Homework Review

Tremetol, a metabolic poison found in the white snake root plant, prevents the metabolism of lactate. When cows eat this plant, it is concentrated in the milk they produce. Humans who consume the milk become ill. Symptoms of this disease, which include vomiting, abdominal pain, and tremors, become worse after exercise. Why do you think this is the case? A. Tremetol inhibits enzymes that convert lactate into less harmful compounds. Exercise worsens this by producing more lactate. B. Tremetol increases the production of lactate dehydrogenase, causing lactic acid to accumulate in the body. C. Tremetol inhibits the production of NAD+ after exercise. The lack of oxygen causes lactic acid to accumulate in the body. D. Tremetol binds to lactic acid, inhibiting its breakdown into other compounds and causing it to accumulate after exercising.

A. Tremetol inhibits enzymes that convert lactate into less harmful compounds. Exercise worsens this by producing more lactate.

Assume independent assortment for the following cross: AABBCC X aabbcc ---> AaBbCc [Parents --> offspring] What is the probability that parents shown will produce the indicated offspring? A. 1 B. 1/2 C. 1/4 D. 1/8 E. 1/32

A. 1

Decide if each of the following is an example of inductive or deductive reasoning. 1. All flying birds and insects have wings. Birds and insects flap their wings as they move through the air. Therefore, wings enable flight. 2. Insects generally survive mild winters better than harsh ones. Therefore, insect pests will become more problematic if global temperatures increase. 3. Chromosomes, the carriers of DNA, separate into daughter cells during cell division. Therefore, DNA is the genetic material. 4. Animals as diverse as insects and wolves all exhibit social behavior. Therefore, social behavior must have an evolutionary advantage for humans. A. 1- Inductive, 2- Deductive, 3- Deductive, 4- Inductive B. 1- Inductive, 2-Inductive, 3- Inductive, 4- Deductive C. 1- Deductive, 2- Inductive, 3- Deductive, 4- Inductive D. 1- Inductive, 2- Deductive, 3- Inductive, 4- Deductive

A. 1- Inductive, 2- Deductive, 3- Deductive, 4- Inductive

Hershey and Chase used ________ to radioactively label the T2 phage's proteins. A. 35S B. 14C C. 222Ra D. 32P E. 92U

A. 35S

In a diploid cell containing 10 chromosomes, meiosis results in the formation of daughter cells containing _____ chromosomes. A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 40

A. 5

In this phylogenetic tree, all of the following are common ancestors of species 1 and 3 EXCEPT A. A B. B C. C D. D

A. A

Which of these structures stores, modifies, and packages products? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

A. A

The French scientist Jacques Monod famously said, "Anything found to be true of E. coli must also be true of elephants." How is this statement based on the notion that living organisms share a common ancestor? A. E. coli is a prokaryote. The various metabolic processes and core functions in E. coli share homology with higher organisms. B. E. coli is a eukaryote and shares similarities with most of the living organisms. C. E. coli is a prokaryote and reproduces through binary fission which is common to most living organisms. D. E. coli contains a nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles that are shared by all the living organisms.

A. E. coli is a prokaryote. The various metabolic processes and core functions in E. coli share homology with higher organisms.

You isolate DNA from three different cell types of an organism, determine the relative DNA content for each type, and plot the results on the graph shown. Which sample of DNA might be from a nerve cell arrested in G0 of the cell cycle? A. I B. II C. III D. either I or II E. either II or III

A. I

What would be true for the signaling system in an animal cell that lacks the ability to produce GTP? A. It would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. B. It could activate only the epinephrine system. C. It would be able to carry out reception and transduction, but would not be able to respond to a signal. D. It would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. It would be able to carry out reception and transduction, but would not be able to respond to a signal. E. It would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. It could activate only the epinephrine system. It would be able to carry out reception and transduction, but would not be able to respond to a signal.

A. It would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane.

What categories of amino acids would you expect to find on the surface of a soluble protein and which would you expect to find in the interior? A. Polar and charged amino acids will be found on the surface whereas non-polar in the interior. B. Non-polar and charged amino acids will be present on the surface of the membrane whereas only non-polar will be found in the membrane embedded proteins. C. Non-polar and uncharged proteins will be found on the surface, while only non-polar will be found in the embedded proteins. D. Polar and charged amino acids will be found on the surface of a membrane protein whereas non-polar in the interior. The membrane protein will be polar and hydrophobic.

A. Polar and charged amino acids will be found on the surface whereas non-polar in the interior.

How does RNA polymerase in eukaryotes recognize the end of a gene? A. The sequence will transcribe as a hairpin in the mRNA. B. The sequence will wind up as a double helix. C. The sequence will be identified by the 5' capping. D. The sequence will be identified by the 3' poly-A tail.

A. The sequence will transcribe as a hairpin in the mRNA.

Modern mitochondria are the descendants of what were once free-living alpha proteobacteria. Insofar as mitochondria become inactive during periods of oxygen debt, what is probably true of their alpha proteobacterial ancestors? A. They were obligate aerobes and heterotrophs. B. They were obligate aerobes and autotrophs. C. They were obligate anaerobes and heterotrophs. D. They were obligate anaerobes and autotrophs. E. They were facultative anaerobes and autotrophs.

A. They were obligate aerobes and heterotrophs.

The Baltimore classification system groups viruses according to how the mRNA is produced. When classified this way, the viruses in each group _____. A. behave in a similar manner B. look very similar C. connect with living things D. are based on the type of disease they cause

A. behave in a similar manner

Several closely related frog species of the genus Rana are found in the forests of the southeastern United States. The species boundaries are maintained by reproductive barriers. In each case, match the various descriptions of frogs below with the appropriate reproductive barrier listed. Females of one species choose mates based on song quality; females of another species choose mates on the basis of size. A. behavioral B. habitat C. temporal D. gametic E. mechanical

A. behavioral

The first organisms that oxygenated the atmosphere were A. cyanobacteria B. phototrophic organisms C. anaerobic organisms D. all of the above

A. cyanobacteria

Which of the following health issues is caused by biofilm colonization? A. dental plaque B. dry scalp C. skin rash D. prosthetic discomfort

A. dental plaque

Define single-strand binding protein in your own words. A. during replication, protein that binds to the single-stranded DNA; this helps in keeping the two strands of DNA apart so that they may serve as templates B. Y-shaped structure formed during initiation of replication C. ring-shaped protein that holds the DNA pol on the DNA strand D. DNA at the end of linear chromosomes

A. during replication, protein that binds to the single-stranded DNA; this helps in keeping the two strands of DNA apart so that they may serve as templates

Vaccines for viral diseases are _____ and help prevent infection by _____. A. harmless derivatives of pathogenic viruses ... stimulating the immune system to mount a defense against the actual pathogen B. nucleoside inhibitors ... inhibiting the replication of the viral genome C. protease inhibitors ... preventing synthesis of envelope proteins D. antibiotic formulations ... specifically killing infected cells E. antibiotic formulations ... killing bacteria that assist viruses in infecting animal cells

A. harmless derivatives of pathogenic viruses ... stimulating the immune system to mount a defense against the actual pathogen

Mitochondria are descendants of alpha proteobacteria. They are, however, no longer able to lead independent lives because most genes originally present on their chromosome are now located in the nuclear genome. What phenomenon most directly accounts for the movement of these genes? A. horizontal gene transfer B. binary fission C. conjugation D. meiosis E. plasmolysis

A. horizontal gene transfer

Sexual dimorphism is most often a result of A. intersexual selection. B. stabilizing selection. C. pansexual selection. D. intrasexual selection. E. artificial selection.

A. intersexual selection.

Which of the following best describes the reaction? A. negative ΔG, spontaneous B. positive ΔG, nonspontaneous C. positive ΔG, exergonic D. negative ΔG, endergonic E. ΔG of zero, chemical equilibrium

A. negative ΔG, spontaneous

The letter A indicates a _____. A. phosphate group B. nucleotide C. nitrogenous base D. sugar E. none of the above

A. phosphate group

What are two topics that are likely to be studied by biologists and two areas of scientific study that would fall outside the realm of biology? SELECT TWO ANSWERS. A. pollution affecting species habitat B.functioning of planetary orbitals C. calculating surface area of rectangular ground D. diseases affecting humans

A. pollution affecting species habitat D. diseases affecting humans

On a phylogenetic tree, which term refers to lineages that diverged from the same place? A. sister taxa B. basal taxa C. rooted taxa D. dichotomous taxa

A. sister taxa

What are three different pathways that species evolution may take in hybrid zones? A. stability, fusion, reinforcement B. allopatric speciation, sympatric speciation, fusion C. convergent evolution, divergent evolution, no evolution D. natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow

A. stability, fusion, reinforcement

Two species of water lilies in the same pond do not interbreed because one blooms at night and the other during the day. The reproductive barrier between them is an example of _____. A. temporal isolation B. gametic isolation C. mechanical isolation D. hybrid breakdown E. ecological isolation

A. temporal isolation

Where is the electron transport chain found in plant cells? A. thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts B. stroma of chloroplasts C. inner membrane of mitochondria D. matrix of mitochondria E. cytoplasm

A. thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts

In what important way does receptor-mediated endocytosis differ from phagocytosis? A. It does not involve the pinching off of membrane. B. It brings in only a specifically targeted substance. C. It brings substances into the cell, while phagocytosis removes substances. D. It transports only small amounts of fluid.

B. It brings in only a specifically targeted substance.

Eukaryotic cells contain complex organelles that carry out their chemical reactions. Prokaryotes lack many of these complex organelles, although they have a variety of unique structures of their own. However, most prokaryotic cells can exchange nutrients with the outside environment faster than most eukaryotic cells. Why is this so? A. Most prokaryotic cells are larger, and have a higher surface-to-volume ratio than eukaryotic cells. B. Most prokaryotic cells are smaller, and have a higher surface-to-volume ratio, than eukaryotic cells. C. Most prokaryotic cells are smaller, and have a lower surface-to-volume ratio than eukaryotic cells. D. Prokaryotic cells are larger and have a lower surface-to-volume ratio than eukaryotic cells.

B. Most prokaryotic cells are smaller, and have a higher surface-to-volume ratio, than eukaryotic cells.

How does the extracellular matrix function? A. The extracellular matrix protects the cell as it is rigid in nature. B. The extracellular matrix helps in the attachment of the cell to other cells and to various substrata. C. The extracellular matrix helps in an efficient transfer of substances in and out of the cell. D. The extracellular matrix helps in an efficient exocytosis.

B. The extracellular matrix helps in the attachment of the cell to other cells and to various substrata.

In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvate A. 2 molecules of ATP are used and 2 molecules of ATP are produced. B. 2 molecules of ATP are used and 4 molecules of ATP are produced. C. 4 molecules of ATP are used and 2 molecules of ATP are produced. D. 2 molecules of ATP are used and 6 molecules of ATP are produced. E. 6 molecules of ATP are used and 6 molecules of ATP are produced.

B. 2 molecules of ATP are used and 4 molecules of ATP are produced.

A poly-A sequence is added at the: A. 5' end of a transcript in the nucleus B. 3'-end of a transcript in the nucleus C. 5' end of a transcript in the cytoplasm D. 3'-end of a transcript in the cytoplasm

B. 3'-end of a transcript in the nucleus

A cell entering the cell cycle with 32 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each with _____. A. 16 chromosomes B. 32 chromosomes C. 32 pairs of chromosomes D. 64 pairs of chromosomes E. none of the above

B. 32 chromosomes

The direction of synthesis of an RNA transcript is _____. A. 1' --> 5' B. 5' --> 3' C. 1' --> 3' D. 3' --> 5' E. 2' --> 4'

B. 5' --> 3'

A space probe returns with a culture of a microorganism found on a distant planet. Analysis shows that it is a carbon-based life-form that has DNA. You grow the cells in 15N medium for several generations and then transfer them to 14N medium. Which pattern in figure would you expect if the DNA was replicated in a conservative manner? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

B. B

In the diagram shown which is the most recent common ancestor of 1 and 3? A. A B. B C. C D. D

B. B

Which statement is true of viral replication? A. In the process of apoptosis, the cell survives. B. During attachment, the virus attaches at specific sites on the cell surface. C. The viral capsid helps the host cell produce more copies of the viral genome. D. mRNA works outside of the host cell to produce enzymes and proteins.

B. During attachment, the virus attaches at specific sites on the cell surface.

Which of the following is not a true statement comparing prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication? A. Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic DNA polymerases build off RNA primers made by primase. B. Eukaryotic DNA replication requires multiple replication forks, while prokaryotic replication uses a single origin to rapidly replicate the entire genome. C. DNA replication always occurs in the nucleus. D. Eukaryotic DNA replication involves more polymerases than prokaryotic replication.

B. Eukaryotic DNA replication requires multiple replication forks, while prokaryotic replication uses a single origin to rapidly replicate the entire genome.

During photosynthesis in chloroplasts, O2 is produced from ______ via a series of reactions associated with ______. A. CO2 ... photosystem II B. H2O ... photosystem II C. CO2 ... Calvin cycle D. H2O ... photosystem I E. CO2 ... both photosystem I and the Calvin cycle

B. H2O ... photosystem II

A scientist is studying the genetics of a population of plants that she suspects is undergoing natural selection. After examining samples of the population's DNA over several years, she finds the following data: Does this provide evidence of natural selection in this population? Why or why not? A. No, because the genotype frequencies, not allele frequencies, have to change for evolution to occur. B. No, because the allele frequencies are changing randomly, suggesting that genetic drift is occurring rather than natural selection. C. Yes, because it shows that the previously favorable or neutral allele A is now being selected against in favor of allele B. D. Yes, because it is showing that the frequency of both alleles are changing over time.

B. No, because the allele frequencies are changing randomly, suggesting that genetic drift is occurring rather than natural selection.

Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of these reasons? A. Prokaryotes have telomeres, and eukaryotes do not. B. Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many. C. The prokaryotic chromosome has histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not. D. Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not. E. The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.

B. Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many.

What would be the outcome of a mutation in the DNA binding portion of the FACT protein complex that prevented the complex from functioning? A. RNA polymerase will not bind to the consensus sequence in the promoter. B. RNA polymerase will not transcribe regions of DNA wound around histones. C. There will be increased transcription by RNA polymerase. D. Transcription termination will not occur through mRNA hairpin formation.

B. RNA polymerase will not transcribe regions of DNA wound around histones.

With a microscope, you examine some somatic cells from a woman and notice that each nucleus has two Barr bodies. What can you infer about the sex chromosomes in this individual? A. She is XX. B. She is XXX. C. She is XXXX. D. She is XXY, but the Y chromosome lacks the SRY gene. E. None of the above.

B. She is XXX.

Which of the following statements about structure 1 on the karyotype is not true? A. Structure 1 consists of homologous chromosomes. B. The two parts of structure 1 will have genes in different loci. C. The two parts of structure 1 originate from different parents. D. The two parts of structure 1 will have slightly different sequences of nucleotides.

B. The two parts of structure 1 will have genes in different loci.

What is true about organisms that are a part of the same clade? A. They all share the same basic characteristics. B. They evolved from a shared ancestor. C. They usually fall into the same classification taxa. D. They have identical phylogenies.

B. They evolved from a shared ancestor.

In facilitated diffusion, what is the role of the transport protein? A. Transport proteins provide the energy for diffusion of the solute. B. Transport proteins provide a hydrophilic route for the solute to cross the membrane. C. Transport proteins organize the phospholipids to allow the solute to cross the membrane. D. Transport proteins provide a low-resistance channel for water molecules to cross the membrane. E. Transport proteins provide a protein site for ATP hydrolysis, which facilitates the movement of a solute across a membrane.

B. Transport proteins provide a hydrophilic route for the solute to cross the membrane.

During RNA processing a(n) ________ is added to the 3' end of the RNA. A. 3' untranslated region B. a long string of adenine nucleotides C. 5' untranslated region D. coding segment E. modified guanine nucleotide

B. a long string of adenine nucleotides

Experimentation is only one part of the process of scientific inquiry, but it is a very important step because it _____. A. gives the investigator a systematic, unbiased result B. allows rejection of some alternative hypotheses C. ensures that hypotheses can be confirmed with certainty D. ensures that the variable being tested is measured without error E. gives scientists a chance to work in the laboratory

B. allows rejection of some alternative hypotheses

A primary role of many prokaryotes in the carbon cycle is that of ____. A. producers B. decomposers C. fixers D. synthesizers

B. decomposers

The cell wall is ________. A. interior to the cell membrane B. exterior to the cell membrane C. a part of the cell membrane D. interior or exterior, depending on the particular cell

B. exterior to the cell membrane

Apply your knowledge of vestigial structures to identify human anatomical vestigiality. Which of the following is NOT an example of human vestigiality? A. tailbone (coccyx) B. eyelashes C. wisdom teeth D. appendix

B. eyelashes

When imbalances occur in the sex ratio of sexual species that have two sexes (i.e., other than a 50:50 ratio), the members of the minority sex often receive a greater proportion of care and resources from parents than do the offspring of the majority sex. This is most clearly an example of A. sexual selection. B. frequency-dependent selection. C. stabilizing selection. D. disruptive selection. E. balancing selection.

B. frequency-dependent selection.

A phage that inserts itself into the host DNA is called _____. A. a bud B. lysogenic C. a bacteriophage D. semipermeable E. a capsomere

B. lysogenic

Shared derived characters are most likely to be found in taxa that are A. paraphyletic. B. monophyletic. C. polyphyletic.

B. monophyletic.

Specialized structures in plants' roots where nitrogen fixation occurs are called ________. A. legumes B. nodules C. symbionts D. rhibozia

B. nodules

Mitochondrial DNA is sequenced from three species, as shown, to determine evolutionary relationships. Which of the species are most closely related? Species 1: CAT GCA TTG AAA Species 2: GAA GAT TTG ATG Species 3: CAA CCA GCG AAT A. species 1 and 2 B. species 1 and 3 C. species 2 and 3

B. species 1 and 3

What is the function of Structure E? A. transport across the plasma membrane B. stabilization of the phospholipids C. cell-cell communication D. structural support of the cell E. detection of environmental change

B. stabilization of the phospholipids

Define systems biology A. use of biological agents for technological advancement B. study of whole biological systems (genomes and proteomes) based on interactions within the system C. study of drug interactions with the genome or proteome; also called toxicogenomics D. study of the collective genomes of multiple species that grow and interact in an environmental niche

B. study of whole biological systems (genomes and proteomes) based on interactions within the system

Which of the following is not a product of the light reactions of photosynthesis? A. oxygen B. sugar C. high-energy electrons D. ATP E. NADPH

B. sugar

When a phage infects a bacterial cell and enters the lysogenic cycle, all of the following happen except _____. A. viral DNA is injected into the bacterium B. the host cell is lysed by the invasion C. viral DNA becomes inserted into the bacterial chromosome D. when the bacterial chromosome replicates, viral DNA is also replicated E. all bacterial descendants will carry the viral genes

B. the host cell is lysed by the invasion

Bioremediation includes _____. A. the use of prokaryotes that can fix nitrogen B. the use of prokaryotes to clean up pollutants C. the use of prokaryotes as natural fertilizers D. All of the above

B. the use of prokaryotes to clean up pollutants

Which of the following choices incorrectly matches a tool that biologists use to study cells with a type of experiment the tool might be used for? A. scanning electron microscopy (SEM) to study the detailed structure of the surfaces of cells B. transmission electron microscopy (TEM) to study the distribution of organelles in a living cell C. transmission electron microscopy (TEM) to study ultrastructural features inside the cell D. light microscopy to study the movement of cells growing on a surface E. cell fractionation to study the function of specific organelles

B. transmission electron microscopy (TEM) to study the distribution of organelles in a living cell

The most reasonable inference from the observation that defects in DNA repair enzymes contribute to some cancers is that A. cancer is generally inherited. B. uncorrected changes in DNA can lead to cancer. C. cancer cannot occur when repair enzymes work properly. D. mutations generally lead to cancer. E. cancer is caused by environmental factors that damage DNA repair enzymes.

B. uncorrected changes in DNA can lead to cancer.

Which of the following statements best explains how infected prions cause disease? A. Infected prions cause disease by transmitting nucleic acids to normal prion proteins. B. Infected prions cause disease by converting DNA to RNA in normal prion proteins. C. Infected prions cause disease by converting the shapes of normal proteins. D. Infected prions cause disease by replicating the normal form of the protein.

C. Infected prions cause disease by converting the shapes of normal proteins.

How does a plasmodesma differ from a gap junction? A. Gap junctions are found to provide attachment in animal cells and plasmodesmata are essential for attachment of plant cells. B. Plasmodesmata help in transportation and gap junctions help in attachment, in plant cells. C. Gap junctions are essential for transportation in animal cells and plasmodesmata are essential for the movement of substances in plant cells. D. Plasmodesmata are essential for communication between animal cells and gap junctions are necessary for attachment of cells in plant cells.

C. Gap junctions are essential for transportation in animal cells and plasmodesmata are essential for the movement of substances in plant cells.

What accounts for the different number of ATP molecules that are formed through cellular respiration? A. A large number of ATP molecules are used in the detoxification of xenobiotic compounds produced during cellular respiration. B. The ATPs produced are utilized in the anaplerotic reactions that are used for the replenishment of the intermediates. C. Transport of NADH from cytosol to mitochondria is an active process that decreases the number of ATP produced. D. Most of the ATP's produced are rapidly used for the phosphorylation of certain compounds found in plants.

C. Transport of NADH from cytosol to mitochondria is an active process that decreases the number of ATP produced.

ATP energy is needed for glycolysis. Explain how this ATP debt is paid off during the reaction. How is this ATP debt paid off during the reaction? A. by the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate B. by the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. by the formation of 3-phosphoglycerate D. by the formation of phosphoenolpyruvate

C. by the formation of 3-phosphoglycerate

In the Calvin cycle, how many ATP molecules are required to regenerate RuBP from five G3P molecules? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

C. 3

A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is A. 3'ACU 5'. B. 5' TCA 3'. C. 3' UCA 5'. D. 3' UGA 5'. E. either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base.

C. 3' UCA 5'.

The mRNA region to which this regulatory protein is bound is called the _____. A. stop codon B. 3' untranslated region C. 5' untranslated region D. 3' end E. poly-A tail

C. 5' untranslated region

If the molecular mass of a carbon atom is 12, the mass of a hydrogen atom is 1, and the mass of an oxygen atom is 16 daltons, how many molecules does one mole of sugar (C12H22O11) contain? A. 45 B. 342 C. 6.02 x 1023 D. (6.02 x 1023) X (342) E. none of the above

C. 6.02 x 1023

A scientist pollinates a true-breeding pea plant with violet, terminal flowers with pollen from a true-breeding pea plant with white, axial flowers. Which of the following observations would most accurately describe the F2 generation? A. 75% violet flowers; 75% terminal flowers B. 75% white flowers in a terminal position C. 75% violet flowers; 75% axial flowers D. 75% violet flowers in an axial position

C. 75% violet flowers; 75% axial flowers

Active transport requires a cell to expend energy. Which of the following statements is not true? A. For most solutes, active transport most often involves an ATP-powered ion pump and a cotransport protein. B. Active transport uses ATP as its energy source. C. Active transport usually moves solutes down the concentration gradient. D. Active transport requires a protein carrier. E. Proteins involved in active transport are integral membrane proteins.

C. Active transport usually moves solutes down the concentration gradient.

An allosteric inhibitor does which of the following? A. Binds to an enzyme away from the active site and changes the conformation of the active site, increasing its affinity for substrate binding. B. Binds to the active site and blocks it from binding substrate. C. Binds to an enzyme away from the active site and changes the conformation of the active site, decreasing its affinity for the substrate. D. Binds directly to the active site and mimics the substrate.

C. Binds to an enzyme away from the active site and changes the conformation of the active site, decreasing its affinity for the substrate.

Correctly list the hierarchy of taxonomy. A. Kingdom, Domain, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, species B. Domain, Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, species C. Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, species D. Domain, Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, species

C. Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, species

A scientist observes a mutation in the transmembrane region of EGFR that eliminates its ability to be stabilized by binding interactions during dimerization after ligand binding. Which hypothesis regarding the effect of this mutation on EGF signaling is most likely to be correct? A. EGF signaling cascades would be active for longer in the cell. B. EGF signaling cascades would be active for a shorter period of time in the cell. C. EGF signaling cascades would not occur. D. EGF signaling would be unaffected.

C. EGF signaling cascades would not occur.

DCCD is a toxic compound that prevents the synthesis of ATP by inhibiting ATP synthase in plants. What effect would DCCD have on the Calvin cycle? A. Carbon dioxide would not enter the Calvin cycle. B. Rubisco would not function. C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) would not be produced. D. Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) would accumulate.

C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) would not be produced.

_____ is a signal molecule that binds to an intracellular receptor. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

D. D

Which statement best illustrates why processing food with prokaryotes was beneficial to early humans? A. Beer tastes better than water. B. Yogurt is healthier than milk. C. Milk spoils relatively quickly, but processed as cheese, it is more stable. D. Flour spoils relatively quickly, but processed as bread it is more stable.

C. Milk spoils relatively quickly, but processed as cheese, it is more stable.

Which description is an example of a phenotype? A. A certain duck has a blue beak. B. A mutation occurred to a flower. C. Most cheetahs live solitary lives. D. both a and c

C. Most cheetahs live solitary lives.

Which event does not fit the central dogma of molecular biology? A. Poly-A polymerase enzymes process mRNA in the nucleus. B. Endonuclease enzymes splice out and repair damaged DNA. C. Scientists use reverse transcriptase enzymes to make DNA from RNA. D. Codons specifying amino acids are degenerate and universal.

C. Scientists use reverse transcriptase enzymes to make DNA from RNA.

How can proteomics complement genomics? A. The genes are responsible to produce proteins and this implies that proteomics complements genomics. B. Genomics is responsible to decide the structure of the proteins, and, thereby, the result of proteomic studies. C. The genome is constant but the proteome is dynamic as different tissues possess the same genes but express different genes, thereby complementing genomics. D. The study of genes is incomplete without the study of their respective proteins and thus they complement each other.

C. The genome is constant but the proteome is dynamic as different tissues possess the same genes but express different genes, thereby complementing genomics.

Assume that the reaction has a ΔG of -5.6 kcal/mol. Which of the following would be true? A. The reaction could be coupled to power an exergonic reaction with a ΔG of +8.8 kcal/mol. B. The reaction would result in a decrease in entropy (S) and an increase in the total energy content (H) of the system. C. The reaction would result in an increase in entropy (S) and a decrease in the total energy content (H) of the system. D. The reaction would result in products (C + D) with a greater free-energy content than in the initial reactants (A + B). E. The reaction could be coupled to power an endergonic reaction with a ΔG of +6.2 kcal/mol.

C. The reaction would result in an increase in entropy (S) and a decrease in the total energy content (H) of the system.

Why don't dogs catch the measles? A. Measles is a DNA virus, and DNA viruses cause human diseases. B. Dogs do not have glycoproteins. C. The virus can't attach to dog cells. D. Dogs do not get RNA viruses.

C. The virus can't attach to dog cells.

How are the NADPH and GA3P molecules made during photosynthesis similar? A. They are both end products of photosynthesis. B. They are both produced from carbon dioxide. C. They both store energy in chemical bonds. D. They are both substrates for photosynthesis.

C. They both store energy in chemical bonds.

Which set of terms names diseases caused by bacteria? A. diptheria, bubonic plague, yellow fever B. yellow fever, dengue fever, bubonic plague C. bubonic plague, diptheria, cholera D. cholera, diptheria, dengue fever

C. bubonic plague, diptheria, cholera

At which point is a scientific investigator most likely to use deductive reasoning? A. during initial observation(s) B. during the formulation of a hypothesis C. in establishing a test of a hypothesis D. in arranging for a peer review E. after the careful analysis of both the qualitative and the quantitative data recorded in the study

C. in establishing a test of a hypothesis

Define contig A. DNA that belongs to a different species or DNA that is artificially synthesized B. small DNA fragment used to determine if the complementary sequence is present in a DNA sample C. larger sequence of DNA assembled from overlapping shorter sequences D. individual monomer (single unit) of DNA

C. larger sequence of DNA assembled from overlapping shorter sequences

Virulent phages undergo a(n) ________ life cycle, whereas temperate phages are capable of undergoing a(n) ________ cycle. A. infective; retroviral B. lysogenic; lytic C. lytic; lysogenic D. retroviral; infective E. infective; benign

C. lytic; lysogenic

Identify Structure D. A. glycoprotein B. cholesterol C. phospholipid bilayer of membrane D. extracellular matrix E. protein

C. phospholipid bilayer of membrane

Which one of the following pairs matches the name of a membrane transport process with the primary function of that process? A. phagocytosis : secretion of large particles from the cell by fusion of vesicles with the plasma membrane B. exocytosis : the movement of water and solutes out of the cell by vesicle fusion with the plasma membrane C. pinocytosis : the uptake of water and small solutes into the cell by formation of vesicles at the plasma membrane. D. osmosis : passive diffusion of water and small solutes across a membrane E. None of the above are correct matches.

C. pinocytosis : the uptake of water and small solutes into the cell by formation of vesicles at the plasma membrane.

The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is caused by A. the destruction of the protein kinase (Cdk). B. decreased synthesis of cyclin. C. the degradation of cyclin. D. synthesis of DNA. E. an increase in the cell's volume-to-genome ratio.

C. the degradation of cyclin.

In which situation would passive transport not use a transport protein for entry into a cell? A. An ion flowing into a nerve cell to create an electrical potential B. Glucose being absorbed from the blood C. Water flowing into a hypertonic environment D. Oxygen moving into a cell after oxygen deprivation

D. Oxygen moving into a cell after oxygen deprivation

How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32

D. 16

Which of the following will not occur in response to UV exposure if a p53 mutation inactivates the p53 protein? 1. Damage to DNA, 2. p53 activation, 3. p21 activation, 4. Apoptosis A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 3 and 4 C. 3 D. 2, 3, and 4

D. 2, 3, and 4

Plant species A has a diploid number of 12. Plant species B has a diploid number of 16. A new species, C, arises as an allopolyploid from A and B. The diploid number for species C would probably be A. 14. B. 16. C. 56. D. 28. E. 12.

D. 28.

What are the basic "building blocks" of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)? A. 100,000 different kinds of proteins B. 26 different kinds of chromosomes C. 20 different kinds of amino acids D. 4 different kinds of nucleotides E. 3 different kinds of genomes

D. 4 different kinds of nucleotides

In the phylogenetic tree shown, which organism is most distantly related to 2? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

D. 5

Starting with one molecule of citrate and ending with oxaloacetate, how many ATP molecules can be formed from oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis)? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 9 E. 12

D. 9

The shotgun sequencing method is used to generate the followings sequences Fragment 1: ATGCT Fragment 2: AGCATGC Fragment 3: TGCTGCA What is the sequence of the contig? A. ATGCTAGCATGCTGCTGCA B. TGCTGCAATGCT C. ATGC D. AGCATGCTGCA

D. AGCATGCTGCA

Peripheral protein is identified by letter _____ A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

D. D

Which of these organelles is responsible for photosynthesis? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

D. D

How does active CAP induce expression of the genes of the lactose operon? A. It terminates production of repressor molecules. B. It degrades the substrate allolactose. C. It stimulates splicing of the encoded genes. D. It stimulates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter. E. It binds steroid hormones and controls translation.

D. It stimulates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter.

How is a DNA "fingerprint" determined? A. DNA is cut and incubated with the radiolabelled probes to show banding patterns known as the DNA fingerprint. B. DNA is broken using radiations like x-rays and gamma rays, showing certain regions of banding patterns and this is known as a DNA fingerprint. C. DNA is denatured using high heat conditions and is stained. The stained chromosomes show specific bands called DNA fingerprints. D. When DNA is cut with restriction endonucleases, certain regions show polymorphism and a unique banding pattern which is called a DNA fingerprint.

D. When DNA is cut with restriction endonucleases, certain regions show polymorphism and a unique banding pattern which is called a DNA fingerprint.

In a series of mapping experiments, the recombination frequencies for four different linked genes of Drosophila were determined as shown in the figure. What is the order of these genes on a chromosome map? A. cn-rb-b-vg B. vg-cn-b-rb C. vg-b-rb-cn D. b-rb-cn-vg E. rb-cn-vg-b

D. b-rb-cn-vg

The viral ________ play(s) a role in attaching a virion to the host cell. A. core B. capsid C. envelope D. both b and c

D. both b and c

Choose the list below that contains the substances required by typical nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria. A. oxygen, sulfur, light, water, and some minerals B. carbon dioxide, sulfur, light, water, and some minerals C. carbon, nitrogen, light, water, and some minerals D. carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water, light, and some minerals E. carbon dioxide, ammonium, water, light, and some minerals

D. carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water, light, and some minerals

What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate? A. disulfide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes B. three-component structure of the nucleotides C. sugar-phosphate backbone D. complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases E. twisting of the molecule to form an α helix

D. complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases

Information obtained by microscopic analysis of stained chromosomes is used in: A. radiation hybrid mapping B. sequence mapping C. RFLP mapping D. cytogenetic mapping

D. cytogenetic mapping

The properties exhibited by a group of similar cells that are not characteristic of the individual cells are known as _____. A. cellular properties B. reductionist properties C. natural selective properties D. emergent properties E. tissue properties

D. emergent properties

Define genome fusion A. technique using molecular evidence to identify phylogenetic relationships B. node on a phylogenetic tree where a single lineage splits into distinct new ones C. (also, lateral gene transfer) transfer of genes between unrelated species D. fusion of two prokaryotic genomes, presumably by endosymbiosis

D. fusion of two prokaryotic genomes, presumably by endosymbiosis

What is a characteristic that is shared only by a certain clade of organisms on a phylogenetic tree? A. homologous B. analogy C. shared ancestral character D. shared dervied character

D. shared dervied character

How are spores produced in alternation of generation life cycles? A. by gametophytes B. by germ cells C. through mitosis D. through meiosis

D. through meiosis

What is one function of a signal peptide? A. to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the ER B. to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription C. to terminate translation of the messenger RNA D. to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane E. to signal the initiation of transcription

D. to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane

The pedigree chart of a family shows some individuals with wooly hair, a recessive trait. Affected individuals are indicated by an open square or circle. What is the probability that individual C-1 is Ww? A. 3/4 B. 1/4 C. 2/4 D. 2/3 E. 1

E. 1

Which of the following is a difference between active transport and facilitated diffusion? A. Active transport involves transport proteins, and facilitated diffusion does not. B. Facilitated diffusion can move solutes against a concentration gradient, and active transport cannot. C. Active transport can move solutes in either direction across a membrane, but facilitated diffusion can only move in one direction. D. Facilitated diffusion involves transport proteins, and active transport does not. E. Active transport requires energy from ATP, and facilitated diffusion does not.

E. Active transport requires energy from ATP, and facilitated diffusion does not.

Which of these is(are) pyrimidines? A. A and B B. A, B, and C C. B and C D. B, C, and D E. C, D, and E

E. C, D, and E

Identify the stroma. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

E. E

The lettered circle in figure shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is symbolized as black and the other haploid set is gray. The chromosomes in the unlettered circle have not yet replicated. Which one is a daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

E. E

Which of these is the viral genome? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

E. E

Which drawing represents metaphase II of meiosis? A. I B. II C. IV D. V E. VI

E. VI

Microfilaments are well known for their role in which of the following? A. ameboid movement B. formation of cleavage furrows C. contracting of muscle cells D. ameboid movement and formation of cleavage furrows E. ameboid movement, formation of cleavage furrows, and contracting of muscle cells

E. ameboid movement, formation of cleavage furrows, and contracting of muscle cells

Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bat? A. dorsal fin of a shark B. tail of a kangaroo C. wing of a butterfly D. tail fin of a fish E. arm of a human

E. arm of a human

Two species of orchids with different floral anatomy A. gametic B. temporal C. behavioral D. habitat E. mechanical

E. mechanical

Which of the following reproductive barriers actually prevents individuals of sibling species from copulating successfully? A. hybrid inviability B. hybrid sterility C. gametic isolation D. hybrid breakdown E. mechanical isolation

E. mechanical isolation

RFLPs played an important role in the Human Genome Project because they A. make bacterial cells grow faster, increasing the amount of cloned DNA that was available for sequencing. B. dramatically enhance the rate at which DNA can be sequenced. C. increase the amount of DNA that can be produced during PCR. D. do not vary between individuals, so they were used to produce a "universal" genome sequence representative of all humans. E. provided genetic markers scattered throughout the genome, allowing the construction of a genome-wide linkage map.

E. provided genetic markers scattered throughout the genome, allowing the construction of a genome-wide linkage map.

A prophage is a(n) _____. A. emerging virus B. virus that infects bacteria C. type of retrovirus D. prion that has been integrated into a bacterial cell's chromosome E. viral genome that has been incorporated into a bacterial cell's chromosome

E. viral genome that has been incorporated into a bacterial cell's chromosome

Control of gene expression in eukaryotic cells occurs at which level(s)?

epigenetic, transcriptional, post-transcriptional, translational, and post-translational levels