Imaging Procedures

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation

45-degree internal rotation

correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an UGI series is most likely to be

NPO after midnight

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subchoracoid dislocation

PA oblique scapular Y

Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when

anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR

which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot

angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly

The lumbar vertebral lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine

body

in figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 9

medial border

in which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated

medial oblique

which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise

medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees

the ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the

metaphysis

During myelogram, contrast medium is introduced into the

subarachnoid space

which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 3 in figure 2-14

submentovertex projection

which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process

submentovertical (SMV)

What portion of the humerus articulations with the ulna to help form the elbow joint

trochlea

The term valgus refers to

turned outward

which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients

use restraint only when necessary

which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux

voiding cystourethrogram

Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following except

weight-bearing

The cecum is labeled in figure 2-9 as number

4

which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture

AP and scapular Y

an acromiocalvicular separation will be best demonstrated in the following projection

AP erect, both shoulders

which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition

AP oblique, medial rotation

Which of the following projection scan be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

AP or PA through the foramen magnum

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

AP projection

Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric cruop, can be best visualized in the

AP projection

free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions

AP projection, left lateral decubitus position

Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

AP supine

which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine

horizontal beam lateral

Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture

hydronephrosis

the body habitus having short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach is the

hypersthenic

which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula

hysterosalpingogram

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-3?

inferior costal margin

with the patient positioned as illustrated in figure 2-20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated

intercondyloid fossa

In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head

internal rotation

which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially

internal rotation

Which of the following statements regarding figure 2-4 is correct

the left kidney is more parallel to the IR

All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except

the lung has two fissures

All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except

the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR

The floor of the cranium includes all of the following bones except?

the occipital bone

To demonstrate esophageal, the patient must be examined in

the recumbent positon

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and oblique 45 degrees

toward the affected side

during an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position

transverse colon

during GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on 1. the respiratory rate 2. body habitus 3. patient postioin

1, 2, & 3

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbrosacral spine to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR

1 & 2 only

During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate 1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis 3. the superior calyces

1 & 2 only

Elements of correct positioning for PA projections of the chest include 1. weight evenly distributed on feet 2. elevation of the chin 3. shoulders elevated and rolled forward

1 & 2 only

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibular joint

1 & 2 only

Terms used to describe movement include 1. plantarflexion 2. Valgus 3. oblique

1 & 2 only

The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s) 1. The male greater/false pelvis is deep 2. The male acetabulum faces more laterally 3. The female coccyx is more vertical

1 & 2 only

The right posterior oblique position (judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum 2. right iliac wing 3. right anterior iliopubic column

1 & 2 only

The structures that would be visualized when obtained as positioned in Figure 2-2, could also be visualized when performed with the patient in the following position 1. Lateral recumbent 2. Seated 3. Erect AP

1 & 2 only

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate to intercondyloid fossa 1. prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to popliteal fossa 2. supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5-10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

1 & 2 only

a kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following 1. sacral vertebrae 2. thoracic vertebrae 3. lumbar vertebrae

1 & 2 only

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves 1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla 2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct 3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum

1 & 2 only

for which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool 1. patency of the biliary ducts 2. biliary tract calculi 3. duodenal calculi

1 & 2 only

structures comprising the neural, or vertebral arch include 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body

1 & 2 only

structures located in the RLQ include the following 1. cecum 2. vermiform appendix 3. sigmoid

1 & 2 only

the PA chest radiograph shown in figure 2-13 demonstrates 1. rotation 2. scapulae removed from lung fields 3. adequate inspiration

1 & 2 only

the type(s) of articulations lacking a joint cavity include 1. fibrous 2. cartilaginous 3. synovial

1 & 2 only

to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbrosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended 1. close collimation 2. lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. decreased SID

1 & 2 only

when examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained 1. with humerus parallel to IR. CR perpendicular 2. with forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

1 & 2 only

which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic 1. condyloid 2. sellar 3. gomphosis

1 & 2 only

which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel 1. percutaneous trasluminal angioplasty (PTA) 2. stent placement 3. peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)

1 & 2 only

which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints 1. the procedure is performed in the erect position 2. use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. the procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected

1 & 2 only

which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle 1. clavicular body 2. acromioclavicular joint 3. sternocostal joint

1 & 2 only

which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders 2. ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm 3. the esophagus is visible in the midline

1 & 2 only

which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone 1. posterior clinoid processes 2. dorsum sella 3. posterior arch of C1

1 & 2 only

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90-degree flexion 3. less than 90-degree flexion

1 & 3 only

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise 1. talotibial 2. talocalcaneal 3. talofibular

1 & 3 only

Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax 1. manubrium 2. clavicles 3. 24 ribs

1 & 3 only

in the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. talofibular joint is visualized 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed

1 & 3 only

the true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles 1. interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

1 & 3 only

which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses 1. the OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal 2. the petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits 3. the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized

1 & 3 only

hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity 3. uterine position

1, 2, & 3

Which of the following is (are) proximal to the tibial plateu 1. intercondyloid fossa 2. tibial condyles 3. tibial tuberosity

1 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to the images shown in figure 2-23 1. image A was made with cephalad angulation 2. image B was made with cephalad angulation 3. images A and B were made with CR directed 15 degrees cephalad

1 only

Which of the following statements regarding figure 2-10 is (are) true? 1. midphalanges are foreshortened 2. the degree of obliquity is too great 3. interphalangeal joints are well demonstrated

1 only

in the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs

1 only

in which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis 1. supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant) 2. prone flexion 90 degrees (settegast) 3. prone flexion 55 degrees (hughston)

1 only

the scapula shown in figure 2-29 demonstres 1. its posterior aspect 2. its costal surface 3. its sternal articular surface

1 only

which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP axial projection of the cervical spine 1. C3-7 cervical bodies 2. intervertebral foramina 3. zygopophyseal joints

1 only

which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur 1. patellar surface 2. intertrochanteric crest 3. linea aspera

1 only

An accurate critique of the PA projection of the chest seen in figure 2-3 would include the following: 1. the pulmonary pieces are demonstrated 2. the air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated 3. 10 posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm

1, 2, & 3

Which of the following are mediastinal structures 1. heart 2. trachea 3. esophagus

1, 2, & 3

Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictured in figure 2-8? 1. zygapophyseal articulations 2. intervertebral foramina 3. pedicles

1, 2, & 3

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. scapular Y projection 2. inferosuperior axial 3. transthoracic lateral

1, 2, & 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in figure 2-12? 1. the patient is placed in RAO position 2. the midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR 3. the acromion process is free of superimposition

1, 2, & 3

Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in figure 2-6 is (are) true? 1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses 2. The ethmoid sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits 3. the perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity

1, 2, & 3

in a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed

1, 2, & 3

when evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids

1, 2, & 3

which of the following statements is (are) true regarding figure 2-30? 1. the image was made in the RAO position 2. exposure was made during shallow respiration 3. the sternum is projected onto the left side of the thorax

1, 2, & 3

which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position 2. contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation 3. the patients neck must be in extension during trendelenburg positions

1, 2, & 3

which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position", is (are) correct 1. bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained 2. it is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis 3. the hands are oblique about 45 degrees, palm up

1, 2, & 3

With the patient in the PA position , which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle

15 to 30 degrees caudad

during atrial systole, blood flows into the 1. right ventricle via the mitral valve 2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve 3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve

2 & 3

which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true 1. the midsagittal plane should be 60 degrees to the IR 2. the scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft 3. an oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained

2 & 3

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue

2 & 3 only

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion injuries 3. to demonstrate a ligament or tear

2 & 3 only

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies 3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required

2 & 3 only

The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s) 1. lateral cervical spine 2. lateral thoracic spine 3. lateral lumbar spine

2 & 3 only

The radiography shown in figure 2-15 demonstrates the articulation between the 1. talus and the calcaneus 2. calcaneus and the cuboid 3. talus and the navicular

2 & 3 only

The upper surface of the foot may be described as the 1. plantar 2. anterior 3. dorsal

2 & 3 only

Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. RPO

2 & 3 only

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the shoulder image seen in figure 2-18? 1. the unaffected arm is adjacent to the IR 2. it provides a lateral view 3. it is frequently performed in trauma situations

2 & 3 only

central ray angulation may be required for 1. magnification of anatomic structures 2. foreshortening or self-superimposition 3. superimposition of overlying structures

2 & 3 only

during chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera

2 & 3 only

evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include 1. epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. lesser tubercle in profile 3. superimposed epicondyles

2 & 3 only

the axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed 1. parallel to the CR 2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck 3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body

2 & 3 only

ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpals 1. medial carpals 2. lateral carpals 3. scaphoid

2 & 3 only

valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

2 & 3 only

what condition(s) is/are best demonstrated in figure 2-11 1. emphysema 2. pneumothorax 3. pleural effusion

2 & 3 only

which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen 1. ilium 2. ischium 3. pubis

2 & 3 only

which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts 2. maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient

2 & 3 only

which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture 1. transverse fracture of the radial head 2. chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. posterior or backward displacement

2 & 3 only

the AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis

2 only

the position illustrated in the radiograph in figure 2-28 may be obtained with the patient 1. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees caudad 2. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad 3. prone and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad

2 only

which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph shown in figure 2-26 1. the acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib 2. this projection is performed to evaluate the scapula 3. this projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation

2 only

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbrosacral zygapophyseal articulation

30-degree RPO

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)

30-degree oblique

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

5 degrees cephalad

in the PA projection of the hand seen in figure 2-19, which numeral identifies the proximal interphalangeal joint

6

Which of the following techniques would provide a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach

Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate

C4

Which of the following methods was used to obtain the image seen in figure 2-6?

Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degrees from horizontal

a type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is

Ewing sarcoma

How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries

Include a lateral chest examination performed in a dorsal decubitus position

which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient

LAO

During an UGI examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely

LPO

The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection

Lateral oblique elbow

patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in

MRI

What is that portion of bone labeled C in the pediatric hand image seen in Figure 2-1 below?

Metaphysis

An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?

Myelogram

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

Osgood-Schlatter disease

A frontal view of the sternum is BEST accomplished in which of the following positions

RAO

Which of the following positions is illustrated in figure 2-9?

RPO

With the patients head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized

Rami

The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the

T5

with the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the

Trendelenburg position

Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in figure 2-7?

Trochlea

The letter A in figure 2-13 indicates

a left posterior rib

The condition that results from a persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is

a patent ductus arteriosus

In which of the following projections was the image in figure 2-7 made?

acute flexion

movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed

adduction

to better visualize the knee joint space in the radiograph in figure 2-31, the radiographer should

angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad

What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in figure 2-22

angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad

The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as

angulation

which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle

arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

the inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as

aspiration

the patients chin should be elevated during chest radiography to

avoid superimposition on the apices

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process

avulsion fracture

The junction of the sagittal and coronal structures is the

bregma

with the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids

completely within the orbits

in which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin

compound

An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as

contrecoup

in figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 2?

coracoid process

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

coronoid process

Figure 2-5 demonstrates which of the following conditions

dextrocardia

What structure is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?

dome of acetabulum

Flattening of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions

emphysema

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

epiphysis

Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

esophagus

the structure labeled 2 in figure 2-14 is the

ethmoidal sinus

with the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37 degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?

facial bones

with which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

first metacarpal

the uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the

fourth lumbar vertebrae

double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the

gastric or bowel mucosa

in figure 2-27, the structure indicated as number 7 is which of the following

head of rib

identify the structure labeled number 10 in the AP projection of the forearm shown in figure 2-16

head of the ulna

the term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is

hematemesis

which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position

hepatic flexure

what is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient

high and horizontal

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the

hilus

all of the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except

intertrochanteric line

in the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the

intervertebral foramina nearest the IR

which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children

intussusception

the long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the

laminae

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position

lateral

which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition

lateral oblique

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?

lateral oblique foot

All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except

metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV contrast studies

The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the

midcoronal plane

the thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the

midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

for the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium filled stomach should enter

midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

to evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

must be supported parallel to the IR

The most proximal portion of the pharynx is the

nasopharynx

The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?

nose

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees

In the AP axial projection (Towne Method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati (EAM), which of the following is best demonstrated

occipital bone

the type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed

paralytic

which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace

patient AP with 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad

in which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized

plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

the structure labeled 3 in figure 2-32 is the

posterior arch of C1

In which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in figure 2-25 probably made

prone recumbent

Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs

pulmonary embolism

the contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called

pulse

Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones

radial styloid process

tracheostomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is

respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx

which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter

retrograde urography

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it

spondylolisthesis

all the following positions are likely to be employed for both single and double contrast examinations of the large bowel except

right and left lateral decubitus abdomen

the ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions

right ileac

During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?

right lateral decubitus

Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

right lateral decubitus position

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

right main stem bronchus

Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity from where they are advanced to the

right ventricle

The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the

serosa

All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except

single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions

The number 2 in figure 2-24 indicates the following

spinous process of L1

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

tangential metatarsals/toes

which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation

tangential patella

the projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is

tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method

All the following statements regarding the position shown in figure 2-17 are true except

the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7

The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is

yellow marrow

the structure labeled 1 in figure 2-32 is the

zygapophyseal joint

which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in figure 2-21

zygomatic arch