. absence of lung sounds on the affected side. B. inability to auscultate tracheal breath sounds. C. deviation of the trachea toward the side opposite the pneumothorax. D. shift of the point of maximal impulse (PMI) to the left, with bounding pulses.

C. deviation of the trachea toward the side opposite the pneumothorax. Tension pneumothorax is caused by rapid accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing severely high intrapleural pressure. This results in collapse of the lung, and the mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected side, which is subsequently compressed.

Upon entering the room of a patient who has just returned from surgery for total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection, a nurse should recognize a need for intervention when finding: A. a gastrostomy tube that is clamped. B. the patient coughing blood-tinged secretions from the tracheostomy. C. the patient positioned in a lateral position with the head of the bed flat. D. 200 ml of serosanguineous drainage in the patient's portable drainage device.

C. the patient positioned in a lateral position with the head of the bed flat. After total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection, a patient should be placed in a semi-Fowler's position to decrease edema and limit tension on the suture line.

A client who fractured the right femur from a fall at home is placed in a skeletal traction while awaiting surgery. When the client tells the nurse the need to urinate, which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Insert an indwelling catheter preoperatively B.Release the traction so the client can use a bedpan C. Log roll the client and place adult disposable briefs beneath the clien D. Maintain traction while the client uses a female urinal

D. Maintain traction while the client uses a female urinal

When planning appropriate nursing interventions for a patient with metastatic lung cancer and a 60-pack-year history of cigarette smoking, the nurse recognizes that the smoking has most likely decreased the patient's underlying respiratory defenses because of impairment of which of the following? A. Reflex bronchoconstriction B. Ability to filter particles from the air C. Cough reflex D. Mucociliary clearance

D. Mucociliary clearance Smoking decreases the ciliary action in the tracheobronchial tree, resulting in impaired clearance of respiratory secretions, chronic cough, and frequent respiratory infections.

After several days of coughing and taking acetaminophen to treat temperature of 101 F, a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) is admitted to the hospital with an upper respiratory infection. Several hours after admission, the client reports having a severe headache and feeling dizzy. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Reassess vital signs B. Administer an antipyretic C. Obtain a sputum for culture D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose

D. Obtain a fingerstick glucose

Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate to enhance oxygenation in a patient with unilateral malignant lung disease? A. Positioning patient on right side. B. Maintaining adequate fluid intake C. Performing postural drainage every 4 hours D. Positioning patient with "good lung down"

D. Positioning patient with "good lung down" Therapeutic positioning identifies the best position for the patient assuring stable oxygenation status. Research indicates that positioning the patient with the unaffected lung (good lung) dependent best promotes oxygenation in patients with unilateral lung disease. For bilateral lung disease, the right lung down has best ventilation and perfusion. Increasing fluid intake and performing postural drainage will facilitate airway clearance, but positioning is most appropriate to enhance oxygenation.

After admitting a patient to the medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia, the nurse will verify that which of the following physician orders have been completed before administering a dose of cefotetan (Cefotan) to the patient? A. Serum laboratory studies ordered for AM B. Pulmonary function evaluation C. Orthostatic blood pressures D. Sputum culture and sensitivity

D. Sputum culture and sensitivity The nurse should ensure that the sputum for culture and sensitivity was sent to the laboratory before administering the cefotetan. It is important that the organisms are correctly identified (by the culture) before their numbers are affected by the antibiotic; the test will also determine whether the proper antibiotic has been ordered (sensitivity testing). Although antibiotic administration should not be unduly delayed while waiting for the patient to expectorate sputum, all of the other options will not be affected by the administration of antibiotics.

When administering oxygen to a patient with COPD with the potential for carbon dioxide narcosis, the nurse should: A. never administer oxygen at a rate of more than 2 L/min. B. monitor the patient's use of oxygen to detect oxygen dependency. C. monitor the patient for symptoms of oxygen toxicity, such as paresthesias. D. use ABGs as a guide to determine what FIO2 level meets the patient's needs.

D. use ABGs as a guide to determine what FIO2 level meets the patient's needs. It is critical to start oxygen at low flow rates and then use ABGs as a guide to determine what FIO2 level is sufficient and can be tolerated.

A nurse is caring for a client who has emphysema and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The client appears anxious and restless and the high-pressure alarm is sounding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. ABG B. Propofol C. Instruct the client to allow the machine to breathe for them D. Disconnect and bag manually

Instruct the client to allow the machine to breath for them. Provide verbal instruction and emotional support to help the client relax and allow the ventilator to work. Client can exhibit anxiety and restlessness when trying to "fight the ventilator"

Your patient is admitted from the ED with failure to thrive and advanced dementia. You note he is extremely underweight, appears unbathed for some time, and has a stage 4 pressure injury to his coccyx. You were told in report that he lives at home with family members. What should you do?

Notify the charge nurse and social worker of your concerns.

The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) orally. The nurse reviews the patient's prothrombin time (PT) level to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication. The nurse should also evaluate which of the following laboratory values? a) International normalized ratio (INR) b) Partial thromboplastic time (PTT) c) Sodium d) Complete blood count (CBC)

a) International normalized ratio (INR) The INR, reported with the PT, provides a standard method for reporting PT levels and eliminates the variation of PT results from different laboratories. The INR, rather than the PT alone, is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin. The therapeutic range for INR is 2 to 3.5, although specific ranges vary based on diagnosis. The other laboratory values are not used to evaluate the effectiveness of Coumadin.

The nurse is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with adrenocortical insufficiency. The client is experiencing chronic fatigue and weakness. Which intervention should the nurse implement? a. Begin education about fluid restriction and ways to incorporate into ongoing therapy b. Explain that the hormone therapy will be needed for a time until adrenal glands are stimulated c. Provide encouragement that symptoms will rapidly improve as hormone therapy is initiated d. Advise the client to schedule energy intensive activities for later in the day

b. Explain that the hormone therapy will be needed for a time until adrenal glands are stimulated

The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6 F(34.8*C), a pulse rate of 88 beast/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement? a. Take the client's temperature using another method. b. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees. c. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe. d. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.

b. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees

An older client with long term type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) is seen in the clinic for a routine health assessment. Which assessments would the nurse complete to determine if a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) is experiencing long term complications? SATA a. Signs of respiratory tract infection b. Serum creatine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Skin condition of lower extremities d. Sensation in feet and legs e. Visual acuity

b. Serum creatine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Skin condition of lower extremities d. Sensation in feet and legs e. Visual acuity

After three days of persistent epigastric pain, a female client presents to the clinic. She has been taking oral antacids without relief. Her vital signs are heart rate 122 beats/min. respiration 16 breaths/min. oxygen saturation 96%, and blood pressure 116/70 mmhg. The nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which assessment finding is most crucial? a. Irregular pulse rate b. Complaint of radiating jaw pain c. St elevation in three leads d. Bile colored emesis

c. St elevation in three leads

A client with orthopnea expresses concern about the ability to "get enough air" during a scheduled thoracentesis. On which information should the nurse's response be based? a. a thoracentesis is a brief procedure that has minimal discomfort b. orthopnea is frequently caused by a client's uncontrolled anxiety c. the procedure is performed with the client in an upright position d. extra pillows can be used if needed to elevate the client's head

c. the procedure is performed with the client in an upright position

The nurse is teaching the client about home blood glucose monitoring. Which of the following blood glucose measurements indicates hypoglycemia? 1. 59 mg/dL (3.3 mmol/L). 2. 75 mg/dL (4.2 mmol/L). 3. 108 mg/dL (6 mmol/L). 4. 119 mg/dL (6.6 mmol/L).

1 Although some individual variation exists, when the blood glucose level decreases to less than 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L), the client experiences or is at risk for hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia can occur in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus, although it is more common when the client is taking insulin. The nurse should instruct the client on the prevention, detection, and treatment of hypoglycemia.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"I will monitor my blood pressure while taking this medication." Rationale: The client should monitor their blood pressure while taking this medication because hypertension is a common adverse effect and can lead to hypertensive encephalopathy.

The client with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is at risk for infection. The nurse should: 1. Place the client in a private room. 2. Have the client wear a mask. 3. Have staff wear gowns and gloves. 4. Restrict visitors

1 Clients with ALL are at risk for infection due to granulocytopenia. The nurse should place the client in a private room. Strict hand-washing procedures should be enforced and will be the most effective way to prevent infection. It is not necessary to have the client wear a mask. The client is not contagious and the staff does not need to wear gloves. The client can have visitors; however, they should be screened for infection and use hand-washing procedures.

A client with diabetes is taking insulin lispro (Humalog) injections. The nurse should advise the client to eat: 1. Within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection. 2. 1 hour after the injection. 3. At any time, because timing of meals with lispro injections is unnecessary. 4. 2 hours before the injection.

1 Insulin lispro (Humalog) begins to act within 10 to 15 minutes and lasts approximately 4 hours. A major advantage of Humalog is that the client can eat almost immediately after the insulin is administered. The client needs to be instructed regarding the onset, peak, and duration of all insulin, as meals need to be timed with these parameters. Waiting 1 hour to eat may precipitate hypoglycemia. Eating 2 hours before the insulin lispro could cause hyperglycemia if the client does not have circulating insulin to metabolize the carbohydrate.

The best indicator that the client has learned how to give an insulin self injection correctly is when the client can: 1. Perform the procedure safely and correctly. 2. Critique the nurse's performance of the procedure. 3. Explain all steps of the procedure correctly. 4. Correctly answer a posttest about the procedure

1 The nurse should judge that learning has occurred from the evidence of a change in the client's behavior. A client who performs a procedure safely and correctly demonstrates that he has acquired a skill. Evaluation of this skill acquisition requires performance of that skill by the client with observation by the nurse. The client must also demonstrate cognitive understanding, as shown by the ability to critique the nurse's performance. Explaining the steps demonstrates acquisition of knowledge at the cognitive level only. A posttest does not indicate the degree to which the client has learned a psychomotor skill.

Which of the following individuals is most at risk for acquiring acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)? The client who is: 1. 4 to 12 years. 2. 20 to 30 years. 3. 40 to 50 years. 4. 60 to 70 years.

1 The peak incidence of ALL is at 4 years of age. ALL is uncommon after 15 years of age. The median age at incidence of CML is 40 to 50 years. The peak incidence of AML occurs at 60 years of age. Two-thirds of cases of chronic lymphocytic leukemia occur in clients older than 60 years of age.

Which of the following is an indication of a complication of septic shock? 1. Anaphylaxis. 2. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). 3. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). 4. Mitral valve prolapse.

2

Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus? 1. Inflamed, painful joints. 2. Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg. 3. Stooped appearance. 4. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL (90 g/L).

2 The client with diabetes mellitus is especially prone to hypertension due to atherosclerotic changes, which leads to problems of the microvascular and macrovascular systems. This can result in complications in the heart, brain, and kidneys. Heart disease and stroke are twice as common among people with diabetes mellitus as among people without the disease. Painful, inflamed joints accompany rheumatoid arthritis. A stooped appearance accompanies osteoporosis with narrowing of the vertebral column. A low hemoglobin concentration accompanies anemia, especially iron deficiency anemia and anemia of chronic disease.

The nurse identifies deficient knowledge when the client undergoing induction therapy for leukemia makes which of the following statements? 1. "I will pace my activities with rest periods." 2. "I can't wait to get home to my cat!" 3. "I will use warm saline gargle instead of brushing my teeth." 4. "I must report a temperature of 100°F (37.7°C)."

2 The nurse identifies that the client does not understand that contact with animals must be avoided because they carry infection and the induction therapy will destroy the client's white blood cells (WBCs). The induction therapy will cause anemia, and the client will experience fatigue and will have to pace activities with rest periods. Platelet production will be decreased, and the client will be at risk for bleeding tendencies; oral hygiene will have to be provided by using a warm saline gargle instead of brushing the teeth and gums. The client will be at risk for infection owing to the decrease in WBC production and should report a temperature of 100°F (37.8°C) or higher.

A nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who jogs daily about the preferred sites for insulin absorption. What is the most appropriate site for a client who jogs? 1. Arms. 2. Legs. 3. Abdomen. 4. Iliac crest.

3 If the client engages in an activity or exercise that focuses on one area of the body, that area may cause inconsistent absorption of insulin. A good regimen for a jogger is to inject the abdomen for 1 week and then rotate to the buttock. A jogger may have inconsistent absorption in the legs or arms with strenuous running. The iliac crest is not an appropriate site due to a lack of loose skin and subcutaneous tissue in that area.

The client who experiences angina has been told to follow a low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following meals would be best? 1. Hamburger, salad, and milkshake. 2. Baked liver, green beans, and coffee. 3. Spaghetti with tomato sauce, salad, and coffee. 4. Fried chicken, green beans, and skim milk

3 Pasta, tomato sauce, salad, and coffee would be the best selection for the client following a low-cholesterol diet. Hamburgers, milkshakes, liver, and fried foods tend to be high in cholesterol.

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be prescribed for the client with diabetes mellitus to reduce vascular changes and possibly prevent or delay development of: 1. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). 2. Pancreatic cancer. 3. Renal failure. 4. Cerebrovascular accident.

3 Renal failure frequently results from the vascular changes associated with diabetes mellitus. ACE inhibitors increase renal blood flow and are effective in decreasing diabetic nephropathy. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a complication of diabetes, nor is it prevented by ACE inhibitors. Pancreatic cancer is neither prevented by ACE inhibitors nor considered a complication of diabetes. Cerebrovascular accident is not directly prevented by ACE inhibitors, although management of hypertension will decrease vascular disease.

The nurse is planning care with a client with acute leukemia who has mucositis. The nurse should advise the client that after every meal and every 4 hours while awake the client should use: 1. Lemon-glycerin swabs. 2. A commercial mouthwash. 3. A saline solution. 4. A commercial toothpaste and brush

3 Simple rinses with saline or a baking soda and water solution are effective and moisten the oral mucosa. Commercial mouthwashes and lemon-glycerin swabs contain glycerin and alcohol, which are drying to the mucosa and should be avoided. Brushing after each meal is recommended, but every 4 hours may be too traumatic. During acute leukemia, the neutrophil and platelet counts are often low and a soft-bristle toothbrush, instead of the client's usual brush, should be used to prevent bleeding gums.

The client with acute leukemia and the health care team establish mutual client outcomes of improved tidal volume and activity tolerance. Which measure would be least likely to promote outcome achievement? 1. Ambulating in the hallway. 2. Sitting up in a chair. 3. Lying in bed and taking deep breaths. 4. Using a stationary bicycle in the room.

3 The client with acute leukemia experiences fatigue and deconditioning. Lying in bed and taking deep breaths will not help achieve the goals. The client must get out of bed to increase activity tolerance and improve tidal volume. Ambulating in the hall (using a HEPA filter mask if neutropenic) is a sensible activity and helps improve conditioning. Sitting up in a chair facilitates lung expansion. Using a stationary bicycle in the room allows the client to increase activity as tolerated.

Which of the following conditions is the most significant risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus? 1. Cigarette smoking. 2. High-cholesterol diet. 3. Obesity. 4. Hypertension.

3 The most important factor predisposing to the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus is obesity. Insulin resistance increases with obesity. Cigarette smoking is not a predisposing factor, but it is a risk factor that increases complications of diabetes mellitus. A high-cholesterol diet does not necessarily predispose to diabetes mellitus, but it may contribute to obesity and hyperlipidemia. Hypertension is not a predisposing factor, but it is a risk factor for developing complications of diabetes mellitus.

A nurse has two middle-aged clients who have a prescription to receive a blood transfusion of packed red blood cells at the same time. The first client's blood pressure dropped from the preoperative value of 120/80 mm Hg to a postoperative value of 100/50. The second client is hospitalized because he developed dehydration and anemia following pneumonia. After checking the patency of their IV lines and vital signs, what should the nurse do next? 1. Call for both clients' blood transfusions at the same time. 2. Ask another nurse to verify the compatibility of both units at the same time. 3. Call for and hang the first client's blood transfusion. 4. Ask another nurse to call for and hang the blood for the second client.

4

Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing septic shock? 1. Administering IV fluid replacement therapy as prescribed. 2. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours for all clients. 3. Monitoring red blood cell counts for elevation. 4. Maintaining asepsis of indwelling urinary catheters.

4

The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition? A. Has everyone at home already had varicella? B. Have the anti fungal creams been effective? C. Do your family members share combs and brushes? D. Do you have any dry patches on your feet and hands?

A. Has everyone at home already had varicella?

A client with Cushing's syndrome is recovering from an elective laparoscopic procedure. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Irregular apical pulse B. Pitting ankle edema C. Quarter size blood spot on dressing D. Purple marks on skin of the abdomen

A. Irregular apical pulse

A client is receiving chemotherapy for treatment of metastatic carcinoma. When monitoring the client for systemic side effects, which assessment finding warrants intervention by the nurse? A. Leukopenia B. Polycythemia C. Ascites D. Nystagmus

A. Leukopenia

While caring for a client with a full-thickness burn covering 40% of the body, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provide, the nurse should review which of the client's laboratory values? A. White blood cell count B. Blood pH level C. Platelet count D. Hematocrit

A. White blood cell count

A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching to a client following arthroscopic surgery. To prevent postoperative complications which of the following actions should be reinforced during the teaching?

Administer an opioid analgesic to the client 30 min prior to initiating CPM exercises.

A nurse is caring for a client 1 hr following cardiac catheterization. The nurse notes the formation of a hematoma at the insertion site and decreased pulse rate in the affected extremity. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority?

Apply firm pressure to the insertion site Rationale: The greatest risk to the client is bleeding. Therefore, the priority intervention is for the nurse to apply firm pressure to the hematoma to stop the bleeding.

The nurse prepares a teaching plan for an adult client with metabolic syndrome. Which findings should the nurse address to help the client reduce the risk for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease? (Select all that apply) A. Hypothyroidism B. Increased triglyceride levels C. Hyperglycemia D. Blood pressure of 150/96 E. Elevated high density lipoproteins F. Abdominal obesity

B, C, D, F

Following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), a client is discharged from the hospital with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which instruction is important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching plan? A. Avoid driving a car for 2 weeks B. Drink 3 liters of water each day C. Eliminate all spicy foods from your diet D. Clamp the catheter when taking a shower

B. Drink 3 liters of water each day

During discharge teaching for a 65-year-old patient with emphysema and pneumonia, which of the following vaccines should the nurse recommend the patient receive? A. S. aureus B. H. influenzae C. Pneumococcal D. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG)

C. Pneumococcal The pneumococcal vaccine is important for patients with a history of heart or lung disease, recovering from a severe illness, age 65 or over, or living in a long-term care facility.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a state III pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings contributes to delayed wound healing? A. WBC count 6000/mm B. BMI 24 C. Urine output 24 ml/hr D. Serum albumen 4.0 g/dl

C. Urine output of 25 ml/hr Rationale: Inadequate urine output can indicate dehydration, which can delay wound healing.

What is the best indication of an acute neurological problem?

Change in level of consciousness

Your patient with a known history of diabetes is displaying symptoms of diaphoresis, Cool skin, lethargy, And shakiness. What is your 1st action?

Check the patient's blood glucose level

Your patient is admitted with diverticulitis. What type of diet do you expect to be ordered for the patient?

Clear liquids

Your post op patient has a Jackson - Pratt drain in place. how do you ensure effective drain function?

Compress the drain, then plug the bulb to establish suction.

A nurse is preparing a client who has supraventricular tachycardia for elective cardioversion. Which of the following prescribed medications should the nurse instruct the client to withhold for 48 hr prior to cardioversion? A. Enoxaparin B. Metformin C. Diazepam D. Digoxin

D. Digoxin

Your patient has a non productive cough and presence of secretions in his tracheostomy. Prior to sectioning the patient, what should you do 1st?

Hyperoxygenate patient

Which of the following nursing diagnosis is most important for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease(COPD)

Impaired gas exchange

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following an upper gastrointestinal series with barium contrast. Which of the following information should the nurse provide?

Increase fluid intake Rationale: Increasing fluid intake will help to prevent constipation. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to increase fluid intake to facilitate the elimination of the barium used during the test.

Your patient takes regular insulin and NPH twice A-day for glucose control. What times should the patient be taught to be alert for signs of hypoglycemia?

Is late afternoon and early morning.

Dietary teaching for a patient with chronic renal failure should include choices that are:

Low potassium, low protein, moderate fat

What is a proton pump inhibitor, such as pantoprazole (protonix) used for?

Reduce gastric acid secretion

Is a patient with peritonitis Presents with tachycardia, hypotension , and dehydration. What other assessment finding would you anticipate as part of your physical assessment?

Severe abdominal pain or rebound tenderness

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following foot surgery and is not to bear weight on the operative foot. The nurse enters the room to discover the client hopped on one foot to the bathroom, using an IV pole for support. which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Tell the client to remain in the bathroom after toileting and obtain a wheelchair.

A nurse is assessing a client who has Graves disease. Which of the following images should indicate to the nurse that the client has exophthalmos?

The nurse should identify an outward protrusion of the eyes is exophthalmos a common finding of graves disease. An overproduction of the thyroid hormone causes edema of the extraocular muscle and increases fatty tissue behind the eye which results in the eyes protruding outward. Exophthalmos can cause the client to experience problems with vision including focusing on objects as well as pressure on the optic nerve.

A patient on warfarin(Coumadin/jantoven) has an INR of 6. Which medication would you anticipate administering?

Vitamin K

The home health nurse is evaluating a male client who manages his asthma and measures his peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). Today he is experiencing an acute exacerbation and tells the nurse his peer is 60% of his personal-best reading. He is experiencing expiratory and inspiratory wheezes and has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min. and oxygen saturation rate of 94% on room air. which PRN medication should the nurse instruct the client to use? a. Albuterol b. Salmeterol c. Oxygen d. Epinephrine

a. Albuterol 2.5 to 5 mg per nebulization

Which food is most important for the nurse to encourage a client with osteomalacia to include in a daily diet? a. Citrus fruits and juices b. Fortified milk and cereal c. Red meals and eggs d. Green leafy vegetables

b. Fortified milk and cereal

An adult client is admitted with flank pain and is diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. What is the priority nursing action? a. Auscultate for the presence of bowel sounds. b. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit c. Encourage turning and deep breathing d. Administer IV antibiotics as prescribed

d. Administer IV antibiotics as prescribed

The nurse teaching a client how to collect a sputum specimen. Which steps should the nurse instruct the client to follow when collecting sputum? a. Restrict fluids before expectorating the sputum specimen. b. Obtain the specimen before bedtime. c. Avoid mouth care prior to collecting the sputum. d. Breathe deeply, followed by coughing up the sputum

d. Breathe deeply, followed by coughing up the sputum

A nurse is teaching a client who has a family history of colorectal cancer. To help mitigate this risk, which of the following dietary alterations should the nurse recommend? A. Add full-fat yogurt to the diet. B. Add cabbage to the diet. C. Replace butter with coconut oil. D. Replace shellfish with red meat.

B. Add cabbage to the diet. To help reduce the risk for colorectal cancer, the client should consume a diet that is high in fiber, low in fat, and low in refined carbohydrates. Brassica vegetables, such as cabbage, cauliflower, and broccoli, are high in fiber.

The nurse is instructing the client on insulin administration. The client is performing a return demonstration for preparing the insulin. The client's morning dose of insulin is 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse checks the dose accuracy with the client. The nurse determines that the client has prepared the correct dose when the syringe reads how many units?

32 units

The nurse should caution the client with diabetes mellitus who is taking a sulfonylurea that alcoholic beverages should be avoided while taking these drugs because they can cause which of the following? 1. Hypokalemia. 2. Hyperkalemia. 3. Hypocalcemia. 4.Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms

4 A client with diabetes who takes any first- or second-generation sulfonylurea should be advised to avoid alcohol intake. Sulfonylureas in combination with alcohol can cause serious disulfiram (Antabuse)-like reactions, including flushing, angina, palpitations, and vertigo. Serious reactions, such as seizures and possibly death, may also occur. Hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, and hypocalcemia do not result from taking sulfonylureas in combination with alcohol.

The nurse is assessing a client with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML). The nurse should assess the client for: 1. Lymphadenopathy. 2. Hyperplasia of the gum. 3. Bone pain from expansion of marrow. 4. Shortness of breath

4 Although the clinical manifestations of CML vary, clients usually have confusion and shortness of breath related to decreased capillary perfusion to the brain and lungs. Lymphadenopathy is rare in CML. Hyperplasia of the gum and bone pain are clinical manifestations of AML.

The goal of nursing care for a client with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is to prevent: 1. Cardiac arrhythmias. 2. Liver failure. 3. Renal failure. 4. Hemorrhage.

4 Bleeding and infection are the major complications and causes of death for clients with AML. Bleeding is related to the degree of thrombocytopenia, and infection is related to the degree of neutropenia. Cardiac arrhythmias rarely occur as a result of AML. Liver or renal failure may occur, but neither is a major cause of death in AML.

In assessing a client in the early stage of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), the nurse should determine if the client has: 1. Enlarged, painless lymph nodes. 2. Headache. 3. Hyperplasia of the gums. 4. Unintentional weight loss.

4 Clients with CLL develop unintentional weight loss; fever and drenching night sweats; enlarged, painful lymph nodes, spleen, and liver; decreased reaction to skin sensitivity tests (anergy); and susceptibility to viral infections. Enlarged, painless lymph nodes are a clinical manifestation of Hodgkin's lymphoma. A headache would not be one of the early signs and symptoms expected in CLL because CLL does not cross the blood-brain barrier and would not irritate the meninges. Hyperplasia of the gums is a clinical manifestation of AML.

Assessment of the diabetic client for common complications should include examination of the: 1. Abdomen. 2. Lymph glands. 3. Pharynx. 4. Eyes.

4 Diabetic retinopathy, cataracts, and glaucoma are common complications in diabetics, necessitating eye assessment and examination. The feet should also be examined at each client encounter, monitoring for thickening, fissures, or breaks in the skin; ulcers; and thickened nails. Although assessments of the abdomen, pharynx, and lymph glands are included in a thorough examination, they are not pertinent to common diabetic complications.

The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time? 1. 11 AM, shortly before lunch. 2. 1 PM, shortly after lunch. 3. 6 PM, shortly after dinner. 4.1 AM, while sleeping

4 The client with diabetes mellitus who is taking NPH insulin (Humulin N) in the evening is most likely to become hypoglycemic shortly after midnight because this insulin peaks in 6 to 8 hours. The client should eat a bedtime snack to help prevent hypoglycemia while sleeping.

A client with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) reports overhearing one of the other clients say that AML had a very poor prognosis. The client has understood that the client's physician informed the client that his physician told him that he has a good prognosis. Which is the nurse's best response? 1. "You must have misunderstood. Who did you hear that from?" 2. "AML does have a very poor prognosis for poorly differentiated cells." 3. "AML is the most common nonlymphocytic leukemia." 4. "Your doctor stated your prognosis based on the differentiation of your cells."

4 The statement "Your doctor stated your prognosis based on the differentiation of your cells" addresses the client's situation on an individual basis. The nurse is clarifying that clients have different prognoses—even though they may have the same type of leukemia—because of the cell differentiation. Stating that the client misunderstood is inappropriate for an advocate of the client and serves no useful purpose. The other statements are true but do not address this client's individual concern.

A nurse has two middle-aged clients who have a prescription to receive a blood transfusion of packed red blood cells at the same time. The first client's blood pressure dropped from the preoperative value of 120/80 mm Hg to a postoperative value of 100/50. The second client is hospitalized because he developed dehydrationand anemia following pneumonia. After checking the patency of their IV lines and vital signs, what should the nurse do next? 1. Call for both clients' blood transfusions at the same time. 2. Ask another nurse to verify the compatibility of both units at the same time. 3. Call for and hang the first client's blood transfusion. 4. Ask another nurse to call for and hang the blood for the second client.

4. Ask another nurse to call for and hang the blood for the second client.

The nurse is assessing a client's arteriovenous (AV) fistula. Which finding provides evidence of its normal function? A. Ecchymotic area B. Enlarged vein C. Pulselessness D. Redness

B. Enlarged vein

When assessing a patient's respiratory status, which of the following nonrespiratory data are most important for the nurse to obtain? A. Height and weight B. Neck circumference C. Occupation and hobbies D. Usual daily fluid intake

C. Occupation and hobbies Many respiratory problems occur as a result of chronic exposure to inhalation irritants. Common occupational sources of inhalation irritants include mines, granaries, farms, lawn care companies, paint, plastics and rubber manufacture, and building remodeling. Hobbies associated with inhalation irritants include woodworking, metal finishing, furniture refinishing, painting, and ceramics. Daily fluids, height, and weight are more related to respiratory problems secondary to cardiac issues.

A nurse is assessing a client who has acute cholecystitis. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority? A. Anorexia B. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder C. Tachycardia D. Rebound abdominal tenderness

C. Tachycardia When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is tachycardia. Tachycardia is a manifestation of biliary colic, which can lead to shock. The nurse should position the head of the client's bed flat and report this finding immediately to the provider.

The nurse evaluates that discharge teaching for a patient hospitalized with pneumonia has been most effective when the patient states which of the following measures to prevent a relapse? A. "I will increase my food intake to 2400 calories a day to keep my immune system well." B. "I must use home oxygen therapy for 3 months and then will have a chest x-ray to reevaluate." C. "I will seek immediate medical treatment for any upper respiratory infections." D. "I should continue to do deep-breathing and coughing exercises for at least 6 weeks."

D. "I should continue to do deep-breathing and coughing exercises for at least 6 weeks." It is important for the patient to continue with coughing and deep breathing exercises for 6 to 8 weeks until all of the infection has cleared from the lungs. A patient should seek medical treatment for upper respiratory infections that persist for more than 7 days. Increased fluid intake, not caloric intake, is required to liquefy secretions. Home O2 is not a requirement unless the patient's oxygenation saturation is below normal.

Which of the following physical assessment findings in a patient with pneumonia best supports the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance? A. Oxygen saturation of 85% B. Respiratory rate of 28 C. Presence of greenish sputum D. Basilar crackles

D. Basilar crackles The presence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that there is accumulation of secretions in the lower airways. This would be consistent with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance because the patient is retaining secretions.

A client is admitted with a deep and productive cough, hemoptysis, and a low-grade fever. The client's Mantoux skin test has a 15mm induration. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? A. Administer the initial dose of rifampin and isoniazid B. Collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus C. Provide a mask for the client to wear in public areas D. Initiate airborne particulate isolation precautions

D. Initiate airborne particulate isolation precautions

To prevent atelectasis in an 82-year-old patient with a hip fracture, a nurse should: A. supply oxygen. B. suction the upper airway. C. ambulate the patient frequently. D. assist the patient with aggressive coughing and deep breathing.

D. assist the patient with aggressive coughing and deep breathing. Decreased mobility after surgery in older adults creates the possibility of fluid buildup and retention in lung tissue. One of the primary goals of nursing intervention is to prevent atelectasis in a high-risk patient. Aggressive coughing and deep breathing can prevent atelectasis in the postoperative patient.

An adult client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and a urinary tract infection (UTI) Prescriptions for intravenous antibiotics and insulin infusion are initiated. Which serum laboratory value warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse? A. blood ph of 7.30 B. glucose of 350 mg /dl C. white blood cell count of 15000mm D. potassium of 2.5 meq/l

D. potassium of 2.5 meq/l

You have a patient going for dialysis. There are medications include Lisinopril(prinivil), ondansetron (zofran), famotidine(pepcid) and atorvastatin(lipitor). Which medication would you possibly hold and seek clarification?

LISINOPRIL(PRINIVIL)

The nurse is caring for a client in the post anesthesia care unit (PACU) who underwent a thoracotomy two hours ago. The nurse observesthe following vital signs: heart rate 140 breaths/minute, respirations 26 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 140/90 mmHG. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Medicate for pain and monitor vital signs according to protocol b. Administer intravenous fluid bolus as prescribed by the healthcare provider c. Apply oxygen at 10 L via non-rebreather mask and monitor pulse oximeter d. Encourage the client to splint the incision with a pillow to cough and deep breathe.

a. Medicate for pain and monitor vital signs according to protocol

An adult client is diagnosed with restless leg syndrome and is referred to the sleep clinic. The healthcare provider prescribes ferrous sulfate 325 mg pO daily. Which laboratory values should the nurse monitor? a. Serum iron and ferritin b. Platelet count and hematocrit c. Neutrophils and eosinophils d. Serum electrolytes

a. Serum iron and ferritin

Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a client who has gastroesophageal reflux? a. Teach the client to elevate the head of the bed on blocks b. Remind the client to avoid high-fiber foods c. Encourage the client to lie down and rest after meals. d. Instruct the client to use antacids only as a last resort

a. Teach the client to elevate the head of the bed on blocks

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a new client who has a history of kidney stones. Which statement by the client indicates an increased risk for renal calculi? a. eats a vegetarian diet with cheese 2 to 3 times a day b. experiences additional stress since adopting a child c. jogs more frequently than usual daily routine d. drinks several bottles of carbonated water daily

a. eats a vegetarian diet with cheese 2 to 3 times a day