Imaging Procedures
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation
45-degree internal rotation
correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an UGI series is most likely to be
NPO after midnight
Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subchoracoid dislocation
PA oblique scapular Y
Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when
anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR
which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot
angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly
The lumbar vertebral lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine
body
in figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 9
medial border
in which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated
medial oblique
which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise
medial oblique 15 to 20 degrees
the ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the
metaphysis
During myelogram, contrast medium is introduced into the
subarachnoid space
which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 3 in figure 2-14
submentovertex projection
which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process
submentovertical (SMV)
What portion of the humerus articulations with the ulna to help form the elbow joint
trochlea
The term valgus refers to
turned outward
which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients
use restraint only when necessary
which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux
voiding cystourethrogram
Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following except
weight-bearing
The cecum is labeled in figure 2-9 as number
4
which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture
AP and scapular Y
an acromiocalvicular separation will be best demonstrated in the following projection
AP erect, both shoulders
which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition
AP oblique, medial rotation
Which of the following projection scan be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?
AP or PA through the foramen magnum
Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the
AP projection
Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric cruop, can be best visualized in the
AP projection
free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions
AP projection, left lateral decubitus position
Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?
AP supine
which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine
horizontal beam lateral
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture
hydronephrosis
the body habitus having short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach is the
hypersthenic
which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula
hysterosalpingogram
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-3?
inferior costal margin
with the patient positioned as illustrated in figure 2-20, which of the following structures is best demonstrated
intercondyloid fossa
In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head
internal rotation
which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially
internal rotation
Which of the following statements regarding figure 2-4 is correct
the left kidney is more parallel to the IR
All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except
the lung has two fissures
All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except
the midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR
The floor of the cranium includes all of the following bones except?
the occipital bone
To demonstrate esophageal, the patient must be examined in
the recumbent positon
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and oblique 45 degrees
toward the affected side
during an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position
transverse colon
during GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on 1. the respiratory rate 2. body habitus 3. patient postioin
1, 2, & 3
A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbrosacral spine to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR
1 & 2 only
During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate 1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis 3. the superior calyces
1 & 2 only
Elements of correct positioning for PA projections of the chest include 1. weight evenly distributed on feet 2. elevation of the chin 3. shoulders elevated and rolled forward
1 & 2 only
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibular joint
1 & 2 only
Terms used to describe movement include 1. plantarflexion 2. Valgus 3. oblique
1 & 2 only
The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s) 1. The male greater/false pelvis is deep 2. The male acetabulum faces more laterally 3. The female coccyx is more vertical
1 & 2 only
The right posterior oblique position (judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum 2. right iliac wing 3. right anterior iliopubic column
1 & 2 only
The structures that would be visualized when obtained as positioned in Figure 2-2, could also be visualized when performed with the patient in the following position 1. Lateral recumbent 2. Seated 3. Erect AP
1 & 2 only
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate to intercondyloid fossa 1. prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to popliteal fossa 2. supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5-10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint
1 & 2 only
a kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following 1. sacral vertebrae 2. thoracic vertebrae 3. lumbar vertebrae
1 & 2 only
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves 1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla 2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct 3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum
1 & 2 only
for which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool 1. patency of the biliary ducts 2. biliary tract calculi 3. duodenal calculi
1 & 2 only
structures comprising the neural, or vertebral arch include 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body
1 & 2 only
structures located in the RLQ include the following 1. cecum 2. vermiform appendix 3. sigmoid
1 & 2 only
the PA chest radiograph shown in figure 2-13 demonstrates 1. rotation 2. scapulae removed from lung fields 3. adequate inspiration
1 & 2 only
the type(s) of articulations lacking a joint cavity include 1. fibrous 2. cartilaginous 3. synovial
1 & 2 only
to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbrosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended 1. close collimation 2. lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. decreased SID
1 & 2 only
when examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained 1. with humerus parallel to IR. CR perpendicular 2. with forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular
1 & 2 only
which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic 1. condyloid 2. sellar 3. gomphosis
1 & 2 only
which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel 1. percutaneous trasluminal angioplasty (PTA) 2. stent placement 3. peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
1 & 2 only
which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints 1. the procedure is performed in the erect position 2. use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. the procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected
1 & 2 only
which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle 1. clavicular body 2. acromioclavicular joint 3. sternocostal joint
1 & 2 only
which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders 2. ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm 3. the esophagus is visible in the midline
1 & 2 only
which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone 1. posterior clinoid processes 2. dorsum sella 3. posterior arch of C1
1 & 2 only
Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90-degree flexion 3. less than 90-degree flexion
1 & 3 only
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise 1. talotibial 2. talocalcaneal 3. talofibular
1 & 3 only
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax 1. manubrium 2. clavicles 3. 24 ribs
1 & 3 only
in the lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. talofibular joint is visualized 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed
1 & 3 only
the true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles 1. interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR
1 & 3 only
which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses 1. the OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal 2. the petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits 3. the frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized
1 & 3 only
hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity 3. uterine position
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following is (are) proximal to the tibial plateu 1. intercondyloid fossa 2. tibial condyles 3. tibial tuberosity
1 only
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to the images shown in figure 2-23 1. image A was made with cephalad angulation 2. image B was made with cephalad angulation 3. images A and B were made with CR directed 15 degrees cephalad
1 only
Which of the following statements regarding figure 2-10 is (are) true? 1. midphalanges are foreshortened 2. the degree of obliquity is too great 3. interphalangeal joints are well demonstrated
1 only
in the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs
1 only
in which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis 1. supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant) 2. prone flexion 90 degrees (settegast) 3. prone flexion 55 degrees (hughston)
1 only
the scapula shown in figure 2-29 demonstres 1. its posterior aspect 2. its costal surface 3. its sternal articular surface
1 only
which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP axial projection of the cervical spine 1. C3-7 cervical bodies 2. intervertebral foramina 3. zygopophyseal joints
1 only
which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur 1. patellar surface 2. intertrochanteric crest 3. linea aspera
1 only
An accurate critique of the PA projection of the chest seen in figure 2-3 would include the following: 1. the pulmonary pieces are demonstrated 2. the air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated 3. 10 posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following are mediastinal structures 1. heart 2. trachea 3. esophagus
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following is (are) well demonstrated in the lumbar spine pictured in figure 2-8? 1. zygapophyseal articulations 2. intervertebral foramina 3. pedicles
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. scapular Y projection 2. inferosuperior axial 3. transthoracic lateral
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the radiograph in figure 2-12? 1. the patient is placed in RAO position 2. the midcoronal plane is about 60 degrees to the IR 3. the acromion process is free of superimposition
1, 2, & 3
Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in figure 2-6 is (are) true? 1. The position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses 2. The ethmoid sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits 3. the perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity
1, 2, & 3
in a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed
1, 2, & 3
when evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids
1, 2, & 3
which of the following statements is (are) true regarding figure 2-30? 1. the image was made in the RAO position 2. exposure was made during shallow respiration 3. the sternum is projected onto the left side of the thorax
1, 2, & 3
which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position 2. contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation 3. the patients neck must be in extension during trendelenburg positions
1, 2, & 3
which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position", is (are) correct 1. bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained 2. it is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis 3. the hands are oblique about 45 degrees, palm up
1, 2, & 3
With the patient in the PA position , which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle
15 to 30 degrees caudad
during atrial systole, blood flows into the 1. right ventricle via the mitral valve 2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve 3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
2 & 3
which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true 1. the midsagittal plane should be 60 degrees to the IR 2. the scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft 3. an oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained
2 & 3
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue
2 & 3 only
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion injuries 3. to demonstrate a ligament or tear
2 & 3 only
Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies 3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required
2 & 3 only
The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s) 1. lateral cervical spine 2. lateral thoracic spine 3. lateral lumbar spine
2 & 3 only
The radiography shown in figure 2-15 demonstrates the articulation between the 1. talus and the calcaneus 2. calcaneus and the cuboid 3. talus and the navicular
2 & 3 only
The upper surface of the foot may be described as the 1. plantar 2. anterior 3. dorsal
2 & 3 only
Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. RPO
2 & 3 only
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the shoulder image seen in figure 2-18? 1. the unaffected arm is adjacent to the IR 2. it provides a lateral view 3. it is frequently performed in trauma situations
2 & 3 only
central ray angulation may be required for 1. magnification of anatomic structures 2. foreshortening or self-superimposition 3. superimposition of overlying structures
2 & 3 only
during chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera
2 & 3 only
evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include 1. epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. lesser tubercle in profile 3. superimposed epicondyles
2 & 3 only
the axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed 1. parallel to the CR 2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck 3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body
2 & 3 only
ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpals 1. medial carpals 2. lateral carpals 3. scaphoid
2 & 3 only
valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly
2 & 3 only
what condition(s) is/are best demonstrated in figure 2-11 1. emphysema 2. pneumothorax 3. pleural effusion
2 & 3 only
which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen 1. ilium 2. ischium 3. pubis
2 & 3 only
which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts 2. maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient
2 & 3 only
which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture 1. transverse fracture of the radial head 2. chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. posterior or backward displacement
2 & 3 only
the AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis
2 only
the position illustrated in the radiograph in figure 2-28 may be obtained with the patient 1. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees caudad 2. supine and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad 3. prone and the CR angled 30 degrees cephalad
2 only
which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the radiograph shown in figure 2-26 1. the acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib 2. this projection is performed to evaluate the scapula 3. this projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation
2 only
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbrosacral zygapophyseal articulation
30-degree RPO
The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)
30-degree oblique
For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
5 degrees cephalad
in the PA projection of the hand seen in figure 2-19, which numeral identifies the proximal interphalangeal joint
6
Which of the following techniques would provide a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach
Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate
C4
Which of the following methods was used to obtain the image seen in figure 2-6?
Erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degrees from horizontal
a type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is
Ewing sarcoma
How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries
Include a lateral chest examination performed in a dorsal decubitus position
which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient
LAO
During an UGI examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely
LPO
The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection
Lateral oblique elbow
patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in
MRI
What is that portion of bone labeled C in the pediatric hand image seen in Figure 2-1 below?
Metaphysis
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
Myelogram
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?
Osgood-Schlatter disease
A frontal view of the sternum is BEST accomplished in which of the following positions
RAO
Which of the following positions is illustrated in figure 2-9?
RPO
With the patients head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized
Rami
The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the
T5
with the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the
Trendelenburg position
Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in figure 2-7?
Trochlea
The letter A in figure 2-13 indicates
a left posterior rib
The condition that results from a persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is
a patent ductus arteriosus
In which of the following projections was the image in figure 2-7 made?
acute flexion
movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed
adduction
to better visualize the knee joint space in the radiograph in figure 2-31, the radiographer should
angle the CR 5 to 7 degrees cephalad
What should be done to better demonstrate the coracoid process shown in figure 2-22
angle the CR about 30 degrees cephalad
The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as
angulation
which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle
arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
the inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as
aspiration
the patients chin should be elevated during chest radiography to
avoid superimposition on the apices
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process
avulsion fracture
The junction of the sagittal and coronal structures is the
bregma
with the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids
completely within the orbits
in which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin
compound
An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as
contrecoup
in figure 2-29, which of the following is represented by the number 2?
coracoid process
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
coronoid process
Figure 2-5 demonstrates which of the following conditions
dextrocardia
What structure is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?
dome of acetabulum
Flattening of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions
emphysema
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the
epiphysis
Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?
esophagus
the structure labeled 2 in figure 2-14 is the
ethmoidal sinus
with the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37 degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?
facial bones
with which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
first metacarpal
the uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the
fourth lumbar vertebrae
double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the
gastric or bowel mucosa
in figure 2-27, the structure indicated as number 7 is which of the following
head of rib
identify the structure labeled number 10 in the AP projection of the forearm shown in figure 2-16
head of the ulna
the term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is
hematemesis
which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position
hepatic flexure
what is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient
high and horizontal
Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the
hilus
all of the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except
intertrochanteric line
in the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the
intervertebral foramina nearest the IR
which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children
intussusception
the long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the
laminae
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position
lateral
which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition
lateral oblique
In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?
lateral oblique foot
All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except
metformin should be withheld for 48 hours before IV contrast studies
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the
midcoronal plane
the thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the
midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR
for the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium filled stomach should enter
midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface
to evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers
must be supported parallel to the IR
The most proximal portion of the pharynx is the
nasopharynx
The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
nose
Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?
oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees
In the AP axial projection (Towne Method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati (EAM), which of the following is best demonstrated
occipital bone
the type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed
paralytic
which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace
patient AP with 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad
in which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized
plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
the structure labeled 3 in figure 2-32 is the
posterior arch of C1
In which of the following positions was the radiograph shown in figure 2-25 probably made
prone recumbent
Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs
pulmonary embolism
the contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called
pulse
Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones
radial styloid process
tracheostomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is
respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx
which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter
retrograde urography
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it
spondylolisthesis
all the following positions are likely to be employed for both single and double contrast examinations of the large bowel except
right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
the ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions
right ileac
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?
right lateral decubitus
Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?
right lateral decubitus position
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the
right main stem bronchus
Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity from where they are advanced to the
right ventricle
The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the
serosa
All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except
single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions
The number 2 in figure 2-24 indicates the following
spinous process of L1
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?
tangential metatarsals/toes
which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation
tangential patella
the projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is
tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method
All the following statements regarding the position shown in figure 2-17 are true except
the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7
The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is
yellow marrow
the structure labeled 1 in figure 2-32 is the
zygapophyseal joint
which of the following structures is illustrated by the number 2 in figure 2-21
zygomatic arch