HRM PRELIMS PRACTICE
How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?
situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation
Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________.
situational tests
When managers need to determine which current employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most likely use ________.
skills inventories
When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most likely use ________.
skills inventories
Which of the following factors plays the greatest role in determining the best medium for a job advertisement?
skills needed for the job
Which of the following best describes telegraphing during an interview?
smiling at an applicant to suggest a desired answer
SMART goals are best described as ________.
specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely
A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and competencies the firm needs.
strategic business planning
A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and competencies the firm needs.
strategic plan
What type of interview would most likely include the following: "It must be difficult to leave a company after such strong accusations of unethical behavior. Tell me about that"?
stress
Tests administered for hiring purposes should be both valid and reasonable if used by a firm that adheres to evidence-based human resources.
F
The American Psychological Association's standards for educational and psychological tests are legally enforceable.
F
The HR manager who recruits for a vacant job is typically the one who is responsible for supervising the performance of that position.
F
The Privacy Act is the main directive at the federal level that governs how employers acquire and use applicants' and employees' background information.
F
The ________ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low.
strictness
The strong correlation between test results and job performance has led to numerous expert recommendations that tests be used as the only selection tool in the hiring process.
F
The validation of tests used as employment screening tools will most likely be conducted by the HR manager and line supervisor.
F
There are five steps in the validation process beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with administering the test.
F
Video resumes eliminate the possibility of applicants claiming discrimination in a firm's hiring practices.
F
What is the type of interview which lists the questions ahead of time?
structured interview
assessment method that has a high development cost
structured interviews
A series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for a job is known as a ________.
structured situational interview
Which of the following interview formats will most likely result in the highest validity?
structured, situational
t/f: According to EEO law, it is legal to ask job applicants if they have ever received workers' compensation.
False
Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries?
Interview
Which of the following is a true statement regarding structured situations interviews?
Interviews are usually conducted by a panel
Which of the following is a true statement regarding structured situational interviews?
Interviews are usually conducted by a panel.
Which one of the following is an advantage of a behaviorally anchored rating scale?
It is easier for the rater to determine superior, average, and poor performance.
According to federal laws, the development, validation, and administration of selection tests must be conducted by a qualified psychologist or a firm may face defamation charges.
T
Test validity in employment testing is demonstrated through criterion validity and content validity.
T
The U.S. Department of Labor maintains a nationwide computerized job bank called the National Job Bank.
T
The assumption shared by both trend analysis and ratio analysis is that productivity remains about the same from year to year.
T
The use of the Internet enables firms to centralize their recruitment efforts.
T
To prevent the appearance of discriminatory hiring practices, firms are advised to avoid asking job applicants on an application form whether they own or rent a house.
T
To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development.
T
Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of those people in various occupations.
T Interest inventories are irreplaceable in career planning, since a person will likely do better in jobs that involve activities in which he or she is interested.
The Federal Privacy Act allows federal employees to view their personnel files.
T employee's consent, among other things.
A performance appraisal is based on the assumption that an employee understood what his or her performance standards were prior to the appraisal.
TRUE
A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.
TRUE
Employers concerned about ethical and EEO violations may purchase employment tests that have been validated.
TRUE
Employment screening services are useful in the selection process because they have access to a job applicant's credit history, driving record, and workers' compensation claims history
TRUE
In order to ensure that performance appraisals are effective, Felicia, a line supervisor, should make sure to schedule a feedback session to address each subordinate's performance, progress, and future development plans.
TRUE
Ongoing performance monitoring is an element of performance management that involves the use of computer-based systems that measure an employee's progress and send out reports regarding an employee's performance.
TRUE
Performance appraisals are a link between corporate strategy, departmental goals, employee goals and employee performance in the overall performance management process.
TRUE
Sam supervises a team of data entry clerks at Geico. The firm's electronic performance monitoring system enables Sam to electronically monitor the amount of computerized data an employee processes each day.
TRUE
Selection tests should be used as supplements to other tools like interviews and background checks
TRUE
Supervisors should provide employees with feedback, development, and incentives necessary to help employees eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform well.
TRUE
The goal for a supervisor conducting a satisfactory-not promotable appraisal interview is to maintain satisfactory performance by finding incentives that are important to the person.
TRUE
Three hundred and sixty-degree feedback is generally used for development purposes rather than for pay increases.
TRUE
To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development
TRUE
Unclear standards on a performance appraisal tool will most likely lead to unfair appraisals because performance traits are too open for interpretation.
TRUE
Which of the following terms refers to individuals asked by the EEOC to apply for employment which they do not intend to accept, for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices?
Testers
Test Validity
The accuracy w/ which test, interview, + so on, measures what it purports to measure or fulfills the function it was designed to fill.
True
The assumption shared by both trend analysis + ratio analysis is that productivity remains about the same from year to year.
Recruiting Yield Pyramid
The historical arithmetic relationships between recruitment leads + invitees, invitees + interviews, interviews + offers made, offers made + offers accepted.
Succession Planning
The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, + developing organizational leadership to enhance performance.
Performance Management
The process of creating a work environment in which people can perform to the best of their abilities
Succession Planning
The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ______.
Workforce (or employment or personnel) Planning
The process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill, + how to fill them.
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates.Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a scatter plot is the most appropriate tool for Marie to use in estimating future personnel needs?
The size of the two new Barnum hotels will be similar to the chain's other hotels.
Miniature job training + evaluation
Tina is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction + was asking to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in _____________
Miniature Job Training + Evaluation
Training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks, + then evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire.
In a stress interview, the interviewer ______________.
Tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity.
Succession planning requires making forecasts of in three steps: ________, develop inside candidates, assess and choose those who will fill the key position.
identify key needs
When an employee's performance is so poor that a written warning is required, the warning should
identify the standards by which the employee is judged
Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee's performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal?
immediate supervisor
When constructing a job advertisement, all of the following are aspects of the AIDA guide EXCEPT ________.
implying long-term benefits
According to a survey, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________.
job skills
According to the text, selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors EXCEPT ________.
length
Which performance appraisal problem is associated with supervisors giving all of their subordinates consistently high ratings?
leniency
In order to conduct an effective interview, interviewers should NOT ask job candidates about their ________.
lifelong goals
Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
motor skills assessments
What is the second step in the procedure for developing a guide for a structured situational interview?
rate the job's main duties
In regards to on-campus recruiting, which of the following is most likely to help sell the employer to the interviewee?
sincerity of the recruiter
What type of interview would most likely include the following statement? "Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How would you proceed?"
situationa
What type of interview would most likely include the following statement? "Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition's biggest client. How would you proceed?"
situational
If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is
unreliable
If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________.
unreliable
Which one of the following terms refers to the process of allowing subordinates to rate their supervisor's performance anonymously?
upward feedback
All of the following guidelines will most likely improve the effectiveness of a performance appraisal EXCEPT
using a graphic rating scale to ensure fair and consistent ratings
Which one of the following is the best way for a supervisor to correct a performance appraisal problem caused by unclear standards?
using descriptive phrases to illustrate traits
All of the following are considered best practices for administering fair performance appraisals EXCEPT
using subjective performance data for appraisals
Smith Industries has set a goal of recruiting minority applicants. Which of the following methods is LEAST likely to be successful for Smith Industries?
utilizing executive recruiters
Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more frequently?
weak economic confidence among employers
Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities?
work sampling technique
Trait-based methods
-Graphic Rating Scale -Mixed Standard scale
How many interviewers usually make up a panel interview?
3-6
What is the typical compensation structure for on-demand recruiting services? A) hourly rate B) commission C) percentage fee D) 20-30% of the hire's salary E) 50% of the hire's signing bonus
A
What is the typical compensation structure for on-demand recruiting services? A) hourly rate B) commission C) percentage fee D) signing bonus
A) hourly rate
40) The best way to reduce the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to ________. A) rank employees B) use graphic rating scales C) limit the number of appraisals D) appraise personal characteristics
Answer: A Explanation: A) Ranking employees instead of using graphic rating scales can reduce the problem of central tendency. Ranking means you can't rate all employees as average. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept
54) In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of ________ members. A) 1-2 B) 3-4 C) 5-6 D) 7-8
Answer: B Explanation: B) Many employers use rating committees. These committees usually contain the employee's immediate supervisor and two or three other supervisors. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 6 Skill: Concept
68) Which term refers to the alignment of employee goals with departmental and company goals? A) performance management B) employee segmentation C) strategic congruence D) direction sharing
Answer: C Explanation: C) Strategic congruence is central to performance management: each employee's goals must be aligned with departmental and company goals. Direction sharing and segmentation are other aspects of performance management. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 1 Skill: Concept
Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4 million in sales next year. A salesperson traditionally generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople should Newton hire? A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 15 E) 20
B
________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. A) Neuroticism B) Extroversion C) Conscientiousness D) Agreeableness E) Openness to experience
B
Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4 million in sales next year. A salesperson traditionally generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople should Newton hire? A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 20
B) 5
What is an advantage of using employee referral campaigns? A) Local, hourly workers can be recruited quickly. B) Applicants have received realistic job previews. C) Rewards and incentives are eliminated. D) Applicants have community ties.
B) Applicants have received realistic job previews.
Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge? A) aptitude tests B) interest inventories C) achievement tests D) work samples E) projective tests
C
The fastest growing labor force segment in the United States over the next few years will be those from ________ years old. A) 23-29 B) 30-44 C) 45-64 D) 65+
C) 45-64
Which of the following most likely combines aspects of behavioral and situational questioning?
Case interviews
In a ________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously. A) formal B) topical C) panel D) mass
D
Approximately what percentage of new college graduates are hired to fill externally filled jobs that require a college degree? A) 7% B) 83% C) 16% D) 38%
D) 38%
a question that should most likely be answered by a utility analysis
Does it pay to use the test?
Applicant tracking systems are used by employers to ________. A) develop work samples B) implement EEO laws C) develop specific job descriptions D) verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship E) screen and rank candidates based on skills
E
Most small businesses find it cost-effective to conduct validity studies of the selection tools they use.
F
According to the Uniform Guidelines, employers are required to prove the validity of selection procedures for all assessments.
FALSE
t/f: When it refers to filling jobs like that of a maintenance clerk, personnel planning is called succession planning.
False
What is the first step in conducting an effective interview?
Knowing the job
Antone is applying for a job with Boscom Manufacturing as a chemical engineer. During the interview, Antone is asked the following question: "How does extreme heat affect hydrochloric acid?" The interviewer is most likely trying to assess Antone's ________.
Knowledge
According to the text, selection interviews are classified by all of the following factors EXCEPT ________.
Length
According to the text, selection interviews are not classified by _________.
Length
In order to conduct an effective interview, interviewers should NOT ask job candidates about their ____________.
Lifelong goals
Which if the following is a projective personality test?
Make a Picture Story
Reasons Appraisals fail
Managerial issues -Little face to face discussion with employees due to lack of interest or fear of confrontation -Managers dont understand job well enough to rate performance Unclear performance standards -What distinguishes superior performance from good, bad, etc? Rater bias/errors
According to research, what is the typical result of upward feedback?
Managers improve their performance.
What mathematical process do employers use to forecast availability of internal job candidates that shows the probabilities of feeder positions in a chain will be Filled?
Markov analysis
Recent studies have indicated that employers are biased towards working mothers.
T
Management by objectives requires a manager to set specific measurable, organizationally relevant goals with each employee and then periodically discuss the employee's progress toward these goals.
TRUE
Reliability
The consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested w/ the identical tests or w/ alternate forms of the same test.
t/f: The U.S. Department of Labor maintains a nationwide computerized job bank called the National Job Bank.
True
Test that measures what someone has learned
achievement tests
What is the primary purpose of an applicant tracking system?
assisting employers in attracting, screening, and managing applicants
Which of the following is a primary goal of college recruiters?
attracting good candidates
final step in the test validation process
cross validating
Which one of the following measurement methods is similar to grading on a curve?
forced distribution
managers most important reason to select employees carefully
improve personal ad organizational performance
Which of the following would be the best option for a business that needs to attract local applicants for hourly jobs?
walk-ins
The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is to ________.
write critical incidents
representation of what might be asked in a situational interview
you are confronted with a customer..
Which question below is an example of a behavioral question?
"Can you tell me about a time when you solved a really difficult problem?"
Feedback Skills Training
-communicating effectively -diagnosing the root causes of performance problems -setting the goals and objectives
Which of the following determines future staff needs by using ratios between a causal factor and the number of employees required? A) ratio analysis B) forecasting ratio C) ratio trend D) personnel ratio E) ratio matrix
A
Which of the following factors plays the greatest role in determining the best medium for a job advertisement? A) skills needed for the job B) job compensation and salary C) time allowed to fill the position D) length of the employment ad E) graphics used in the advertisement
A
Which of the following interview formats will most likely result in the highest validity? A) structured, situational B) unstructured, situational C) structured, behavioral D) unstructured, behavioral
A
Leniency or strictness error
A rating error in which the appraiser tends to give all employees either unusually high or unusually low ratings
Consistent scores when a person takes 2 alternate forms of the test
A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________
False
According to EEO law, it is legal to ask job applicants if they have ever received workers compensation.
50) Which of the following would most likely result in a legally questionable appraisal process? A) basing appraisals on subjective supervisory observations B) administering and scoring appraisals in a standardized fashion C) using job performance dimensions that are too clearly defined D) assigning specific trait names when using graphic rating scales
Answer: A Explanation: A) Courts have ruled in favor of employees when performance appraisals were based on subjective factors such as age, sex, or gender rather than actual job performance. Performance appraisals are more legally sound if based on clearly specified job performance dimensions. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
4) Which type of interview follows a performance appraisal and primarily addresses an employee's performance rating? A) selection B) appraisal C) exit D) directive E) structured
Answer: B Explanation: An appraisal interview is a discussion, following a performance appraisal, in which supervisor and employee discuss the employee's ratings and possible remedial actions. When an employee leaves a firm, an exit interview may occur. Structured or directive interviews relate to the format of an interview rather than the purpose.
46) All of the following guidelines will most likely improve the effectiveness of a performance appraisal EXCEPT ________. A) maintaining a diary of employees' performance during the year B) using a graphic rating scale to ensure fair and consistent ratings C) knowing the advantages and disadvantages of different appraisal tools D) developing a plan to assist employees with performance improvement
Answer: B Explanation: B) Graphic rating scales do not necessarily lead to effective performance appraisals, and they are susceptible to problems like bias and central tendency. Keeping a diary, knowing which tool to use, and forming a performance improvement plan are all methods for improving the effectiveness of a performance appraisal. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
6) Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview? A) directive B) nondirective C) unformatted D) standardized E) administrative
Answer: B Explanation: In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format. A few questions might be specified in advance, but they're usually not, and there is seldom a formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers. Structured interviews are known as directive interviews.
2) Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries? A) work sample simulation B) writing test C) interview D) reference check E) arbitration
Answer: C Explanation: An interview is a procedure designed to obtain information from a person through oral responses to oral inquiries.
57) According to research, what is the typical result of upward feedback? A) Firms are protected against biased appraisals. B) Organizational strategies are quickly implemented. C) Supervisors make changes to their management styles. D) Critical incidents are documented and ranked by top managers.
Answer: C Explanation: C) Upward feedback lets subordinates anonymously rate their supervisor's performance. Research indicates that most managers make changes based on the evaluations they receive. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 6 Skill: Concept
31) All of the following are benefits of using computerized or Web-based performance appraisal systems EXCEPT ________. A) merging examples with performance ratings B) helping managers maintain computerized notes C) combining different performance appraisal tools D) enabling managers to monitor employees' computers
Answer: D Explanation: D) Employers increasingly use computerized or Web-based performance appraisal systems. These enable managers to keep computerized notes on subordinates during the year, merge notes with ratings, and generate written text to support each part of the appraisal. Most appraisal software combines several appraisal methods. Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees' computers and telephones. Diff: 3 AACSB: Use of information technology Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
64) The continuous process of identifying, measuring, and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization's goals is known as ________. A) strategic management B) performance analysis C) performance appraisal D) performance management
Answer: D Explanation: D) Performance management is the continuous process of identifying, measuring, and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization's goals. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 1 Skill: Concept
51) Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee's performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal? A) customers B) rating committees C) top management D) immediate supervisor
Answer: D Explanation: D) Supervisors' ratings are the heart of most appraisals. The supervisor usually is in the best position to evaluate the subordinate's performance and is responsible for that person's performance. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 6 Skill: Concept
8) Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process? A) higher potential for bias B) limited validity and reliability C) inconsistency across candidates D) reduced ability to withstand legal challenge E) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions
Answer: E Explanation: Structured interviews when followed blindly limit the interviewer's chance to ask follow-up questions. Structured interviews are typically reliable, valid, consistent, and have a lower potential for bias. As a result, they have a greater ability to withstand legal challenges.
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage for employers who use private employment agencies to fill positions?
Applicant screening may not be thorough.
Screen + rank candidates based on skills
Applicant tracking systems (ATS) are most likely used by employers to _____________
True
Applicant tracking systems (ATS) compile resumes, track applicants during the hiring process, + screen out applicants who do not meet minimum job requirements.
Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique?
Applicants find it difficult to fake answers.
41) In a structured situational interview, interview questions should primarily address ________. A) emergency situations B) essential job duties C) occupational benefits D) salary requirements E) personality issues
B
65) Interview questions designed to assess the complexity of tasks the candidate has performed are focused on which of the following factors? A) motivation B) intellectual C) personality D) knowledge E) experience
B
Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums? A) structured interviews B) cognitive ability tests C) assessment centers D) work samples
B
How many interviewers usually make up a panel interview? A) 0-1 B) 2-3 C) 5-6 D) 7-9
B
Which of the following is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by a private employment agency when an applicant is placed in a job? A) U.S. Department of Labor B) employers C) employees D) state employment commissions E) independent recruiters
B
Which of the following terms refers to studying a firm's past employment needs over a period of years to predict future needs? A) ratio analysis B) trend analysis C) graphical analysis D) computer analysis
B) trend analysis
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Marie should implement a computerized skills inventory database?
Barnum executives would like to transfer the firm's most qualified employees to the new hotels to fill supervisory positions.
16) What type of interview would most likely include the following: "It must be difficult to leave a company after such strong accusations of unethical behavior. Tell me about that"? A) situational B) behavioral C) stress D) puzzle E) mass
C
18) Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally, he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ________ interview. A) board B) panel C) serial D) mass E) team
C
27) Which of the following traits is most likely to be assessed accurately during an interview? A) honesty B) intelligence C) agreeableness D) conscientiousness E) emotional stability
C
58) Which of the following best explains why most firms do not provide rejected applicants with detailed explanations about the employment decision? A) lack of technical abilities B) adherence to federal laws C) concerns about legal disputes D) time required of line managers E) associated costs of mailing letters
C
Which of the following enhances the security of a firm's database management system by specifying the type of information that a user can obtain? A) file-sharing B) search engine C) access matrix D) main server E) intranet
C
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Marie should implement a computerized skills inventory database? A) Barnum offers its employees the opportunities to participate in job rotation and job expansion experiences. B) Barnum's recruiting yield pyramid indicates that the firm should generate 1,000 leads in order to fill 100 positions. C) Barnum executives would like to transfer the firm's most qualified employees to the new hotels to fill supervisory positions. D) HR managers at Barnum frequently receive discrimination complaints that must be investigated by the EEOC.
C) Barnum executives would like to transfer the firm's most qualified employees to the new hotels to fill supervisory positions.
Which Web site is increasingly serving as a recruitment source for passive job candidates? A) Career Builder B) You Tube C) LinkedIn D) Monster
C) LinkedIn
What mathematical process do employers use to forecast availability of internal job candidates that shows the probabilities that feeder positions in a chain will be filled? A) trend analysis B) access analysis C) Markov analysis D) workforce analysis
C) Markov analysis
Jessica Garza is a manager at a large retail store. Currently, Jessica has four temporary workers under her supervision that a local staffing agency has provided. In which of the following tasks related to the temporary workers should Jessica become directly involved? A) negotiating the pay rate B) setting the time-off policies C) answering task-related questions D) providing online training and development
C) answering task-related questions
What is the primary purpose of an applicant tracking system? A) sorting resumes based on an applicant's years of work experience B) generating advertisements for attracting and gathering applicants C) assisting employers in attracting, screening, and managing applicants D) assisting recruiters with locating internal applicants for key positions
C) assisting employers in attracting, screening, and managing applicants
An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to ________. A) receive assistance writing job ads B) adhere to federal hiring practices C) fill a specific job opening quickly D) spend more time recruiting applicants
C) fill a specific job opening quickly
A Markov analysis is primarily used to ________. A) predict the long-term employment needs in an industry B) assess the productivity and tenure of a job applicant C) forecast the availability of internal job candidates D) analyze the effectiveness of recruitment sources
C) forecast the availability of internal job candidates
Which of the following is information that should NOT be requested on application forms? A) experience B) technical skills C) marital status D) training
C) marital status
Which of the following is a service that provides short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms? A) top-executive searches B) contingent-based searches C) on-demand recruiting services D) just-in-time recruiting services
C) on-demand recruiting services
________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
Cognitive
According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants? A) disclosing to the applicant that a credit report will be requested B) certifying to the reporting agency of the employer's legal compliance C) providing copies of reports to the applicant if adverse action is considered D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action E) providing an applicant with notice that an adverse action will occur
D
According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________. A) confidentiality of test results B) informed consent regarding the use of test results C) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals D) tests to be the only selection tools for a job E) fairness of the test for all who take it
D
All of the following are advantages of a firm recruiting through a central office EXCEPT ________. A) reducing the duplication of efforts B) implementing company-wide strategic priorities C) ensuring EEO compliance among recruiters D) developing autonomous divisions and Web sites E) simplifying the recruiting process
D
All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________. A) deductive reasoning B) verbal comprehension C) numerical ability D) temperament E) memory
D
An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to ________. A) reach unemployed individuals B) receive assistance writing job ads C) adhere to federal hiring practices D) fill a specific job opening quickly E) spend more time recruiting applicants
D
An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________. A) retired workers B) younger individuals C) other people in the same industry D) other people in various occupations E) managers and executives in the firm
D
Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities? A) aptitude tests B) situational judgment tests C) cognitive ability tests D) work sampling technique E) job knowledge tests
D
E-Verify is used by employers to ________. A) access an applicant's credit history B) review an applicant's employment records C) file an applicant's income tax information D) determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S. E) report an applicant's work status to the U.S. government
D
If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable E) consistent
D
Smith Industries has set a goal of recruiting minority applicants. Which of the following methods is LEAST likely to be successful for Smith Industries? A) implementing employee referral campaigns B) offering flexible work schedules C) providing flexible benefits plans D) utilizing executive recruiters E) collaborating with professional organizations
D
Which of the following is a recommended method for HR departments to protect employee data? A) hiring temporary employees to manage personal employment information B) requiring HR data access through peer-to-peer file-sharing applications C) retaining written rather than computerized personnel files D) performing random background checks on employees with HR database access E) providing full database access to employee files only through a firm's intranet
D
Which of the following is a true statement regarding structured situational interviews? A) Answers are compared to industry standards. B) Hypothetical questions are typically avoided. C) Job descriptions are written after the interview. D) Interviews are usually conducted by a panel.
D
Which of the following is the primary advantage of college recruiting? A) minimal preparation required B) flexible, short-term interview schedule C) inexpensive method of screening applicants D) access to a source of management trainees E) opportunity to keep firm's identity confidential
D
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process? A) higher potential for bias B) limited validity and reliability C) inconsistency across candidates D) reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions
D
Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants? A) adhere to legal hiring practices B) improve pool of candidates C) limit the number of applicants D) uncover F information E) report criminals to police
D
Which of the following terms refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources? A) negligent hiring B) personnel planning C) human resource management D) alternative staffing E) organizational development
D
Which of the following would be the best option for a business that needs to attract local applicants for hourly jobs? A) employee referral campaigns B) on-demand recruiting services C) college recruiting D) walk-ins E) headhunters
D
________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive E) Physical ability
D
Which of the following is NOT information that should be requested on application forms? A) work history B) experience C) technical skills D) marital status E) training
D Explanation: According to EEO law, application forms should not request information about an applicant's marital status. Asking about an applicant's work history, experience, training, and skills is considered acceptable.
Which of the following terms refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources? A) negligent hiring B) personnel planning C) human resource management D) alternative staffing E) organizational development
D Explanation: Alternative staffing refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources. Alternative staffing examples include in-house temporary employees, contract technical employees, outsourcing, and offshoring.
38) A series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for a job is known as a ________. A) directive behavioral interview B) nondirective situational interview C) structured behavioral interview D) nondirective behavioral interview E) structured situational interview
E
Which of the following is a primary goal of college recruiters? A) supporting employment diversity programs B) building relationships with college career centers C) cutting future recruiting costs for the firm D) developing a pool of temporary workers E) attracting good candidates
E
Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations
FALSE
The primary purpose for conducting a case interview is to ____________.
Form a realistic assessment of a candidate's skills
Unreliable
If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day + scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is __________.
False
In order to be legally eligible to work in the U.S., a person must be a U.S. citizen
Consider the question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?" What type of question is this?
Job knowledge question
Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview.
Panal
The majority of selection interviews are one-on-one and sequential.
T
If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one can develop an expectancy chart to illustrate the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically.
TRUE
Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of people in various occupations.
TRUE
Selection Tools
What term refers to the background investigations, tests, + physical exams that firms use to identify viable candidates for a job?
Which of the following terms refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources?
alternative staffing
term refers to sifting through large amounts of stuff
data mining
What is the first step in succession planning?
identifying and analyzing key position needs
Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview?
"Consider a time when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn the situation around?"
Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a behavioral interview?
"Consider a time when you were faced with an angry client. What did you do to turn the situation around?"
Which of the following questions would most likely be asked during a stress interview?
"I see that you switched colleges four times before finally earning your degree. I think that reflects an inability to make good decisions and remain focused. What do you think?"
Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational interview?
"Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?"
Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational interview?
"Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?"
Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational interview?
"Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company/ What would you do?"
Which question below is an example of a situational question?
"Suppose you were giving a sales presentation and a difficult technical question arose that you could not answer. What would you do?"
Which of the following statements is representative of what might be asked in a situational interview?
"Tell me about a time you showed leadership in a difficult situation."
Which of the following is an example of a job knowledge question?
"What are the legal restrictions regarding the use of telemarketing for consumers who have a past relationship with a company?"
Which question below is an example of a background question?
"What experience and training have you had with drafting designs for commercial buildings?"
Results-based methods
-Productivity Measures -Management By Objectives (MBO)
26) Which of the following interview formats will most likely result in the highest validity? A) structured, situational B) unstructured, situational C) structured, behavioral D) unstructured, behavioral E) structured, job-related
A
30) During an interview, Tanya discusses her numerous accomplishments at previous jobs and praises the interviewer frequently. Tanya is most likely using ________. A) impression management B) talent management C) mixed motives D) behavior modification E) job enrichment
A
40) What is the second step in the procedure for developing a guide for a structured situational interview? A) rate the job's main duties B) create interview questions C) conduct applicant interviews D) create benchmark answers E) appoint the interview panel
A
44) Which of the following is an example of a job knowledge question? A) "What are the legal restrictions regarding the use of telemarketing for consumers who have a past relationship with a company?" B) "Suppose you were confronted with an angry customer who threatened to sue the company. What would you do?" C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much has Mike and how much has Todd?" D) "Why are you leaving your current position?" E) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult situation?"
A
46) What is the first step in conducting an effective interview? A) studying the job description B) developing relevant questions C) establishing rapport with candidates D) asking technical questions E) developing a rating scale
A
49) Which question below is an example of a situational question? A) "Suppose you were giving a sales presentation and a difficult technical question arose that you could not answer. What would you do?" B) "Based on your past work experience, what is the most significant action you have ever taken to help out a co-worker?" C) "What work experiences, training, or other qualifications do you have for working in a teamwork environment?" D) "What factors should one consider when developing a television advertising campaign?" E) "What experience have you had with direct point-of-purchase sales?"
A
54) Consider the question: "What work experience do you have in marketing and sales?" What type of question is this? A) background question B) behavioral question C) situational question D) job knowledge question E) structured question
A
66) When attempting to understand a candidate's personality, an interviewer using the streamlined interview process will most likely ask questions about a candidate's ________. A) interactions with others B) likes and dislikes C) achievements D) aspirations E) knowledge
A
68) Interview questions designed to probe such areas as a person's aspirations and energy level seek information regarding a candidate's ________ factor. A) motivation B) intellectual C) personality D) knowledge E) experience
A
Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative? A) extroversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience
A
Qualifications inventories can be tracked and maintained by using all of the following EXCEPT a ________. A) ratio analysis matrix B) personnel replacement chart C) position replacement card D) skills inventory software E) personnel inventory and development record form
A
What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation? A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants. B) Current employees have not been employed for a significant time. C) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience. D) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance. E) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.
A
Forecast the availability of internal job candidates
A Markov analysis is primarily used to
Scatter Plot
A graphical method used to help identify the relationship between 2 variables.
Customer appraisal
A performance appraisal that, like team appraisal, is based on TQM concepts and seeks evaluation from both external and internal customers
Interest Inventory
A personal development + selection device that compares the person's current interests w/ those of others now in various occupations so as to determine the preferred occupation for the individual.
Graphic Rating-scale method
A trait approach to performance appraisal whereby each employee is rated according to a scale of individual characteristics
Criterion Validity
A type of validity based on showing that scores on the test (predictors) are related to job performance (criterion).
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, most likely undermines Marie's decision to fill top positions with inside candidates? A) Barnum needs to head in a different direction with innovative ideas if it is to remain competitive with other hotel chains. B) Many current Barnum employees have indicated they are loyal to the firm by rejecting offers to work at competing hotels. C) Training new employees about the practices and procedures at Barnum is costly in regards to both time and money. D) The influence of local labor unions and EEO legislation is blamed for the high turnover rate among Barnum employees.
A) Barnum needs to head in a different direction with innovative ideas if it is to remain competitive with other hotel chains.
All of the following are common concerns that have been expressed to researchers by temporary employees EXCEPT ________. A) being in compliance with equal employment laws B) feeling insecure about their employment situation C) worrying about the lack of insurance benefits D) being treated impersonally by employers
A) being in compliance with equal employment laws
Dixon Industries wants to engage in predictive workforce monitoring. As the HR manager at Dixon, you should most likely ________. A) continuously monitor workforce planning issues B) primarily use recruiters for top executive jobs C) frequently assess the online HR scorecard D) regularly implement the Markov analysis
A) continuously monitor workforce planning issues
Which of the following is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by a private employment agency when an applicant is placed in a job? A) employers B) employees C) state employment commissions D) independent recruiters
A) employers
Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level manager to oversee its finance division. Qualified candidates can be difficult to find, so the business would most likely benefit from using a(n) ________ to recruit potential candidates. A) executive recruiter B) temporary agency C) Internet-based job site D) alternate staffing recruiter
A) executive recruiter
Succession planning requires making forecasts of in three steps: ________, develop inside candidates, assess and choose those who will fill the key position. A) identify key needs B) job specifications C) global trends D) labor relations
A) identify key needs
A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationship between all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) internal and external candidates B) offers made and offers accepted C) recruitment leads and invitees D) interviews and offers made
A) internal and external candidates
Smith Industries is thinking of having another company take care of its benefits management. This is called: A) outsourcing B) recruiting C) telecommuting D) screening
A) outsourcing
Newton Manufacturing is using a private employment agency to recruit individuals for management positions. As the HR manager at Newton, you need to ensure that applicants are screened properly, so you should ________. A) provide the agency with an accurate job description B) post jobs on the firm's intranet and bulletin boards C) develop applicant screening software for internal hires D) send HR experts to monitor the agency's recruiting activities
A) provide the agency with an accurate job description
Qualifications inventories can be tracked and maintained by using all of the following EXCEPT a ________. A) ratio analysis matrix B) personnel replacement chart C) position replacement card D) skills inventory software
A) ratio analysis matrix
Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests, and physical exams that firms use to identify viable candidates for a job? A) selection tools B) job analysis methods C) personnel techniques D) forecasting tools
A) selection tools
Which of the following factors plays the greatest role in determining the best medium for a job advertisement? A) skills needed for the job B) job compensation and salary C) time allowed to fill the position D) graphics used in the advertisement
A) skills needed for the job
One type of workers is ________, who do all or most of their work remotely, often from home, using information technology. A) telecommuters B) temps C) walk-ins D) recruiters
A) telecommuters
Kate works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an as needed basis. Kate is most likely ________. A) working as a contingent worker B) participating in a job rotation C) using job enlargement D) benchmarking jobs
A) working as a contingent worker
Which of the following types of questions is not typically part of a structured situational interview?
Ability questions
Irregular Breathing
According to experts known as human lie detectors, which of the following characteristics most likely indicates that a job candidate is being deceptive?
False
According to the Uniform Guidelines, employers are required to prove the validity of selection procedures for all assessments.
Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following supports the argument that Marion should use the streamlined interview process to hire an agent for her company?
Action Realty needs an agent with the personality, motivation, and experience to be successful in a competitive industry
Work Samples
Actual job tasks used in testing applicants' performance.
Mixed-standard scale method
An approach to performance appraisal similar to other scale methods but based on comparison with (better than, equal to, or worse than) a standard
Similar-to-me error
An error in which an appraiser inflates the evaluation of an employee because of a mutual personal connection
True
An internal comparison estimate measures a test's internal consistency.
According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job interview?
An interviewer's first impression of the candidate.
When developing a structured situational interview, the first step in the process is ___________.
Analyzing the job
35) Which of the following terms refers to an appraisal that is too open to interpretation? A) unclear standards B) halo effects C) leniency D) biased
Answer: A Explanation: A) An appraisal that is too open to interpretation has unclear standards. Specific standards are likely to result in consistent and more easily explained performance appraisals. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept
28) Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that BARS is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use? A) Suzanne wants to provide her subordinates with specific examples of their good and poor job performance during the appraisal interview. B) Suzanne encourages her subordinates to review and make comments about their appraisal during a formal appeals process. C) Wilson Consulting recently installed an electronic performance monitoring system to help supervisors conduct appraisals. D) Suzanne provides her subordinates with upward feedback as a way to illustrate the ratings she assigns to each employee.
Answer: A Explanation: A) BARS, the most accurate appraisal tool, uses critical incidents as support for ratings, which helps supervisors explain appraisals more clearly to subordinates during the appraisal interview. Upward feedback is feedback about supervisors provided by subordinates. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytic Skills Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Critical Thinking Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
24) Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) constant sums rating scale C) alternation ranking D) forced distribution
Answer: A Explanation: A) Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)is an appraisal method that aims at combining the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good and poor performance. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
44) Which of the following has most likely occurred when a supervisor conducting a performance appraisal is influenced by a subordinate's individual differences such as age, sex, and race? A) bias B) halo affect C) central tendency D) unclear standards
Answer: A Explanation: A) Bias refers to the tendency to allow individual differences such as age, race, and sex to affect the appraisal ratings that employees receive. Halo effect, unclear standards, and central tendency are other problems associated with performance appraisals. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept
70) Which of the following best depicts how information technology supports performance management? A) tracking team performance with digital dashboards B) conducting employee training through WebEx software C) filing benefits information through the company intranet D) monitoring market performance with electronic scorecards
Answer: A Explanation: A) Firms that implement performance management often use IT-supported tools like scorecard software and digital dashboards to continuously display, monitor, and assess each team's and employee's performance. IT is used by firms for other HR purposes, but monitoring employee and team performance is related to PM. Diff: 2 AACSB: Use of information technology Chapter: 9 Objective: 1 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
53) Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a(n) ________. A) reduction of social loafing B) reduction of group cohesion C) decrease in task motivation D) decrease in group satisfaction
Answer: A Explanation: A) Peer appraisals have been shown to improve social loafing, group viability, cohesion, task motivation, and satisfaction. Employees are often motivated to meet the expectations of their colleagues. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 6 Skill: Concept
19) Which of the following measurement methods is similar to grading on a curve? A) forced distribution B) graphic rating scale C) constant sums rating D) behaviorally anchored rating scale
Answer: A Explanation: A) The forced distribution method is similar to grading on a curve. With this method, you place predetermined percentages of ratees into several performance categories. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
6) In most organizations, who is primarily responsible for appraising an employee's performance? A) employee's direct supervisor B) company appraiser C) human resources manager D) employee's subordinates
Answer: A Explanation: A) The supervisor—not HR—usually does the actual appraising, and a supervisor who rates his or her employees too high or too low (or all average) is doing a disservice to them and to the company. Subordinates rate supervisors in some organizations, but the upward feedback is not the primary appraisal of the supervisor. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 2 Skill: Concept
63) When an employee's performance is so poor that a written warning is required, the warning should ________. A) identify the standards by which the employee is judged B) provide examples of employees who met the standards C) provide examples of times when the employee met the standards D) be written by a labor law attorney in accordance with federal guidelines
Answer: A Explanation: A) Written warnings should identify the employee's standards, make it clear that the employee was aware of the standard, specify any deficiencies relative to the standard, and show the employee had an opportunity to correct his or her performance. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 7 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
11) Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) graphic rating scale C) forced distribution D) critical incident
Answer: B Explanation: B) A graphic rating scale lists traits (such as "quality and reliability" or "teamwork") and a range of performance values (from "unsatisfactory" to "outstanding," or "below expectations" to "role model") for each trait. The supervisor rates each subordinate by circling or checking the score that best describes the subordinate's performance for each trait. The assigned values for the traits are then totaled. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
13) All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT ________. A) generic dimensions of performance B) performance of co-workers C) achievement of objectives D) job-related competencies
Answer: B Explanation: B) A paired comparison method involves making comparisons of employees with their co-workers. The graphic rating scale measures four job-relevant job dimensions including generic job dimensions, a job's actual duties, competencies, and objectives. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome:Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
37) Which of the following is a performance appraisal problem that occurs when a supervisor's rating of a subordinate on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits? A) recency effect B) halo effect C) central tendency D) stereotyping
Answer: B Explanation: B) Experts define halo effect as "the influence of a rater's general impression on ratings of specific ratee qualities." For example, supervisors often rate unfriendly employees lower on all traits, rather than just on "gets along well with others." Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill:Concept
15) The most popular method for ranking employees is the ________ method. A) graphic ranking scale B) alternation ranking C) paired comparison D) forced distribution
Answer: B Explanation: B) It is usually easier to distinguish between the worst and best employees, and the alternation ranking method is the most popular choice for supervisors. Paired comparison and forced distribution are less popular methods for ranking employees from best to worst on a trait or traits. A graphic rating not ranking scale is a popular appraisal tool. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
30) Which of the following terms refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) management by objective C) mixed standard scales D) forced distribution
Answer: B Explanation: B) MBO refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made. MBO is used as a primary appraisal method and as a supplement to other methods. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
8) What is the first step of any performance appraisal? A) giving feedback B) setting work standards C) making plans to provide training D) assessing the employee's performance
Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance appraisal always involves the 3-step performance appraisal process: (1) setting work standards, (2) assessing the employee's actual performance relative to those standards; and (3) providing feedback to the employee with the aim of helping him or her to eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform above par. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 3 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
1) Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards? A) employee selection B) performance appraisal C) employee orientation D) organizational development
Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance appraisal means evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards. Performance appraisal always involves setting work standards, assessing the employee's actual performance relative to those standards, and providing feedback to the employee. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 1 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
52) Employee performance appraisals are conducted by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) peers B) competitors C) subordinates D) rating committees
Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance appraisals are primarily performed by supervisors. However, firms are increasingly using peers, rating committees, and subordinates to conduct appraisals. Competitors are not used for performance appraisals. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 6 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
66) Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale. However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument to replace Oshman's traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach? A) Oshman's competitors in the small appliance industry monitor the performance of their employees through electronic performance monitoring systems. B) Oshman executives want to align the firm's strategic plan with individual employee goals and development needs. C) Oshman has experienced problems associated with central tendency and bias, and the firm wants to ensure that appraisals are legally sound. D) Oshman uses management by objectives as a primary appraisal method and requires supervisors to develop SMART goals.
Answer: B Explanation: B) Performance management refers to the continuous process of aligning the performance of individuals and teams with an organization's goals. Performance management does not necessarily eliminate problems like central tendency and bias. Instead, the approach focuses on monitoring an employee's performance and making sure it matches the needs of the firm. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytic Skills Chapter: 9 Objective: 1 Skill:Critical Thinking
41) Which performance appraisal problem is associated with supervisors giving all of their subordinates consistently high ratings? A) central tendency B) leniency C) strictness D) halo effect
Answer: B Explanation: B) Some supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high or low. Leniency refers to giving high ratings, while strictness refers to giving low ratings. Central tendency refers to giving average scores. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept
20) Which of the following is one of the primary complaints regarding the use of the forced distribution method for performance appraisals? A) difficult to implement B) harm to employee morale C) high costs of administration D) time consuming to administer
Answer: B Explanation: B) The biggest complaints regarding the forced distribution method are that it damages morale, and it creates interdepartmental inequities. The tool is not difficult to implement, time consuming, or costly. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
18) John, the supervisor of the manufacturing department at a computer firm, is in the process of evaluating his staff's performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers, 30% as average performers, 20% as below average performers, and 15% as poor performers. Which performance appraisal tool has John chosen to use? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) forced distribution C) alternation ranking D) paired comparison
Answer: B Explanation: B) The forced distribution method is similar to grading on a curve. With this method, you place predetermined percentages of ratees into several performance categories. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Application Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
10) Which of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance? A) alternation ranking B) graphic rating scale C) forced distribution D) constant sum rating scale
Answer: B Explanation: B) The graphic rating scale is the simplest and most popular method for appraising performance. A graphic rating scale lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait. The supervisor rates each subordinate by circling or checking the score that best describes the subordinate's performance for each trait. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
2) The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to motivate employees to ________. A) apply for managerial positions B) remove any performance deficiencies C) revise their performance standards D) enroll in work-related training programs
Answer: B Explanation: B) The purpose of providing feedback to the employee is to motivate him or her to eliminate performance deficiencies or to continue to perform above par. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 1 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
62) When a supervisor must criticize a subordinate in an appraisal interview, it is most important for the supervisor to ________. A) limit negative feedback to once every year B) provide specific examples of critical incidents C) acknowledge the supervisor's personal biases in the situation D) hold the meeting with other people who can document the situation
Answer: B Explanation: B) When you must criticize, it should be done privately and should include examples of critical incidents and specific suggestions of what to do and why. Avoid once-a-year "critical broadsides" by giving feedback periodically, so that the formal review contains no surprises. Criticism should be objective and free of personal bias. Diff: 3 AACSB: Communication abilities Chapter: 9 Objective: 7 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe effective interviewing techniques
26) The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is to ________. A) develop performance dimensions B) generate critical incidents C) compare subordinates D) scale incidents
Answer: B Explanation: B) Writing about critical incidents is the first step in BARS. A supervisor will ask persons who know the job (jobholders and/or supervisors) to describe specific illustrations (critical incidents) of effective and ineffective job performance. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
14) In a stress interview, the interviewer ________. A) provides an applicant with a task to complete in a set amount of time B) tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity C) gives a word problem to see how the candidate thinks under pressure D) describes a hypothetical situation to assess how the applicant responds E) tries to assess an applicant's motivation and conscientiousness
Answer: B Explanation: In a stress interview, the interviewer seeks to make the applicant uncomfortable with occasionally rude questions. The aim is supposedly to spot sensitive applicants and those with low (or high) stress tolerance.
49) All of the following are considered best practices for administering fair performance appraisals EXCEPT ________. A) explaining how subordinates can improve their performance B) basing the appraisal on observable job behaviors C) using subjective performance data for appraisals D) training supervisors how to conduct appraisals
Answer: C Explanation: C) Appraisals should be based on objective rather than subjective performance data and also on observable job behaviors. Appraisers should explain how subordinates can improve their performance, clarify in advance the performance objectives, and train supervisors in how to conduct appraisals. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
39) A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely has a problem known as ________. A) halo effect B) stereotyping C) central tendency D) leniency
Answer: C Explanation: C) Central tendency refers to the tendency of supervisors to rate all employees the same way, such as rating them all average. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept
65) Which component of performance management refers to communicating a firm's higher-level goals throughout the organization and then translating them into departmental and individual goals? A) goal alignment B) performance monitoring C) direction sharing D) developmental support
Answer: C Explanation: C) Direction sharing means communicating the company's higher-level goals (including its vision, mission, and strategy) throughout the company and then translating these into doable departmental, team, and individual goals. Coaching and developmental support, goal alignment, and performance monitoring are other elements of performance management. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 1 Skill: Concept
3) Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective employee goals? A) creating specific goals B) assigning measurable goals C) administering consequences for failure to meet goals D) encouraging employees to participate in setting goals
Answer: C Explanation: C) Effective goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely. Goals should be challenging but doable, and employee participation should be encouraged. Giving consequences for failing to meet goals is not recommended and unlikely to motivate employees. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 2 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
55) What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals? A) Ratings are reliable but invalid. B) Ratings are subject to halo effects. C) Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors. D) Ratings are about the same as when determined by peers.
Answer: C Explanation: C) Employees usually rate themselves higher than they are rated by supervisors or peers. Self-ratings are neither reliable nor valid in most cases. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 6 Skill:Concept
43) The best method for reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to ________. A) keep critical incident logs B) require multiple appraisals C) impose a performance distribution D) reconsider the timing of the appraisal
Answer: C Explanation: C) Enforcing a performance distribution is one way of correcting leniency/strictness problems. Another option is to rank employees. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept
38) Jason is a conscientious employee, but he is viewed by most of his co-workers as unfriendly. Jason's supervisor rates him low on the traits "gets along well with others" and "quality of work." Which of the following problems has most likely affected Jason's performance appraisal? A) central tendency B) leniency C) halo effect D) recency effect
Answer: C Explanation: C) Experts define halo effect as "the influence of a rater's general impression on ratings of specific ratee qualities." Central tendency refers to rating all employees average. Recency effect means focusing on the most recent behavior of an employee rather than his or her performance over a year. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill:Application
48) Which of the following is the primary advantage of using graphic rating scales as performance appraisal tools? A) eliminates central tendency errors B) offers extremely high rate of accuracy C) provides quantitative rating for each employee D) links with mutually agreed upon performance objectives
Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphic rating scales are simple to use and provide quantitative ratings for each employee. However the tool has problems with central tendency and unclear standards. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Application Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
12) Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use a graphic rating scale to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a graphic rating scale is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use? A) The firm wants Suzanne to evaluate her subordinates on an ongoing basis and to keep a log of critical incidents. B) Suzanne wants to ensure that the firm is protected from employee discrimination lawsuits, so she has conducted a job analysis of each position. C) Suzanne wants a quantitative rating of each employee based on competencies important to the firm, such as problem-solving skills. D) Employees in Suzanne's department participated in developing their own performance standards when they were first hired by the firm.
Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphic rating scales with competency-based appraisal forms enable an employer to focus on the extent to which an employee exhibits the competencies essential for the job. Graphic rating scales do not track critical incidents, and they are not the best tool for protecting a firm from legal charges because of problems with bias, central tendency, and halo effect. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytic Skills Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Critical Thinking Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
60) You are conducting an appraisal interview with an employee whose performance is satisfactory but for whom promotion is not possible. Which incentive listed below would most likely be the LEAST effective option for maintaining satisfactory performance in this situation? A) time off B) small bonus C) schedule flexibility D) professional development
Answer: D Explanation: D) For employees whose performance is satisfactory but for whom promotion is not possible, the objective is to maintain satisfactory performance. The best option is usually to find incentives that are important to the person and sufficient to maintain performance, such as extra time off, a small bonus, praise, and schedule flexibility. Professional development would most likely be motivating for an employee who cannot be promoted. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 7 Skill: Application Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
What will not improve the structure of an interview?
Asking candidates to describe themselves
Mike Simmons has recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) agreeableness D) conscientiousness E) openness to experience
B
Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level manager to oversee its finance division. Qualified candidates can be difficult to find, so the business would most likely benefit from using a(n) ________ to recruit potential candidates. A) state-run employment agency B) executive recruiter C) temporary agency D) Internet-based job site E) alternate staffing recruiter
B
Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises? A) Should Golden Creamery use internal or external sources for job candidates? B) How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results? C) How does testing correlate with Golden Creamery's mission and vision statements? D) What is the role of testing in Golden Creamery's strategic performance management system?
B
Mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements require ________. A) disgruntled employees to contact the local EEOC office prior to filing formal complaints B) applicants to agree to arbitrate certain legal disputes related to employment or dismissal C) applicants to take unpaid leaves of absence during employment disputes D) employees to meet with human resources officials prior to submitting a resignation E) applicants to agree that they will accept decisions handed down by federal appellate courts
B Explanation: Many employers, cognizant of the high costs of employment litigation, require applicants to agree in writing to mandatory arbitration should a dispute arise. Different federal courts have taken different positions on the enforceability of these "mandatory alternative dispute resolution" clauses.
Finding or attracting applicants for an employer's open positions is known as ________. A) succession planning B) employee recruiting C) personnel planning D) job posting
B) employee recruiting
Team appraisal
Based on TQM concepts; recognizes team accomplishment rather than individual performance
Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) numerology B) reasoning analysis C) handwriting analysis D) polygraph output assessment
C
The ________ run by the U.S. Department of Labor enables public employment agency counselors to advise applicants about local and national job openings. A) U.S. Career Center B) American Job Network C) National Job Bank D) National Employment Agency E) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
C
Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge? A) aptitude tests B) interest inventories C) achievement tests D) projective tests
C
31) According to research studies, which of the following characteristics is typically viewed LEAST favorably by interviewers? A) high-eye-contact B) physical attractiveness C) extroverted behavior D) low voice modulation E) male gender
D
Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests. A) intelligence B) apperception C) self-reported D) projective
D
The fastest growing labor force segment in the United States over the next few years will be those from ________ years old. A) 18-22 B) 23-29 C) 30-44 D) 45-64 E) 65+
D Explanation: The fastest-growing segment of the U.S. labor force in the next few years will be among workers 45-64 years old. Workers between 25-34 will decline by almost 3 million.
Recruiting is necessary to ________. A) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates B) forecast the short-term supply of outside candidates C) create positive word-of-mouth about a firm D) develop an applicant pool
D) develop an applicant pool
Bob needs to find and attract applicants to his company's open positions, which is known as ________. A) trend analysis B) engagement C) staffing D) employee recruiting
D) employee recruiting
Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people? A) performance standard B) job analysis chart C) digital dashboard D) competency model E) expectancy chart
E
Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job performance during the selection process? A) miniature job training and evaluation B) video-based simulation technique C) management assessment center D) work sampling technique E) intelligence tests
E
Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional? A) agreeableness B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) neuroticism E) openness to experience
E
What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process? A) performing initial screening interviews B) building a pool of candidates C) performing candidate background checks D) interviewing possible candidates E) deciding what positions to fill
E Explanation: The first step of the recruitment and selection process is deciding what positions to fill through personnel planning and forecasting. Building a candidate pool, having candidates complete applications, and performing background checks are the next steps in the process. The final step is interviewing candidates and making job offers.
Determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S.
E-Verify is primarily used by employers to ________________.
True
EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups.
True
Employment planning should be an integral part of a firms strategic + HR planning process.
Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a selection test.
F
Content validity is based on showing that the scores on the test are related to job performance.
F
The dot-jobs domain is primarily used by HR managers for succession planning purposes.
F
The fees associated with both retained and contingent executive recruiters are increasing as firms struggle to find qualified candidates.
F
Trend analysis assumes that productivity increases over time.
F
Supervisors at Sparkle Dynamics use the forced distribution method to evaluate performance, so they must ensure that the proportions in each category are symmetrical.
FALSE
Employee Recruiting
Finding +/or attracting applicants for the employer's open positions.
True
Firms can predict job performance + employee tenure by analyzing job application info, such as travel experience + education level.
According to the text which of the following factors led Key Bank to implement a virtual job tryout
High employee turnover
Negligent Hiring
Hiring workers w/ questionable backgrounds w/o proper safeguards.
Strategic relevance
Individual standards directly relate to strategic goals
Which of the following has improved the ability of executive recruiters to find potential candidates?
Internet-based databases
The ________ run by the U.S. Department of Labor enables public employment agency counselors to advise applicants about local and national job openings.
National Job Bank
Criterion Contamination
Occurs when performance capability is reduced by external factors. Focus on minimizing this.
Criterion Deficiency
Occurs when standards don't capture all of an individual's contributions. Focus on minimizing this.
Which of the following terms refers to helping new employees appreciate the values and culture of a firm?
Onboarding
Applicant Tracking Systems (ATS)
Online systems that help employers attract, gather, screen, compile, + manage applicants.
Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale. However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven. Which one of the following, if true, best supports the argument to replace Oshman's traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach?
Oshman executives want to align the firm's strategic plan with individual employee goals and development needs.
Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant professor of Biology. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ____________ interview.
Panel
Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with 70 employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Paulo Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the 12 employees under her direct supervision. Paulo plans to use the behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which one of the following, if true, supports the argument that BARS is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Paulo to use?
Paulo wants to provide her subordinates with specific examples of their good and poor job performance during the appraisal interview.
________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test
Predictive
An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by _____________.
Providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers.
Job Posting
Publicizing an open job to employees (often by literally posting it on bulletin boards) + listing its attributes, like qualifications, supervisor, working schedule, + pay rate.
Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values—honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge—serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Red Robin should use achievement tests in the employee selection process?
Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry.
Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employees that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values—honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge—serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process?
Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers.
When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview.
Selection
Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to predict future job performance based on an applicant's oral inquiries?
Selection interview
College Recruiting
Sending an employer's representatives to college campuses to prescreen applicants + create an applicant pool from the graduating class.
On-Demand Recruiting Services (ODRS)
Services that provide short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects w/o the expense of retaining traditional search firms.
Publicizing an open job to employees through a firm's intranet or bulletin board is known as job posting.
T
Research has found that applicants enjoy participating in work sample tests and dislike graphology tests.
T
Retained executive recruiters are paid whether or not they eventually fill the client's vacant position.
T
A talent management philosophy involves segmenting employees based on their value to the firm's success and providing those employees with special coaching, feedback, and development opportunities.
TRUE
A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an array of predictors
TRUE
An internal comparison estimate measures a test's internal consistency
TRUE
Applicant tracking systems compile resumes, track applicants during the hiring process, and screen out applicants who do not meet minimum job requirements
TRUE
Criterion validity shows a relationship between how well a person performs on a selection test and how well a person performs on the job.
TRUE
EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups.
TRUE
Test validity in employment testing is demonstrated through criterion validity and content validity
TRUE
The Federal Privacy Act allows federal employees to view their personnel files
TRUE
The HR department monitors the performance appraisal system, but it is typically not involved in rating employees.
TRUE
The advantages of using BARS as a performance appraisal tool are the method's accuracy, clear standards, and consistency.
TRUE
The alternation ranking method of performance appraisals can be problematic and unfair if all employees have excellent job performance.
TRUE
The basic problem with using a ranking method for performance appraisals is not identifying the extreme good and bad performers but differentiating meaningfully between the others.
TRUE
False
Tests administered for hiring purposes should be both valid + reasonable if used by a firm that adheres to evidence based Human Resources.
False
The Privacy Act is the main directive at the federal level that governs how employers acquire + use applicants + employees background info.
Application Form
The form that provides info on education, prior work record, + skills.
Alternative Staffing
The use of nontraditional recruitment sources.
True
To prevent the appearance of discriminatory hiring practices, firms are advised to avoid asking job applicants on an application form whether they own or rent a house.
t/f: Employment planning should be an integral part of a firm's strategic and HR planning process
True
Career FAQ's lists things that intweviewees should keep in mind when doing an online video intweview. Which of the following is not one of them?
Use a new computer
Negligent Hiring
What terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds w/o proper safeguards?
________ is the process of deciding what positions the Firm will have to Fill and how to Fill them.
Workforce planning
Managers who prepare for an interview using the streamlined interview process should focus on all of the following factors about a candidate EXCEPT ________.
age and skills
The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________.
agreeableness
Which of the following traits is most likely to be assessed accurately during an interview?
agreeableness
Which of the following is recommended advice for conducting an effective interview?
ask the candidate for specific examples
All of the following will most likely improve the structure of an interview EXCEPT ________.
asking candidates to describe themselves
Consider the question: "What work experience do you have in marketing and sales?" What type of question is this?
background question
Which one of the following would most likely result in a legally questionable appraisal process?
basing appraisals on subjective supervisory observations
What type of interview would most likely include the statement, "Tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment"?
behavioral
type of interview that includes "tell me about a time.."
behavioral interview
Consider the question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this?
behavioral question
Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance?
behaviorally anchored rating scale
Which of the following refers to an error of judgment on the part of the interviewer due to interviewing one or more very good or very bad candidates just before the interview in question?
contrast error
All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT
creating an organizational strategy map
Which performance appraisal tools require a supervisor to maintain a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior?
critical incident
What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process?
deciding what positions to fill
Elliot, a manager at Harwood Publishing, gave a bad reference to a former employee. Elliot could most likely be accused of ________ if the information is both false and harmful.
defamation
e-verify is primarily used by employers to what
determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S
E-Verify is primarily used by employers to ________.
determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S.
Recruiting is necessary to ________.
develop an applicant pool
Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people?
expectancy chart
Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative?
extroversion
The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________.
failure to predict job performance
What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity?
honesty tests
What is the typical compensation structure for on-demand recruiting services?
hourly rate
The primary purpose of conducting a stress interview is to determine ________.
how an applicant solves complex problems
An employer's computerized recruitment system should include all of the following elements EXCEPT ________.
hypertext transfer protocol to enable applicants to post their resumes in any format or font
Which one of the following is the best method for reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals?
impose a performance distribution
Consider the question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?" What type of question is this?
job knowledge question
Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n) ________ test.
motor ability
tests that measure finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time
motor ability
A ________ is a graphical method used to help identify how two variables are related.
scatter plot
A ________ is a graphical method used to help identify the relationship between two variables.
scatter plot
Which of the following motivates most employees over 65 to work?
schedule flexibility
Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to ________
screen and rank candidates based on skills
What is the first step of any performance appraisal?
setting work standards
panel interviews of a candidate is interviewed in what type of fashion
simultaneous
What is the first step in conducting an effective interview?
studying the job description According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job interview?
For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________.
subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee
Which of the following characteristics of an interview would most likely raise concerns about interview discrimination?
subjective interview questions
The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ________.
succession planning
All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________.
temperament
Which of the following terms refers to studying a firm's past employment needs over a period of years to predict future needs?
trend analysis
Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed?
validity
the accuracy with which a test fulfills a function for which it is designed
validity
When developing a structured situational interview, the first step in the process is to ________.
write a job description
A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an array of predictors.
T
Selection tests should be used as supplements to other tools like interviews and background checks.
T
In a structured situational interview, interview questions should primarily address ________.
essential job duties
In a structured situational interview, interview questions should primarily address _____________.
essential job duties
Organization-person fit is the primary concern of most employers during the selection process.
F
The best way to reduce the problem of central tendency in performance appraisals is to
rank employees
Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations.
F
Structured situational interviews contain situational questions, job knowledge questions, and willingness questions but not behavioral questions.
F
Which of the following questions would most likely be asked during a stress interview?
"I see that you switched colleges four times before finally earning your degree. I think that reflects an inability to make good decisions and remain focused. What do you think?"
Behavior Observation Scale (BOS)
-A performance appraisal that measures the frequency of observed behavior (critical incidents) -Preferred over BARS for maintaining objectivity, distinguishing good performers from bad performers, providing feedback, and identifying training needs
Behavior-based methods
-Critical incident -Behaviorally Anchored rating scale (BARS) -Behavior Observation Scale (BOS)
Establishing Performance Standards
-Must be based on job-related requirements derived from job analysis and reflected in ob description and job specifications -Help translate an organization's goals and objectives into job requirements that define acceptable performance levels
Establishing an appraisal plan
-Provide an explanation of the performance appraisal system's objectives so that raters will understand the compensation and development purposes for which the appraisal is to be used -explain the mechanics of the rating system how frequently the appraisals are to be conducted who will conduct them what are the standards of performance -Alert raters to the weaknesses and problems of appraisal systems so that they can be avoided
Rating error training
-observes other managers making errors -actively participate in discovering their own errors -practice job-related tasks to reduce the errors they tend to make
3 main purposes of performance appraisal
1. Strategic: Developing measures and feedback systems that push employees to engage in behaviors and produce results 2. Administrative: used in personnel decisions (pay raises, layoffs, etc.) 3. Developmental: provide feedback, improve communication, evaluate goal achievement
With phone and tablet video functionalities FaceTime and Skype, Web-based "in-person" interview use is widespread; In a recent year about __________ of candidates took such interviews.
18%
Which one of the following terms refers to a performance appraisal based on surveys from peers, supervisors, subordinates, and customers?
360-degree feedback
Approximately what percentage of new college graduates are hired to fill externally filled jobs that require a college degree?
38%
In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals consists of ________ members.
4-5
The fastest growing labor force segment in the United States over the next few years will be those from ________ years old.
45-64
How many interviewers usually question applicants during a structured situational interview?
5
Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4 million in sales next year. A salesperson traditionally generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople should Newton hire?
5
15) Which of the following questions would most likely be asked during a stress interview? A) "I see that you switched colleges four times before finally earning your degree. I think that reflects an inability to make good decisions and remain focused. What do you think?" B) "Can you tell me about a time in the past when you used leadership skills to handle a difficult situation?" C) "Mike and Todd have $21 between them. Mike has $20 more than Todd has. How much does Mike have and how much does Todd have?" D) "Why are you leaving your current position and changing careers?" E) "Which courses did you find the most challenging in graduate school?"
A
A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationship between all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) internal and external candidates B) offers made and offers accepted C) recruitment leads and invitees D) invitees and interviews E) interviews and offers made
A
A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________. A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day C) high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times E) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at the same time
A
According to a survey conducted by the American Management Association, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________. A) job skills B) aptitudes C) psychological behaviors D) interpersonal behaviors E) ethical opinions
A
An employer's computerized recruitment system should include all of the following elements EXCEPT ________. A) hypertext transfer protocol to enable applicants to post their resumes in any format or font B) requisition management systems to facilitate routing, approval, and posting of job openings C) hiring management software to collect and manage candidate information D) recruitment marketing to improve applicant pool quality E) skills and behavioral assessment services
A
Employment planning requires making forecasts of three elements: the supply of inside candidates, the likely supply of outside candidates, and ________. A) personnel needs B) job specifications C) supervisor salaries D) global trends E) labor relations
A
Jackie works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an as-needed basis. Jackie is ________. A) a contingent worker B) on job rotation C) using job enlargement D) in a benchmark job E) forecasting personnel needs
A
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, most likely undermines Marie's decision to fill top positions with inside candidates? A) Barnum needs to head in a different direction with innovative ideas if it is to remain competitive with other hotel chains. B) Many current Barnum employees have indicated they are loyal to the firm by rejecting offers to work at competing hotels. C) Internet job postings generate too many applicants with inadequate experience in the hotel industry. D) Training new employees about the practices and procedures at Barnum is costly in regards to both time and money. E) The influence of local labor unions and EEO legislation is blamed for the high turnover rate among Barnum employees.
A
What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity? A) paper-and-pencil honesty tests B) interest inventories C) personality tests D) graphology
A
What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counterproductivity? A) paper-and-pencil honesty tests B) interest inventories C) personality tests D) graphology E) handwriting analysis
A
What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? A) physical exams B) personality tests C) substance abuse screening D) fine motor skills assessments
A
What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? A) physical exams B) personality tests C) polygraph tests D) substance abuse screening E) fine motor skills assessments
A
Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) applicants find it difficult to fake answers B) uncovers information about an applicant's personality C) compares an applicant's past job performance with future success D) applicants can evaluate their own performance E) fine motor skills are accurately assessed
A
Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers. B) Employers learn about an applicant's personality. C) Applicants can evaluate their own performance. D) Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time.
A
Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations? A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant B) using a database to access information about the applicant's credit history C) locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant D) using a search engine to find information about the applicant
A
Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations? A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant B) using a database to access information about the applicant's credit history C) asking former employers open-ended questions about the applicant D) locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant E) using a search engine to find information about the applicant
A
Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness E) openness to experience
A
Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests, and physical exams that firms use to identify viable candidates for a job? A) selection tools B) job analysis methods C) job specifications D) personnel techniques E) forecasting tools
A
Which type of interview questions are most likely designed to probe an applicant's motivation to meet the job's requirements through activities such as physical labor, customer service, and frequent travel? A) willingness B) behavioral C) personality D) job knowledge
A
________ tests measure finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive E) Interest
A
An employer's computerized recruitment system should include all of the following elements EXCEPT ________. A) hypertext transfer protocol to enable applicants to post their resumes in any format or font B) requisition management systems to facilitate routing, approval, and posting of job openings C) hiring management software to collect and manage candidate information D) recruitment marketing to improve applicant pool quality E) skills and behavioral assessment services
A Explanation: A firm's computerized recruitment system should include a requisition management system, hiring management software, screening services, and recruiting solutions, such as recruitment marketing and applicant tracking. The manner in which resumes are posted does not relate to the site's http.
A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationship between all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) internal and external candidates B) offers made and offers accepted C) recruitment leads and invitees D) invitees and interviews E) interviews and offers made
A Explanation: A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationships between recruitment leads and invitees, invitees and interviews, interviews and offers made, and offers made and offers accepted. The ratio of internal and external candidates is not a factor in the recruiting yield pyramid which is used to determine the number of applicants a firm needs to generate in order to hire the required number of new employees.
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, most likely undermines Marie's decision to fill top positions with inside candidates? A) Barnum needs to head in a different direction with innovative ideas if it is to remain competitive with other hotel chains. B) Many current Barnum employees have indicated they are loyal to the firm by rejecting offers to work at competing hotels. C) Internet job postings generate too many applicants with inadequate experience in the hotel industry. D) Training new employees about the practices and procedures at Barnum is costly in regards to both time and money. E) The influence of local labor unions and EEO legislation is blamed for the high turnover rate among Barnum employees.
A Explanation: Inbreeding is a potential drawback to hiring internally because when all managers come up through the ranks, they may have a tendency to maintain the status quo, when a new direction is required. If Barnum needs to go in a new direction then it should hire outsiders. Benefits of internal hiring include increased morale, commitment, and reduced training requirements. Labor unions and the number of applicants are less relevant.
What is the typical compensation structure for on-demand recruiting services? A) hourly rate B) commission C) percentage fee D) 20-30% of the hire's salary E) 50% of the hire's signing bonus
A Explanation: On-demand recruiting services (ODRS) provide short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms. These recruiters are paid by the hour or project instead of a percentage fee or a commission.
Qualifications inventories can be tracked and maintained by using all of the following EXCEPT a ________. A) ratio analysis matrix B) personnel replacement chart C) position replacement card D) skills inventory software E) personnel inventory and development record form
A Explanation: Personnel replacement charts, position replacement cards, skills inventory software, and manual personnel inventory and development record forms are all tools for tracking and maintaining qualifications inventories. A ratio analysis is a forecasting technique for determining future staff needs rather than tracking employees for the purpose of transfer or promotion.
Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests, and physical exams that firms use to identify viable candidates for a job? A) selection tools B) job analysis methods C) job specifications D) personnel techniques E) forecasting tools
A Explanation: Selection tools, such as tests, background investigations, and physical exams, are used by firms to identify viable candidates for a job. After candidates complete applications and undergo initial screening interviews, a firm uses these selection tools before interviewing the candidate more thoroughly or making a job offer.
Jackie works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an as-needed basis. Jackie is ________. A) a contingent worker B) on job rotation C) using job enlargement D) in a benchmark job E) forecasting personnel needs
A Explanation: Temporary workers are known as contingent workers, so a nurse who floats from one assignment to another on a temporary basis is a contingent worker. Job rotation occurs when an employer systematically moves a worker from one job to another to broaden the worker's experience.
Which of the following factors plays the greatest role in determining the best medium for a job advertisement? A) skills needed for the job B) job compensation and salary C) time allowed to fill the position D) length of the employment ad E) graphics used in the advertisement
A Explanation: The best medium for a job depends on the position and the skills needed for the job. For example, a local newspaper is probably best if an employer needs clerical workers or blue-collar help. For specialized employees, advertisement in trade and professional journals may be more appropriate.
Employment planning requires making forecasts of three elements: the supply of inside candidates, the likely supply of outside candidates, and ________. A) personnel needs B) job specifications C) supervisor salaries D) global trends E) labor relations
A Explanation: The process of personnel planning requires forecasts or estimates of three things: personnel needs, the supply of inside candidates, and the likely supply of outside candidates. Forecasting personnel needs can be done through a trend analysis of the firm's employment levels over the last few years.
Position Replacement Card
A card prepared for each position in a company to show possible replacement candidates + their qualifications.
Ratio Analysis
A forecasting technique for determining future staff needs by using ratios between, for ex., sales volume + # of employees needed.
Expectancy Chart
A graph showing the relationship between test scores + job performance for a group of people.
Management by Objectives (MBO)
A philosophy of management that rates performance on the basis of employees achievement of goals set by mutual agreement of employee and manager
Calibration
A process whereby managers meet to discuss the performance of individual employees to ensure their employee appraisals are in line with one another
Performance Appraisal
A process, typically performed annually by a supervisor for a subordinate, designed to help employees understand their roles, objectives, expectations, and performance success
Error of Central Tendency
A rating error in which all employees are rated about average
Halo/Horns error
A rating error in which an appraiser's evaluation of an employee's performance is biased/skewed because of the appraiser's overall impression of the employee as good or bad
Contrast Error
A rating error in which an employee's evaluation is biased either upward or downward because of comparison with another employee just previously evaluated
Recency Error
A rating error in which appraisal is based largely on an employee's most recent behavior rather than on behavior throughout the appraisal period
True
A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes 2 alternate forms of the test of when he/she takes the same test on 2 or more different occasions.
Management Assessment Center
A simulation in which management candidates are asked to perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations + are scored on their performance. It usually also involves testing + the use of management games.
Video-Based Simulation
A situational test in which examinees respond to video simulations of realistic job situations.
Construct Validity
A test that is construct valid is one that demonstrates that a selection procedure measures a construct + that construct is important for successful job performance.
Content Validity
A test that is content valid is one that contains a fair sample of the tasks + skills actually needed for the job in question.
Situational Test
A test that requires examinees to respond to situations representative of the job.
Work Sampling Technique
A testing method based on measuring performance on actual basic job tasks.
Which of the following determines future staff needs by using ratios between a causal factor and the number of employees required? A) ratio analysis B) forecasting ratio C) personnel ratio D) ratio matrix
A) ratio analysis
For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests?
Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses.
58) Which of the following terms refers to a performance appraisal based on surveys from peers, supervisors, subordinates, and customers? A) 360-degree feedback B) team appraisals C) upward feedback D) rating committee
Answer: A Explanation: A) Many firms expand the idea of upward and peer feedback into "360-degree feedback." Here ratings are collected "all around" an employee, from supervisors, subordinates, peers, and internal or external customers. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 6 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
7) Which of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process? A) conducting appraisals of employees B) monitoring the appraisal system's effectiveness C) providing performance appraisal training to supervisors D) ensuring the appraisal system's compliance with EEO laws
Answer: A Explanation: A) Supervisors rather than HR managers conduct the actual appraisals. However, the HR department monitors the system's effectiveness and compliance with EEO laws. HR managers also provide supervisors with tools, advice, and training in regards to performance appraisals. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 2 Skill: Concept
4) SMART goals are best described as ________. A) specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely B) straightforward, meaningful, accessible, real, and tested C) strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and timely D) supportive, meaningful, attainable, real, and timely
Answer: A Explanation: A) The acronym SMART stands for specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 2 Skill: Concept
45) Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause a supervisor's performance appraisal of a subordinate to be biased? A) purpose of the appraisal B) location and time of the appraisal C) personal characteristics of the subordinate D) relationship between supervisor and subordinate
Answer: B Explanation: B) Appraisal bias has been shown to be caused by the appraisal's purpose but not the location or time of the appraisal. The personality of the supervisor, personal characteristics of the subordinate, and relationship between the two parties all tend to lead to bias. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept
25) Which of the following best describes a behaviorally anchored rating scale? A) chart of paired subordinates ranked in order of performance B) combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified performance scales C) diary of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work performance D) list of subordinates from highest to lowest based on specific performance traits
Answer: B Explanation: B) Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) is an appraisal method that aims at combining the benefits of narrative critical incidents and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good and poor performance. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
22) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the critical incident method for performance appraisal? A) providing examples of excellent work performance B) comparing and ranking employees within a group C) reflecting performance throughout the appraisal period D) compiling examples of ineffective work performance
Answer: B Explanation: B) Compiling incidents provides examples of good and poor performance, makes the supervisor think about the subordinate's appraisal all during the year, and provides examples of what specifically the subordinate can do to eliminate deficiencies. The downside is that without some numerical rating, this method is not too useful for comparing employees or for salary decisions. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
27) Stacey is using a behaviorally anchored rating scale as a performance appraisal tool. She has already asked employees and supervisors to describe critical incidents of effective and ineffective job performance. What should Stacey most likely do next? A) create a final appraisal instrument B) develop performance dimensions C) reallocate the incidents D) rate the incidents
Answer: B Explanation: B) Developing performance dimensions is the second step of the BARS process. Stacey should have these people group the incidents into 5 or 10 dimensions and then define each dimension, such as "salesmanship skills." The next steps involve reallocating incidents, rating the incidents, and developing a final instrument. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Application Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
33) Nick supervises a team of data entry specialists. Lately, productivity has been down, and Nick believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible. Which of the following tools would provide Nick with daily information about each employee's rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data? A) digital dashboard device B) electronic performance monitoring system C) Web-based management oversight device D) electronic performance support system
Answer: B Explanation: B) Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees' computers and telephones. They thus allow managers to monitor the employees' rate, accuracy, and time spent working online. Diff: 2 AACSB: Use of information technology Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Application Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
56) Which of the following terms refers to the process of allowing subordinates to rate their supervisor's performance anonymously? A) supplemental evaluation B) upward feedback C) paired evaluation D) peer evaluation
Answer: B Explanation: B) Many employers let subordinates anonymously rate their supervisor's performance, a process some call upward feedback. The process helps top managers diagnose management styles, identify potential "people" problems, and take corrective action with individual managers as required. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 6 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
29) What is the primary goal of using mixed standard scales? A) improving validity B) reducing rating errors C) clarifying performance standards D) illustrating feedback for subordinates
Answer: B Explanation: B) Mixed standard scales generally list just a few behavioral examples for each performance dimensions. The employer then "mixes" the resulting behavioral examples statements when listing them. The aim is to reduce rating errors such as leniency, by making it less obvious to the supervisor (1) what performance dimensions he or she is rating, and (2) whether the behavioral example statements represent high, medium, or low performance. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
5) All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's performance EXCEPT ________. A) correcting any work-related deficiencies B) creating an organizational strategy map C) determining appropriate salary and bonuses D) making decisions about promotions
Answer: B Explanation: B) Most employers still base pay and promotional decisions on the employee's appraisal. Appraisals also lets the boss and subordinate develop a plan for correcting any deficiencies, and serve a useful career planning purpose. Creating a strategy map is not a likely purpose for conducting a performance appraisal. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 2 Skill: Concept
69) A supervisor working for a firm that uses performance management should most likely expect to ________. A) conduct annual performance appraisals B) compare team goals to industry standards C) re-evaluate how employees accomplish tasks D) use paper forms to handle performance appraisals
Answer: C Explanation: C) Performance management means continuously re-evaluating and (if need be) modifying how the employee and team get their work done. Depending on the issue, this may mean additional training, changing work procedures, or instituting new incentive plans, for in-stance. Performance management also involves continuous rather than annual performance appraisals, which are managed through computerized systems. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 1 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
42) The ________ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently low. A) central tendency B) leniency C) strictness D) halo effect
Answer: C Explanation: C) Some supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high or low. Leniency refers to giving high ratings, while strictness refers to giving low ratings. Central tendency refers to giving average scores. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept
14) Which performance appraisal tool requires supervisors to categorize employees from best to worst on various traits? A) graphic rating scale B) critical incident method C) alternation ranking method D) electronic performance monitoring
Answer: C Explanation: C) The alternation ranking method involves ranking employees from best to worst on a particular trait, choosing highest, then lowest, until all are ranked. A graphic rating scale lists a number of traits and a range of performance for each. The employee is then rated by identifying the score that best describes his or her level of performance for each trait. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
59) Which of the following best describes the purpose of an appraisal interview? A) training supervisors in the rating process B) identifying potential interpersonal problems C) making plans to correct employee weaknesses D) discussing and scheduling training programs
Answer: C Explanation: C) The appraisal typically culminates in an appraisal interview. Here, the supervisor and the subordinate review the appraisal and make plans to remedy deficiencies and reinforce strengths. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 7 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
36) Which of the following is the best way for a supervisor to correct a performance appraisal problem caused by unclear standards? A) focusing on performance instead of personality traits B) using graphic rating scales to rank employees C) using descriptive phrases to illustrate traits D) allowing employees to rate themselves first
Answer: C Explanation: C) The best way to fix a problem associated with unclear standards is to include descriptive phrases that define or illustrate each trait. Specificity results in more consistent and more easily explained appraisals. Diff: 3 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Application
34) Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems EXCEPT ________. A) unclear standards B) halo effects C) complexity D) leniency
Answer: C Explanation: C) The graphic rating scale is the simplest and most popular method for appraising performance. However, graphic-type rating scales in particular are susceptible to several problems including unclear standards, halo effect, central tendency, leniency or strictness, and bias. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 5 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
16) Kendra needs to rate five of her subordinates. She makes a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, she indicates the better employee of each pair with a positive symbol on the chart. Finally, she totals the number of positive symbols for each employee. Which method of performance appraisal has Kendra most likely used? A) graphic ranking scale B) alternation ranking C) paired comparison D) forced distribution
Answer: C Explanation: C) The paired comparison method helps make the ranking method more precise. For every trait (quantity of work, quality of work, and so on), you pair and compare every subordinate with every other subordinate. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Application Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
9) When designing an actual appraisal method, the two basic considerations are ________. A) when to measure and what to measure B) what to measure and who should measure C) what to measure and how to measure D) when to measure and how to measure
Answer: C Explanation: C) The two basic questions in designing the actual appraisal tool are what to measure and how to measure it. For example, in terms of what to measure, we may measure the employee's performance in terms of generic dimensions or with respect to achieving specific goals. In terms of how to measure it, there are various methodologies, including graphic rating scales, the alternation ranking method, and "MBO." Who should do the appraisal and when are less critical issues to address. Diff: 2 Chapter: 9 Objective: 3 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
21) Which performance appraisal tools requires a supervisor to maintain a log of positive and negative examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior? A) alternation ranking B) paired comparison C) critical incident D) graphic rating
Answer: C Explanation: C) With the critical incident method, the supervisor keeps a log of positive and negative examples (critical incidents) of a subordinate's work-related behavior. Every 6 months or so, supervisor and subordinate meet to discuss the latter's performance, using the incidents as examples. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
3) When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a(n) ________ interview. A) verbal B) group C) selection D) benchmark E) background
Answer: C Explanation: Selection interviews are designed to predict future job performance based on the applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries. Interviews may be one-on-one or may be conducted in group settings.
23) Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Suzanne Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under her direct supervision. Suzanne plans to use the critical incident method to evaluate the performance of her subordinates. Which of the following, if true, most likely undermines the argument that the critical incident method is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Suzanne to use? A) Employee performance standards are closely aligned with Wilson Consulting's long-term strategic plans. B) Suzanne will be conducting performance appraisals in conjunction with the HR manager to ensure EEO compliance. C) Wilson Consulting will be allowing employees to rate themselves as part of its organizational development strategy. D) Due to economic difficulties, the firm will be laying off the two lowest performing employees in Suzanne's department.
Answer: D Explanation: D) A firm that will be laying off the two lowest performing employees needs employees to be ranked from best to worst, and the critical incident method makes ranking difficult. Strategic plans, EEO compliance, and organizational development are less relevant to the decision. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytic Skills Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Critical Thinking Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
32) Which of the following enables supervisors to oversee the amount of computerized data an employee is processing each day? A) computerized performance appraisal system B) online management assessment center C) digitized high-performance work center D) electronic performance monitoring system
Answer: D Explanation: D) Electronic performance monitoring (EPM) systems use computer network technology to allow managers access to their employees' computers and telephones. They thus allow managers to monitor the employees' rate, accuracy, and time spent working online. Diff: 1 AACSB: Use of information technology Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
47) Stephanie manages the accounting department at an advertising agency. She needs to conduct performance appraisals for the eight employees in her department. Stephanie wants a performance appraisal tool that is highly accurate, ranks employees, and uses critical incidents to help explain ratings to appraisees. Which performance appraisal tool is best suited for Stephanie? A) graphic rating scale B) alternation ranking method C) critical incident method D) behaviorally anchored rating scale
Answer: D Explanation: D) For those for whom accuracy is a great concern, BARS are superior, but require much more time to develop and use. The integration of critical incidents help a supervisor explain ratings to appraisees. Graphic rating scales and alternation rankings do not include critical incidents, while the critical incident method includes examples without rankings. Diff: 3 AACSB: Reflective thinking skills Chapter: 9 Objective: 4, 5 Skill: Synthesis Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
67) Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale. However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven. All of the following questions are relevant to Oshman's decision to replace its traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach EXCEPT ________. A) What technology is available to help managers gain immediate access to employee performance data? B) How would work procedures need to be modified to provide more frequent feedback to employees? C) How would the firm's mission and vision translate into departmental, team, and individual goals? D) What procedures are already in place to effectively identify and measure critical incidents?
Answer: D Explanation: D) Issues related to performance management include the technology used to monitor employee performance, methods for providing feedback, development of goals, and incentives. Identifying critical incidents is an issue related to traditional appraisal methods rather than performance management. Diff: 3 AACSB: Analytic Skills Chapter: 9 Objective: 1 Skill: Critical Thinking
17) Which performance appraisal tool is being used when a supervisor places predetermined percentages of ratees into various performance categories? A) behaviorally anchored rating scale B) graphic ranking scale C) alternation ranking D) forced distribution
Answer: D Explanation: D) The forced distribution method is similar to grading on a curve. With this method, you place predetermined percentages of ratees into several performance categories. Diff: 1 Chapter: 9 Objective: 4 Skill: Application Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
61) When conducting an appraisal interview, supervisors should do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) ask open-ended questions B) give specific examples of poor performance C) write up an action plan with goals and dates D) compare the person's performance to that of other employees
Answer: D Explanation: D) When a supervisor conducts an appraisal interview, it is advisable to speak in terms of objective work data with specific examples of poor performance. A supervisor should also ask the employee open-ended questions to encourage conversation and write up an action plan. It is inappropriate to compare a person's performance with another person. Diff: 3 AACSB: Communication abilities Chapter: 9 Objective: 7 Skill: Concept Learning Outcome: Describe the process of performance appraisal and different appraisal methods
7) Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job candidates? A) provides benefits information B) allows candidates to ask questions C) uses a manager's time more effectively D) pursues points of interest as they develop E) scores and compares candidates with consistency
Answer: D Explanation: In unstructured or nondirective interviews, the manager follows no set format and there is seldom a formal guide for scoring "right" or "wrong" answers. With unstructured interviews, an interviewer can pursue points of interest as they develop and ask follow up questions because of the format's flexibility.
Peer appraisal
Appraisal by fellow employees, compiled into a single profile for use in an interview conducted by the employee's manager -why peer appraisals are not more often used: 1. Peer ratings may be a popularity contests 2.Managers are reluctant to give up control over the appraisal process 3. those receiving low ratings might retaliate against their peers 4. Peers rely on stereotypes in ratings
Manager and/or Supervisor
Appraisal done by an employee's manager and reviewed by a manager one level higher
Self-appraisal
Appraisal done by the employee being evaluated, generally on an appraisal form completed by the employee prior to the performance interview
Subordinate appraisal
Appraisal of a superior by an employee, which is more appropriate for developmental than for administrative purposes
Productivity Measures
Appraisals based on quantitative measures that directly link what employees accomplish to results beneficial to the organization -Criterion contamination -Focus on shot-term results
Which type of interview follows a performance appraisal and primarily addresses an employee's performance rating?
Appraisial
Persistence
As the HR manager of Johnson Manufacturing, Derek is responsible for deciding which selection tools are most appropriate. When deciding on a specific selection tool, Derek, should most likely consider the following EXCEPT
Which of the following is recommended advice for conducting an effective interview?
Ask the candidate for specific examples
17) Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question and rate one applicant? A) serial interview B) board interview C) sequential interview D) mass interview E) one-on-one interview
B
20) Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview. A) serial B) panel C) sequential D) one-on-one E) mass
B
25) The primary advantage of computer-aided interviews is the ability to ________. A) identify personality traits appropriate for the industry B) reduce time spent with unacceptable candidates C) ask follow-up questions due to system flexibility D) form benchmarks for current firm employees E) assess a candidate's physical and motor skills
B
28) According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job interview? A) thank-you notes sent from the candidate to the interviewer B) an interviewer's first impression of the candidate C) a candidate's final comments during the interview D) favorable information about the candidate E) a candidate's extroverted personality
B
29) Which of the following refers to an error of judgment on the part of the interviewer due to interviewing one or more very good or very bad candidates just before the interview in question? A) context error B) contrast error C) order error D) recency error E) primacy error
B
37) George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process. Which of the following most likely undermines the argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner? A) The HR department prefers handling job evaluations without the assistance of managers. B) George and the HR manager lack the time required to participate in a lengthy interview process. C) George worked as a media planner at another firm and is familiar with the tasks involved in the job. D) Great Toys has used headhunters in the past to fill executive-level positions at the firm. E) Previous media planners at Great Toys have been hired through the streamlined interview process.
B
50) Which question below is an example of a behavioral question? A) "What would you do if you were asked a question during a sales presentation for which you did not know the answer?" B) "Can you tell me about a time when you solved a really difficult problem?" C) "What is your attitude about working with a sales team instead of independently?" D) "What factors do you consider before underwriting an insurance policy for a new client?" E) "What are your long-term goals and aspirations as a social worker?"
B
53) Consider the question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this? A) background question B) behavioral question C) situational question D) job knowledge question E) descriptive question
B
60) Managers who prepare for an interview using the streamlined interview process should focus on all of the following factors about a candidate EXCEPT ________. A) personality B) age and skills C) motivation D) intellectual capacity E) knowledge and experience
B
62) Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following questions would be relevant for Marion to ask if personality is an important aspect of the realtor position? A) What career goals to you have for yourself? B) How do you handle the stress and pressure associated with real estate? C) What steps do you go through to determine the best price for a home? D) What is the difference between assessed value and appraised value? E) What do you like and dislike about selling real estate?
B
According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation? A) age B) references C) credit ratings D) marital status E) driving records
B
All of the following are common concerns that have been expressed to researchers by temporary employees EXCEPT ________. A) feeling angry towards the corporate world B) being in compliance with equal employment laws C) feeling insecure about their employment situation D) worrying about the lack of insurance benefits E) being treated by employers in an impersonal manner
B
All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) introversion B) reasoning C) sensitivity D) motivation E) emotional stability
B
Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities EXCEPT ________. A) reviewing employer job requirements B) filing employer tax reports C) visiting employer work sites D) writing job descriptions E) filling job positions
B
Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview. A) serial B) panel C) one-on-one D) mass
B
Finding or attracting applicants for an employer's open positions is known as ________. A) succession planning B) employee recruiting C) personnel planning D) employee contracting E) job posting
B
For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises? A) Should Golden Creamery use internal or external sources for job candidates? B) How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results? C) How does testing correlate with Golden Creamery's mission and vision statements? D) What is the best way for Golden Creamery to recruit both hourly and salaried employees? E) What is the role of testing in Golden Creamery's strategic performance management system?
B
How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews? A) situational interviews are based on an applicant's responses to actual past situations B) situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation C) situational interviews ask applicants job-related questions to assess their knowledge and skills D) behavioral interviews ask applicants to describe their emotions in different hypothetical situations
B
In order to conduct an effective interview, interviewers should NOT ask job candidates about their ________. A) knowledge B) lifelong goals C) willingness D) motivation
B
In regards to on-campus recruiting, which of the following is most likely to help sell the employer to the interviewee? A) recruiter's professional attire B) sincerity of the recruiter C) emphasis on the job location D) well-written job descriptions E) asking only a few questions
B
Mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements require ________. A) disgruntled employees to contact the local EEOC office prior to filing formal complaints B) applicants to agree to arbitrate certain legal disputes related to employment or dismissal C) applicants to take unpaid leaves of absence during employment disputes D) employees to meet with human resources officials prior to submitting a resignation E) applicants to agree that they will accept decisions handed down by federal appellate courts
B
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. All of the following questions are relevant to Marie's decision to fill top positions at the new hotels with internal candidates EXCEPT ________. A) What are the key managerial positions that are available at the new hotels? B) What percentage of employers in the service industry use succession planning? C) What skills, education, and training have been provided to potential candidates? D) What is the designated procedure for assessing and selecting potential candidates? E) How can potential candidates be made more viable with relevant developmental experiences?
B
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a scatter plot is the most appropriate tool for Marie to use in estimating future personnel needs? A) Productivity levels for Barnum employees typically vary from month to month. B) The size of the two new Barnum hotels will be similar to the chain's other hotels. C) Barnum requires HR to maintain qualifications inventories for all current employees. D) Personnel replacement charts serve as useful tools when filling Barnum's managerial positions. E) Barnum's marketing department will develop a new promotional campaign about the new hotels.
B
Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values -- honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge -- serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if T, would undermine the argument that Red Robin should use achievement tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job experience in the restaurant industry. B) Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry. C) Red Robin expects applicants for management positions to understand current EEO laws and be aware of ADA requirements. D) Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at the cash register. E) Red Robin compares the interests of applicants with those of people already working in the restaurant industry as servers and bartenders.
B
SB&A Consulting plans to do some college recruiting to fill entry-level management positions this year. Which of the following factors is most important for the firm to consider when deciding which colleges to visit? A) location B) reputation C) tuition and fees D) enrollment numbers E) student-teacher ratio
B
Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called ________. A) standardized tests B) intelligence tests C) achievement tests D) personality tests E) comprehensive tests
B
The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) neuroticism B) optimism C) extroversion D) conscientiousness E) agreeableness
B
The best way for employers to avoid improper applicant screening at private employment agencies is by ________. A) using non-profit agencies to locate advertise open jobs B) providing the agency with an accurate job description C) posting jobs on the firm's intranet and bulletin boards D) developing applicant screening software for internal hires E) sending HR experts to monitor the agency's activities
B
The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ________. A) internal recruiting B) succession planning C) long-term forecasting D) advanced interviewing E) candidate testing
B
What is the best way to avoid most interview errors? A) conduct panel interviews B) use a structured interviewing format C) utilize computerized interviewing technology D) ask only situational questions during the interview
B
When constructing a job advertisement, all of the following are aspects of the AIDA guide EXCEPT ________. A) attracting attention to the ad B) implying long-term benefits C) creating desire for the job D) prompting applicant action E) developing interest in the job
B
Which of the following is NOT a tool used by firms to recruit outside candidates? A) newspaper advertising B) intranet job postings C) employment agencies D) executive recruiters E) online job boards
B
Which of the following is T regarding substance abuse screening? A) according to federal law, all employers must test all employees for illegal drugs B) some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances C) hair follicle tests provide less detailed information than urine samples D) urine and hair follicle tests usually provide contradictory information E) most urine sample tests measure degree of impairment
B
Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview? A) directive B) nondirective C) unformatted D) administrative
B
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant positions in a firm? A) lack of knowledge regarding a candidate's strengths B) potential to lose employees who aren't promoted C) costs associated with transferring employees D) questionable commitment of candidates to the firm E) significant training and orientation requirements
B
Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores? A) retest estimate B) equivalent form estimate C) internal comparison estimate D) criterion validity measurement
B
Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores? A) retest estimate B) equivalent form estimate C) internal consistency assessment D) internal comparison estimate E) criterion validity measurement
B
Which of the following refers to an error of judgment on the part of the interviewer due to interviewing one or more very good or very bad candidates just before the interview in question? A) context error B) contrast error C) recency error D) primacy error
B
Which of the following statements is most likely true? A) Interpersonal skills are difficult to judge from phone interviews. B) Phone interviews can generate spontaneous answers from candidates. C) Candidates prefer phone interviews more than face-to-face interviews. D) Interviewers usually judge candidates the same in phone and face-to-face interviews.
B
Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards? A) employment malpractice B) negligent hiring C) unreliable testing D) improper hiring E) invalid screening
B
Which of the following terms refers to studying a firm's past employment needs over a period of years to predict future needs? A) ratio analysis B) trend analysis C) graphical analysis D) computer analysis E) organization analysis
B
Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed? A) reliability B) validity C) expectancy D) consistency
B
Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test? A) equivalency B) reliability C) expectancy D) objectivity E) validity
B
Which of the following would most likely increase candidate-order errors? A) applicant gender B) recruiting pressure C) poor first impression D) lack of job knowledge
B
Which selection tool is considered the LEAST useful by most HR managers? A) interview B) reference letters C) application form D) academic record E) psychological tests
B
While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs? A) openness to experience B) conscientiousness C) extroversion D) agreeableness
B
While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs? A) openness to experience B) conscientiousness C) extroversion D) agreeableness E) neuroticism
B
With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills
B
With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm D) asked to respond to questions about how they would perform various tasks E) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills
B
Most employers report preferring written references to telephone references because written letters provide more candid information about job candidates.
F
In regards to on-campus recruiting, which of the following is most likely to help sell the employer to the interviewee? A) recruiter's professional attire B) sincerity of the recruiter C) emphasis on the job location D) well-written job descriptions E) asking only a few questions
B Explanation: A recruiter who has a sincere and informal attitude, shows respect for the applicant, and sends a prompt follow-up letter is more likely to sell the firm to the interviewee than a recruiter who acts superior and is unprepared. Attire, job location, and job descriptions are less likely to have a major impact on an interviewee.
SB&A Consulting plans to do some college recruiting to fill entry-level management positions this year. Which of the following factors is most important for the firm to consider when deciding which colleges to visit? A) location B) reputation C) tuition and fees D) enrollment numbers E) student-teacher ratio
B Explanation: A school's reputation and the performance of previous hires from the school are the primary factors a firm should consider. A school's location, tuition fees, enrollment numbers, and student-teacher ratio are less important factors.
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. All of the following questions are relevant to Marie's decision to fill top positions at the new hotels with internal candidates EXCEPT ________. A) What are the key managerial positions that are available at the new hotels? B) What percentage of employers in the service industry use succession planning? C) What skills, education, and training have been provided to potential candidates? D) What is the designated procedure for assessing and selecting potential candidates? E) How can potential candidates be made more viable with relevant developmental experiences?
B Explanation: Although about 36% of employers have formal succession planning programs, the question is not directly relevant to Marie's decision. Marie needs to consider what positions need to be filled, the experience of potential candidates, and the procedure for assessing candidates.
Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities EXCEPT ________. A) reviewing employer job requirements B) filing employer tax reports C) visiting employer work sites D) writing job descriptions E) filling job positions
B Explanation: Although state-run employment agencies offer tax credit information to employers, they do not file tax reports. State employment agencies assist employers by helping them fill jobs and write job descriptions. Counselors also review job requirements and visit employer work sites.
Finding or attracting applicants for an employer's open positions is known as ________. A) succession planning B) employee recruiting C) personnel planning D) employee contracting E) job posting
B Explanation: Employee recruiting is the process of finding or attracting applicants for an employer's open positions. Recruiting involves building up an applicant pool by posting jobs and succession planning, which is the process of internally filling executive jobs.
The best way for employers to avoid improper applicant screening at private employment agencies is by ________. A) using non-profit agencies to locate advertise open jobs B) providing the agency with an accurate job description C) posting jobs on the firm's intranet and bulletin boards D) developing applicant screening software for internal hires E) sending HR experts to monitor the agency's activities
B Explanation: Employers can avoid improper applicant screening at private employment agencies by providing the agency with an accurate job description. Employers should also make sure that tests, applications, and interviews are part of the agency's selection process. The agency should be screened, but it would be costly and time consuming to have HR managers monitor the agency's activities.
Pamlico River Productions is seeking a top-level manager to oversee its finance division. Qualified candidates can be difficult to find, so the business would most likely benefit from using a(n) ________ to recruit potential candidates. A) state-run employment agency B) executive recruiter C) temporary agency D) Internet-based job site E) alternate staffing recruiter
B Explanation: Executive recruiters or headhunters are special employment agencies retained by employers seeking top executives. State-run agencies and temporary or alternative staffing would be less beneficial to a firm seeking a top executive. Although Internet sites are popular sources for finding employees, headhunters are more appropriate for filling top positions in a firm.
When constructing a job advertisement, all of the following are aspects of the AIDA guide EXCEPT ________. A) attracting attention to the ad B) implying long-term benefits C) creating desire for the job D) prompting applicant action E) developing interest in the job
B Explanation: Experienced advertisers use AIDA when constructing ads, which stands for attention, interest, desire, and action. An ad should attract attention, develop interest in the job, create desire for the job, and prompt readers to take action. Although benefits and salary may be mentioned in ads, implying long-term benefits is not an element of the AIDA guide.
Which of the following is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by a private employment agency when an applicant is placed in a job? A) U.S. Department of Labor B) employers C) employees D) state employment commissions E) independent recruiters
B Explanation: In most situations, employers pay the fees charged by private employment agencies. Private employment agencies are important sources for clerical, white-collar, and managerial personnel, and their fees are set by state law.
Newton Building Supplies hopes to generate an extra $4 million in sales next year. A salesperson traditionally generates $800,000 in sales each year. Using ratio analysis, how many new salespeople should Newton hire? A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 15 E) 20
B Explanation: Ratio analysis is used to make a forecast in this case based on the number of salespeople and sales volume. $4 million in sales divided by the $800,000 generated by each salesperson indicates that 5 extra salespeople should be hired by Newton.
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a scatter plot is the most appropriate tool for Marie to use in estimating future personnel needs? A) Productivity levels for Barnum employees typically vary from month to month. B) The size of the two new Barnum hotels will be similar to the chain's other hotels. C) Barnum requires HR to maintain qualifications inventories for all current employees. D) Personnel replacement charts serve as useful tools when filling Barnum's managerial positions. E) Barnum's marketing department will develop a new promotional campaign about the new hotels.
B Explanation: Scatter plots graphically show how two variables are related, such as hotel size and staffing levels. Marie should be able to estimate personnel needs if the new hotels are the same size as current ones. Productivity levels, qualifications inventories, replacement charts, and marketing are less important factors.
The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ________. A) internal recruiting B) succession planning C) long-term forecasting D) advanced interviewing E) candidate testing
B Explanation: Succession planning refers to the process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm. The process is also known as employment or personnel planning, although most firms use the term succession planning when determining how to fill top management positions.
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant positions in a firm? A) lack of knowledge regarding a candidate's strengths B) potential to lose employees who aren't promoted C) costs associated with transferring employees D) questionable commitment of candidates to the firm E) significant training and orientation requirements
B Explanation: The primary disadvantage of hiring from within is the potential of losing employees who are not promoted. Employees who apply for jobs and don't get them may become discontented. Advantages of hiring internally include the depth of knowledge the employer has about the candidate, the minimal amount of training and orientation required, and the likelihood that the candidate is committed to the firm.
Which of the following is NOT a tool used by firms to recruit outside candidates? A) newspaper advertising B) intranet job postings C) employment agencies D) executive recruiters E) online job boards
B Explanation: The term job posting refers to publicizing an open job to employees through a firm's intranet or on bulletin boards. Outside candidates are recruited through advertisements, employment agencies, executive recruiters, and online job boards, such as Monster.com and CareerBuilder.com.
All of the following are common concerns that have been expressed to researchers by temporary employees EXCEPT ________. A) feeling angry towards the corporate world B) being in compliance with equal employment laws C) feeling insecure about their employment situation D) worrying about the lack of insurance benefits E) being treated by employers in an impersonal manner
B Explanation: When working with temporary agencies, managers need to ensure that they have a document from the agency stating that filling temp orders is not discriminating. However, this is not a concern felt among temporary workers. Temp workers have shown to be primarily concerned about their lack of insurance benefits and the way they are treated by managers and permanent staff. Temp worker often feel angry towards the corporate world and insecure about their employment situation because most of them want full-time positions.
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage for employers who use private employment agencies to fill positions? A) White-collar applicants are difficult to attract. B) Applicant screening may not be thorough. C) Applicant processing time is too lengthy. D) Application procedures are complicated.
B) Applicant screening may not be thorough.
Which of the following has improved the ability of executive recruiters to find potential candidates? A) mobility premiums B) Internet databases C) corporate intranets D) broad banding
B) Internet databases
Which of the following is most likely a true statement about mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements? A) Most federal courts have found the documents unenforceable. B) Judicial appeals and reconsideration are available if legal errors occur. C) Employees absorb most of the costs associated with the arbitration process. D) Job applicants are typically more interested in firms that require arbitration.
B) Judicial appeals and reconsideration are available if legal errors occur.
The ________ run by the U.S. Department of Labor enables public employment agency counselors to advise applicants about local and national job openings. A) U.S. Career Center B) National Job Bank C) National Employment Agency D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
B) National Job Bank
What is the first step in succession planning? A) creating an applicant pool B) identifying and analyzing key position needs C) selecting who will fill key positions D) developing the strengths of current employees
B) identifying and analyzing key position needs
When constructing a job advertisement, all of the following are aspects of the AIDA guide EXCEPT ________. A) attracting attention to the ad B) implying long-term benefits C) prompting applicant action D) developing interest in the job
B) implying long-term benefits
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a scatter plot is the most appropriate tool for Marie to use in estimating future personnel needs? A) Productivity levels for Barnum employees typically vary from month to month. B) The size of the two new Barnum hotels will be similar to the chain's other hotels. C) Barnum requires HR to maintain qualifications inventories for all current employees. D) Personnel replacement charts serve as useful tools when filling Barnum's managerial positions
B) The size of the two new Barnum hotels will be similar to the chain's other hotels.
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. All of the following questions are relevant to Marie's decision to fill top positions at the new hotels with internal candidates EXCEPT: A) What are the key managerial positions that are available at the new hotels? B) What percentage of employers in the service industry use succession planning? C) What skills, education, and training have been provided to potential candidates? D) What is the designated procedure for assessing and selecting potential candidates?
B) What percentage of employers in the service industry use succession planning?
Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities EXCEPT ________. A) reviewing employer job requirements B) filing employer tax reports C) visiting employer work sites D) writing job descriptions
B) filing employer tax reports
Which of the following is NOT a tool used by firms to recruit outside candidates? A) newspaper advertising B) intranet job postings C) employment agencies D) online job boards
B) intranet job postings
Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months, which means Marcus is currently working on ________. A) screening job candidates B) personnel planning C) interviewing job candidates D) writing job descriptions
B) personnel planning
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant positions in a firm? A) lack of knowledge regarding a candidate's strengths B) potential to lose employees who aren't promoted C) questionable commitment of candidates to the firm D) significant training and orientation requirements
B) potential to lose employees who aren't promoted
Workforce planning often involves paying continuous attention to workforce planning issues which is called: A) personnel replacement chart B) predictive workforce monitoring C) personnel replacement charts D) yield pyramids
B) predictive workforce monitoring
Which of the following contains data regarding employees' education, career development, and special skills and is used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion? A) computerized forecasting tools B) qualifications inventories C) trend records D) scatter plots
B) qualifications inventories
Which of the following motivates most employees over 65 to work? A) overtime payments B) schedule flexibility C) supportive work environments D) additional sick days
B) schedule flexibility
In regards to on-campus recruiting, which of the following is most likely to help sell the employer to the interviewee? A) recruiter's professional attire B) sincerity of the recruiter C) emphasis on the job location D) well-written job descriptions
B) sincerity of the recruiter
When managers need to determine which current employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most likely use ________. A) scatter plots B) skills inventories C) estimated sales trends D) personnel forecasts
B) skills inventories
The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance is known as ________. A) employee mentoring B) succession planning C) work sampling D) employee recruiting
B) succession planning
The process of deciding how to fill executive positions at a firm is known as ________. A) internal recruiting B) succession planning C) long-term forecasting D) advanced interviewing
B) succession planning
What type of interview would most likely include the statement "Tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment?
Behavioral
What type of interview would most likely include the statement, "Tell me about a time when you worked successfully in a team environment"?
Behavioral
Consider the question: "Can you provide an example of a specific instance where you provided leadership in a difficult situation?" What type of question is this?
Behavioral Question
After creating questions for a structured situational interview, ________ need to be developed for scoring purposes.
Benchmark Answers
After creating questions for a structured situational interview, _______________ need to be developed for scoring purposes.
Benchmark answers
Which of the following is the most likely outcome of using the same questions with all candidates being interviewed?
Bias reduced
Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question and rate one applicant?
Board interview
32) When interviewing an applicant with a disability who uses assistive technology, which of the following questions should NOT be asked? A) Have you ever experienced any problems between your technology and an employer's information system? B) How have you addressed any barriers or obstacles that you may have encountered in previous jobs? C) What is the severity and exact nature of your disability and how does the technology assist you? D) What specific technology have you successfully used in previous jobs that facilitated your work? E) Are there any transportation or scheduling issues you anticipate with the work schedule expected in this position?
C
33) Which of the following terms refers to individuals asked by the EEOC to apply for employment which they do not intend to accept, for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices? A) spies B) moles C) testers D) insiders E) graders
C
34) Which of the following best describes telegraphing during an interview? A) drawing out the most useful information from an applicant B) searching for hidden meanings in an applicant's answers C) smiling at an applicant to suggest a desired answer D) allowing an applicant to dominate an interview E) staying alert for an applicant's inconsistencies
C
35) What is the best way to avoid most interview errors? A) conduct panel interviews B) conduct Web-based interviews C) use a structured interviewing format D) utilize computerized interviewing technology E) ask only situational questions during the interview
C
39) When developing a structured situational interview, the first step in the process is to ________. A) rate the job's main duties B) create interview questions C) write a job description D) create benchmark answers E) appoint the interview panel
C
45) How many interviewers usually question applicants during a structured situational interview? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 7 E) 9
C
47) In order to conduct an effective interview, interviewers should NOT ask job candidates about their ________. A) knowledge B) job skills C) lifelong goals D) willingness E) motivation
C
48) Which of the following is the most likely outcome of using the same questions with all candidates being interviewed? A) favorable responses B) weaknesses revealed C) reduction of bias D) expression of interest E) limited reliability
C
63) Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following questions would be relevant for Marion to ask if she wants an employee with extensive knowledge in real estate? A) What did you enjoy most about your last job at a commercial real estate firm? B) How do you handle sellers who believe their home is more valuable than it really is? C) What are the loan options you would suggest for first-time home buyers? D) What is the most frustrating aspect of being a realtor? E) What motivated you to become a real estate agent?
C
A ________ is a graphical method used to help identify the relationship between two variables. A) trend analysis B) ratio analysis C) scatter plot D) productivity chart E) correlation analysis
C
A ________ is used to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate to hire the required number of new employees. A) trend analysis B) ratio analysis C) recruiting yield pyramid D) scatter plot E) log function matrix
C
The first step in the test validation process is ________. A) creating a test battery B) developing an expectancy chart C) administering tests D) analyzing the job E) cross-validating
D
A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. A) work sampling event B) situational judgment test C) management assessment center D) applicant personality test
C
According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired for their ________. A) physical limitations B) lack of aptitude C) nonperformance D) psychological issues E) cognitive abilities
C
All of the following are examples of self-reported personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) Guilford-Zimmerman Survey B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory C) Make a Picture Story D) Wonderlic Personal Characteristics Inventory E) Sales Achievement Predictor
C
All of the following are examples of self-reported personality tests EXCEPT ________. A) Minnesota Paper Form Board Test B) Guilford-Zimmerman Survey C) Make a Picture Story D) Myers Briggs Test
C
All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________. A) deductive reasoning B) numerical ability C) temperament D) memory
C
All of the following terms are used to describe the contingent workforce of an organization EXCEPT ________. A) seasonal employees B) part-time employees C) collateral workers D) temporary workers E) just-in-time workers
C
An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________. A) retired workers B) other people in the same industry C) other people in various occupations D) managers and executives in the firm
C
As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS? A) interpersonal skills B) cognitive skills C) physical abilities D) achievements E) interests
C
Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities? A) aptitude tests B) cognitive ability tests C) work sampling technique D) job knowledge tests
C
Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums? A) structured interviews B) personality tests C) cognitive ability tests D) assessment centers E) work samples
C
Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be accomplished by showing that ________. A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success C) conditions under which the test is administered resemble the work situation D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable E) administered tests provide equivalent questions and scenarios
C
Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________. A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success C) conditions under which the test is administered resemble the work situation D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable
C
Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. A) age B) marital status C) military service D) ethnic background E) disability history
C
Firms should most likely use certified psychologists when developing and validating selection tests in order to ________. A) protect the confidentiality of the firm B) demonstrate familiarity with privacy laws C) ensure compliance with EEO laws D) persuade applicants of testing legitimacy E) use scores for benchmarking purposes
C
For most firms, which of the following is the most effective source for recruiting new hires? A) college recruiting B) regional career fairs C) employee referral programs D) newspaper advertisements E) contingency recruiters
C
For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following, if T, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests? A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions. B) Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an initial franchise fee and receive a percentage of sales royalties in return. C) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses. D) Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm's Web site. E) Golden Creamery uses a series of videos to train new hires as well as a mentoring program that has proven successful in the past.
C
If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable E) inconsistent
C
Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months., which means Marcus is currently working on ________. A) employee contracting B) screening job candidates C) personnel planning D) interviewing job candidates E) writing job descriptions
C
Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values -- honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge -- serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if T, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin employees receive extensive training and are provided with opportunities to be promoted to management positions. B) Red Robin encourages employees to participate in the firm's environmental stewardship program to show community support. C) Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers. D) Red Robin offers monetary incentives to managers who meet quarterly sales targets and exceed performance expectations. E) Red Robin desires employees with extensive knowledge of the restaurant industry and at least two years of experience serving customers.
C
The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance is known as ________. A) action learning B) employee mentoring C) succession planning D) work sampling E) employee recruiting
C
Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) objective tests B) leaderless group discussions C) motor skills assessments D) individual presentations
C
Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) objective tests B) leaderless group discussion C) motor skills assessments D) individual presentations E) management games
C
What is the first step in succession planning? A) creating an applicant pool B) assessing possible candidates C) identifying and analyzing key jobs D) selecting who will fill key positions E) developing the strengths of current employees
C
What is the purpose of an applicant tracking system? A) sorting resumes based on an applicant's years of work experience B) generating advertisements for attracting and gathering applicants C) assisting employers in attracting screening, and managing applicants D) providing employers and applicants with an interactive Web site E) assisting recruiters with locating internal applicants for key positions
C
When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most likely use ________. A) organizational charts B) scatter plots C) skills inventories D) estimated sales trends E) personnel forecasts
C
Which of the following best describes telegraphing during an interview? A) drawing out the most useful information from an applicant B) searching for hidden meanings in an applicant's answers C) smiling at an applicant to suggest a desired answer D) allowing an applicant to dominate an interview
C
Which of the following contains data regarding employees' education, career development, and special skills and is used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion? A) computerized forecasting tools B) replacement charts C) qualifications inventories D) trend records E) personnel files
C
Which of the following has improved the ability of executive recruiters to find potential candidates? A) electronic performance support systems B) mobility premiums C) Internet-based databases D) corporate intranets E) broadbanding
C
Which of the following is a service that provides short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms? A) top-executive searches B) contingent-based searches C) on-demand recruiting services D) just-in-time recruiting services E) ad hoc recruiting services
C
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage for employers who use private employment agencies to fill positions? A) White-collar applicants are difficult to attract. B) Internal recruitment specialists are necessary. C) Applicant screening may not be thorough. D) Applicant processing time is too lengthy. E) Application procedures are complicated.
C
Which of the following motivates most employees over 65 to work? A) overtime payments B) promotion opportunities C) schedule flexibility D) supportive work environments E) additional sick days
C
Which of the following terms refers to individuals asked by the EEOC to apply for employment which they do not intend to accept, for the sole purpose of uncovering unlawful discriminatory hiring practices? A) spies B) moles C) testers D) insiders
C
Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed? A) reliability B) relevancy C) validity D) expectancy E) consistency
C
Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness E) openness to experience
C
________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test. A) Applicable B) Subjective C) Predictive D) Concurrent E) Statistical
C
A ________ is used to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate to hire the required number of new employees. A) trend analysis B) ratio analysis C) recruiting yield pyramid D) scatter plot E) log function matrix
C Explanation: A recruiting yield pyramid is used by employers to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate in order to hire the required number of new employees. A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationships between recruitment leads and invitees, invitees and interviews, interviews and offers made, and offers made and offers accepted.
For most firms, which of the following is the most effective source for recruiting new hires? A) college recruiting B) regional career fairs C) employee referral programs D) newspaper advertisements E) contingency recruiters
C Explanation: Although Internet job boards are the best source for new hires, employee referral programs are also highly effective. College recruiting, career fairs, ads, and contingency recruiters lead to less new hires than employee referral programs.
Which of the following enhances the security of a firm's database management system by specifying the type of information that a user can obtain? A) file-sharing B) search engine C) access matrix D) main server E) intranet
C Explanation: An access matrix can be incorporated into a firm's database management system to make it difficult for people to gain unauthorized access of personnel files. An access matrix defines the rights of users to various kinds of access, such as "read only" or "write only" to each database element.
Which of the following has improved the ability of executive recruiters to find potential candidates? A) electronic performance support systems B) mobility premiums C) Internet-based databases D) corporate intranets E) broadbanding
C Explanation: Internet-based databases have dramatically sped up searches for potential candidates and enabled executive recruiters to fill positions more quickly. The primary challenge for headhunters has been finding qualified candidates, and technology has improved the searching ability of recruiters.
Which of the following is a service that provides short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms? A) top-executive searches B) contingent-based searches C) on-demand recruiting services D) just-in-time recruiting services E) ad hoc recruiting services
C Explanation: On-demand recruiting services (ODRS) provide short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms. These recruiters are paid by the hour or project instead of a percentage fee.
All of the following terms are used to describe the contingent workforce of an organization EXCEPT ________. A) seasonal employees B) part-time employees C) collateral workers D) temporary workers E) just-in-time workers
C Explanation: Part-time workers, just-in-time workers, seasonal employees, and temporary employees are all part of the contingent workforce in a firm. Employers often supplement their permanent workforce by hiring contingent or temporary workers.
Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months., which means Marcus is currently working on ________. A) employee contracting B) screening job candidates C) personnel planning D) interviewing job candidates E) writing job descriptions
C Explanation: Personnel or employment planning is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. The process considers all future positions from maintenance workers to executives, and flows from the firm's strategic plans.
Which of the following contains data regarding employees' education, career development, and special skills and is used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion? A) computerized forecasting tools B) replacement charts C) qualifications inventories D) trend records E) personnel files
C Explanation: Qualifications or skills inventories are used by managers when determining which employees should be promoted or transferred. A skills inventory contains data on employees' performance records, educational background, and promotability.
Which of the following motivates most employees over 65 to work? A) overtime payments B) promotion opportunities C) schedule flexibility D) supportive work environments E) additional sick days
C Explanation: Schedule flexibility is the primary motivation for employees over age 65. Older employees want flexible and often abbreviated work schedules, and many only want to work part time. Overtime, promotions, sick days, and supportive work environments are less important factors than flexibility.
When managers need to determine which employees are available for promotion or transfer, they will most likely use ________. A) organizational charts B) scatter plots C) skills inventories D) estimated sales trends E) personnel forecasts
C Explanation: Skills inventories are manual or computerized records listing employees' education, career and development interests, languages, and special skills. They are used in selecting inside candidates for promotion or transfer.
The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance is known as ________. A) action learning B) employee mentoring C) succession planning D) work sampling E) employee recruiting
C Explanation: Succession planning is the ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance. Succession planning is necessary when a firm is filling its top positions from internal candidates. The process involves identifying key needs, creating and assessing candidates, and selecting those who will fill the key positions.
The ________ run by the U.S. Department of Labor enables public employment agency counselors to advise applicants about local and national job openings. A) U.S. Career Center B) American Job Network C) National Job Bank D) National Employment Agency E) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
C Explanation: The National Job Bank maintains a nationwide computerized job bank that enables public employment agency counselors to advise applicants about local and national job openings. The EEOC is a government agency responsible for enforcing federal hiring laws.
What is the first step in succession planning? A) creating an applicant pool B) assessing possible candidates C) identifying and analyzing key jobs D) selecting who will fill key positions E) developing the strengths of current employees
C Explanation: The first step in succession planning is identifying a firm's future key position needs and then formulating job descriptions and specifications for them. The key needs are based on the company's future plans. The second step involves developing inside candidates for future key positions, which is followed by assessing and selecting who will fill the key positions.
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage for employers who use private employment agencies to fill positions? A) White-collar applicants are difficult to attract. B) Internal recruitment specialists are necessary. C) Applicant screening may not be thorough. D) Applicant processing time is too lengthy. E) Application procedures are complicated.
C Explanation: The primary drawback to using a private employment agency is the fact that agencies may not screen applicants very well. Successful applicants may be blocked, while inappropriate applicants may be sent to interview with hiring supervisors. Advantages include saving time and being good sources for white-collar personnel.
What is the purpose of an applicant tracking system? A) sorting resumes based on an applicant's years of work experience B) generating advertisements for attracting and gathering applicants C) assisting employers in attracting screening, and managing applicants D) providing employers and applicants with an interactive Web site E) assisting recruiters with locating internal applicants for key positions
C Explanation: The purpose of an applicant tracking system is to help employers attract, gather, screen, compile, and manage outside applicants. Such an online system is needed because Web-based ads tend to generate a large number of applicants.
A(n) ________ is a simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. A) work sampling event B) video-based situation C) management assessment center D) applicant personality test E) miniature job evaluation
C observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. The center itself may be a simple conference room, but more likely a special room with a one-way mirror to facilitate observation.
When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same. A) staffing levels B) currency rates C) productivity levels D) recruitment plans
C) productivity levels
A ________ is used to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate to hire the required number of new employees. A) trend analysis B) ratio analysis C) recruiting yield pyramid D) scatter plot
C) recruiting yield pyramid
A ________ is a graphical method used to help identify how two variables are related. A) trend analysis B) ratio analysis C) scatter plot D) productivity chart
C) scatter plot
What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation?
Current employees may not be representative of new applicants.
Smith Industries has set a goal of recruiting minority applicants. Which of the following methods is LEAST likely to be successful for Smith Industries? A) offering flexible work schedules B) providing flexible benefits plans C) utilizing executive recruiters D) collaborating with professional organizations
C) utilizing executive recruiters
Personnel Replacement Charts
Company records showing present performance + promotability of inside candidates for the most important positions.
Which of the following best explains why most firms do not provide rejected applicants with detailed explanations about the employment decision?
Concerns about legal disputes
Which of the following applicant characteristics is LEAST likely to be assessed accurately during a selection interview?
Conscientiousness
Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)
Consists of a series of vertical scales, one for each dimension of job performance; typical developed by a committee that includes both subordinates and managers
Which of the following refers to an error of judgement on the part of the interviewer due to interviewing one or more very good or very bad candidates just before the interview in question?
Contrast error
True
Criterion validity shows a relationship between how well a person performs on a selection test + how well a person performs on the job.
Critical Incident Method
Critical Incident -An unusual event that denotes superior or inferior employee performance in some part of the job -The manager keeps a log or diary for each employee throughout the appraisal period and notes specific critical incidents related to how well they perform
21) An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by ________. A) using an unstructured interview format B) asking all candidates different puzzle questions C) interviewing multiple candidates simultaneously D) providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers E) requiring candidates to participate in work sampling techniques
D
22) Ellen is interviewing along with several other talented candidates for a position as a journalist at a newspaper. A team of interviewers will meet with all the candidates at once. The team will pose problems to the candidates and see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer. This is most likely an example of a ________ interview. A) serial B) sequential C) board D) mass E) panel
D
42) After creating questions for a structured situational interview, ________ need to be developed for scoring purposes. A) grade definitions B) alternative rankings C) process charts D) benchmark answers E) human resource metrics
D
52) All of the following will most likely improve the structure of an interview EXCEPT ________. A) using the same questions for all candidates B) rating candidate answers against a scale C) basing questions on actual job duties D) asking candidates to describe themselves E) using a standardized interview form
D
55) Consider the question: "What factors should be considered when developing a customer database?" What type of question is this? A) background question B) past behavior question C) situational question D) job knowledge question E) structured question
D
57) Which of the following is recommended advice for conducting an effective interview? A) ask questions that can be answered yes or no B) telegraph the desired answer to the candidate C) allow the candidate to control the interview D) ask the candidate for specific examples E) ask the candidate about work-related injuries
D
59) Managers using the streamlined interview process should first ________. A) ask questions about significant areas in a candidate's life B) devise a plan for the interview C) probe specific factors during the interview D) prepare for the interview E) match the candidate to the job
D
61) Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following supports the argument that Marion should use the streamlined interview process to hire an agent for her company? A) Downturns in the housing market have led Action Realty's competitors to downsize their staff rather than hire new employees. B) Marion likes applicants to evaluate themselves and to describe their goals and aspirations. C) Marion is viewed as a concerned and fair employer by the real estate agents at Action Realty. D) Action Realty needs an agent with the personality, motivation, and experience to be successful in a competitive industry. E) Most real estate agents at Action Realty were hired through a nondirective interview with Marion.
D
64) What is the second step of the streamlined interview process? A) writing a job description B) conducting the interview C) conducting a job analysis D) developing interview questions E) matching the candidate to the job
D
69) Situational questions like "How would you organize a promotional event?" seek information regarding a candidate's ________ factor. A) motivation B) intellectual C) personality D) knowledge E) leadership
D
70) During an interview, a job candidate benefits from all of the following actions EXCEPT ________. A) using appropriate humor B) learning about the employer C) asking the interviewer questions D) answering questions quickly E) speaking enthusiastically
D
A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and competencies the firm needs. A) job analysis B) organization chart C) marketing plan D) strategic plan E) recruitment process
D
A series of job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for a job is known as a ________. A) nondirective situational interview B) structured behavioral interview C) nondirective behavioral interview D) structured situational interview
D
Jessica Garza is a manager at a large retail store. Currently, Jessica has four temporary workers under her supervision that a local staffing agency has provided. In which of the following tasks should Jessica become directly involved? A) negotiating the pay rate of a temporary worker B) discussing job opportunities with a temporary worker C) discussing harassment issues with a temporary worker D) answering task-related questions posed by a temporary worker E) terminating a temporary worker directly
D
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Marie should implement a computerized skills inventory database? A) Barnum offers its employees the opportunities to participate in job rotation and job expansion experiences. B) Barnum primarily recruits for management trainee positions at college campuses and through online job boards. C) Barnum's recruiting yield pyramid indicates that the firm should generate 1,000 leads in order to fill 100 positions. D) Barnum executives would like to transfer the firm's most qualified employees to the new hotels to fill supervisory positions. E) HR managers at Barnum frequently receive discrimination complaints that must be investigated by the EEOC.
D
The fastest growing labor force segment in the United States over the next few years will be those from ________ years old. A) 18-22 B) 23-29 C) 30-44 D) 45-64 E) 65+
D
The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) using a new sample of employees B) administering additional tests C) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance
D
The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________. A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness E) openness to experience
D
When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured? A) test validity B) retest estimate C) equivalent form D) internal consistency E) criterion validity
D
When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same. A) staffing levels B) currency rates C) economic forecasts D) productivity levels E) recruitment plans
D
Which of the following best explains why employers frequently use Internet recruiting methods to find outside candidates for jobs? A) simplified EEO compliance B) standardized questionnaires C) pre-screened applicants D) cost effectiveness E) data collection
D
Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more frequently? A) low cost when hired through agencies B) workers' desires for flexible schedules C) high cost of workers' compensation insurance D) need of businesses to increase productivity E) desire of businesses to avoid paying overtime
D
Which of the following is NOT information that should be requested on application forms? A) work history B) experience C) technical skills D) marital status E) training
D
Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people? A) performance standard B) digital dashboard C) competency model D) expectancy chart
D
Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________. A) management assessment centers B) intelligence tests C) personality tests D) situational tests E) interests inventories
D
________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients. A) State-run employment agencies B) Private employment agencies C) Temporary agencies D) Executive recruiters E) Job banks
D
________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together. A) Retest estimate B) Equivalent form estimate C) Content validity estimate D) Internal comparison estimate
D
When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same. A) staffing levels B) currency rates C) economic forecasts D) productivity levels E) recruitment plans
D Explanation: Both a trend analysis and a ratio analysis assume that productivity remains about the same. For example, when using a ratio analysis, an assumption is made that you cannot motivate a salesperson to produce more than he or she has sold in the past. With a trend analysis, historical productivity trends are used and are the basis for predicting the future.
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that Marie should implement a computerized skills inventory database? A) Barnum offers its employees the opportunities to participate in job rotation and job expansion experiences. B) Barnum primarily recruits for management trainee positions at college campuses and through online job boards. C) Barnum's recruiting yield pyramid indicates that the firm should generate 1,000 leads in order to fill 100 positions. D) Barnum executives would like to transfer the firm's most qualified employees to the new hotels to fill supervisory positions. E) HR managers at Barnum frequently receive discrimination complaints that must be investigated by the EEOC.
D Explanation: Computerized skills inventory databases provide firms with easy access to information about all employees. If Barnum wants to hire internally, then a database would provide the skills inventory needed to determine the most qualified candidates to staff the new hotels. Recruiting, job rotation, and discrimination claims are less relevant to implementing a computerized skills inventory database.
Which of the following best explains why employers frequently use Internet recruiting methods to find outside candidates for jobs? A) simplified EEO compliance B) standardized questionnaires C) pre-screened applicants D) cost effectiveness E) data collection
D Explanation: Cost-effectiveness is the primary reason that most employers use the Internet to find outside candidates for jobs. Internet recruiting is more efficient and inexpensive than jobs posted in newspapers. One of the negatives is that fewer old people use the Internet, so the method has the potential of discriminating against older applicants and some minorities. As a result, employers must keep track of the race, sex, and ethnic group of applicants to make sure EEO compliance is occurring.
A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and competencies the firm needs. A) job analysis B) organization chart C) marketing plan D) strategic plan E) recruitment process
D Explanation: Employment planning should flow from the firm's strategic plans. For example, plans to enter new businesses or reduce costs all influence the types of positions a firm will need to fill or eliminate.
________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients. A) State-run employment agencies B) Private employment agencies C) Temporary agencies D) Executive recruiters E) Job banks
D Explanation: Executive recruiters, or headhunters, are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients. State-run, employment agencies, private employment agencies, and temporary agencies are less likely to be used by firms seeking top executives.
Smith Industries has set a goal of recruiting minority applicants. Which of the following methods is LEAST likely to be successful for Smith Industries? A) implementing employee referral campaigns B) offering flexible work schedules C) providing flexible benefits plans D) utilizing executive recruiters E) collaborating with professional organizations
D Explanation: Firms that provide flexible work schedules and benefits plans are more likely to attract minority workers, especially women. Collaborating with professional organizations, such as the National Society of Hispanic MBAs will also improve the chances of hiring minorities. Executive recruiters are the least likely method for attracting minorities.
Jessica Garza is a manager at a large retail store. Currently, Jessica has four temporary workers under her supervision that a local staffing agency has provided. In which of the following tasks should Jessica become directly involved? A) negotiating the pay rate of a temporary worker B) discussing job opportunities with a temporary worker C) discussing harassment issues with a temporary worker D) answering task-related questions posed by a temporary worker E) terminating a temporary worker directly
D Explanation: For legal purposes, companies should treat temporary employees as if the temp agency is the worker's employer. Managers should let the temp agency handle matters such as pay, harassment, and termination. A manager who thinks a temp worker might be suitable for a permanent position should refer the worker to publicly available job postings. However, answering questions is not problematic as long as the manager is not training the worker.
An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to ________. A) reach unemployed individuals B) receive assistance writing job ads C) adhere to federal hiring practices D) fill a specific job opening quickly E) spend more time recruiting applicants
D Explanation: One of the main reasons an employer uses a private employment agency is to fill a specific job opening quickly. Other reasons include spending less time recruiting and reaching currently employed individuals who might feel more comfortable dealing with an agency than a competing firm.
Which of the following is a recommended method for HR departments to protect employee data? A) hiring temporary employees to manage personal employment information B) requiring HR data access through peer-to-peer file-sharing applications C) retaining written rather than computerized personnel files D) performing random background checks on employees with HR database access E) providing full database access to employee files only through a firm's intranet
D Explanation: Random background and drug tests is recommended to screen out potential identity thieves, especially on employees with access to personal information. Firms are advised against hiring temporary employees but to use trusted workers at all times when dealing with personnel information. Access to employee files should be limited since intruders can strike from both inside and outside a firm.
All of the following are advantages of a firm recruiting through a central office EXCEPT ________. A) reducing the duplication of efforts B) implementing company-wide strategic priorities C) ensuring EEO compliance among recruiters D) developing autonomous divisions and Web sites E) simplifying the recruiting process
D Explanation: Recruitment through a central office is beneficial for a number of reasons, such as the reduction of duplicated efforts and the simplification of the process for both employers and employees. Having a central office also makes it easier to ensure that recruiters who understand EEO law are involved in recruiting. A central office enables a firm to apply its strategic priorities on a company-wide basis. Firm Web sites provide central locations for recruitment and they eliminate the need for autonomous recruiting divisions.
Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more frequently? A) low cost when hired through agencies B) workers' desires for flexible schedules C) high cost of workers' compensation insurance D) need of businesses to increase productivity E) desire of businesses to avoid paying overtime
D Explanation: The desire and need among firms to increase productivity contributes to the growing popularity of temporary workers. Productivity is measured in terms of output per hour paid for, and temps are only paid when they are working. However, temps cost employees more than permanent workers because temp agencies receive a fee.
Which of the following is the primary advantage of college recruiting? A) minimal preparation required B) flexible, short-term interview schedule C) inexpensive method of screening applicants D) access to a source of management trainees E) opportunity to keep firm's identity confidential
D Explanation: The primary advantage of college recruiting is the extensive source of management trainees and professional and technical employees. Disadvantages include the fact that on-campus recruiting is both expensive and time-consuming because schedules must be planned far in advance and company brochures must be printed.
Offshoring means having outside vendors supply services that a firm's own employees previously did in-house, while outsourcing means having overseas outside vendors provide services once performed in-house.
F
Which of the following would be the best option for a business that needs to attract local applicants for hourly jobs? A) employee referral campaigns B) on-demand recruiting services C) college recruiting D) walk-ins E) headhunters
D Explanation: Walk-ins, which are direct applications made at an office, are a major source of hourly workers. Companies that post "Help Wanted" signs are able to cost-effectively attract many local applicants. Employee referral campaigns do not necessarily attract local applicants, and they typically cost $400-$900 per hire, which makes them an unlikely method for hiring hourly workers.
The unreliability of a test may be explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) poor sampling of question material B) lack of equivalence between tests C) inconsistent testing conditions D) failure to predict job performance E) lack of internal consistency
D do a poor job of sampling the material or there might be errors due to changes in the testing conditions. Poor internal consistency or a lack of equivalence between tests would also explain a test's unreliability. Validity rather than reliability refers to a test's ability to measure what is intended to be measured, such as job performance.
________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together. A) Retest estimate B) Equivalent form estimate C) Content validity estimate D) Internal comparison estimate E) Criterion validity estimate
D includes 10 items on a test of vocational interests, believing that they all measure, in various ways, the test taker's interest in working outdoors. You administer the test and then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to these 10 items vary together. This would provide a measure of the internal reliability of the test and is known as an internal comparison estimate.
Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) astrology B) numerology C) reasoning analysis D) handwriting analysis E) polygraph output assessment
D personality traits. Graphology thus has some resemblance to projective personality tests, although graphology's validity is highly suspect.
________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients. A) State-run employment agencies B) Private employment agencies C) Temporary agencies D) Executive recruiters
D) Executive recruiters
________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. A) Recruitment B) Selection C) Job analysis D) Workforce planning
D) Workforce planning
Which of the following terms refers to the use of nontraditional recruitment sources? A) negligent hiring B) personnel planning C) human resource management D) alternative staffing
D) alternative staffing
Which of the following is a primary goal of college recruiters? A) building relationships with college career centers B) cutting future recruiting costs for the firm C) developing a pool of temporary workers D) attracting good candidates
D) attracting good candidates
What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process? A) performing initial screening interviews B) building a pool of candidates C) performing candidate background checks D) deciding what positions to fill
D) deciding what positions to fill
All of the following are methods used by firms to develop high-potential candidates for future positions EXCEPT ________. A) providing internal training B) implementing job rotation C) offering global assignments D) developing skills inventories
D) developing skills inventories
All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________. A) listing the job's attributes B) providing the job's pay rate C) publicizing the open job to employees D) indicating the preferred number of applicants
D) indicating the preferred number of applicants
A small software firm is seeking several permanent employees with experience in the semiconductor industry and advanced degrees in computer science. The firm is a small one and cannot afford to pay a traditional recruiting firm a fee of 30% per each hire's salary. Instead, this firm should consider using a(n) ________. A) contingency-based recruiter B) temporary staffing agency C) outsourcing staffing service D) on-demand recruiting service
D) on-demand recruiting service
A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________. A) overlooks the passage of time in regards to staffing B) addresses only the financial impact of employment changes C) assumes constant increases in worker productivity D) overlooks the potential for changes in skills needed
D) overlooks the potential for changes in skills needed
Which of the following refers to company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a firm's top positions? A) yield pyramids B) trend analysis charts C) succession planning tools D) personnel replacement charts
D) personnel replacement charts
A firm's ________ should guide employment planning and determine the types of skills and competencies the firm needs. A) job analysis B) organization chart C) marketing planning D) strategic business planning
D) strategic business planning
Pablo wants to figure out likely future employment needs for Slate Industries by examining past organizational employment needs of the company. This is an example of: A) a qualification inventory B) ratio analysis C) succession planning D) trend analysis
D) trend analysis
Which of the following would be the best option for a business that needs to attract local applicants for hourly jobs? A) employee referral campaigns B) on-demand recruiting services C) college recruiting D) walk-ins
D) walk-ins
Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more frequently? A) low cost when hired through agencies B) workers' desires for flexible schedules C) high cost of workers' compensation insurance D) weak economic confidence among employers
D) weak economic confidence among employers
________ means making sure that the manager and the subordinate agree on the subordinate's job standards and the appraisal method to be used.
Defining the job
Continuously monitor workforce planning issues
Dixon Industries adheres to a talent management philosophy. As an HR manager at Dixon, you should most likely ______.
Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with 70 employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Paulo Boyle is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the 12 employees under his direct supervision. Paulo plans to use the critical incident method to evaluate the performance of her subordinates.
Due to economic difficulties, the firm will be laying off the two lowest performing employees in Paulo's department.
19) In a ________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously. A) formal B) reliable C) topical D) panel E) mass
E
23) Which of the following best explains why an increasing number of firms use the Internet to conduct prescreening interviews? A) high number of foreign applicants B) globalization of manufacturing firms C) lawsuits involving panel interviews D) improved technical skills of applicants E) reduced recruitment budgets
E
24) All of the following are common characteristics of computerized selection interviews EXCEPT ________. A) questions presented rapidly B) questions formatted as multiple-choice C) response times measured for any delays D) questions focused on experience and skills E) essay questions based on hypothetical situations
E
36) George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner? A) Great Toys' HR department has developed a job description for the new media planner position. B) Great Toys' competitors typically use structured situational interviews to avoid legal issues in the hiring process. C) Great Toys' employees typically remain with the company for many years because they feel comfortable with the organizational culture. D) Great Toys has successfully used structured situational interviews in the past for its top-level positions. E) Great Toys' executives want to ensure that the interview process is fair to all candidates and that the best candidate is hired.
E
43) Which of the following is a true statement regarding structured situational interviews? A) Portions of the interview are conducted online. B) Answers are compared to industry standards. C) Hypothetical questions are typically avoided. D) Job descriptions are written after the interview. E) Interviews are usually conducted by a panel.
E
Older workers usually have higher absenteeism rates compared to younger workers due to illness.
F
51) Which question below is an example of a background question? A) "Can you provide an example of a time when you developed a highly effective ad campaign?" B) "Suppose a coworker with more experience was not following standard work procedures. What would you do?" C) "What steps would you follow to conduct a brainstorming session with a group of employees on safety?" D) "What is the procedure you would follow when examining a patient complaining of chest pain?" E) "What experience and training have you had with drafting designs for commercial buildings?"
E
56) All of the following are guidelines for conducting an effective interview EXCEPT ________. A) scheduling a private room for the interview B) taking brief notes during the interview C) reviewing the candidate's qualifications before the interview D) showing courtesy and friendliness towards the candidate E) asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers
E
67) According to the streamlined interview process, a(n) ________ is a useful tool for guiding the flow of an interview. A) organizational chart B) benchmark metric C) expectancy chart D) scatter plot E) chronological plan
E
A manager who gives a former employee a bad reference may be accused of ________ if the information is both F and harmful. A) discrimination B) privacy invasion C) adverse impact D) arbitration E) defamation
E
A small software firm is seeking several permanent employees with experience in the semiconductor industry and advanced degrees in computer science. The firm is a small one and cannot afford to pay a traditional recruiting firm a fee of 30% per each hire's salary. Instead, this firm should consider using a(n) ________. A) contingency-based recruiter B) state-run employment agency C) temporary staffing agency D) outsourcing staffing service E) on-demand recruiting service
E
A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________. A) overlooks the passage of time in regards to staffing B) considers too many possible influences on employment C) addresses only the financial impact of employment changes D) assumes constant increases in worker productivity E) overlooks how changes in sales volume affect staffing
E
All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________. A) listing the job's attributes B) providing the job's pay rate C) publicizing the open job to employees D) listing the job's required qualifications E) indicating the preferred number of applicants
E
All of the following are methods used by firms to develop high-potential candidates for future positions EXCEPT ________. A) providing internal training B) offering cross-functional experiences C) implementing job rotation D) offering global assignments E) developing skills inventories
E
All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________. A) internal consistency B) retest estimate C) internal comparison estimate D) equivalent form estimate E) content validity measurement
E
For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) demonstrate economic loss B) prove that the accused had access to the property C) document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraph D) explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked during the polygraph E) subject all employees with access to the property in question to the same polygraph examination as the accused employee
E
For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests? A) Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws. B) Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development. C) Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture. D) Golden Creamery employees either work part-time or on flexible schedules. E) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.
E
House-Tree-Person and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests. A) achievement B) intelligence C) apperception D) self-reported E) projective
E
In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process? A) electrical engineer at the Department of Energy B) accounting clerk at the Department of Justice C) pharmacist's assistant at Walgreen's D) security guard at Wells Fargo Bank E) cashier at J.C. Penney's
E
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports Marie's plan to centralize Barnum's recruitment efforts? A) Online screening tests are given to all candidates for positions at Barnum to assess their potential and skills. B) Barnum plans to end its succession planning program, which the firm believes is to blame for poor candidate assessment. C) Barnum executives believe that the high turnover rate at the firm is due to inadequate training requirements. D) Barnum enforces a strict policy about hiring friends and family members of current employees. E) EEO selection violations have occurred in the past when hiring responsibilities were given to Barnum managers at each individual hotel.
E
Recruiting is necessary to ________. A) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates B) forecast the short-term supply of outside candidates C) create positive word-of-mouth about a firm D) create qualifications inventories E) develop an applicant pool
E
The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) using a new sample of employees B) administering additional tests C) assessing predictive validation D) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance E) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance
E
What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process? A) performing initial screening interviews B) building a pool of candidates C) performing candidate background checks D) interviewing possible candidates E) deciding what positions to fill
E
Which of the following best describes how to use a retest estimate to assess reliability? A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question B) administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 C) administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores D) administer the same test to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores E) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1
E
Which of the following is most frequently used by retailers to estimate short-term personnel needs? A) recruiting yield pyramids B) position replacement cards C) personnel replacement charts D) qualifications inventories E) computerized forecasting programs
E
Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process? A) Development costs are very low. B) Minimal time is required for test administration. C) Test development responsibilities are shared by managers. D) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process. E) Peers are effectively able to predict the success of applicants.
E
Which of the following refers to company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a firm's top positions? A) yield pyramids B) trend analysis charts C) succession planning tools D) employee scatter plots E) personnel replacement charts
E
________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. A) Recruitment B) Selection C) Job analysis D) Interviewing E) Personnel planning
E
A small software firm is seeking several permanent employees with experience in the semiconductor industry and advanced degrees in computer science. The firm is a small one and cannot afford to pay a traditional recruiting firm a fee of 30% per each hire's salary. Instead, this firm should consider using a(n) ________. A) contingency-based recruiter B) state-run employment agency C) temporary staffing agency D) outsourcing staffing service E) on-demand recruiting service
E Explanation: An on-demand recruiting service would be the best solution for a small firm that cannot pay high fees to recruit employees. ODRS provide short-term specialized recruiting assistance to support specific projects without the expense of traditional search firms. An ODRS charges by time or project
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. Which of the following, if true, best supports Marie's plan to centralize Barnum's recruitment efforts? A) Online screening tests are given to all candidates for positions at Barnum to assess their potential and skills. B) Barnum plans to end its succession planning program, which the firm believes is to blame for poor candidate assessment. C) Barnum executives believe that the high turnover rate at the firm is due to inadequate training requirements. D) Barnum enforces a strict policy about hiring friends and family members of current employees. E) EEO selection violations have occurred in the past when hiring responsibilities were given to Barnum managers at each individual hotel.
E Explanation: Centralized recruiting makes it easier to ensure that recruitment experts who know EEO law are doing the recruiting. If EEO violations have occurred in the past, then it is a good idea for the firm to centralize the hiring process.
Which of the following is most frequently used by retailers to estimate short-term personnel needs? A) recruiting yield pyramids B) position replacement cards C) personnel replacement charts D) qualifications inventories E) computerized forecasting programs
E Explanation: Computerized forecasting programs are used to translate projected productivity and sales levels into anticipated personnel needs. Many firms, especially retailers, use computerized employee forecasting systems to estimate short-term needs.
Recruiting is necessary to ________. A) determine whether to use inside or outside candidates B) forecast the short-term supply of outside candidates C) create positive word-of-mouth about a firm D) create qualifications inventories E) develop an applicant pool
E Explanation: Developing an applicant pool is the primary reason to recruit. Forecasting the supply of outside candidates and determining whether to hire internally or externally are considerations made by HR managers before they begin the recruiting process.
________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. A) Recruitment B) Selection C) Job analysis D) Interviewing E) Personnel planning
E Explanation: Personnel or employment planning is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them. The process considers all future positions from maintenance workers to executives, and flows from the firm's strategic plans.
Which of the following refers to company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a firm's top positions? A) yield pyramids B) trend analysis charts C) succession planning tools D) employee scatter plots E) personnel replacement charts
E Explanation: Personnel replacement charts are company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a firm's top positions. Such charts show the present performance and promotability for each position's potential replacement. Succession planning is the term used when referring to employment planning that focuses on filling executive jobs, but it is a process rather than a tool for managing employee records.
All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________. A) listing the job's attributes B) providing the job's pay rate C) publicizing the open job to employees D) listing the job's required qualifications E) indicating the preferred number of applicants
E Explanation: Posting a job means to publicize an open job to employees by posting it on company intranets or bulletin boards. Such postings list the jobs' attributes, such as qualifications, supervisor, work schedule, and pay rate. The preferred number of applicants is less likely to appear on a job posting.
Which of the following is a primary goal of college recruiters? A) supporting employment diversity programs B) building relationships with college career centers C) cutting future recruiting costs for the firm D) developing a pool of temporary workers E) attracting good candidates
E Explanation: The two main goals of college recruiters are attracting good candidates and determining if candidates are worthy of further consideration. It is helpful if firms develop ties with college career centers to gain feedback on its recruiting programs, but the main goal of college recruiters is to find employees.
A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________. A) overlooks the passage of time in regards to staffing B) considers too many possible influences on employment C) addresses only the financial impact of employment changes D) assumes constant increases in worker productivity E) overlooks how changes in sales volume affect staffing
E Explanation: Trend analysis provides an initial estimate of future staffing needs, but employment levels rarely depend only on the passage of time. Factors such as changes in sales volume and productivity also affect staffing needs, which is why a trend analysis is limited in its usefulness.
All of the following are methods used by firms to develop high-potential candidates for future positions EXCEPT ________. A) providing internal training B) offering cross-functional experiences C) implementing job rotation D) offering global assignments E) developing skills inventories
E Explanation: With succession planning, firms identify future key positions, and then they create candidates for these jobs by identifying potential internal and external candidates. Employers develop candidates through internal training, cross-functional experiences, job rotation, external training, and global/regional assignments. Skills inventories are records that list employees' qualifications.
Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire? A) achievement testing B) video-based simulation C) work sampling technique D) management assessment center E) miniature job training
E of the job's tasks, and then evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire. The approach assumes that a person who demonstrates that he or she can learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform the job itself. Work sampling and management assessment centers involve situational tests rather than actual job tasks.
In order to be legally eligible to work in the United States, a person must be a U.S. citizen.
F
False
Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at 2 points in time to determine test equivalence.
In a structured situational interview, questions should primarily address_____________.
Essential job duties
________ are special employment agencies retained by employers to seek out top management talent for their clients.
Executive recruiters
Which of the following terms refers to an interview conducted when an employee quits a firm?
Exit Interview
Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?
Experts observe and appraise each candidate's leadership potential
________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active.
Extroversion
According to EEO law, it is legal to ask job applicants if they have ever received workers' compensation.
F
According to EEO laws, it is always illegal to recruit applicants with gender-specific ads, but using word-of-mouth to spread information about job opportunities is legal in all situations.
F
According to EEOC guidelines, an interviewer must limit his or her questions to whether an applicant has any physical or mental impairment that may interfere with his or her ability to perform the job's essential tasks.
F
An in-house temporary employee is a highly skilled worker, such as an engineer or software designer, who is supplied for long-term projects under contract from an outside technical services firm.
F
Due to EEO laws, firms are only allowed to use contingency workers for clerical or maintenance positions; managerial staff must consist of full-time employees of the firm.
F
Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.
F
In most cases, it is more cost effective for firms to hire contingent workers through a temp agency than to hire comparable permanent employees.
F
In most cases, job applicants view concise job advertisements as more attractive and credible than lengthy ads with too many details about a job.
F
When firms prove that they will use the information on job application forms as a predictor of job performance, they are allowed under EEO laws to request information regarding an applicant's age and marital status.
F
When it refers to filling jobs like that of a maintenance clerk, personnel planning is called succession planning.
F
When rejecting a job candidate, it is best to refrain from providing an explanation detailing the reason for the rejection because most candidates view an employer more positively when they don't know the reason for the rejection.
F
Managers cannot be sued for defamation when giving bad references because only employers are held responsible by state and federal courts.
F another by lowering the person in the estimation of the community or by deterring other persons from associating or dealing with him or her.
Organizational management refers to the goal-oriented and integrated process of planning for, recruiting, selecting, developing, and compensating employees.
F. TALENT MANAGEMENT
Although inexpensive to develop, assessment centers are infrequently used by employers because such tests have a weak correlation with future job performance.
FALSE
Central tendency is a problem that occurs when a supervisor's rating of a subordinate on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits.
FALSE
Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a selection test.
FALSE
Content validity is based on showing that the scores on the test are related to job performance
FALSE
During an exit interview, a supervisor and a subordinate review the appraisal and make plans to correct deficiencies and reinforce strengths.
FALSE
During the appraisal interview, the manager should make clear that the manager is responsible for decision-making.
FALSE
Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.
FALSE
Formal performance appraisals have been eliminated by almost all major firms and replaced by daily assessments by peers.
FALSE
In order to be legally eligible to work in the United States, a person must be a U.S. citizen.
FALSE
In order to ensure that a performance appraisal is legally defensible, a supervisor should use only one performance appraisal tool.
FALSE
In order to ensure that performance goals are challenging and relevant, Matthew, a marketing manager, should independently set goals for his subordinates because participatively setting goals usually produces lower job performance.
FALSE
In the paired comparison method, the manager places predetermined percentages of ratees into performance categories.
FALSE
Managers cannot be sued for defamation when giving bad references because only employers are held responsible by state and federal courts
FALSE
Most employers report preferring written references to telephone references because written letters provide more candid information about job candidates.
FALSE
Most small businesses find it cost-effective to conduct validity studies of the selection tools they use
FALSE
Organization-person fit is the primary concern of most employers during the selection process.
FALSE
Paired comparison is a rating approach that involves keeping a record of uncommonly good or undesirable examples of an employee's work-related behavior and reviewing it with the employee at predetermined times.
FALSE
Peer appraisals have been shown to have a negative effect on task motivation, cohesion, and job satisfaction, so most organizations no longer use them.
FALSE
Studies suggest that managers who receive upward feedback from identified subordinates view the upward appraisal process more negatively than do managers who receive anonymous upward feedback.
FALSE
Tests administered for hiring purposes should be both valid and reasonable if used by a firm that adheres to evidence-based human resources.
FALSE
The American Psychological Association's standards for educational and psychological tests are legally enforceable
FALSE
The Privacy Act is the main directive at the federal level that governs how employers acquire and use applicants' and employees' background information.
FALSE
The forced distribution method is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising performance.
FALSE
The strong correlation between test results and job performance has led to numerous expert recommendations that tests be used as the only selection tool in the hiring process.
FALSE
The third step of the performance appraisal process is to assess the employee's actual performance relative to work standards.
FALSE
The use of a forced distribution system requires the termination of the bottom 10% of employees.
FALSE
There are five steps in the validation process beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with administering the test
FALSE
Tyler, an accounting manager at Firestone, is preparing for an appraisal interview with an employee whose performance is unsatisfactory but correctable. Tyler's primary objective during the interview should be to encourage the employee with positive reinforcements like job enlargement and compliments.
FALSE
While formal written warnings are provided too late to salvage an employee's performance and position at the company, they are useful in court proceedings.
FALSE
t/f: According to U.S. court ruling, it is always illegal to recruit applicants with gender-specific ads, but using word-of-mouth to spread information about job opportunities is legal in all situations.
False
t/f: An in-house temporary employee is a highly skilled worker, such as an engineer or software designer, who is supplied for long-term projects under contract from an outside technical services firm.
False
t/f: Due to EEO laws, firms are only allowed to use contingency workers for clerical or maintenance positions; managerial staff must consist of full-time employees of the firm.
False
t/f: In most cases, it is more cost effective for firms to hire contingent workers through a temp agency than to hire comparable permanent employees.
False
t/f: In most cases, job applicants view concise job advertisements as more attractive and credible than lengthy ads with too many details about a job.
False
t/f: Offshoring means having outside vendors supply services that a firm's own employees previously did in-house, while outsourcing means having overseas outside vendors provide services once performed in-house.
False
t/f: Older workers usually have higher absenteeism rates compared to younger workers due to illness.
False
t/f: Retained executive recruiters are paid whether or not they eventually fill the client's vacant position.
False
t/f: The HR manager who recruits for a vacant job is typically the one who is responsible for supervising the performance of that position.
False
t/f: The dot-jobs domain is primarily used by HR managers for succession planning purposes.
False
t/f: The fees associated with both retained and contingent executive recruiters are increasing as firms struggle to find qualified candidates.
False
t/f: When firms prove that they will use the information on job application forms as a predictor of job performance, they are allowed under EEO laws to request information regarding an applicant's age and marital status.
False
t/f: Video résumés eliminate the possibility of applicants claiming discrimination in a firm's hiring practices.
Fasle
George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process.Which of the following most likely undermines the argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner?
George and the HR manager lack the time required to participate in a lengthy interview process.
George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-sized firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market., which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process. Which of the following most likely UNDERMINES the argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner?
George and the HR manager lack the time required to participate in a lengthy interview process.
For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests?
Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.
Which of the following statements is most likely true?
Interpersonal skills are difficult to judge from phone interviews.
Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool?
Interview
For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests?
Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.
George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-size firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market, which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that George should use a structured situational interview to hire a media planner?
Great Toys' executives want to ensure that the interview process is fair to all candidates and that the best candidate is hired.
George Reyes has recently been hired as the vice president of marketing at Great Toys, a mid-sized firm that specializes in classic wooden toys. The CEO of Great Toys wants to expand the firm's presence in the toy market., which is highly competitive. As a result, the marketing department's budget has been significantly increased. George plans to use some of the additional funds to hire a new media planner. George is considering the idea of conducting a structured situational interview in the hiring process. Which of the following, if true, best supports the argument that George should use a strcutred situational interview to hire a media planner?
Great Toys' executives want to ensure that the interview process is fair to all candidates and that the best candidate is hired.
The primary purpose of conducting a stress interview is to determine _____________.
How an applicant handles criticism.
For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises?
How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results?
Reliable
If a person scores a 78 on an intelligence test on one day + scores 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is __________.
During an interview, Tanya discusses her numerous accomplishments at previous jobs and praises the interviewer frequently. Tanya is most likely using __________.
Impression management
________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together.
Internal comparison estimate
Which of the following is most likely a true statement about mandatory alternative dispute resolution agreements?
Judicial appeals and reconsideration are available if legal errors occur.
Personnel Planning
Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next 6 months, which means Marcus is currently working on __________.
Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering making changes to the way she interviews job candidates. Which of the following best supports the argument that Marion should use structured interviews?
Marion lacks highly effective interviewing skills
Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering making changes to the way she interviews job candidates.Which of the following best supports the argument that Marion should use structured interviews?
Marion lacks highly effective interviewing skills.
Ellen is interviewing along with several other talented candidates for a position as a journalist at a newspaper. A team of interviewers will meet with all the candidates at once. The team will pose problems to the candidates and see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer. This is most likely an example of a ________ interview.
Mass
Ellen is interviewing along with several other talented candidates for a position as a journalist at a newspaper. A team of interviewers will meet with all the candidates at once. The team will pose problems to the candidates and see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer. This is most likely an example of a ___________ interview.
Mass
In a ________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously.
Mass
In a ___________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously.
Mass
In a _____________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously.
Mass
Access matrices are used to define the rights of users to various kinds of access for each element in a personnel database.
T
Wilson Consulting is a management consulting firm with seventy employees. As associate vice president of marketing, Paulo Ruiz is responsible for conducting performance appraisals of the twelve employees under his direct supervision. Paulo plans to use a graphic rating scale to evaluate the performance of his subordinates. Which one of the following, if true, best supports the argument that a graphic rating scale is the most appropriate performance appraisal tool for Paulo to use?
Paulo wants a quantitative rating of each employee based on competencies important to the firm, such as problem-solving skills.
True
Personnel planning requires an estimation of personnel needs, the supply of inside candidates, + the likely supply of outside candidates.
Which of the following refers to company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a Frim's top positions?
Personnel replacement charts
Which of the following statements is most likely true?
Phone interviews can generate spontaneous answers from candidates.
Managing Ineffective Performance
Possible Courses of Action -Provide training to increase skills and abilities -identify and correct motivational issues -transfer employee to another job or department -take disciplinary action -discharge the employee Cautions -all actions taken must be objective and fair -do not treat underperformer differently, setting the employee up to fail
________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test.
Predictive
An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by ___________.
Providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers
Which of the following is an advantage of using a non directive format when interviewing job candidates?
Pursues points of interest as they develop
A manager who begins an interview by asking the applicant about the weather is most likely attempting to ____________.
Put the candidate at ease
A manager who begins an interview by asking the applicant about the weather is most likely attempting to _____________.
Put the candidate at ease
What is the second step in the procedure for developing a guide for a structured situational interview?
Rate the job's main duties
What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for performance appraisals?
Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors.
A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.
T
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process?
Reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions
Kevin is interviewing for a position as a PR specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ___________ interview.
Serial
Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally, he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ________ interview.
Serial
Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally, he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ____________ interview.
Serial
What type of interview would most likely include the following statement? "imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competitions biggest client. How would you proceed?"
Situational
How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?
Situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation
How do situational interviews differ from behavioral interviews?
Situational interviews are based on how an applicant might behave in a hypothetical situation.
Which of the following is most likely true regarding substance abuse screening?
Some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances.
Reliability (Consistency)
Standards are quantifiable, measurable, and stable
What type of interview would most likely include the following: "It must be difficult to leave a company after such strong accusations of unethical behavior. Tell me about that"?
Stress
What type of interview would most likely include the following: "It must be difficult to leave a company after such strong accusations of unethical behavior. Tell me about that." ?
Stress
What is the type of interview which lists the questions ahead of time?
Structured interview
What is the type of interview, which lists the questions ahead of time?
Structured interview
A series of Job-relevant questions with predetermined answers that interviewers ask of all applicants for a job is known as a _____________.
Structured situational interview
Which of the following interview formats will most likely result in the highest validity?
Structured, situational
Trend Analysis
Study of a firm's past employment needs over a period of years to predict future needs.
What is the first step in conducting an effective interview?
Studying the job description
Which of the following characteristics of an interview would most likely raise concerns about interview discrimination?
Subjective interview questions
A question on an employment application form that requests the dates of attendance and graduation from various schools may be illegal as it could reflect an applicant's age.
T
According to most employment laws, employees of temporary staffing firms that are working in an employer's workplace are considered workers of both the temporary agency and the employer.
T
An internal comparison estimate measures a test's internal consistency.
T
Applicant tracking systems (ATS) compile resumes, track applicants during the hiring process, and screen out applicants who do not meet minimum job requirements.
T
EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups.
T
Employers concerned about ethical and EEO violations may purchase employment tests that have been validated.
T
Employment planning should be an integral part of a firm's strategic and HR planning process.
T
Employment screening services are useful in the selection process because they have access to a job applicant's credit history, driving record, and workers' compensation claims history.
T
Every state has a public, state-run employment service agency.
T
Firms can predict job performance of applicants by modeling the relationship between success on the job and responses on the application form.
T
Firms can reduce potential problems associated with rehiring former employees by crediting them with the years of service they had accumulated before they left.
T
Hair follicle testing can provide a history of drug use for six months prior to testing.
T
If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one can develop an expectancy chart to illustrate the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically.
T
Many firms use temporary hiring as a way to give prospective employees a trial run before hiring them as full-time workers.
T
Personnel planning requires an estimation of personnel needs, the supply of inside candidates, and the likely supply of outside candidates.
T
t/f: A question on an employment application form that requests the dates of attendance and graduation from various schools may be illegal as it could reflect an applicant's age.
True
t/f: A scatter plot is a graphical method used to help identify the relationship between two variables
True
t/f: According to most employment laws, employees of temporary staffing firms that are working in an employer's workplace are considered workers of both the temporary agency and the employer
True
t/f: Every state has a public, state-run employment service agency
True
t/f: Firms can predict job performance and employee tenure by analyzing job application information, such as travel experience and education level.
True
t/f: Firms can reduce potential problems associated with rehiring former employees by crediting them with the years of service they had accumulated before they left.
True
t/f: It is illegal for employers to conspire not to hire each other's employees.
True
t/f: Many firms use temporary hiring as a way to give prospective employees a trial run before hiring them as full-time workers.
True
t/f: Personnel planning requires an estimation of personnel needs, the supply of inside candidates, and the likely supply of outside candidates.
True
t/f: Publicizing an open job to current employees through a firm's intranet or bulletin board is known as job posting.
True
t/f: The assumption shared by both trend analysis and ratio analysis is that productivity remains about the same from year to year.
True
t/f: To prevent the appearance of discriminatory hiring practices, firms are advised to avoid asking job applicants on an application form whether they own or rent a house.
True
t/f: When making personnel plans, a manager primarily needs to focus on the firm's personnel needs, the supply of inside candidates, and the estimated supply of outside candidates.
True
What is the best way to avoid most interview errors?
Use a structured interviewing format
False
Video resumes eliminate the possibility of applicants claiming discrimination in a firm's hiring practices.
Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following questions would be relevant for Marion to ask if she wants an employee with extensive knowledge in real estate?
What are the loan options you would suggest for first-time home buyers?
Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following questions would be most relevant for Marion to ask if she wants an employee with extensive knowledge in real estate?
What are the loan options you would suggest for first-time home buyers?
Deciding what positions to fill
What is the 1st step in the recruitment and selection process?
When interviewing an applicant with a disability who uses assistive technology, which of the following questions should NOT be asked?
What is the severity and exact nature of your disability and how does the technology assist you?
Marie Boyd has been hired by Barnum Hotels to manage staffing for the regional hotel chain. Barnum intends to open two new hotels within the next three years and will have many job positions to fill. Historically, employee turnover is high at Barnum as employees remain with the company for one or two years before quitting. Marie realizes that Barnum needs to make significant changes in its personnel strategy in order to meet the company's goals for the future and improve employee retention rates. All of the following questions are relevant to Marie's decision to fill top positions at the new hotels with internal candidates EXCEPT ________.
What percentage of employers in the service industry use succession planning?
Oshman manufactures small kitchen appliances, such as blenders, toasters, and mixers. The firm has nearly 80,000 employees in 22 countries. Employees receive annual performance appraisals from their supervisors that combine critical incidents with a graphic rating scale. However, the firm's CEO advocates shifting from performance appraisals to performance management in an attempt to make Oshman more competitive and performance driven. All of the following questions are relevant to Oshman's decision to replace its traditional appraisal methods with the performance management approach EXCEPT:
What procedures are already in place to effectively identify and measure critical incidents?
Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering using the streamlined interview process to hire a new real estate agent. Which of the following questions would be relevant for Marion to ask if personality is an important aspect of the realtor position?
What steps do you go through to determine the best price for a home?
Reliability
What terms refers to the consistency if scores obtained by the same person when retested w/ alternate forms of the same test?
False
When firms prove that they will use the info on job application forms as a predictor of job performance, they are allowed under EEO laws to request info regarding an applicants age + marital status.
False
When it refers to filling jobs like that of a maintenance clerk, personnel planning is called succession planning.
True
When making personnel plans, a manager primarily needs to focus on the firms personnel needs, the supply of inside candidates, + the estimated supply of outside candidates.
Electrical Utilities
Which employment field is especially effective at workforce planning?
Which website is increasingly serving as a recruitment source for passive job candidates?
Which type of interview questions are most likely designed to probe an applicant's motivation to meet the job's requirements through activities such as physical labor, customer service, and frequent travel?
Willingness
________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill and how to fill them.
Workforce planning
Personnel Planning
_________ is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have to fill + how to fill them.
Kate works as a nurse on temporary assignment for hospitals throughout the region on an as-needed basis. Kate is most likely ________.
a contingent worker
Which of the following is the primary advantage of college recruiting?
access to a source of management trainees
Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?
achievement tests
used to measure job knowledge
achievement tests
primary goal of employee selection
achieving person-job fit
Which of the following best describes how to use a test-retest reliability estimate to assess reliability?
administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1
Which one of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines for setting effective employee goals?
administering consequences for failure to meet goals
This is not a common characteristic of computerized selection interviews.
essay questions based on hypothetical situations
The most popular method for ranking employees is the ________ method.
alternation ranking
Which term refers to ranking of employees from best to worst on a trait or traits, choosing highest than lowest until all are ranked?
alternation ranking
Which performance appraisal tool requires supervisors to categorize employees from best to worst on various traits?
alternation ranking method
According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job interview?
an interviewer's first impression of the candidate
According to studies, which of the following has the most influence on the outcome of a job interview?
an interviewer's first impression of the candidate
1st step in the validation process
analyzing the job
The first step in the test validation process is ________.
analyzing the job
Jessica Garza is a manager at a large retail store. Currently, Jessica has four temporary workers under her supervision that a local staffing agency has provided. In which of the following tasks related to the temporary workers should Jessica become directly involved?
answering task-related questions
Marion Franklin is the CEO of a local real estate company, Action Realty. The community has seen an increase in population over the last two years, and new neighborhoods are being built as a result. Marion's staff of realtors is very busy, and Marion needs to hire a new agent. Although Marion has hired agents in the past, they have not always turned out to be as successful as she had hoped. Marion is considering making changes to the way she interviews job candidates. Which of the following would most likely improve the reliability and validity of Marion's selection process?
asking all applicants the same questions
The following are interviewing errors to avoid EXCEPT ___________.
asking prepared questions
All of the following are guidelines for conducting an effective interview EXCEPT ________.
asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers
What is not a guideline for conducting an effective interview?
asking the candidate questions that require yes or no answers
Marva manages the accounting department at an advertising agency. She needs to conduct performance appraisals for the eight employees in her department. Marva wants a performance appraisal tool that is highly accurate, ranks employees, and uses critical incidents to help explain ratings to appraisees. Which performance appraisal tool is best suited for Marva?
behaviorally anchored rating scale
All of the following are common concerns that have been expressed to researchers by temporary employees EXCEPT ________.
being in compliance with equal employment laws
All of the following are common concerns that have been expressed to researchers by temporary employees EXCEPT ________.
being in compliance with equal employment laws
Which one of the following has most likely occurred when a supervisor conducting a performance appraisal is influenced by a subordinate's individual differences such as age, sex, and race?
bias
Which of the following is the most likely outcome of using the same questions with all candidates being interviewed?
bias reduced
Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question and rate one applicant?
board interview
Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question and rate one applicant?
board interview
In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process?
cashier at J.C. Penney's
A supervisor who frequently rates all employees as average on performance appraisals most likely has a problem known as ________.
central tendency
these tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasonign
cognitive
Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums?
cognitive ability tests
All of the following terms are used to describe the contingent workforce of an organization EXCEPT ________.
collateral workers
Which one of the following best describes a behaviorally anchored rating scale?
combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified performance scales
When conducting an appraisal interview, supervisors should do all of the following EXCEPT
compare the person's performance to that of other employees
Employee performance appraisals are conducted by all of the following EXCEPT
competitors
Graphic rating scales are subject to all of the following problems EXCEPT
complexity
Which of the following is most frequently used by retailers to estimate short-term personnel needs?
computerized forecasting programs
Which of the following best explains why most firms do not provide rejected applicants with detailed explanations about the employment decision?
concerns about legal disputes
Which one of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR department in the performance appraisal process?
conducting appraisals of employees
Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability?
conscientiousness
While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs?
conscientiousness
personality trait that is most frequently associated with job performane in all jobs
conscientiousness
A reliable employment test will most likely yield
consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________.
consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________.
content validity measurement
Which of the following refers to an error of judgment on the part of the interviewer due to interviewing one or more very good or very bad candidates just before the interview in question?
contrast error
Which of the following is one of the primary complaints regarding the use of the forced distribution method for performance appraisals?
difficult to implement
Tamika is using a behaviorally anchored rating scale as a performance appraisal tool. She has already asked employees and supervisors to describe critical incidents of effective and ineffective job performance. What should Tamika most likely do next?
develop performance dimensions
The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________.
developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance
Which component of performance management refers to communicating a firm's higher-level goals throughout the organization and then translating them into departmental and individual goals?
direction sharing
Which one of the following is a downside of the critical incident method of compiling incidents?
doesn't produce relative ratings for pay raise purposes
Nicholai supervises a team of data entry specialists. Lately, productivity has been down, and Nicholai believes his subordinates are not working as efficiently as possible. Which one of the following tools would provide Nicholai with daily information about each employee's rate, accuracy, and time spent entering data?
electronic performance monitoring system
Which one of the following enables supervisors to oversee the amount of computerized data an employee is processing each day?
electronic performance monitoring system
For most firms, which of the following is the most effective source for recruiting new hires?
employee referral programs
In most organizations, who is primarily responsible for appraising an employee's performance?
employee's direct supervisor
Which of the following is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by a private employment agency when an applicant is placed in a job?
employers
All of the following are benefits of using computerized or Web-based performance appraisal systems EXCEPT ________.
enabling managers to monitor employees' computers
Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores?
equivalent form estimate
All of the following are common characteristics of computerized selection interviews EXCEPT ________.
essay questions based on hypothetical situations
Counselors in state-run employment agencies conduct all of the following activities EXCEPT ________.
filing employer tax reports
An employer will most likely use a private employment agency in order to ________.
fill a specific job opening quickly
Indira is concerned that her workers are not fully engaged and has come to you for advice. After observing her in one appraisal interview, you determine that she should
focus on the employee's strengths
Rolf, the supervisor of the manufacturing department at a computer firm, is in the process of evaluating his staff's performance. He has determined that 15% of the group will be identified as high performers, 20% as above average performers, 30% as average performers, 20% as below average performers, and 15% as poor performers. Which performance appraisal tool has John chosen to use?
forced distribution
Which performance appraisal tool is being used when a supervisor places predetermined percentages of appraisees into various performance categories?
forced distribution
Which one of the following is the easiest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?
graphic rating scale
Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of performance values for each trait?
graphic rating scale
Which one of the following is NOT one of performance management's six basic elements?
habit creation
Jason is a conscientious employee, but he is viewed by most of his co-workers as unfriendly. Jason's supervisor rates him low on the traits "gets along well with others" and "quality of work." Which one of the following problems has most likely affected Jason's performance appraisal?
halo effect
Which one of the following is a performance appraisal problem that occurs when a supervisor's rating of a subordinate on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits?
halo effect
Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality tests id also called
handwriting analysis
Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________.
handwriting analysis
All of the following are characteristics of a job posting EXCEPT ________.
indicating the preferred number of applicants
Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely ________ tests.
intelligence
Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called
intelligence tests
A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationship between all of the following EXCEPT ________.
internal and external candidates
When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured?
internal consistency
Which of the following is the most commonly used selection tool?
interview
What is NOT a big 5 personality demesion
introversion
According to experts known as human lie detectors, which of the following characteristics most likely indicates that a job candidate is being deceptive?
irregular breathing
Which one of the following is LEAST likely to cause a supervisor's performance appraisal of a subordinate to be biased?
location and time of the appraisal
Which one of the following best describes the purpose of an appraisal interview?
making plans to correct employee weaknesses
A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance.
management assessment center
simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are based on performance
management assessment center
Which one of the following terms refers to setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made?
management by objective
Which of the following is NOT information that should be requested on application forms?
marital status
In a ________ interview, a panel questions several candidates simultaneously.
mass
employers are allowed to conduct background checks for what
military discharge status
Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________.
military service
Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire?
miniature job training
Tina is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction and was asked to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in ________.
miniature job training and evaluation
Which of the following is a common characteristic of computerized interviews?
multiple-choice questions
Which of the following best explains why firms are using temporary workers more frequently?
need of businesses to increase productivity
hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is a
negligent hire
Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards?
negligent hiring
Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility
neuroticism
Which of the following is another term for an instructed interview?
non directive
Which of the following is another term for an unstructured interview?
nondirective
according to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired for their what
nonperformance
A small software firm is seeking several permanent employees with experience in the semiconductor industry and advanced degrees in computer science. The firm is a small one and cannot afford to pay a traditional recruiting firm a fee of 30% per each hire's salary. Instead, this firm should consider using a(n)
on-demand recruiting service
Which of the following is a service that provides short-term specialized recruiting to support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional search firms?
on-demand recruiting services
Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?
openness to experience
The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
optimism
The continuous process of identifying, measuring, and developing the performance of individuals and teams and aligning their performance with the organization's goals is known as
performance management
All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale EXCEPT
performance of co-workers
An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________.
other people in various occupations
A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________.
overlooks how changes in sales volume affect staffing
A trend analysis is limited in its usefulness because it ________.
overlooks the potential for changes in skills needed
Svetlana needs to rate five of her subordinates. She makes a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, she indicates the better employee of each pair with a positive symbol on the chart. Finally, she totals the number of positive symbols for each employee. Which method of performance appraisal has Svetlana most likely used?
paired comparison
Dr. Ross is interviewing for a position as Assistant Professor of Biology. His interview is conducted by a team of other faculty members in the department who interview him simultaneously and then combine their ratings into one score. This is an example of a ________ interview.
panel
primary advantage when using a management assesment center
peers
What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counterproductivity?
pencil-paper honesty test
Which one of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards
performance appraisal
As the HR manager at Johnson Manufacturing, Derek is responsible for deciding which selection tools are most appropriate. When deciding on a specific selection tool, Derek should most likely consider all of the following factors EXCEPT the tool's ________.
persistence
assessment method with lowest validity
personality test
Employment planning requires making forecasts of three elements: the supply of inside candidates, the likely supply of outside candidates, and ________.
personnel needs
Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months., which means Marcus is currently working on ________.
personnel planning
Marcus, an HR manager for Samsung, must decide what positions the firm should fill in the next six months, which means Marcus is currently working on ________.
personnel planning
Which of the following refers to company records showing present performance and promotability of inside candidates for a firm's top positions?
personnel replacement charts
As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS?
physical abilities
As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS?
physical ability
What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims?
physical exams
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using internal sources of candidates to fill vacant positions in a firm?
potential to lose employees who aren't promoted
Workforce planning often involves paying continuous attention to workforce planning issues which is called:
predictive workforce monitoring
Managers using the streamlined interview process should first ________.
prepare for the interview
When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same.
productivity levels
When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that ________ will remain the same.
productivity levels
You are conducting an appraisal interview with an employee whose performance is satisfactory but for whom promotion is not possible. Which incentive listed below would be the LEAST effective option for maintaining satisfactory performance in this situation?
professional development
Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests.
projective
When a supervisor must criticize a subordinate in an appraisal interview, it is most important for the supervisor to
provide specific examples of critical incidents
Which one of the following is the primary advantage of using graphic rating scales as performance appraisal tools?
provides quantitative rating for each employee
According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants?
providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action
An employer can most likely increase the reliability of a panel interview by ________.
providing interviewers with scoring sheets and sample answers
The best way for employers to avoid improper applicant screening at private employment agencies is by ________.
providing the agency with an accurate job description
In his appraisal interview with Juan, Tomas was candid and objective but also supportive. In this way Tomas provided Juan
psychological safety
Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job candidates?
pursues points of interest as they develop
Which of the following is an advantage of using a nondirective format when interviewing job candidates?
pursues points of interest as they develop
Which of the following contains data regarding employees' education, career development, and special skills and is used by managers when selecting inside candidates for promotion?
qualifications inventories
Which of the following determines future staff needs by using ratios between a causal factor and the number of employees required?
ratio analysis
Which of the following determines future staff needs by using ratios between a causal factor and the number of employees required?
ratio analysis
A supervisor working for a firm that uses performance management should most likely expect to
re-evaluate how employees accomplish tasks
All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________
reasoning
Which of the following would most likely increase candidate-order errors?
recruiting pressure
A ________ is used to calculate the number of applicants a firm must generate to hire the required number of new employees.
recruiting yield pyramid
effective employee screening will most likely what
reduce dis function employee behaviors
The primary advantage of computer-aided interviews is the ability to ________.
reduce time spent with unacceptable candidates
Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using structured interviews during the employee selection process?
reduced opportunities for asking follow-up questions
Which of the following best explains why an increasing number of firms use the Internet to conduct prescreening interviews?
reduced recruitment budgets
Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a
reduction of social loafing
According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation?
references
Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test?
reliability
refers to consistency of scores
reliability
If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________.
reliable
The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a performance appraisal is to motivate employees to ________.
remove any performance deficiencies
SB&A Consulting plans to do some college recruiting to fill entry-level management positions this year. Which of the following factors is most important for the firm to consider when deciding which colleges to visit?
reputation
Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations?
searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant
When an interview is used to predict future job performance on the basis of an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries, it is called a ________ interview.
selection
Procedure to predict future jobperformance on basis of oral responses to oral inquiries
selection interview
Which of the following refers to a procedure designed to predict future job performance based on an applicant's oral responses to oral inquiries?
selection interview
Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests, and physical exams that firms use to identify viable candidates for a job?
selection tools
Which of the following terms refers to the background investigations, tests, and physical exams that firms use to identify viable candidates for a job?
selection tools
Which of the following terms refers to a group of interviewers working together to question and rate one applicant?
sequential interview
Kevin is interviewing for a position as a public relations specialist in a communications firm. He first meets with the HR manager. Afterwards, he meets with the department manager. Finally, he meets with the company president. Kevin is most likely experiencing a ________ interview.
serial
first step in conducting an effective interview
study the job description
One type of workers is ________, who do all or most of their work remotely, often from home, using information technology.
telecommuters
According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired because of attitude, motivation, and ________.
temperament
With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________.
tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest
According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________.
tests to be the only selection tools for a job
Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________.
the test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job
Pablo wants to figure out likely future employment needs for Slate Industries by examining past organizational employment needs of the company. This is an example of:
trend analysis
In a stress interview, the interviewer ________.
tries to make the applicant uncomfortable in order to spot sensitivity
Which one of the following terms refers to an appraisal that is too open to interpretation?
unclear standards
Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants?
uncover false information
