Instrument Oral

What is a dryline and why is knowledge of its location important to you?

A dryline is a low-level boundary hundreds of miles long that separates moist and dry air masses. In the U.S., it typically lies north-south across the southern and central High Plains during the spring and early summer, where it separates moist air from the Gulf of Mexico to the east and dry desert air from the southwestern states to the west. Severe and sometimes tornadic thunderstorms often develop along a dryline or in the moist air just to the east of it, especially when it begins moving eastward.

What are feeder routes?

A feeder route is a route depicted on IAP charts to designate course for aircraft to proceed from the enroute structure to the IAF. When a feeder route is designated, the chart provides the course or bearing to be flown, the distance, and the minimum altitude. Enroute airway obstacle clearance criteria apply to feeder routes, providing 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance (2,000 ft in mountainous areas).

What is a "ridge?"

A ridge (also called a ridge line) is an elongated area of relatively high atmospheric pressure. Air moving out of a high or ridge depletes the quantity of air; therefore, these are the areas of descending air. Descending air favors dissipation of cloudiness; hence the association of high pressure and good weather.

Define the term "decision altitude" (DA).

A specified altitude (MSL) on an instrument approach procedure (ILS, GLS, vertically guided RNAV) at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual references.

What are "squall line" thunderstorms?

A squall line is a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it develops ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may also develop in unstable air far removed from any front. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady-state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to aircraft. It usually forms rapidly, reaching a maximum intensity during the late afternoon and the first few hours of darkness.

What is a stepdown fix?

A stepdown fix permits additional descent within a segment of an instrument approach procedure by identifying a point at which a controlling obstacle has been safely overflown.

How would you define a technically advanced aircraft (TAA) and what would you do differently when training a pilot in a TAA?

A technically advanced aircraft is an airplane equipped with an electronic PFD and MFD that includes, at a minimum, GPS moving map navigation and an integrated two-axis autopilot. A pilot transitioning to a TAA should receive instruction with more emphasis on knowledge of advanced avionics, including flight automation such as a flight management system (FMS) and a coupled autopilot; at the very least, in how to operate the advanced systems, which advanced systems to use and when, and how advanced avionic systems affect the pilot and the way the pilot flies.

What is the significance of the term "radar required" found on some approach charts?

A term displayed on charts and approach plates and included in FDC NOTAMs to alert pilots that segments of either an instrument approach procedure or a route are not navigable because of either the absence or unusability of a NAVAID. The pilot can expect to be provided radar navigational guidance while transiting segments labeled with this term.

What is a terminal arrival area (TAA)?

A terminal arrival area is a published or assigned track by which aircraft are transitioned from the en route structure to the terminal area. A terminal arrival area consists of a designated volume of airspace designed to allow aircraft to enter a protected area with obstacle clearance and signal reception guaranteed where the initial approach course is intercepted.

What is a "clearance limit" and when is it received?

A traffic clearance issued prior to departure will normally authorize flight to the airport of intended landing. Under certain conditions, at some locations, a short-range clearance procedure is used, whereby a clearance is issued to a fix within or just outside of the terminal area, and pilots are advised of the frequency on which they will receive the long-range clearance direct from the center controller.

What is a "trough?"

A trough (also called a trough line) is an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure. At the surface when air converges into a low, it cannot go outward against the pressure gradient nor, can it go downward into the ground; it must go upward. Therefore, a low or trough is an area of rising ar. Rising air is conducive to cloudiness and precipitation; hence the general association of low pressure and bad weather

Is the ATC clearance "cleared for the visual," a VFR clearance or an IFR clearance? What requirements must be met in order to accept such a clearance?

A visual approach is conducted on an IFR flight plan and authorizes a pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport. The pilot must have either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight. This approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate air traffic control facility. Reported weather at the airport must have a ceiling at or above 1,000 ft and visibility 3 miles or greater. Visual approaches are an IFR procedure conducted under IFR in visual meteorological conditions. Cloud clearance requirement of 14 CFR 91.155 are not applicable.

What are the two types of ADS-B equipment?

ADS-B Out, or Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast, Out automatically broadcasts the aircraft's GPS position, altitude, velocity, and other information out to ATC ground-based surveillance stations as well as directly to other aircraft. It is required in all airspace where transponders are required. ADS-B In, or Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast, In is the receipt, processing, and display of ADS-B transmissions. ADS-B In capability is necessary to receive ADS-B traffic and broadcast services (e.g., Flight Information Service--Broadcast (FIS-B) and Traffic Information Service--Broadcast (TIS-B)).

What is an AIRMET?

AIRMETs (WAs) are advisories of significant weather phenomena but describe conditions at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs. AIRMETs are intended for dissemination to all pilots in the preflight and en route phase of flight to enhance safety. AIRMET information is available in two formats: text bulletins (WA) and graphics (G-AIRMET) and are issued on a scheduled basis every 6 hours beginning at 0245 UTC. Unscheduled updates and corrections are issued as necessary. AIRMETs contain details about IFR, extensive mountain obscuration, turbulence, strong surface winds, icing, and freezing levels.

What do the following acronyms stand for? ALSF-1 SSALF MALSR REIL MIRL PAPI

ALSF-1 -- Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights (ILS Cat-I configuration) SSALF -- Simplified Short Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing Lights MALSR -- Medium Intensity Approach Light System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights REIL -- Runway End Identifier Lights MIRL -- Medium Intensity Runway Lighting PAPI -- Precision Approach Path Indicator System Exam Tip: Be prepared to locate and explain the type of approach light systems available at your destination and alternate airports. Having the legend for approach lighting systems found in the Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP) readily available is highly recommended.

Does an ATC authorization to "maintian VFR-On-Top" restrict you to only operating on top or above the cloud layer?

ATC authorization to "maintain VFR-On-Top" is not intended to restrict pilots so that they must operate only above an obscuring meteorological formation (layer). Instead, it permits operation above, below, between layers, or in areas where there is no meteorological obscuration. It is imperative, however, that pilots understand that clearance to operate "VFR-On-Top/VFR conditions" does not imply cancellation of the IFR flight plan.

What is the purpose of the term "hold for release" when included in an IFR clearance?

ATC may issue "hold for release" instructions in a clearance to delay an aircraft's departure for traffic management reasons (weather, traffic volume, etc.). A pilot may not depart utilizing IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are received from ATC.

What does "cleared as filed" mean?

ATC will issue an abbreviated IFR clearance based on the route of flight as filed in the IFR flight plan, provided the filed route can be approved with little or no revision.

If the visibility provided by ATC is less than that prescribed for the approach, can a pilot legally continue an approach and land?

According to 14 CFR Part 91, no pilot may land when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard IAP being used. ATC will provide the pilot with the current visibility reports appropriate to the runway in use. This may be in the form of prevailing visibility, runway visual value (RVV), or runway visual range (RVR). However, only the pilot can determine if the flight visibility meets the landing requirements indicated on the approach chart. If the flight visibility meets the minimum prescribed for the approach, then the approach may be continue to a landing. If the flight visibility is less than that prescribed for the approach, then the pilot must execute a missed approach, regardless of the reported visibility.

What is advection fog, and where is it most likely to form?

Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is most common along coastal areas but often develops deep in continental areas. Unlike radiation fog, it may occur with winds, cloudy skies, over a wide geographic area, and at any time of the day or night. It deepens as wind speed increases up to about 15 knots; wind much stronger than 15 knots lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or stratocumulus.

What is indicated when a GPS receiver provides the annunciation "LNAV+V"?

Advisory vertical guidance is provided. Depending on the manufacturer, some GPS receivers will provide advisory vertical guidance when associated with LP or LNAV lines of minima. The system creates an artificial advisory glide path to assist the pilot in flying a constant descent to the MDA. Barometric altimeter information remains the primary altitude reference for complying with any altitude restrictions. Note: It is the pilot's responsibility to use the barometric altimeter to ensure compliance with altitude restrictions, particularly during approach operations. Advisory vertical guidance is not the same thing as approved vertical guidance, such as the type found on approaches with LNAV/VNAV, LPV or ILS lines of minima.

Define the term "aeronautical decision making."

Aeronautical decision making (ADM) is a systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

What are the two main categories of aircraft icing?

Aircraft icing in flight is usually classified as being either structural icing or induction icing. Structural icing refers to the ice that forms on aircraft surfaces and components, while induction icing refers to ice in the engine's induction system.

During your departure, while flying an ODP, ATC vectors you off of the ODP for traffic separation. Is the ODP now cancelled and who is responsible for terrain and obstacle clearance?

Aircraft may be vectored off of an ODP or issued an altitude lower than a published altitude on an ODP, at which time the ODP is canceled. In these cases, ATC assumes responsibility for terrain and obstacle clearance. In all cases, the minimum 200 fpnm climb gradient is assumed.

Explain the control and performance method of attitude instrument flying.

Aircraft performance is achieved by controlling the aircraft attitude and power (angle of attack and thrust to drag relationship). Aircraft attitude is the relationship of its longitudinal and lateral axes to the Earth's horizon. An aircraft is flown in instrument flight by controlling the attitude and power, as necessary, to produce the desired performance. This is known as the control and performance method of attitude instrument flying and can be applied to any basic instrument maneuver. The three general categories of instruments are control, performance, and navigation instruments.

If you are cleared direct to an IAF or IF/IAF within a TAA, but not cleared for the approach by ATC, are you automatically cleared to descend to a TAA altitude?

An ATC clearance direct to an IAF or to the IF/IAF without an approach clearance does not authorize a pilot to descend to a lower TAA altitude. If a pilot desires a lower altitude without an approach clearance, he/she should request the lower TAA altitude from ATC. Pilots entering the TAA with two-way radio communications failure must maintain the highest altitude prescribed by 14 CFR 91.185 until arriving at the appropriate IAF.

What information will ATC provide when they request a hold at a fix where the holding pattern is not charted?

An ATC clearance requiring an aircraft to hold at a fix where the pattern is not charted will include the following information: a. Direction of holding from the fix, in reference to the eight cardinal compass points (i.e., N, NE, E, SE, etc.). b. Holding fix (the fix may be omitted if included at the beginning of the transmission as the clearance limit). c. Radial, course, bearing, airway or route on which the aircraft is to hold. d. Leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be used (leg length will be specified in minutes on pilot request or if the controller considers it necessary). e. Direction of turns, if holding pattern is nonstandard (left turns), the pilot requests direction of turns, or the controller considers it necessary to state direction of turns. f. Time to expect further clearance and any pertinent additional delay information.

When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?

An IFR flight plan may be canceled at any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside of Class A airspace. Pilots must be aware that other procedures may be applicable to a flight that cancels an IFR flight plan within an area where a special program, such as a designated TRSA, Class C airspace, or Class B airspace, has been established.

Describe the term "contact approach."

An approach in which an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, having an air traffic control authorization, operating clear of clouds with at least 1 mile flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those conditions, may deviate from the instrument approach procedure and proceed to the destination airport by visual reference to the surface. This approach will only be authorized when requested by the pilot and the reported ground visibility at the destination airport is at least 1 statute mile.

What conditions must exist for an instrument instructor, conducting a flight lesson, to log instrument time?

An authorized instructor may log instrument time when conducting instrument flight instruction in actual instrument flight conditions.

If you become doubtful about your position or adverse weather ahead, should you declare an emergency?

An emergency can be either a distress or urgency condition. Pilots do not hesitate to declare an emergency when they are faced with distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage. However, some are reluctant to report an urgency condition when they encounter situations that may not be immediately perilous, but are potentially catastrophic. An aircraft is in at least an urgency condition the moment the pilot becomes doubtful about position, fuel endurance, weather, or any condition that could adversely affect flight safety. This is the time to ask for help, not after the situation has developed into a distress condition.

What display information will be lost when an AHRS failure occurs?

An inoperative attitude indicator (red X) on a PFD indicates failure of the AHRS.

Define the terms: Initial Approach Segment Intermediate Approach Segment Final Approach Segment Missed Approach Segment

An instrument approach procedure may have as many as four separate segments depending upon how the approach procedure is structured. The initial approach segment is that segment between the initial approach fix and the intermediate fix, or the point where the aircraft is established on the intermediate course or final approach course. The intermediate approach segment is between the intermediate fix or point and the final approach fix. The final approach segment is between the final approach fix or point and the runway, airport, or missed approach point. The missed approach segment is between the missed approach point or the point of arrival at decision height, and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude.

Some approach charts now contain a Performance-Based Navigation (PBN) box. Explain.

An instrument approach procedure's PBN requirements and conventional equipment requirements will be prominently displayed in a separate, standardized notes box. For procedures with PBN elements, the PBN box will contain the procedure's navigation specification(s). Also, if required, specific sensors or infrastructure needed for the navigation solution, any additional or advanced functional requirements, the minimum RNP value, and any amplifying remarks. Items listed in this PBN box are required for the procedure's PBN elements.

What are the required tests and inspections to be performed on an aircraft? Include inspections for IFR.

Annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months Airworthiness directives and life-limited parts complied with, as required VOR equipment check every 30 days (for IFR ops). 100-hour inspection, if used for hire or flight instruction in aircraft flight instructor provides Altimeter, altitude reporting equipment, and static pressure systems tested and inspected (for IFR ops) every 24 calendar months. Transponder tests and inspections, every 24 calendar months. Emergency locator transmitter, operation and battery condition inspected every 12 calendar months.

Can the instrument proficiency check be given in a full flight simulator or flight training device? (AC 61-98, AC 61-136)

A flight instructor may conduct all or part of the IPC in an FAA-approved full flight simulator (FFS), flight training device (FTD), or Aviation Training Device (ATD) as appropriate. If the IPC is accomplished in an FFS or FTD qualified under 14 CFR Part 60, that IPC checking program must receive approval by the FAA administrator (61.4). Guidance on what IPC instrument tasks can be accomplished in an FFS, FTD, or ATD is located in the current instrument PTS or ACS, as appropriate.

What are the required records a flight instructor must retain?

A flight instructor must maintain a record in a logbook or a separate document that contains the following: a. The name of each person whose logbook that instructor has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; and b. The name of each person that instructor has endorsed for a knowledge test or practical test, and the record shall also indicate the kind of test, the date, and the results

What qualifications must a flight instructor possess before instruction may be given for the issuance of an instrument rating?

A flight instructor who provides instrument training for the issuance of an instrument rating, a type rating not limited to VFR, or the instrument training required for commercial pilot and airline transport pilot certificates, must hold an instrument rating on his or her pilot certificate and flight instructor certificate that is appropriate to the category and class of aircraft used for the training he or she is providing.

What is the definition of a "hazard"?

A hazard is a present condition, event, object, or circumstance that could lead to or contribute to an unplanned or undesired event such as an accident.

What procedure is followed when a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn?

A holding pattern, in lieu of a procedure turn, may be specified for course reversal in some procedures: the holding pattern is established over an intermediate fix or final approach fix. The holding pattern distance or time specified in the profile view must be observed. Maximum holding airspeed limitations apply, as set forth for all holding patterns. The holding pattern maneuver is completed when the aircraft is established on the inbound course after executing the appropriate entry. If cleared for the approach prior to returning to the holding fix, and the aircraft is at the prescribed altitude, additional circuits of the holding pattern are not necessary nor expected by ATC. If pilots elect to make additional circuits to lose altitude or to become better established on course, it is their responsibility to so advise ATC upon receipt of their approach clearance.

You are flying an airway that has three altitudes published for that segment: 8,000 5,000G 4,500* What does this mean to you?

-8,000 is the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) if the aircraft is not GPS equipped -5,000G is the altitude that may be used as the MEA when navigating via GPS. -4,500* is the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA); ATC may assign this altitude when I'm within 22 NM of the VOR.

A VOR IAP has a published MSA. An RNAV IAP has a published TAA. How do you correctly use these altitudes?

-A minimum safe altitude (MSA) is advisory information used as an emergency quick reference. Pilots normally don't use the MSA during normal operations. An MSA may be published on any IAP. -A Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) is only associated with an RNAV/IAP. The TAA is part of the IAP. If I am in a TAA and have been cleared for the IAP, I am considered to be on a published portion of the IAP and am authorized to descend to that altitude without further ATC instructions.

If you inadvertently encounter freezing rain, what would be your preferred escape method?

-An immediate escape is necessary--I would not wait, -The best and fastest escape from freezing rain is a 180-degree turn back to where I came from. -The next best method is to try to change altitudes to find warmer air

If you are concerned about fog, what specific weather reports/forecasts would you look at to determine the likelihood of fog developing?

-I would review all of the reports for current temperatures and dewpoints. -I would consider how the setting sun (if flying in the evening) or rising sun (early in the morning) might change the temperature. -If the temperature and dewpoint spread is becoming small ,then I know to expect fog.

Give me a few specific examples of how you use good task management skills on an IFR flight?

-I'll prioritize tasks in a way that doesn't distract from flying the airplane. Overall, this means that I will Aviate first; Navigate second; Communicate third. -I'll execute tasks (such as checklists) so as not to increase workload during critical phases of flight. -I'll think ahead and set up NAVAIDs in advance. -I'll complete tasks, appropriate for the phase of flight, without getting distracted from the job of flying the airplane. -When necessary, I'll slow down the aircraft to give me more time to complete required tasks.

After inadvertently encountering icing conditions, your engine begins to run rough, with a loss of engine RPM. What is the likely cause and solution?

-Probability is high that my engine air intake has become blocked. -If my engine is equipped with carb heat, I would apply it to access outside air through a different inlet. -If my engine is equipped with alternate air, I would turn it on to access outside air through a different inlet. -I would exit icing conditions as soon as possible.

If you encounter icing during a lost-com situation, what will you do?

-This is no longer just a lost-com situation, but is now a possible emergency -I will change the transponder code from 7600 to 7700 -I will use my pilot's emergency prerogative. I will do whatever I feel I need to do--including changing altitudes to get out of the clouds or to find warm air, changing route segment, and/or initiating an IAP to the nearest airport.

What is a low approach?

A low approach (sometimes referred to as a low pass) is the go- around maneuver following an approach. Instead of landing or making a touch and go, a pilot may wish to go-around (low approach) in order to expedite a particular operation (a series of practice instrument approaches is an example). Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, the low approach should be made straight ahead, with no turns or climb made until the pilot has made a thorough visual check for other aircraft in the area.

What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with a federal airway?

1,200 ft AGL

If your route of flight takes you towards a low-pressure system, what kind of weather in general can you expect? What if you were flying towards a high-pressure system?

A low-pressure system is characterized by rising air, which is conducive to cloudiness, precipitation and bad weather. A high-pressure system is an area of descending air which tends to favor dissipation of cloudiness and good weather.

What are the four methods a pilot may use to conduct and then log IAPs?

1. Actual instrument flight conditions flown in an aircraft; 2. Simulated instrument flight conditions, using a view-limiting device, flown in an aircraft with a safety pilot; 3. Simulated instrument flight conditions conducted in any FAA-approved full flight simulator (FFS), flight training device (FTD), aviation training device (ATD); or 4. A combination of methods 1 through 3 as prescribed by 61.57

How do you find an ADF magnetic bearing?

A magnetic bearing is the direction of an imaginary line from the aircraft to the station or the station to the aircraft referenced to magnetic north. To determine, use this formula: (Magnetic heading + Relative bearing = magnetic bearing) If the sum is more than 360, subtract 360 to get the magnetic bearing to the station. The reciprocal of this number is the magnetic bearing from the station.

What is the function of the magnetometer?

A magnetometer is a device that measures the strength of the earth's magnetic field to determine aircraft heading. It provides this information digitally to the AHRS, which relays it to the PFD.

What is the significance of temperature limitations published on an approach procedure chart?

A minimum and maximum temperature limitation is published on procedures which authorize Baro-VNAV operation. These temperatures represent the airport temperature above or below which Baro-VNAV is not authorized to LNAV/VNAV minimums. Note: Temperature limitations do not apply to flying the LNAV/VNAV line of minima using approach certified WAAS receivers when LPV or LNAV/VNAV are annunciated to be available.

When would you provide a "minimum fuel" advisory to ATC?

A minimum fuel advisory indicates that an aircraft's fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, it can accept little or no delay.

Your approach chart indicates a MSA circle in the plan view. What is an MSA and when would you use it?

A minimum safe altitude circle depicts altitudes on approach charts that provide at least 1,000 ft of obstacle clearance within a 25-mile radius of the navigation facility, waypoint, or airport reference point upon which the MSA is predicated. MSAs are for emergency use only and do not necessarily ensure acceptable navigational signal coverage. For RNAV approaches, the MSA is based on either the runway waypoint (RWY WP), the MAWP for straight-in approaches, or the airport waypoint (APT WP) for circling only approaches.

What is the definition of the term "nonprecision approach"?

A nonprecision approach (NPA) is an instrument approach based on a navigation system that provides course deviation information, but no glidepath deviation information such as VOR, NDB and LNAV.

What are the aeronautical knowledge requirements for a person to be eligible for an instrument rating?

A person who applies for an instrument rating must have received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor or accomplished a home-study course on the following aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating sought: a. Federal Aviation Regulations that apply to flight operations under IFR; b. Appropriate information that applies to IFR operations in the Aeronautical Information Manual; c. Air Traffic control system and procedures for instrument flight operations; d. IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems; e. Use of IFR enroute and instrument approach procedure charts; f. Procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts and the elements of forecasting weather trends based on that information and personal observation of weather conditions; g. Safe and efficient operation of aircraft under instrument flight rules and conditions; h. Recognition of critical weather situations and windshear avoidance; i. Aeronautical decision making and judgement; and j. Crew resource management, including crew communication and coordination.

What are the flight proficiency requirements for a person to be eligible for an instrument rating? (61.65)

A person who applies for an instrument rating must receive and log training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that includes the following areas of operation: a. Preflight preparation b. Preflight procedures c. Air traffic control clearances and procedures d. Flight by reference to instruments e. Navigation systems f. Instrument approach procedures; g. Emergency operations; and h. Postflight procedures

What are the aeronautical experience requirements for a person to be eligible for an instrument rating? (61.65)

A person who applies for an instrument--airplane rating must have logged the following: a. 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC, of which 10 hours must have been in an airplane b. 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the Part 61 areas of operation, of which 15 hours must have been received from an authorized instructor who holds an instrument airplane rating, and the instrument time includes: -3 hours of instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in an airplane that is appropriate to the instrument--airplane rating within 2 calendar months before the date of the practical test; -Instrument flight training on a cross-country flight procedures, including one cross-country flight in an airplane with an authorized instructor, that is performed under IFR, when a flight plan has been filed with an air traffic control facility, and that involves a flight of 250 NM along airways or ATC-directed routing, an instrument approach at each airport, and 3 different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems.

How can a pilot obtain the latest GPS NOTAMs?

A pilot can specifically request GPS aeronautical information from an FSS briefer during preflight briefings. Also, NOTAMs about known GPS service disruptions can be found at https://notams.aim.faa.gov/notamSearch/.

An aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 91 has a 1.3 times V0 speed 01100 KIAS, making Category B minimums applicable. If it becomes necessary to circle at a speed in excess of this category, what minimums should be used? (AIM 5-4-7)

A pilot must use the minima corresponding to the category determined during certification, or higher. If it is necessary to operate at a speed in excess of the upper limit of the speed range for an aircraft's category, the minimums for the higher category must be used.

Why would a pilot request a VFR-On-Top clearance?

A pilot on an IFR flight plan operating in VFR weather conditions, may request VFR-On-Top in lieu of an assigned altitude. For reasons such as turbulence, more favorable winds aloft, etc., the pilot has the flexibility to select an altitude or flight level of his/her choice (subject to any ATC restrictions). Pilots desiring to climb through a cloud, haze, smoke, or other meteorological formation and then either cancel their IFR flight plan or operate VFR-On-Top may request a climb to VFR-On-Top. Note: The ATC authorization must contain either a top report or a statement that no top report is available, and a request to report reaching VFR-on-top. Additionally, the ATC authorization may contain a clearance limit, routing, and an alternative clearance if VFR-on-top is not reached by a specified altitude.

What are PIREPs (UA), and where are they usually found?

A pilot report (PIREP) provides valuable information regarding the conditions as they actually exist in the air, which cannot be gathered from any other source. Pilots can confirm the height of bases and tops of clouds, locations of wind shear and turbulence, and the location of inflight icing. There are two types of PIREPs: routine or "UA," and urgent or "UUA." PIREPs should be given to the ground facility with which communications are established.

Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix at which a MCA exists

A pilot should initiate a climb so the MCA is reached by the time the intersection is crossed. An MCA will be charted when a higher MEA route segment is approached. The MCA is usually indicated when you are approaching steeply rising terrain, and obstacle clearance and/or signal reception is compromised.

What is a precision approach (PA)?

A precision approach (PA) is an instrument approach that is based on a navigation system that provides course and glidepath deviation information meeting the precision standards of ICAO Annex 10. For example, PAR, ILS, and GLS are precision approaches.

When is a procedure turn not required?

A procedure turn is not required when: Straight in approach--ATC specifies in approach clearance "Cleared straight-in (type) Approach." Holding pattern replaces the procedure turn, the holding pattern must be followed. Arc--when flying a DME arc Radar vectored to final approach course. Procedure turn barb is absent in the plan view or the "NoPT" symbol is depicted on the initial segment being used. Timed approach--when conducting a timed approach from a holding fix. Teardrop procedure turn is depicted and a course reversal is required, this type turn must be executed. Note: If a pilot is uncertain whether the ATC clearance intends for a procedure turn to be conducted or to allow for a straight-in approach, the pilot must immediately request clarification from ATC.

What standards shall be used to determine satisfactory completion of the IPC?

14 CFR Part 61, section 61.57(d), sets forth the requirements for an IPC. The maneuvers and procedures selected for the IPC must include those listed in the Rating Task Table in FAA-S-ACS-8 or FAA-S-8081-4, as applicable. The flight instructor conducting the IPC has the discretion to require any other maneuver(s) necessary to determine that the pilot can safely operate under IFR in a broad range of conditions appropriate to the aircraft flown and the ATC environment selected. Regardless of the maneuvers and procedures selected, the flight instructor should ensure that the pilot demonstrates satisfactory basic attitude instrument flying skills. Note: As an aid to the flight instructor, AC 61-98 Appendix J contains a sample flight instructor IPC checklist for conducting the IPC.

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

15 degrees C and 29.92" Hg are standard at sea level.

Who can give an instrument proficiency check?

61.57 states that the instrument proficiency check must be given by-- a. An examiner b. A person authorized by the US Armed Forces, provided the person being tested is a member of the US Armed Forces c. A company check pilot who is authorized to conduct instrument flight tests under Part 121, 125, 135, or Subpart K of Part 91 d. An authorized instructor e. A person approved by the Administrator

What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport with an approved IAP?

700 ft AGL

What is an airport surface "hot spot?"

A "hot spot" is a runway safety-related problem area on an airport that presents increased risk during surface operations. Typically, hot spots are complex or confusing taxiway--taxiway or taxiway-runway intersections. The area of increased risk has either a history of or potential for runway incursions or surface incidents due to a variety of causes, such as but not limited to: airport layout, traffic flow, airport marking, signage and lighting, situational awareness, and training. Hot Spots are depicted on airport diagrams as circles or polygons designated as "HS1," "HS2," etc.

What is a "no-gyro" approach?

A "no-gyro" approach is a radar approach/vector provided in case of a malfunctioning gyro-compass or directional gyro. Instead of providing the pilot with heading to be flown, the controller observes the radar track and issues control instructions, "Turn right/left," or "Stop turn," as appropriate.

What is a computer navigation fix (CNF)?

A CNF is a point defined by a latitude/longitude coordinate and is required to support Performance-Based Navigation (PBN) operations. A five-letter identifier denoting a CNF can be found next to an "x" on en route charts and on some approach charts. Pilots should not use CNFs for point-to-point navigation (e.g., proceed direct), filing a flight plan, or in aircraft/ATC communications.

Describe a ceiling a visibility analysis (CVA)

A CVA is a real-time analysis (updated every 5 minutes) of current ceiling and visibility conditions across the continental U.S. It is intended to aid situational awareness with a quick-glance visualization of current ceiling and visibility conditions across an area or along a route of flight. The CVA provides a viewer-selectable representation of ceiling height (AGL), surface visibility in statute miles, and flight category designation. The overview provided by a CVA must be followed by further examination of METARs, TAFs, AIRMETs, the GFA and other weather information.

What is a Center Weather Advisory (CWA)?

A Center Weather Advisory (CWA) is an aviation warning for use by aircrews to anticipate and avoid adverse weather conditions in the en route and terminal environments. This is not a flight planning product; instead it reflects current conditions expected at the time of issuance, and/or is a short-range forecast for conditions expected to begin within 2 hours from that time. CWAs are valid for a maximum of 2 hours. If conditions are expected to continue beyond that period, a statement will be included in the CWA.

What is a G-AIRMET?

A G-AIRMET is a graphical advisory of weather that may be hazardous to aircraft, but is less severe than SIGMETs. G-ARIMETs identify hazardous weather in space and time more precisely than text products, enabling pilots to maintain high safety margins while flying more efficient routes. They are issued at 03:00, 09:00, 15:00, and 21:00 UTC (with updates issued as necessary). Hazards depicted in G-AIRMETs include turbulence, low-level wind shear, strong surface winds, icing, freezing level, IFR, and mountain obscurations.

What are PAR and ASR approaches?

A PAR approach is a type of radar approach in which a controller provides highly accurate navigational guidance in azimuth and elevation to the pilot (precision approach). An ASR approach is a type of radar approach in which a controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only (nonprecision approach).

What is a SIGMET?

A SIGMET advises of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. Issued for the six areas corresponding to the FA areas. The maximum forecast period is four hours. In the conterminous United States, SIGMETs are issued when the following phenomena occur or are expected to occur: a. severe icing not associated with a thunderstorm b. severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms c. dust storms or sandstorms lowering the surface or inflight visibilities to below 3 miles d. volcanic ash

What is a STAR?

A Standard Terminal Arrival Route (STAR) is an ATC-coded IFR arrival route established for use by arriving IFR aircraft destined for certain airports. Its purpose is to simplify clearance delivery procedures and facilitate transition between enroute and instrument approach procedures. Reference the Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP) for the availability of STARs.

What does a VASI system provide?

A VASI system provides visual descent guidance during an approach to a runway; safe obstruction clearance within ±10 degrees of extended runway centerline up to 4 NM from the runway threshold. Two-bar VASI installations normally provide a 3 degree visual glide path.

Explain the "Visual Climb Over Airport" (VCOA) procedure. When would a pilot use this procedure?

A VCOA is a departure option for an IFR aircraft, operating in VMC equal to or greater than the specified visibility and ceiling, to visually conduct climbing turns over the airport to the published "climb-to" altitude from which to proceed with the instrument portion of the departure. VCOA procedures are developed to avoid obstacles greater than 3 statute miles from the departure end of the runway as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than 200 ft per nautical mile. VCOA textual procedures are published in the "Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures" section of the Terminal Procedures Publications and/or appear as an option on a Graphic ODP.

Does the VDA guarantee an obstacle protection below the MDA?

A VDA does not guarantee obstacle protection below the MDA in the visual segment. The presence of a VDA does not change any non-precision approach requirements. Pilots must be aware that the published VDA is for advisory information only and not to be considered instrument procedure derived vertical guidance. The VDA solely offers an aid to help pilots establish a continuous, stabilized descent during final approach.

What are circle-to-land approaches?

A circle-to-land approach is not technically an approach, but a maneuver initiated by a pilot to align the aircraft with the runway for landing when a straight-in landing from an instrument approach is not possible or desirable. At tower-controlled airports, this maneuver is made only after ATC authorization has been obtained and the pilot has established required visual reference to the airport.

ATC issues you the following clearance: "Cleared to Johnston Airport, Scott One Departure, Jonez transition, Q-One Forty-five. Climb via SID." Explain what "Climb via SID" means to you.

A clearance for a SID that contains published altitude restrictions may be issued using the phraseology "climb via," which is an abbreviated clearance that require compliance with the procedure lateral path, associated speed and altitude restrictions along the cleared route or procedure.

What is a convective SIGMET?

A convective SIGMET (WST) implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low-level wind shear. It may be issued for any convective situation which the forecaster feels is hazardous to all categories of aircraft. Convective SIGMET bulletins are issued for the Eastern (E), Central (C) and Western (W) United States (convective SIGMETs are not issued for Alaska or Hawaii). Bulletins are issued hourly at H+55. Special bulletins are issued at any time as required and updated at H+55. The text of the bulletin consists of either an observation and a forecast, or just a forecast, which is valid for up to 2 hours. a. Severe thunderstorm due to: • Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots • Hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4 inches in diameter • Tornadoes b. Embedded thunderstorms c. A line of thunderstorms d. Thunderstorms producing greater than or equal to heavy precipitation that affects 40 percent or more of an area at least 3,000 square miles.

What is RNAV?

Area navigation (RNAV) is a method of navigation that permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground- or space-based navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.

What is tower enroute control service?

At many locations, instrument flights can be conducted entirely in terminal airspace. These tower enroute control (TEC) routes are generally for aircraft operating below 10,000 ft, and they can be found in the Chart Supplement US. Pilots desiring to use TEC should include that designation in the remarks section of the flight plan.

At what rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with an increase in altitude?

Atmospheric pressure decreases approximately 1" Hg per 1,000 ft.

What instruments are used for trim control?

Attitude indicator, airspeed indicator, turn coordinator, and heading indicator.

What instruments are used to determine and control pitch?

Attitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. The attitude indicator displays a direct indication of the aircraft's pitch attitude while the other pitch attitude control instruments indirectly indicate the pitch attitude of the aircraft.

What instruments contain gyroscopes?

Attitude indicator, heading indicator and turn coordinator/indicator

What instruments are used to determine and control bank?

Attitude indicator, heading indicator, magnetic compass, and turn coordinator.

Is the attitude indicator subject to errors?

Attitude indicators are free from most errors, but depending upon the speed with which the erection system functions, there may be a slight nose-up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nose-down indication during a rapid deceleration. There is also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180 degree turn. On rollout from a 180 degree turn, the AI will indicate a slight climb and turn in the opposite direction of rollout. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a minute or so after returning to straight-and-level flight.

Define basic attitude instrument flying.

Attitude instrument flying may be defined as the control of an aircraft's spatial position by using instruments rather than outside visual references.

How is the bank control accomplished?

Bank changes are made by changing the "bank attitude" or bank pointers by precise amounts in relation to the bank scale. The bank scale is normally graduated at 0 degrees, 10 degrees, 20 degrees, 30 degrees, 60 degrees, and 90 degrees and may be located at the top or bottom of the attitude reference. Normally, use a bank angle that approximates the degrees to turn, not to exceed 30 degrees.

What is the purpose of baro-aiding?

Baro-aiding is a method of augmenting the GPS integrity solution by using a non-satellite input source (aircraft static system) to provide a vertical reference. GPS-derived altitude should not be relied upon to determine aircraft altitude since the vertical error can be quite large and no integrity is provided. To ensure that baro-aiding is available, the current altimeter setting must be entered into the receiver. Baro-aiding satisfies the RAIM requirement in lieu of a fifth satellite.

What type of error is the heading indicator subject to?

Because of precession (caused by friction), the heading indicator will creep or drift from the heading it is set to. The amount of drift depends largely upon the condition of the instrument (worn and dirty bearing and/or improperly lubricated bearings). Additionally, the gyro is oriented in space and the earth rotates in space at a rate of 15 degrees in 1 hour; therefore, discounting precession caused by friction, the heading indicator may indicate as much as 15 degrees of error per every hour of operation.

Concerning instructional flights with both an authorized flight instructor and a certified pilot on board, which person is allowed to log pilot-in-command time?

Both the flight instructor and private pilot will log PIC time. Provided the private pilot is sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated, that pilot may log the time as PIC.

What are the different aircraft approach categories?

Category A: Speed less than 91 knots Category B: Speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots Category C: Speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots Category D: Speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots Category E: Speed 166 knots

How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere?

Changes in atmospheric stability are inversely related to temperature (density) changes with height. If temperature lapse rates increase, then stability decreases. Conversely, if temperature lapse rates decrease, then stability increases. Most of these changes occur as a result of the movement of air, but diurnal (day/night) temperature variations can play a significant role. Several stability indexes and other quantities exist that evaluate atmospheric stability and the potential for convective storms. The most common of these are Lifted Index (LI) and Convective Available Potential Energy (CAPE). Observed CAPE values in thunderstorm environments often exceed 1,000 joules per kilogram, and in extreme cases may exceed 5,000 joules per kilogram.

What is the significance of the presence of a "negative C" symbol on the circling line of minima?

Circling approach protected areas developed after late 2012 use the radius distance dependent on aircraft approach category and the altitude of the circling MDA which accounts for true airspeed increase with altitude. The approaches using expanded circling approach areas can be identified by the presence of the "negative C" symbol on the circling line of minima. Note: The increase in size of the circling protected area is particularly beneficial for pilots of CAT C and CAT D turbine-powered, transport category aircraft in that it provides greater lateral obstacle clearance and additional maneuvering room to properly align and stabilize for final approach and landing.

Which airspace prohibits VFR-On-Top clearances?

Class A airspace

Explain the purpose of Class E transition areas.

Class E transition areas extend upward from either 700 feet AGL (magenta vignette) or 1,200 ft AGL (blue vignette), and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. Class E transition areas exist to help separate (via cloud clearance) arriving and departing IFR traffic from VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity. Note: Do not confuse the 700-foot and 1,200-foot Class E transition areas with surface areas or surface area extensions.

What is Class G airspace?

Class G airspace (uncontrolled) is that portion of airspace that has not been designated as Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace.

What are the vertical limits of Class airspace?

Class G airspace begins at the surface and continues up to but no including the overlying controlled airspace, or 14,500 MSL, or where Class E airspace begins, whichever occurs first.

Name the three types of structural ice that may occur in flight.

Clear Icing -- or glaze ice, is a glossy, clear, or translucent ice formed by the relatively slow freezing of large, supercooled water droplets. Clear icing conditions exist more often in an environment with warmer temperatures, higher liquid water contents, and larger droplets. It forms when only a small portion of the drop freezes immediately while the remaining unfrozen portion flows or smear overt he aircraft surface and gradually freezes. Rime Icing -- a rough, milky, and opaque ice formed by the instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water droplets after they strike the aircraft. Rime icing formation favors colder temperatures (colder than -15C), lower liquid water content, and small droplets. It grows when droplets rapidly freeze upon striking an aircraft. The rapid freezing traps air and forms a porous, brittle, opaque, and milky-colored ice. Mixed Icing -- A mixture of clear ice and rime ice and forms as an airplane collects both rime and clear ice due to small-scale variations in liquid water content, temperature, and droplet sizes. Mixed ice appears as layers of relatively clear and opaque ice when examined from the side. Mixed icing poses a similar hazard to an aircraft as clear ice. It may form horns or other shapes that disrupt airflow and cause handling and performance problems. Note: In general, rime icing tends to occur at temperatures colder than -15C, clear when the temperature is warmer than -10C, and mixed ice at temperatures in between. This is only general guidance. The type of icing will vary depending on the liquid water content, droplet size, and aircraft-specific variables.

Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR clearance?

Clearance Limit (destination airport or fix) Route (initial heading) Altitude (initial altitude) Frequency (departure) Transponder (squawk code) Note: ATC procedures now require the controller to state the DP name, the current number and the DP transition name after the phrase "Cleared to (destination) airport" and prior to the phrase "then as filed," for ALL departure clearances when the DP or DP transition is to be flown.

What does the clearance "descend via" authorize you to do when navigating on a STAR or RNAV STAR procedure?

Clearance to "descend via" authorizes pilots to: a. Descend at pilot's discretion to meet published restrictions and laterally navigate on a STAR. b. When cleared to waypoint depicted on a STAR, to descend from a previously assigned altitude at pilot's discretion to the altitude depicted at that waypoint. c. Once established on the depicted arrival, to descend and to meet all published or assigned altitude and/or speed restrictions.

What are the general characteristics of the weather a pilot would encounter when operating near a cold front? A warm front?

Cold front -- As the front passes, expected weather can include towering cumulus or cumulonimbus, heavy rain accompanies by lightning, thunder and/or hail; tornadoes possible; during passage, poor visibility, winds variable and gusting; temperature/dew point and barometric pressure drop rapidly. Warm front -- As the front passes, expected weather can include stratiform clouds, drizzle, low ceilings and poor visibility; variable winds; rise in temperature. Note: The weather associated with a front depends on the amount of moisture available, the degree of stability of the air that is forced upward, the slope of the front, the speed of frontal movement, and the upper wind flow.

Describe the different types of fronts?

Cold front -- occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air. Occluded front -- a frontal occlusion occurs when a fast-moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front. Two types: cold front occlusion and warm front occlusion Warm front -- The boundary area formed when a warm air mass contacts and flows over a colder air mass Stationary front -- When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences the local weather for days. The weather is typically a mixture of both warm and cold fronts.

What are the legal substitutions for an inoperative outer marker?

Compass locator; precision approach radar (PAR) or airport surveillance radar (ASR); DME, VOR, or NDB fixes authorized in the standard instrument approach procedure; or a suitable RNAV system in conjunction with a fix identified in the standard instrument approach procedure.

Describe the procedure for crosswind correction in a holding pattern.

Compensate for wind effect primarily by drift correction on the inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, triple the inbound drift correction to avoid major turning adjustments.

What causes radiation fog to form?

Conditions favorable for radiation fog are a clear sky, little or no wind, and small temperature-dew point spread (high relative humidity). The fog forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak.

What are constant pressure level forecasts?

Constant pressure level forecasts are a computer model depiction of select weather (e.g., wind) at a specified constant pressure level (e.g., 300 MB), along with the altitudes (in meters) of the specified constant pressure level. They are used to provide an overview of weather patterns at specified times and pressure altitudes and are the source for wind and temperature aloft forecasts. Pressure patterns cause and characterize much of the weather. Typically, lows and troughs are associated with clouds and precipitation while highs and ridges are associated with fair weather, except in winter when valley fog may occur. The location and strength of the jet stream can be viewed at the 300 MB, 250 MB, and 200 MB levels: 925 mb -- 2,500 ft 850 mb -- 5,000 ft 700 mb -- 10,000 ft 500 mb -- 18,000 ft 300 mb -- 30,000 ft 250 mb -- 34,000 ft 200 mb -- 39,000 ft

Describe a constant pressure level forecast?

Constant pressure level forecasts are used to provide an overview of weather patterns at specified times and pressure altitudes, and are the source for wind and temperature aloft forecasts. When considered together, they describe the three-dimensional aspect of pressure systems, the patterns of which cause and characterize much of the weather. Typically, lows and trough are associated with clouds and precipitation while highs and ridges are associated with fair weather. The location and strength of the jet stream can be viewed at 300 MB, 250 MB, and 200 MB levels. Constant pressure level forecasts are issued four times per day.

What are the six skills you must be competent in for effective SRM?

Controlled Flight Into Terrain Awareness Aeronautical Decision Making Risk Management Automation Management Task Management Situational Awareness

What is the definition of Class E (controlled) airspace?

Controlled airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace.

Give me a few examples of situations that might result in a CFIT accident?

Controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) could result from situations such as: -When the pilot descends below published minimums on an approach. -When the pilot does not follow the prescribed Obstacle Departure Procedure. -When the pilot does not perceive a change in terrain height and initiate a suitable climb. -When the pilot becomes distracted and loses situation awareness.

What does the first fundamental skill of instrument cross-checking consist of?

Cross-checking is the continuous and logical observation of instruments for attitude and performance information. In attitude instrument flying, the pilot maintains an attitude by reference to instruments that will produce the desired result in performance. Due to human error, instrument error, and airplane performance differences in various atmospheric and loading conditions, it is impossible to establish an attitude and have performance remain constant for a long period of time. These variables make it necessary for the pilot to constantly check the instruments and make appropriate changes in airplane attitude.

What information can a pilot obtain from current and forecast icing products (CIP and FIP)?

Current Icing Product (CIP) -- provides an hourly three-dimensional diagnosis of the icing environment; information is displayed on a suite of twelve graphics available for the 48 contiguous United States, much of Canada and Mexico, and their respective coastal waters. CIP is a supplementary weather product for enhanced situational awareness only. The CIP product suite is issued hourly 15 minutes after the hour by the Aviation Weather Center (AWC). Forecast Icing Potential (FIP) -- provides a three-dimensional forecast of icing potential (or likelihood) using numerical weather prediction model output. It may be used as a higher resolution supplement to AIRMETs and SIGMETs but is not a substitute for them. The forecast area covers the 48 contiguous states, much of Canada and Mexico, and their respective coastal waters. The FIP is issued every hour and generates an hourly forecast for 3 hours into the future. Exam Tip: Be prepared to interpret and discuss current and forecast weather along your planned route of flight. The evaluator will want you to demonstrate that you can interpret the various aviation weather reports, forecasts, charts/graphics and make an assessment of how the weather will affect your planned flight. Also, expect the evaluator to place emphasis on your knowledge of weather phenomena that are of particular concern to all instrument-rated pilots such as thunderstorms, turbulence, icing, and visibility.

The distance information indicated by your DME is different from that indicated on the GPS display. Why?

DME signals are line-of-sight: the mileage readout is the straight line distance from the aircraft antenna to the DME ground facility and is commonly referred to as slant range distance. GPS systems provide distance as the horizontal measurement from the waypoint to the aircraft. Therefore, at 3,000 ft and 0.5 miles the DME (slant range) would read 0.6 NM while the GPS distance would show the actual horizontal distance of .5 DME. This error is smallest at low altitudes and/or at long ranges.

What is DME?

DME stands for distance measuring equipment. Aircraft equipped with DME are provided with distance and ground speed information when receiving a VORTAC or TACAN facility. In the operation of DME, paired pulses at a specific spacing are sent out from the aircraft and are received at the ground station. The ground station then transmits paired pulses back to the aircraft at the same pulse spacing but on a different frequency. The time required for the round trip of this signal exchange is measured in the airborne DME unit and is translated into distance and ground speed. Reliable signals may be received at distances up to 199 NM at line-of-sight altitude. DME operates on frequencies in the UHF spectrum from 960 MHz to 1215 MHz. Distance information is slant-range distance.

Where are DPs located?

DPs will be listed by airport in the IFR Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures section, section L, of the Terminal Procedures Publications (TPPs). SIDs and complex ODPs will be published graphically and given procedure titles.

What is a diverse vector area (DVA)?

DVAs are areas in which ATC may provide random radar vectors during an uninterrupted climb from the departure runway until above the MVA/MIA, established in accordance with the TERPS criteria for diverse departures. The DVA provides obstacle and terrain avoidance in lieu of taking off from the runway under IFR using an ODP or SID.

What are DPs and why are they necessary?

Departure Procedures are preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearance from terminal area to enroute structure, necessary because increase efficiency and obstacle clearance. Pilots operating under Part 91 are strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal VMC and IMC, when one is available.

When navigating with GPS equipment, explain the CDI scaling changes (sensitivity) that occur for the appropriate route segment and phase of flight. Departures and DPs (Terminal mode) More than 30 NM from the destination Within 30 NM from destination (Terminal mode) Within 2 NM from FAWP (Approach mode armed) Missed approach segment

Departures and DPs (Terminal mode) -CDI sensitivity = plus or minus 1 NM More than 30 NM from the destination -CDI sensitivity = plus or minus 5 NM (plus or minus 2 NM WAAS) Within 30 NM from destination (Terminal mode) -CDI sensitivity = plus or minus 1 NM Within 2 NM from FAWP (Approach mode armed) -CDI sensitivity = plus or minus 1 NM to plus or minus 0.3 NM at the FAWP Missed approach segment -CDI sensitivity = plus or minus 0.3 NM to 1 NM

You have just experienced an alternator failure and your electrical system is being powered by the main battery. How much time do you have before the main battery fails?

Depending on electrical load and condition of teh battery, sufficient power may be available for an hour or more of flight or for only a matter of minutes. The pilot must be familiar with all aircraft systems requiring electricity and which systems will continue to operate without power.

The DECIDE model of decision making involves which elements?

Detect a change needing attention Estimate the need to counter or react to the change Choose the most desirable outcome for the flight Identify actions to successfully control change Do something to adapt to the change Evaluate the effect of the action countering the change

If assigned a DME/GPS hold, what procedures should be used?

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)/GPS Along-Track Distance (ATD) holding is subject to the same entry and holding procedures except that distances (nautical miles) are used in lieu of time values. The outbound course of the DME/GPS holding pattern is called the outbound leg of the pattern. The controller or the instrument approach procedure chart will specify the length of the outbound leg. The end of the outbound leg is determined by the DME or ATD readout.

When a control tower, located at an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace?

During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules to 700 ft AGL and Class G rules to the surface, will become applicable. Check the Chart Supplements US for specifics.

What are the lateral limits of low altitude federal airways?

Each federal airway includes the airspace within parallel boundary lines 4 NM each side of the centerline.

What is the minimum length of time a flight instructor is required to retain a record of their flight instruction activity?

Each flight instructor must retain the records required by 14 CFR Part 61 for at least 3 years.

What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?

Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place and bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other reliable record.

If an emergency action requires deviation from 14 CFR Part 91, must a pilot submit a written report, and if so, to whom?

Each pilot-in-command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall, if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility.

What are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts?

Enroute low-altitude charts provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 ft MSL. These charts are revised every 56 days. All courses are magnetic and distances are nautical miles.

Which altitude for the route of flight does the requested altitude represent--initial, lowest, or highest?

Enter the planned cruising level for the first or the whole portion of the route to be flown, in terms of flight level, expressed as "F" followed by 3 figures (for example, F180; F330), or altitude in hundreds of feet, expressed as "A" followed by 3 figures (for example, A040; A170).

What are the procedural steps used in the control and performance method of attitude instrument flying?

Establish an attitude and power setting on the control instruments that will result in the desired performance. Known or computed attitude changes and approximate power settings will help to reduce the pilot's workload. Trim until control pressures are neutralized. Trimming for hands off flight is essential for smooth, precise aircraft control. It allows pilots to divert their attention to other cockpit duties with minimum deviation from the desired attitude. Cross-check the performance instruments to determine if the established attitude or power setting is providing the desired performance. The cross-check involves both seeing and interpreting. If a deviation is noted, determine the magnitude and direction of adjustment required to achieve the desired performance. Adjust the attitude or power setting on the control instruments as necessary.

When may the pilot-in-command of an aircraft deviate from an ATC clearance? (91.123)

Except in an emergency, no person may, in an area in which air traffic control is exercised, operate an aircraft contrary to an ATC instruction.

Is a pilot required to fly the entire approach procedure in order to log it for currency?

Except when being radar vectored to the final approach course, or otherwise directed through an appropriate ATC clearance to a specific IAP, pilots must execute the entire IAP commencing at an IAF or associated feeder route and fly the initial segment, the intermediate segment, and the final segment of an IAP. If the pilot completes these segments, or receives vectors to the final approach course, he or she may log the IAP.

What are several factors that reduce situational awareness?

Factors that reduce SA include fatigue, distractions, unusual or unexpected events, complacency, high workload, unfamiliar situations, and inoperative equipment.

What are some of the common cross-check errors students make?

Fixation--staring at a single instrument; may be related to difficulties with one or both of the other fundamental skills. Student may be fixating because of uncertainty about reading the heading indicator (interpretation), or because of inconsistency in rolling out of turns (control). Omission of an instrument from their cross-check; may be caused by failure to anticipate significant instrument indications following attitude changes. Emphasis on a single instrument, instead of on the combination of instruments necessary for attitude information; student naturally tends to rely on the instrument they understand most readily, even when it provides erroneous or inadequate information. Reliance on a single instrument is poor technique.

What is Flight Information Service (FIS) and how does it work?

Flight Information Service-Broadcast (FIS-B) is a ground broadcast service provided through the Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) services network over the 978 MHz Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) data link. The FAA FIS-B system provides pilots and flight crews of properly-equipped aircraft with a flight deck display of aviation weather and aeronautical information.

How are fly-over and fly-by waypoints used in a GPS approach procedure?

Fly-by waypoints are used when an aircraft should begin a turn to the next course prior to reaching the waypoint separating the two route segments. This is known as turn anticipation and is compensated for in the airspace and terrain clearances. Approach waypoints, except for the MAWP and the missed approach holding waypoint (MAHWP), are normally fly-by waypoints. Fly-over waypoints are used when the aircraft must fly over the point prior to starting a turn. New approach charts depict fly-over waypoints as a circled waypoint symbol. Overlay approach charts and some early stand-alone GPS approach charts may not reflect this convention.

If you inadvertently encounter thick fog, what would be your preferred escape method?

Flying in fog is not usually a problem until it becomes time for an IAP and landing. Depending on the type of fog: -I would look for an airport at a higher elevation, or if it's upslope fog, I might look for an airport at a lower elevation. -If flying near the coast, I would look for an airport further inland. -If all else fails, I would lean the engine for best economy and fly to an area with improved conditions.

How does fog form?

Fog forms when the temperature and dew point of the air become identical (or nearly so). This may occur through cooling of the air to a little beyond its dew point (producing radiation fog, advection fog, or upslope fog), or by adding moisture and thereby elevating the dew point (producing frontal fog or steam fog).

What minimums are necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Part 91? Under 121, 125, 129, or 135? (91.175)

For 14 CFR Part 91, none. For aircraft under Parts 121, 125, 129, or 135, if takeoff minimums are not prescribed under Part 97 for a particular airport, the following minimums apply to takeoffs under IFR for aircraft operating under those parts: a. For aircraft having two engines or less -- 1 statute mile visibility b. For aircraft having more than two engines -- 1/2 statute mile visibility

What are the factors necessary for a thunderstorm to form and what are the three stages of thunderstorm development?

For a thunderstorm to form, the air must have sufficient water vapor, an unstable lapse rate, and an initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion. During its lifecycle, a thunderstorm cell progresses through three stages: a. Cumulus -- characterized by a strong updraft. b. Mature -- precipitation reaches the surface. The precipitation descends through the cloud and drags the adjacent air downward, creating a strong downdraft alongside the updraft. c. Dissipating -- downdrafts characterize the dissipating stage and the storm dies rapidly.

Explain the primary and supporting method of attitude instrument flying.

For any maneuver or condition of flight, the pitch, bank, and power control requirements are most clearly indicated by certain key instruments. The instruments that provide the most pertinent and essential information will be referred to as primary instruments. Supporting instruments back up and supplement the information shown on the primary instruments.

On a direct flight not flown on radials or courses of established airways or routes, what points serve as compulsory reporting points?

For flights along a direct route, regardless of the altitude or flight level being flown, including flights operating in accordance with an ATC clearance specifying "VFR-on-Top," pilots must report over each reporting point used in the flight plan to define the route of flight.

With no FAF available, when would final descent to the published MDA be started?

For non-precision approaches, a final descent is initiated and the final segment begins at either the FAF or the final approach point (FAP). When no FAF is depicted, the final approach point is the point at which the aircraft is established inbound on the final approach course.

Where is the MAP on a precision approach?

For the ILS, the MAP is at the decision altitude/decision height (DA/DH)

What information does a freezing level graphics chart provide?

Freezing level graphics are used to assess the lowest freezing level heights and their values relative to flight paths. The chart uses colors to represent the height in hundreds of feet above mean sea level (MSL) of the lowest freezing level(s). The initial analysis and 3-hour forecast graphics are updated hourly. The 6-,9-, and 12-hour forecast graphics are updated every three hours.

What is the sensitivity of a CDI tuned to a localizer signal compared with a CDI tuned to a VOR?

Full left or full right deflection occurs at approximately 2.5 degrees from the centerline of a localizer course, which is 4 times greater than when tuned to a VOR, where full-scale deflection equals 10 degrees from the centerline.

What angular deviation from a VOR course is represented by half-scale deflection of the CDI?

Full scale deflection = 10 degrees; therefore, half-scale deflection = 5 degrees

Give a brief description of the Global Positioning System.

GPS is a satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal used by receiver to determine precise position anywhere in the world. The receiver tracks multiple satellites and determines a pseudo-range measurement that is then used to determine user location.

What is Class A airspace?

Generally, that airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600, including airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 nautical miles of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.

What is Class B airspace?

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation's busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enpianements. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some resemble an upside-down wedding cake), and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. An ATC clearance is required for all aircraft to operate in the area, and all aircraft cleared as such receive separation services within the airspace. The cloud clearance requirement for VFR operations is "clear of clouds."

What is Class D airspace?

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored, and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will usually be designed to contain those procedures.

What is Class C airspace?

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enpianements Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation.

What are the basic components of a standard ILS?

Guidance information--localizer, glide slope Range information--marker beacons, DME Visual information--approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights, runway lights

What are the normal usable distances for the various classes of VOR stations?

H-VORs and L-VORs have a normal usable distance of 40 nautical miles below 18,000 ft. T-VORs are short range facilities which have a power output of approximately 50 watts and a usable distance of 25 nautical miles at 12,000 ft and below. T-VORs are used primarily for instrument approaches in terminal areas, on or adjacent to airports.

If no VDP is provided on an IAP, how can you compute your own VDP?

HAT/300 = VDP (in NM from threshold); or 10% of HAT = seconds to subtract from the time to MAP

There are four types of NDB facilities in use. What are they and what are their effective ranges?

HH facilities: 2,000 watts; 75 NM H facilities: 50 to 1,999 watts; 50 NM MH facilities: less than 50 watts; 25 NM ILS compass locator: less than 25 watts; 15 NM

How will loss of a magnetometer affect the AHRS operation?

Heading information will be lose.

What significant do height contour lines have on a constant pressure chart?

Heights of the specified pressure for each station are analyzed through the use of solid lines called contours to give a height pattern. The contours depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft in the same manner as isobars on the surface chart. Also, closely-spaced contours mean strong winds, as do closely-spaced isobars.

What information may be obtained from the U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prog charts?

High-Level Significant Weather (SIGWX) charts provide a forecast of significant en route weather phenomena over a range of flight levels from FL250 to FL630, and associated surface weather features. Each chart depicts a "snap-shot" of weather expected at the specified valid time. Conditions routinely appearing on the chart are: a. Thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds b. Moderate or severe turbulence c. Moderate or severe icing d. Jet streams e. Tropopause heights f. Tropical cyclones g. Severe squall lines h. Volcanic eruption sites i. WIdespread sandstorms and dust storms

How can you identify an ILS critical area?

Holding position markings for ILS critical areas consist of two yellow solid lines, spaced two feet apart, connected by pairs of solid lines, spaced ten feet apart, extending across the width of the taxiway. When the ILS critical area is being protected, the pilot should stop so no part of the aircraft extends beyond the holding position marking. The area is protected whenever conditions are less than a ceiling of 800 feet and/or visibility less than 2 miles.

On a day IMC flight, about 50 miles from your destination, you notice the ammeter is discharging. What will you do?

I am about to lose electrical power and with it, electrical accessories. If faced with this situation, I would: -Recycle the master switch (alternator side on a split switch) to reset a possible overvoltage relay problem. -Prepare for possible complete electrical failure. -Turn off all unnecessary electrical equipment. -Inform ATC, if I still have communications. -Not count on making my destination. I would select the closest airport with an IAP that will assure a successful approach. -Navigate to the closest IAF. -Obtain the POH and review electrical system checklists. -Inform passengers of the situation and how they may be of assistance to me.

You aircraft is quipped with a certified GPS, but during the VOT preflight check, both VORs failed to be accurate. You have no other means of navigation. How will this affect your flight?

I will not be able to file an IFR flight plan. To file an IFR flight plan, I must have an alternate (non-GPS) means of navigation unless my GPS is WAAS certified.

What if your destination and alternate airports don't have a Terminal Area Forecast to determine the weather conditions at your planned ETA. How will you determine the forecast weather at ETA?

I will use the GFA tool to determine ceilings and visibilities. By selecting the "Forecast" and CIG/VIS" tabs, I can then use the Zulu time slider bar to obtain forecast weather at my ETA.

Thirty minutes after takeoff you enter the clouds. The climb through a climb through a cloud layer requires 10 minutes. The enroute phase is 50 minutes and is above the overcast layer, at night. Descent requires 30 minutes through the clouds before breaking out into clear VMC. How much of this flight will you log as "actual instruments"?

I would log as "actual instruments" all of the time that I was flying by reference to instruments. This would obviously include the time flying through the cloud layer, but also any other time that I was flying by reference to instruments.

What cruising altitudes shall be maintained while operating under IFR in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E)? In uncontrolled airspace? (91.179)

IFR flights within controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E) shall maintain the altitude or flight level assigned by ATC. In uncontrolled airspace (Class G), altitude is selected based on the magnetic course flown: Below 18,000 ft MSL: 0-179 -- odd thousand MSL 180-359 -- even thousand MSL 18,000 ft up to but not including 29,000 ft MSL: 0-179 -- odd flight levels 180-359 -- even flight levels

During your initial climb away from the runway, you hear and see what appears yo be small ice pellets hitting the aircraft. Are you in danger? What are ice pellets an indication of?

Ice pellets by themselves are not a hazard to the airframe with respect to icing, but a ground observation of ice pellets indicates freezing rain or super-cooled large drops (SLD) aloft which would be extremely hazardous if encountered.

When is DME equipment required?

If VOR navigational equipment is required for flight at and above FL240, the aircraft must be equipped with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system. If the DME or RNAV system fails at or above FL240, the pilot-in-command shall notify ATC immediately, and then may continue operations to the next airport of intended landing where repairs or equipment replacement can be done.

If the GPS receiver does not sequence from "Armed" to "Approach" mode or a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the FAWP, what procedure should the pilot follow?

If a RAIM failure/status annunciation occurs prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP), the approach should not be completed since GPS may no longer provide the required accuracy. The pilot should not descend to minimum descent altitude (MDA), but should proceed to the missed approach waypoint (MAWP) via the FAWP, perform a missed approach, and contact ATC as soon as practical.

When a DP specifies a climb gradient in excess of 200 ft per nautical mile, what significance should this have to the pilot?

If an aircraft may turn in any direction from a runway, and remain clear of obstacles, that runway passes what is called diverse departure critera and no ODP will be published. A SID may be published if needed for air traffic control purposes. However, if an obstacle penetrates what is called the 40:1 slope obstacle identification surface, then the procedure designed chooses whether to: a. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient; or b. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient with an alternative that increases takeoff minima to allow the pilot to visually remain clear of the obstacle(s); or c. Design and publish a specific departure route; or d. A combination of all of the above.

Explain transponder and ADS-B operations in the event of a two-way communications failure.

If an aircraft with a coded radar beacon transponder experiences a loss of two-way radio capability, the pilot should adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A/3, Code 7600. The ADS-B message element and transponder code will alert ATC that the aircraft is experiencing emergency conditions and indicate the type of emergency. The pilot should understand that the aircraft may not be in an area of radar coverage.

How does a pilot determine if takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published for an airport?

If an airport has non-standard takeoff minimums, a "triangle T" (or, "trouble T") symbol--that is, a black triangle with a T inside it--will be placed in the notes sections of the instrument procedure chart.

The airport that you desire to use as a required alternate airport offers only RNAV IAPs. How will this affect you?

If an alternate airport is required and that airport offers only RNAV IAPs, then my aircraft must be equipped with a WAAS-certified GPS. If there are IAPs that use other NAVAIDs, in addition to the RNAV IAP, then I can file it as a required alternate with a GPS that is not WAAS certified.

What minimums are to be used on arrival at the alternate?

If an instrument approach procedure has been published for that airport, the minimums specified in that procedure are used.

What is considered "good operating practice" in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight?

If an instrument approach procedure(s) exists for that airport, ensure that the weather is no less than the lowest published minimums for any approach to that airport at departure time. If no approach procedure is available, basic VFR minimums are recommended (1,000 ft and 3 miles).

If a discrepancy exists between the information provided by a GPS navigation database and the information published on an approach chart, which one takes precedence?

If significant differences arises between the approach chart and the GPS avionics' application of the navigation database, the published approach chart, supplemented by NOTAMs, holds precedence.

For IFR flight, what is the maximum allowable error for an altimeter?

If the altimeter is off field elevation by more than 75 ft, with the correct pressure set in the Kollsman window, it is considered to be unreliable.

How will you determine flight visibility when coming out of the clouds on an approach?

If the approach has a lighting system, there are a number of clues in the system itself: Decision bar--Every approach lighting system has a "decision bar" located 1,000 ft from the runway threshold. These lights (or bar) are perpendicular to the approach lighting system. Sequenced flashing lights--is another 1,000 ft clue, known to pilots as the "rabbit." The sequenced flashing lights stop at the decision bar.

What regulations apply if full flight simulators or flight training devices are used for some of the training required for the instrument rating? (61.65)

If the instrument time was provided by an authorized instructor in a full flight simulator or flight training device: a. A maximum of 30 hours may be performed in that full flight simulator or flight training device if the instrument time was completed in accordance with 14 CFR Part 142; or b. A maximum of 20 hours may be performed in that full flight simulator or flight training device if the instrument time as not completed in accordance with 14 CFR Part 142 c. A maximum of 10 hours of instrument time received in a basic aviation training device or a maximum of 20 hours of instrument time received in an advanced aviation training device (FAA approved and authorized) may be credited for the instrument time requirements of 14 CFR Part 61.

While circling to land you lose visual contact with the runway environment. At the time visual contact is lost, your approximate position is a base leg at the circling MDA. What procedure should be followed?

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach the pilot should make an initial climbing turn towward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course. Since the circling maneuver may be accomplished in more than one direction, different patterns will be required to become established on the prescribed missed approach course, depending on the aircraft position at the time visual reference is lost. Adherence to the procedure will ensure that an aircraft will remain within the circling and missed approach obstacle clearance areas.

Why is it important for the pilot to receive an AFC time with initial holding instructions?

If you lose two-way radio communication, the EFC allows you to depart the holding fix at a definite time. Plan the last lap of your holding pattern to leave the fix as close as possible to the exact time.

What does the operation of a rotating beacon at an airport within Class D airspace during daylight hours mean?

In Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during the hours of daylight often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 ft. ATC clearance in accordance with 14 CFR Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff, and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation and it is the pilot's responsibility to comply with proper preflight planning as required by 14 CFR Part 91.

Concerning two-way radio communications failure in VFR and IFR conditions, what is the procedure for altitude, route, leaving holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection? (91.185)

In VFR conditions: If the failure occurs in VFR, or if VFR is encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. In IFR conditions: If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are not within range, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following: a. Route: Assigned--by route assigned in last ATC clearance Vectored--go direct from point of radio failure to fix, route, airway in vector clearance Expected--by route that ATC has advised may be expected Filed--by the route filed in flight plan b. Altitude (highest of following altitudes for the route segment being flown): Minimum--minimum altitude for IFR operations Expected--altitude/flight level ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance Assigned--altitude/flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance c. Leave clearance limit: -When the clearance limit is a fix from which the approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received; or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route. -If the clearance limit is not a fix from which the approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received; or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route. Exam Tip: At any given point along your route of flight, be prepared to explain exactly what route to fly, what altitude to fly, and when to continue beyond a clearance limit in the event of a complete communication failure. Knowing the communication failure regulation is a good start, but you must demonstrate that you can apply it in an emergency.

On a nonprecision approach procedure, how is the Missed Approach Point (MAP) determined?

In a nonprecision procedures, the pilot determines the MAP by timing from FAF when the approach aid is well away from the airport, by a fix or NAVAID when the navigation facility is located on the field, or by waypoints as defined by GPS.

What is a nonstandard versus a standard briefing holding pattern?

In a standard pattern, all turns are to the right. In a nonstandard pattern, all turns are to the left.

What obstacle clearance are you guaranteed during a circling approach maneuver?

In all circling approaches, the circling minimum provides 300 feet of obstacle clearance within the circling approach area. The size of this area depends on the category in which the aircraft operates. Category A: 1.3 mile radius Category B: 1.5 mile radius Category C: 1.7 mile radius Category D: 2.3 mile radius Category E: 4.5 mile radius

What are the major differences between SDF and LDA approaches?

In an SDF approach procedure, the SDF course may or may not be aligned with the runway; usable off-course indications are limited to 35 degrees either side of course centerline. The SDF signal emitted is fixed at either 6 degrees or 12 degrees. The LDA compares in utility and accuracy to a localizer, but it is not part of a complete ILS. The LDA course width is between 3 degrees and 6 degrees and thus provides a more precise approach course than an SDF installation. Some LDAs are equipped with a GS. The LDA course is not aligned with the runway, but straight-in minimums may be published where the angle between the runway centerline and the LDA course does not exceed 30 degrees. If this angle exceeds 30 degrees, only circling minimums are published.

Where is Mode C transponder and ADS-B OUT equipment required?

In general, the regulations require aircraft to be equipped with an operable Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment when operating: a. In Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace areas; b. Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or Class C airspace up to 10,000 ft MSL; c. Class E airspace at and above 10,000 ft MSL within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 ft AGL; d. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 ft MSL (Mode C Veil); e. For ADS-B Out: Class E airspace at and above 3,000 ft MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 nautical miles. f. All aircraft flying into, within or across the contiguous United States ADIZ. Note: Civil and military aircraft should operate with the transponder in the altitude reporting mode and ADS-B Out transmissions enabled (if equipped) at all airports, any time the aircraft is positioned on any portion of an airport movement area. This includes all defined taxiways and runways.

When a display failure occurs, what other system components will be affected?

In some systems, a failure of a display will aslo result in partial loss of navigation, communication, and GPS capability. Reference your specific AFM/POH.

If a failure of one of the displays (PFD or MFD) occurs in an aircraft with an electronic flight display, what will happen to the remaining operative display?

In the event of a display failure, some systems offer a "reversion" capability to display the primary flight instruments and engine instruments on the remaining operative display.

What are the four types of Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories?

Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories are forecasts to advise enroute aircraft of the development of potentially hazardous weather in four types: the SIGMET (WS), the convective SIGMET (WST), the AIRMET (WA; text or graphical product), and the center weather advisory (CWA). All heights are referenced MSL, except in the case of ceilings (CIG) which indicate AGL.

What display information will be affected when an ADC failure occurs?

Inoperative airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed indicators (red Xs) on the PFD indicate the failure of the air data computer.

What are some of the elements inside and outside the aircraft that a pilot must consider to maintain situational awareness?

Inside the aircraft -- the status of aircraft systems, pilot, and passengers. Outside the aircraft -- awareness of where the aircraft is in relation to terrain, traffic, weather, and airspace.

What is the significance of the isotach lines on a constant pressure chart?

Isotachs are lines of constant wind speed analyzed on the 300 and 200 mb charts; they separate higher wind speeds from lower wind speeds and are used to map wind speed variations over a surface. Isotachs are drawn at 20-knot intervals and begin at 10 nots. Isotach gradients identify the magnitude of wind speed variations. Strong gradients are closely spaced isotachs and identify large wind speed variations. Weak gradients are loosely spaced isotachs and identify small wind speed variations. Zones of very strong winds are highlighted by hatches.

What significance do isotherms have on a constant pressure chart?

Isotherms (dashed lines) drawn at 5C intervals show horizontal temperature variations at chart altitude. By inspecting isotherms, you can determine if your flight will be toward colder or warmer air. Subfreezing temperatures and a temperature/dewpoint spread of 5C or less suggest possible icing.

When the approach procedure title contains more than one navigational system separated by the word "or" (e.g., VOR or GPS RWY 15), what does this indicate?

It indicates that either type of equipment may be used to execute the final approach (e.g., VOR or GPS RWY 15).

When the approach procedure title contains more than one navigational system separated by a slash (e.g, VOR/DME 31), what does this indicate?

It indicates that more than one type of equipment must be used to execute the final approach.

What significance does a black triangle with a white "A" appearing in the Notes section of an approach chart, have to a pilot?

It indicates that nonstandard IFR alternate minimums exist for the airport. If an "NA" appears after the "A," alternate minimums are not authorized. This information is found in the beginning of the TPP. Approved terminal weather observation and reporting facilities, or a general area weather report, must be available before an airport may serve as an alternate.

What is a terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF)?

It is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period, within a 5 SM radius from the center of the airport's runway complex (terminal). TAFs use the same weather code found in METAR weather reports.

What is a "changeover point"?

It is a point along the route or airway segment between two adjacent navigational facilities or waypoints where changeover in navigational guidance should occur.

What is a "waypoint?"

It is a predetermined geographical position used for route/instrument approach definition, progress reports, published VFR routes, visual reporting points or points for transitioning and/or circumnavigation controlled and/or special use airspace. A waypoint is defined relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates.

What is the significance of the presence of a gray shaded line from the MDA to the runway in the profile view of a RNAV (GPS) approach?

It is an indication that the visual segment below the MDA is clear of obstructions on the 34:1 slope. Absence of the gray shaded area indicates the 34:1 OCS is not free of obstructions.

When a radio beacon is used in conjunction with an ILS marker beacon, what is it called?

It is called a compass locator

What are limitations of the vertical speed indicator?

It is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Sudden or abrupt changes in the aircraft attitude will cause erroneous instrument readings as airflow fluctuates over the static pot. These changes are not reflected immediately by the VSI due to the calibrated leak.

What are the limitations the airspeed indicator is subject to?

It must have proper flow of air in the pitot/static system.

On an ICAO flight plan, item 15 requires you to enter your planned cruising speed. Explain what this speed represents.

It represents the true airspeed for the first or the whole cruising portion of the flight, in terms of knots, expressed as N followed by 4 digits (for example, N0485), or Mach number to the nearest hundredth of unit Mach, expressed as M followed by 3 digits (for example, M082).

The ACS calls for our IAPs to be "stabilized approaches." Why is that important and what does having a stabilized approach mean to you?

It's important to have a stabilized approach during final descent because I don't want last-minute configuration changes or distractions. This is important in preventing CFIT accidents. My stabilized approach means that I'll achieve by 1,000 ft AGL (or nearly after) the FAF and continue to touchdown with: -proper configuration for landing -an appropriate power setting -A consistent 500-700 fpm rate of descent (if nonprecision approach) -stabilized approach airspeed for the lowest possible landing category -tracking on-course, within one dot -on or within one-dot-above glideslope (if precision approach). -only minor correction. If larger corrections are necessary, then I'll miss the approach rather than continue a descent or attempt to salvage a risky situation.

Define the terms: LIFR, IFR, MVFR, and VFR.

LIFR -- ceiling less than 500 ft and/or visibility less than 1 mile IFR -- ceiling 500 to less than 1,000 ft and/or visibility 1 to less than 3 miles MVFR -- ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 ft and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles inclusive VFR -- ceiling greater than 3,000 ft and visibility greater than 5 miles; includes sky clear

What colors and color combinations are standard airport rotating beacons?

Lighted Land Airport -- White/Green Lighted Water Airport -- White/Yellow Military Airport -- Two White/Green

What are the limitations of an attitude indicator?

Limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument; bank limits are usually from 100 to 110 degrees, and pitch limits are usually from 60 to 70 degrees. If either limit is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until restabilized. Some modern attitude indicators are designed so they will not tumble.

When flying an RNAV (GPS) approach, most FMS require the pilot to choose whether to "load" or "load and activate" an instrument approach procedure. Explain the difference.

Loading an approach adds its component waypoints to the end of the flight plan, but does not make them active. Activating an approach will cause the FMS to immediately give course guidance to the initial approach fix or closest fix outside the final fix, depending on the unit's programming.

Localizers operate within what frequency range?

Localizers operate on odd tenths within the 108.10 to 111.95 MHz band.

Where can a pilot find the location of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?

Locations of airborne checkpoints, ground checkpoints, and VOTs are published in the Chart Supplement US.

State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere.

Low pressure -- Air flows inward, upward, and counterclockwise High pressure -- Air flows outward, downward, and clockwise

Are the minimums for an ASR approach expressed as DA or MDA?

MDA; guidance in elevation is not possible but the pilot will be advised when to commence descent to the minimum descent altitude or, if appropriate, to an intermediate step-down fix minimum crossing altitude and subsequently to the prescribed MDA.

Define the following. MEA MOCA MCA MRA MAA OROCA

MEA--Minimum Enroute Altitude; the lowest published altitude between radio fixes that ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. MOCA--Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude; the lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments that meets obstacle clearance requirements, and that ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25 statute (22 nautical) miles of a VOR. MCA--Minimum Crossing Altitude; the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA. MRA--Minimum Reception Altitude; the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined. MAA--Maximum Authorized Altitude; the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or a route segment that ensures adequate reception of navigation aid signals. OROCA--Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude; this provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in nonmountainous terrain areas and a 2,000 ft buffer in designated mountainous areas within the United States. This altitude might not provide signal coverage from ground-based navigational aids, Air Traffic Control radar, or communications coverage.

What are the maximum airspeeds permitted for aircraft while holding?

MHA--6,000 ft: 200 KIAS 6,001--14,000 ft: 230 KIAS 14,001--and above: 265 KIAS Note: Holding patterns may be restricted to a maximum speed. Holding patterns from 6,001 to 14,000 ft may be restricted to a maximum airspeed of 210 KIAS. These nonstandard patterns will be depicted by an icon.

What is a Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA)?

MVA is the lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria. It may be lower than the published MEA along an airway or J-route segment. It may he used for radar vectoring only upon the controller's determination that an adequate radar return is being received from the aircraft being controlled. Charts depicting minimum vectoring altitudes are normally available only to the controllers and not to the pilots.

How does the magnetic compass work?

Magnets mounted on the compass card align themselves parallel to the Earth's lines of magnetic force.

Explain the terms "maintain" and "cruise" as they pertain to an IFR altitude assignment.

Maintain -- Self-explanatory: maintain last altitude assigned. Cruise -- Used instead of "maintain" to assign a block of airspace to a pilot, from minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the cruise clearance. The pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude, and climb/descent may be made at the discretion of the pilot. However, once the pilot starts a descent, and verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, he may not return to that altitude without additional ATC clearance.

If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed (no MEA or MOCA), what minimum altitudes apply for IFR operations?

Minimum altitudes are: a. Mountainous terrain--at least 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. Part 95 designates the location of mountainous terrain. b. Other than mountainous terrain--at least 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown.

How can a pilot determine the approach category minimums applicable to a particular aircraft?

Minimums are specified for various aircraft approach categories based on a speed of Vref, if specified, or if Vref is not specified, 1.3 Vs0 at the maximum certified landing weight.

When will ATC delete from the system a departure flight plan that has not been activated?

Most centers have this parameter set so as to delete these flight plans a minimum of 2 hours after the proposed departure time or Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT). To ensure that a flight plan remains active, pilots whose actual departure time will be delayed 2 hours or more beyond their filed departure time are requested to notify ATC of their revised departure time.

What valuable information can be determined from a winds and temperatures aloft forecast?

Most favorable altitude -- based on winds and direction of flight. Areas of possible icing -- by noting air temperature of +2C to -20C Temperature inversions -- A temperature increase with altitude can mean a stable layer aloft reducing the chance for convective activity Turbulence -- by observing abrupt changes in wind direction and speed at different altitudes

What additional aircraft documentation should be onboard an aircraft equipped with an IFR-approved GPS?

Most systems require an Airplane Flight Manual Supplement (AFMS) and Cockpit Reference Guide or Quick Reference Guide to be onboard as a limitation of use.

May portable electronic devices be operated on board an aircraft? (91.21)

No person may operate nor may any PIC allow the operation of any portable electronic device: a. On aircraft operated by an air carrier or commercial operator; or b. On any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR. Exceptions are: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers or any other portable electronic device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft.

When flying an instrument approach procedure, when can the pilot descend below MDA or DA/DH? (91.175)

No pilot may operate an aircraft below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless: a. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. b. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used. c. When at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: -The approach light system, (except that the pilot may not descend below 100 ft above the touchdown zone elevation using the ALS as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable) -The threshold -The threshold markings -The threshold lights -REIL -Visual glideslope indicator -The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings -The touchdown zone lights -The runway or runway markings -The runway lights

What criteria determines whether or not you may attempt an approach? (91.175)

No regulation states that you cannot attempt an approach, if operating under Part 91 regulations. But if you reach MDA or DA/DH and decide to descend to land, flight visibility must be at least equal to that published.

Is it legal to land a civil aircraft if the actual visibility is below the minimums published on the approach chart?

No, a 14 CFR Part 91 states that no pilot operating an aircraft, except a military aircraft of the US, may land that aircraft when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.

Will all VOR stations have capability for providing distance information to aircraft equipped with DME?

No, aircraft receiving equipment that provides for automatic DME selection assures reception of azimuth and distance information from a common source, only when designated VOR/DME, VORTAC, ILS/DME, and LOC/DME are selected.

When landing at an airport with an operating control tower following an IFR flight, must the pilot call FSS to close the flight plan? (AIM 5-1-14)

No, if operating on an IFR flight plan to an airport with a functioning control tower, the flight plan will automatically be closed upon landing.

If a RAIM flag/status annunciation appears after you have passed the FAWP, should you continue the approach?

No, you should initiate a climb and execute the missed approach. The GPS receiver may continue to operate after a RAIM flag/status annunciation appears, but the navigation information should be considered advisory only. Refer to the receiver operating manual for operating mode information during a RAIM annunciation.

If an ODP has been published for the runway you are departing from, are you required to dollow it?

No--if a Part 91 pilot is not given a clearance containing an ODP, SID, or radar vectors and an ODP exists, compliance with such a procedure is the pilot's choice.

Can an instrument instructor give instrument instruction in a multi-engine airplane if the instructor does not possess a multi-engine instructor rating or a multi-engine rating on his/her pilot certificate? (61.195)

No. A flight instructor who provides instrument training for the issuance of an instrument rating, a type rating not limited to VFR, or the instrument training required for commercial pilot and airline transport pilot certificates, must hold an instrument rating on his or her pilot certificate and flight instructor certificate that is appropriate to the category and class of aircraft used for the training he or she is providing.

Does ATC consider a "minimum fuel" advisory an emergency and will they give you priority handling?

No. A minimum fuel advisory by the pilot merely indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur and does not imply a need for traffic priority. If the remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, you should declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.

Will all RNAV/GPS approaches have a TAA?

No. The TAA will not be found on all RNAV procedures particularly in areas of heavy traffic. When the TAA is published, it replaces the MSA for that approach procedure.

Will standard instrument approach procedures always have a Final Approach Fix (FAF)?

No. When a FAF is not designated, such as on an approach that incorporates an on-airport VOR or NDB, a final approach point is designated and is typically where the procedure turn intersects the final approach course inbound.

When issued taxi instructions to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route?

No; Aircraft msut receive a runway crossing clearance for each runway that their taxi route crosses. When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify the runway, issue taxi instructions, and state nay hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. When issuing taxi instructions to any point other than an assigned takeoff runway, ATC will specify the point to which to taxi, issue taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances if the taxi route will cross a runway. ATC is required to obtain from the pilot a readback of all runway hold short instructions.

What is OBS or non-sequencing mode?

OBS or non-sequencing mode is a FMS/RNAV navigation mode that does not automatically sequence between waypoints in the programmed route. The non-sequencing mode maintains the current active waypoint indefinitely, and allows the pilot to specify desired track to or from that waypoint.

What is a mileage breakdown point?

Occasionally an "x" will appear at a separated segment of an airway that is not an intersection. The "x" is a mileage breakdown or computer nav fix and indicates a course change.

What rate of turn is recommended during execution of a "no-gyro" approach procedure?

On a non-gyro approach, all turns should be standard rate until final; then one-half standard rate on final approach.

Explain how often a pilot should use the 3P model of ADM throughout a flight.

Once a pilot has completed the 3P decision process and selected a course of action, the process begins again because the circumstances brought about by the course of action require analysis. The decision-making process is a continuous loop of perceiving, processing, and performing.

What is one method you can use to control and manage risk?

One way a pilot can limit exposure to risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category, using PAVE. These are limits unique to that individual pilot's current level of experience and proficiency: Pilot--experience/recency (takeoffs/landings, hours make/model), physical/mental condition (IMSAFE) Aircraft--fuel reserves VFR day/night, aircraft performance (W&B, density altitude, etc.), aircraft equipment (avionics familiarity, charts, survival gear). Environment--airport conditions (runway condition/length), weather (winds, ceilings, visibilities). External pressures--allowance for delays, diversion, cancelation, alternate plans, personal equipment available for alternate plans (phone numbers, credit cards, medications).

Can a pilot who does not hold a medical certificate but does possess BasicMed authorization act as safety pilot?

Only if the pilot is acting as PIC while performing the duties of a safety pilot. The statutory language prescribing BasicMed says it only applies to people acting as PIC. BasicMed cannot be exercised by safety pilots who are not acting as PIC yet are required crewmembers.

Other than fog, what are several other examples of IFR weather producers?

Other examples of common IFR producers are low clouds (stratus), haze, smoke, blowing obstruction to vision, and precipitation. Fog and low stratus restrict navigation by visual reference more often than all other weather phenomena.

When does the timing for the outbound leg in a holding pattern begin?

Outbound leg timing begins over/abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. If the abeam position cannot be determined, start timing when turn to outbound is completed.

Describe both visual and aural indications that a pilot would receive when crossing the outer, middle, and inner markers of a standard ILS.

Outer Marker -blue light -dull tone -slow speed - ------ Middle Marker -amber light -medium tone -medium speed - -.-.-. Inner Marker -white light -high tone -high speed - ...... Note: An MM is no longer operationally required. There are some MMs still in use, but there are no MMs being installed at new ILS sites by the FAA.

What are the distances from the landing threshold of the outer, middle, and inner markers?

Outer marker--4 to 7 miles from threshold Middle Marker--3,500 ft from threshold Inner Marker--between middle marker and threshold

Describe the function of the following avionics equipment acronyms: PFD, MFD, AHRS, ADC, FMS, FD, TAWS, TIS.

PFD--primary flight display. A PFD provides increased situational awareness to the pilot by replacing the traditional six instruments used for instrument flight with an easy-to-scan display that provides the horizon, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed, trend, trim, and rate of turn, among other key indications. MFD--multi-function display. A cockpit display capable of presenting information such as navigation data, moving maps, aircraft systems information (engine monitoring), or should the need arise, PFD information. AHRS--attitude and heading reference system. An integrated flight system composed of three-axis sensors that provide heading, attitude, and yaw information for an aircraft. GPS, solid state magnetometers, solid state accelerometers, and digital air data signals are all combined in an AHRS to compute and output highly reliable information to the cockpit primary flight display. ADC--air data computer. An aircraft computer that receives and processes ram air, static air, and temperature information from sensors, and provides information such as altitude, indicated airspeed, vertical speed, and wind direction and velocity to other cockpit systems (PFD, AHRS, transponder). FMS--flight management system. A computer system containing a database to allow programming of routes, approaches, and departures that can supply navigation data to the flight director/autopilot from various sources, and can calculate flight data such as fuel consumption, time remaining, possible range, and other values. FD--flight direction. An electronic flight calculator that analyzes the navigation selections, signals, and aircraft parameters. It presents steering instructions on the flight display as command bars or crossbars for the the pilot to position the nose of the aircraft over or follow. TAWS--terrain awareness and warning system. Uses the aircraft's GPS navigation signal and altimetry systems to compare the position and trajectory of the aircraft against a more detailed terrain and obstacle database. This database attempts to detail every obstruction that could pose a threat to an aircraft in flight. TIS--Traffic Information Service is a ground-based advanced avionics traffic display system which receives transmissions on locations of nearby aircraft from radar-equipped air traffic control facilities and provides alerts and warnings to the pilot.

When used in conjunction with ATC altitude assignments, what does the term "pilot's discretion" mean?

Pilot's discretion means that ATC has offered the pilot the option of starting climb or descent whenever he/she wishes and conducting the climb or descent at any rate he/she wishes. The pilot may temporarily level off at any intermediate altitude. However, after vacating an altitude, the pilot may not return to that altitude.

While flying a 3 degree glide slope, which conditions should the pilot expect concerning airspeed, pitch attitude, and altitude when encountering a windshear situation where a headwind shears to a calm or tailwind? Pitch attitude Required thrust Vertical speed Airspeed Reaction

Pitch attitude--Decrease Required thrust--Increased, then reduced Vertical speed--Increases Airspeed--Decreases, then increases Reaction--Increased power, then a decrease in power

While flying a 3 degree glide slop, which conditions should the pilot expect concerning airspeed, pitch attitude and altitude when encountering a windshear situation where a tailwind shears to a calm or headwind? Pitch attitude Required thrust Vertical speed Airspeed Reaction

Pitch attitude--Increase Required thrust--Reduced, then increased Vertical speed--Decreases, then increases Airspeed--Increases, then decreases Reaction--Reduce power initially, then increase

How is pitch control accomplished?

Pitch changes are made by changing the "pitch attitude" of the miniature aircraft or fuselage dot by precise amounts in relation to the horizon. These changes are measured in degrees or fractions thereof, or bar widths depending upon the type of attitude reference. The amount of deviation from the desired performance will determine the magnitude of the correction.

What are the four components of aircraft control?

Pitch control--controlling the rotation of the aircraft about the lateral axis by movement of the elevators. After interpreting the pitch attitude from the proper flight instruments, you exert control pressures to effect the desired pitch attitude with reference to the horizon. Bank control--controlling the bank angle made by the wing and the horizon. After interpreting the bank attitude from the appropriate instruments, you exert the necessary pressures to move the ailerons and roll the aircraft about the longitudinal axis. Power control--used when interpretation of the flight instruments indicates a need for a change in thrust. Trim--used to relive all control pressured held after a desired attitude has been attained. An improperly trimmed aircraft requires constant control pressures, produces tension, distracts your attention from cross-checking, and contributes to abrupt and erratic attitude control. The pressures you feel on the controls must be those you apply while controlling a planned change in aircraft attitude, not pressures held because you let the aircraft control you.

When flight planning an RNAV route, where should your route begin and end?

Plan the random route portion of the flight plan to begin and end over appropriate arrival and departure transition fixes or appropriate navigation aids for the altitude stratum within which the flight will be conducted. The use of normal preferred departure and arrival routes (DP/STAR), where established, is recommended.

What are the errors that the airspeed indicator is subject to?

Position error -- caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing actual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude, configuration and may be a plus or minus value. Density error -- changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for by the instrument. Compressibility error -- caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It usually occurs above 180 KIAS.

What are preferred routes and where can they be found?

Preferred routes are those established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity. Preferred routes are listed in the Chart Supplement US.

Define the following types of airspace. Prohibited Area Restricted Area Military Operations Area Warning Area Alert Area Controlled Firing Areas National Security Area Temporary Flight Restrictions Special Flight Rules Area

Prohibited Area--For secutity or other reasons, aircraft flight is prohibited Restricted Area--Contains unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft, flights must have permission from the controlling agency, if VFR. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it. Military Operations Area--MOAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Permission is not required for VFR flights, but extreme caution should be exercised. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it. Warning Area--Airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the US containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both. Permission is not required but a flight plan is advised. Alert Area--Depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of area that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. No permission is required, but VFR flights should exercise extreme caution. IFR flights will be cleared through or vectored around it. Controlled Firing Areas--CFAs contain activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. These activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar or ground lookout positions, indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted. National Security Area--Airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When it is necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of 14 CFR 99.7. Temporary Flight Restrictions--A TFR is a regulatory action issued via the US NOTAM system to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area, on a temporary basis, to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground. They may be issued due to a hazardous condition, a special event, or as a general warning for the entire FAA airspace. TFR information can be obtained from a FSS or on the internet at www.faa.gov. Special Flight Rules Area--airspace of defined dimensions, above land areas or territorial waters, within which the flight of aircraft is subject to the rules set forth in 14 CFR Part 93, unless otherwise authorized by ATC. Not all areas listed in 14 CFR Part 93 are designated SFRA, but special air traffic rules (SATR) apply to all areas described in 14 CFR Part 93.

How is attitude control accomplished?

Proper control of aircraft attitude is the result of maintaining a constant attitude, knowing when and how much to change the attitude, and smoothly changing the attitude a precise amount. Aircraft attitude control is accomplished by properly using the attitude indicator. The attitude reference provides an immediate, direct, and corresponding indication of any change in aircraft pitch or bank attitude.

How is power control accomplished?

Proper power control results from the ability to smoothly establish or maintain desired airspeeds in coordination with attitude changes. Power indicators are not affected by such factors as turbulence, improper trim, or inadvertent control pressures. Therefore, in most aircraft little attention is required to ensure the power setting remains constant. From experience in an aircraft, you know approximately how far to move the throttles to change the power a given amount. Therefore, you can make power changes primarily by throttle movement and then cross-check the indicators to establish a more precise setting. The key is to avoid fixation on the indicators while setting the power. A knowledge of approximate power settings for various flight configurations will help you avoid overcontrolling power.

If, during the execution of an instrument approach procedure, you determine a missed approach is necessary due to a full-scale needle deflection, what action is recommended?

Protected obstacle clearance areas for missed approach are predicated on the assumption that the missed approach is initiated at the decision altitude/height or at the missed approach point, and not lower than the minimum descent altitude. Reasonable buffers are provided for normal maneuvers. However, no consideration is given to an abnormally early turn. Therefore when an early missed approach is executed, pilots should (unless otherwise cleared by ATC) fly the IAP as specified on the approach plate to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DA/H, before executing a turning maneuver.

What are "T" and "Q" routes?

Published RNAV routes that can be flight-planned for use by aircraft with RNAV capability. They are depicted in blue on aeronautical charts and are identified by the letter T or Q, followed by the airway number (e.g., T-205, Q-13). They provide more direct routing for IFR aircraft and enhance system safety and efficiency. T-routes--depicted Enroute Low Altitude Charts; available for use by RNAV equipped aircraft from 1,200 ft above the surface (or in some instances higher) up to but not including 18,000 ft MSL. Q-routes--depicted on Enroute High Altitude Charts; available for use by RNAV equipped aircraft between 18,000 ft MSL and FL450 inclusive.

All public performance-based navigation (PBN) SIDs and graphic obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) are normally designed using RNAV 1, RNP 1, or A-RNP NavSpecs. What does this mean?

RNAV 1 and RNP 1 procedures must maintain a total system error of not more than 1 NM for 95 percent of the total flight time. Minimum values for A-RNP procedures will be charted in the PBN box. All pilots are expected to maintain route centerlines, as depicted by onboard lateral deviation indicators and/or flight guidance during all RNAV operations unless authorized to deviate by ATC or under emergency conditions.

What does the notation "RNAV1" on an RNAV STAR indicate?

RNAV 1 terminal procedures require that the aircraft's track keeping accuracy remain bound by +1 nautical mile (NM) for 95 percent of the total flight time. All pilots are expected to maintain route centerlines, as depicted by onboard lateral deviation indicators and/or flight guidance during all RNAV operations unless authorized to deviate by ATC or under emergency conditions. Public PBN STARs are normally designed using RNAV 1, RNP 1, or A-RNP NavSpecs.

Some approaches contain RNP in the approach title, such as "RNAV (RNP) RWY 17." What does this mean?

RNP is RNAV with the added requirement for onboard performance monitoring and alerting (OBPMA). RNP is also a statement of navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined airspace. A critical component of RNP is the ability of th eaircraft navigation system to monitor its achieved anvigation performance, and to identify for the pilot whether the operational requirement is or is not being met during an operation. The RNP capability of an aircraft will vary depending upon the aircraft equipment and the navigation infrastructure. For example, an aircraft may be equipped and certified for RNP 1.0, but may not be capable of RNP 1.0 operations due to limited NAVAID coverage. RNP levels are actual distances from the centerline of the flightpath, which must be maintained for aircraft and obstacle separation. The U.S. currently supports three standard RNP levels: RNP 0.3--Approach; RNP 1.0--Departure, Terminal; RNP 2.0--En Route.

All (D) NOTAMs will have keywords contained within the first part of the text. What are several examples of these keywords?

RWY, TWY, APRON, AD, OBST, NAV, COM, SVC, AIRSPACE, ODP, SID, STAR, CHART, DATA, IAP, VFP, ROUTE, SPECIAL, SECURITY

If the rate-of-climb in feet per nautical mile (fpnm) found on ODPs based on your aircraft's true airspeed or groundspeed? How do you convert that number to feet per minute (fpm)

Rate-of-climb in fpnm is based on the aircraft's ground speed. To convert fpnm to fpm, you can use the "Terminal Procedures Rate of Climb/Descent Table," which can be found in the paper or digital versions of the Terminal Procedures publication. You can also use the following calculation: Ground speed divided by 60 minutes times climb gradient

On a beautiful clear, sunny, VMC day, you are flying on an IFR flight plan. Are you required to be isntrument current?

Regardless of the meteorological conditions, if I am flying under instrument rules, then I must be instrument current.

What is reverse sensing?

Reverse sensing is when the VOR needle indicates the reverse of normal operation. This occurs when the aircraft is headed toward the station with a FROM indication or when the aircraft is headed away from the station with a TO indication. Also, unless the aircraft has reverse sensing capability and it is in use, when flying inbound on the back course or outbound on the front course of an ILS, reverse sensing will occur.

What are two important characteristics of gyroscopes?

Rigidity -- the characteristic of a gyro that prevents its axis of rotation tilting as the earth rotates; attitude and heading instruments operate on this principle. Precession -- the characteristic of a gyro that causes an applied force to be felt, not at the point of application, but 90 degrees from that point in the direction of rotation. Rate instruments such as the turn coordinator use this principle.

What action would you take if you encounter unforecasted rime ice?

Rime ice forms when flying in visible moisture and the outside air temperature is at or below freezing. My highest priority is to get to conditions that remove one of these factors. Specifically, I would consider: -Doing something immediately. I would not delay; rime ice forms quickly. -Inform ATC that I'm encountering ice. Then based on my knowledge of current weather conditions: 1. Change altitudes to get out of the clouds. 2. Change altitudes to get to warmer air. 3. Make a 180-degree turn. If I was not picking up ice where I came from, then I would go back there. 4. Land as soon as possible. I would use additional strategies to improve my situation: -Turn on anti-ice equipment (pitot heat, windshield defrost, carb heat, etc.). -As time premits: Solicit PIREPs from ATC from other pilots in my vicinity regarding their icing conditions.

What is the definition of "risk"?

Risk is the future impact of a hazard that is not controlled or eliminated.

Define the term "risk management."

Risk management is a decision-making process designed to systematically identify hazards, assess the degree of risk, and determine the best course of action. It is a logical process of weighing the potential costs of risks against the possible benefits of allowing those risks to stand uncontrolled.

A pilot flying an aircraft certificated for flight in known icing (FIKI) should be aware of a phenomenon known as "roll upset." What is roll upset?

Roll upset in an uncommanded and uncontrolled roll phenomenon associated with severe in-flight icing. It can occur without the usual symptoms of ice accumulation or a perceived aerodynamic stall. Pilots flying certificated FIKI aircraft should be aware that severe icing is a condition outside of the aircraft's certification icing envelope. The roll upset that occurs may be caused by airflow separation (aerodynamic stall), which induces self-deflection of the ailerons and loss of or degraded roll handling characteristics. The aileron deflection may be caused by ice accumulating in a sensitive area of the wing aft of the deicing boots.

What does the acronym "RWSL" stand for?

Runway Status Lights System -- a fully automated system that provides runway status information to pilots and surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is unsafe to enter, cross, takeoff from, or land on a runway. The RWSL system processes information from surveillance systems and activates Runway Entrance Lights (REL), Takeoff Hold Lights (THL), Runway Intersection Lights (RIL), and Final Approach Runway Occupancy Signal (FAROS) in accordance with the position and velocity of the detected surface traffic and approach traffic. The status lights have two states -- ON: lights are illuminated red; and OFF: lights are not illuminated.

After completing an ILS approach, you touchdown and begin decelerating down the runway. You notice the white runway centerline lights begin to alternate with red centerline lights. What does this indicate to you about distance remaining on the runway?

Runway centerline lights are installed on some precision approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions. When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 ft of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 ft, and for the last 1,000 ft of the runway, all centerline lights are red.

Describe runway hold short markings and signs.

Runway holding position markings -- indicate where aircraft MUST STOP when approaching a runway. They consist of four yellow lines -- two solid and two dashed -- spaced six or twelve inches apart and extending across the width of the taxiway or runway. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft is to hold. Runway Holding position sign -- located at the holding position on taxiways that intersect a runway or on runways that intersect other runways. These signs have a red background with a white inscription and contain the designation of the intersecting runway.

What are the two types of SIDs?

SIDs are categorized by the type of navigation used to fly the departure, so they are considered either pilot navigation or vector SIDs: Pilot navigation SIDs--designed to allow you to provide your own navigation with minimal radio communication. This type of procedure usually contains an initial set of departure instructions followed by one or more transition routes. Radar Vector SIDs--usually require ATC to provide radar vectors from just after takeoff (ROC is based on a climb to 400 feet above the DER elevation before making the initial turn) until reaching the assigned route or a fix depicted on the SID chart.

What are the various resources you will use when utilizing your SRM skills?

SRM available resources can include human resources, hardware, and information. Human resources include all other groups routinely working with the pilot who are involved in decisions required to operate a flight safely. These groups include, but are not limited to: dispatchers, weather briefers, maintenance personnel, and air traffic controllers. SRM is a set of skill competencies that must be evident in all Tasks required by the practical test standards as applied to single-pilot operation.

What is an RNAV STAR?

STARs designated RNAV serve the same purpose as conventional STARs, but are only used by aircraft equipped with FMS or GPS. An RNAV STAR or STAR transition typically includes flyby waypoints, with fly-over waypoints used only when operationally required. These waypoints may be assigned crossing altitudes and speeds to optimize the descent and deceleration profiles.

Where can information on special use airspace be found?

SUA areas are depicted on aeronautical charts, except for CFAs, temporary MOAs, and TFRs. A permanent SUA is charted on Sectional Aeronautical, VFR Terminal Area, and applicable En Route charts, and includes the hours of operation, altitudes, and the controlling agency. Current and scheduled status informaiton on SUAs can be found on the FAA's SUA website at https://sua.faa.gov/.

What does an instrument proficiency check consist of?

Section 61.57(d) sets fort the requirements for an instrument proficiency check (IPC). Instructors and evaluators conducting an IPC must ensure the pilots meets the standards established in the Instrument Rating ACS, which includes a useful "Instrument Proficiency Check Table" in that guide's Appendix 5, "Practical Test Roles, Responsibilities, and Outcomes." At a minimum, the applicant must demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks listed in that table. The person giving the check should develop a scenario that incorporates as many required tasks as possible to assess the pilot's ADM and risk management skills. Guidance on how to conduct an IPC can be found in AC 61-98 as well.

Describe some of the weather products available under the "Observations/Warning" tab of the GFA.

Selecting teh "Obs/Warn" tab give you the option to display weather data for the current time and the previous 14 hours (rounded to the nearest hour) and will provide the following: a. METAR b. PCPN/WX c. GIG/VIS d. PIREP e. RAD/SAT

If you were concerned about freezing rain developing along your flight, what specific weather reports or forecasts would you look at to determine the likelihood of freezing rain developing?

Several of the forecasts may mention freezing rain. However, I know that freezing rain is the result of a temperature inversion. The Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast shows air temperatures at various altitudes; I could use this forecast to detect a temperature inversion--to see if there is warm air over colder air and temperatures near freezing.

What are Short-Range Surface Prognostic Charts?

Short-range surface prognostic (prog) charts provide a forecast of surface pressure systems, fronts and precipitation for a 2 1/2 day period. They cover a forecast area of the 48 contiguous states and coastal waters, and are prepared by the NWS Weather Prediction Center (and available on the AWC website). Predicted conditions are divided into five forecast periods: 12, 18, 24, 48, and 60 hours. Each chart depicts a snapshot of weather elements expected at the specified valid time. Charts are issued four times a day and can be used to obtain an overview of the progression of surface weather features during the included periods.

When I say that I want to see strong SRM habits in the cockpit during this flight, specifically what does that mean I want you to do?

Single-pilot resource management (SRM) consists of six components that are closely affected by each other. Specifically: 1. Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)--you want to know that I have looked at all available options and made a decision based on facts and my personal limitations. 2. Risk Management (RM)--you want to know that my decisions are made in such a way to mitigate risks. 3. Task Management (TA)--you want to see me prioritize and plan cockpit workload so that I don't become saturated with tasks and fail to aviate, navigate, and communicate. 4. Situational Awareness (SA)--you want to see that I have an awareness of what is going on inside and outside of the airplane, presently as well as how the situation may develop during the remainder of the flight. 5. Controlled Flight into Terrain (CFIT)--you want to see me flying in such a way that reduces the likelihood that we'll fly into terrain. This probably means that I have demonstrated good ADM, RM, TA and SA. 6. Automation Management (AM)--you want to see me managing a current level of automation and being aware of automation modes, alerts and programming.

Define the term "single-pilot resource management."

Single-pilot resource management (SRM) is defined as the art and science of managing all the resources (both on-board the aircraft and from outside sources) available to a single pilot (prior to and during flight) to ensure the successful outcome of the flight.

Define the term "situational awareness."

Situational awareness (SA) is the accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the fundamental risk elements (pilot, aircraft, environment, external pressures) that affect safety before, during, and after the flight.

As a rule-of-thumb, to minimize DME slant-range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading accurate?

Slant-range error will be at a minimum if the aircraft is one or more miles from the facility for each 1,000 ft of altitude above the facility.

Does an aircraft have to remain stationary during AHRS system initialization?

Some AHRSs must be initalized on the groun prior to departure. The initialization procedure allows the system to establish a reference attitude used as a benchmark for all future attitude changes. Other system are capable of initialization while taxiing as well as in-flight.

What regulations require use of specified procedures by all pilots approaching for landing under IFR?

Specified procedures are required by 14 CFR Part 97.

What action is appropriate when approaching a holding fix at an airspeed in excess of maximum holding speed.

Start a speed reduction when 3 minutes or less from the fix. Speed may be reduced earlier, but ATC must be advised of the change.

Certain conditions are required for an instrument approach procedure to have "straight-in" minimums published. What are they?

Straight-in minimums are shown on the IAP when the final approach course is within 30 degrees of the runway alignment (15 degrees for GPS IAPs) and a normal descent can be made from the IFR altitude shown on the IAP to the runway surface.

Describe the types of icing found in stratiform clouds; also in cumuliform clouds.

Stratified clouds -- both rime and mixed are found in stratiform clouds. Icing in middle and low-level stratiform clouds is confined, on the average, to a layer between 3,000 and 4,000 ft thick. A change in altitude of only a few thousand feet may take the aircraft out of icing conditions, even if it remains in clouds. The main hazard lies in the great horizontal extent of stratiform clouds layers. Cumuliform Clouds -- icing is usually clear or mixed with rime in the upper levels. The icing layer is smaller horizontally, but greater vertically than in stratiform clouds. Icing is more variable in cumuliform clouds because the factors conducive to icing depend on the particular cloud's stage of development. Icing intensities may range from a trace in small cumulus to severe in a large towering cumulus or cumulonimbus, especially in the upper portion of the cloud where the updraft is concentrated and supercooled large drops (SLDs) are plentiful.

Describe the hazardous aircraft icing conditions a pilot may encounter in the following cloud types and conditions: stratus, cumulus, freezing rain, and drizzle.

Stratus clouds--These form a stratified layer that may cover a wide area; the lifting processes that form them are usually gradual so they rarely have exceptionally high liquid water content. Icing layers in stratus clouds with a vertical thickness in excess of 3,000 ft are rare, so either climbing or descending may be effective in exiting the icing conditions within the clouds. Cumuliform clouds--Hazardous icing conditions can occur in cumulus clouds, which sometimes have very high liquid water content. It is not advisable to fly through a series of such clouds or to execute holds within them. However, because these clouds normally do not extend very far horizontally, any icing encountered in such a cloud may be of limited duration and it may be possible to deviate around the cloud. Freezing rain -- Freezing rain forms when rain becomes supercooled by falling through a subfreezing layer of air. It may be possible to exit the freezing rain by climbing into the warm layer. Freezing drizzle -- Because freezing drizzle often form by the collision-coalescence process, the pilot should not assume that a warm layer of air exists above the aircraft. A pilot encountering freezing drizzle should exit the conditions as quickly as possible either vertically or horizontally. The three possible actions are to ascend to an altitude where the freezing drizzle event is less intense, to descend to an area of warmer air, or to make a level turn to merge from the area of freezing drizzle.

In what ways can RNAV equipment be used as a substitute means of navigation guidance?

Suitable RNAV Systems (TSO-C129/-C196/-C145/C146) may be used in the following ways; a. To determine aircraft position relative to, or distance from, a VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass locator, DME fix; or a named fix defined by a VOR radial, TACAN course, NDB bearing, or compass locator bearing intersecting a VOR or localizer course. b. Navigate to or from a VOR, TACAN, NDB, or compass locator. c. Hold over a VOR, TACAN, NDB, compass locator, or DME fix. d. Fly an arc based upon DME. Note: These operations are allowable even when a facility is identified as required on a procedure (for example, "Note ADF required").

Why do surface winds generally flow across the isobars at an angle?

Surface friction causes winds to flow across isobars at an angle.

For aircraft equipped with ADS-B In, what is TIS-B and FIS-B?

TIS-B (Traffic Information Services-Broadcast)--The ground broadcast service provided from an ADS-B ground system network of transponder-based traffic information derived from ATC surveillance systems. It provides ADS-B In-equipped aircraft with a more complete picture of traffic in situations where not all aircraft are equipped with ADS-B Out. FIS-B (Flight Information Service-Broadcast)--The ground broadcast service provided over the 978 MHz UAT data link that provides ADS-B In-equipped aircraft with a cockpit display of certain aviation weather and aeronautical information for advisory-only use. FIS-B enhances the user's situational awareness.

What are the various Technical Standard Orders that apply to GPS navigation equipment?

TSO-C129 -- Airborne Supplemental Navigation Equipment Using the GPS (non-WAAS) TSO-C196 -- Airborne Supplemental Navigation Sensors for GPS Equipment Using Aircraft-Based Augmentation (non-WAAS) TSO-C145 -- Airborne Navigation Sensors Using the GPS Augmented by WAAS TSO-C146 -- Stand-Alone Airborne Navigation Equipment Using the GPS Augmented by WAAS

How will rising terrain be depicted in the plan view of an IAP chart?

Terrain will be depicted with contour lines in shades of brown in the plan view portion of all IAPs at airports that meet the following criteria: -If the terrain within the plan view exceeds 4,000 ft above the airport elevation, or -If the terrain within a 6.0 nautical miles radius of the airport reference point

What does the phrase "Cleared for the Option" mean?

The "Cleared for the Option" procedure will permit an instructor, flight examiner or pilot the option to make a touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go, or full stop landing. The pilot should make a request for this procedure passing the final approach fix inbound on an instrument approach.

Where can a pilot find information concerning facilities available for a particular airport?

The Chart Supplement US contains data on airports, seaplane bases, heliports, NAVAIDs, communications data, weather data sources, airspace, special notices, and operational procedures. It gives the data that cannot be readily depicted in graphic form and provides a means for pilots to update visual charts between edition dates. It is published every 56 days.

Where would information concerning runway lengths, widths and weight bearing capacities be found?

The Chart Supplement US has this information.

Where can updated information be obtained about changes to aeronautical charts that occurred between chart publication dates?

The Chart Supplement US provides a means for pilots to update visual charts between edition dats. The Chart Supplement US is published every 56 days while sectional aeronautical and VFR terminal area charts are generally revised every six months.

What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once every 30 seconds from a VORTAC station?

The DME component is operative; the VOR component is inoperative. It is important to recognize which identifier is retained for the operative facility. A single coded identifier with a repeat interval every 30 seconds indicates DME is operative. If no identification is received, the facility has been taken off the air for tune-up or repair, even though intermittent or constant signals are received.

What is recommended procedure for removing ice from an aircraft equipped with a pneumatic deicing system?

The FAA recommends that the deicing system be activated at the first indication of icing. Because some residual ice continues to adhere between pneumatic boot system cycles, the wing is never entirely "clean." The amount of residual ice increases as airspeed or temperature decreases. At airspeeds typical of small airplanes, it may take many boot cycles to effectively shed the ice. It may appear that the boots are not having any effect at all until shedding occurs.

Describe the Graphical Forecast for Aviation (GFA).

The GFA is a set of web-based graphics that provide observations, forecasts and warnings that can be viewed from 14 hours in the past to 15 hours in the future. The GFA covers the continental US from the surface up to FL480. Wind, icing, and turbulence forecasts are available in 3,000 ft increments from the surface up to FL180, and in 6,000 ft increments from FL180 to FL480. Turbulence forecasts are also broken into LO (below FL180) and HI (FL180 and above) graphics. A maximum icing graphic and maximum wind velocity graphic (regardless of altitude) are also available.

How many satellites does a GPS receiver require to compute its position?

The GPS constellation of 24 satellites is designed so that a minimum of five is always observable by a user anywhere on earth. The receiver uses data from a minimum of four satellites above the mask angle (the lowest angle above the horizon at which it can use a satellite). 3 satellites--yields a latitude and longitude position only (2D) 4 satellites--yields latitude, longitude, and altitude position (3D) 5 satellites--3D and RAIM 6 satellites--3D and RAIM isolates corrupt signal and removes from navigation solution

If no final approach fix is depicted, how is the MAP determined?

The MAP is at the airport (NAVAID on airport).

What is the purpose of magnetic reference bearings found on IFR Enroute Low/High Altitude charts?

The MRB enhances situational awareness by indicating a reference bearing (no−wind heading) that a pilot should see on the compass/HSI/RMI, etc., when turning prior to/over a waypoint en route to another waypoint.

Define MDA.

The Minimum Descent Altitude is the lowest altitude, expressed in feet above MSL, to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering, in execution of a standard instrument approach procedure where no electronic glide slope is provided.

What is a convective outlook chart?

The NWS Storm Prediction Center (SPC) issues narrative and graphical convective outlooks to provide the OCNUS NWS WFOs, the public, the media, and emergency managers with the potential for severe (tornado, wind gusts 50 knots or greater, or hail 1 inch in diameter or greater) and non-severe (general) convection, and specific severe weather threats during the following 8 days. The convective outlook defines areas of marginal risk, slight risk, enhanced risk, moderate risk, or high risk of severe weather based on a probability percentage, which varies for time periods from 1 day to 3 days, and then two probability thresholds for days 4 through 8. The day 1, day 2, and day 3 convective outlooks also depict areas of general thunderstorms.

Are there any differences in the method you would use to scan the instruments in an aircraft equipped with a primary flight display?

The PFD is not intended to change the fundamental way in which you scan your instruments during attitude instrument flying. The PFD supports the same familiar control and performance, or primary and supporting methods you use with conventional flight instruments. However, you need to train your eyes to find and interpret these instruments in their new formats and locations.

Describe the 3P model used in ADM.

The Perceive, Process, Perform (3P) model for ADM offers a simple, practical, and systematic approach that can be used during all phases of flight. To use it, the pilot will: Perceive the given set of circumstances for a flight; thin through circumstances related to the: Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, and External Pressures (PAVE). The fundamental question to ask is, "What could hurt me, my passengers, or my aircraft?" Process by evaluating their impact on flight safety. Think through the Consequences of each hazard, Alternatives available, Reality of the situation, and External pressures that might influence their analysis. Perform by implementing the best course of action. Transfer (can the risk decision be transferred to someone else; can you consult someone?); Eliminate (is there a way to eliminate the hazard?); Accept (do the benefits of accepting risk outweigh the costs?); Mitigate (what can you do to reduce the risk? (TEAM)

What are the designated altitude for the airways in the VOR and L/MF Airway System?

The VOR and L/MF Airway System consists of airways designated from 1,200 ft above the surface (or in some instances higher) up to but not including 18,000 ft MSL. These airways are depicted on Enroute Low Altitude Charts.

What is the WAAS Channel Number/Approach ID found on the upper left corner of an approach procedure chart used for?

The WAAS Channel Number is an optional equipment capability that allows the use of a 5-digit number to select a specific final approach segment without using the menu method.

What is "WAAS"?

The Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) is a satellite navigation system consisting of the equipment and software that augments the GPS Standard Positioning Service (SPS). The WAAS provides enhanced integrity, accuracy, availability, and continuity over and above GPS SPS. The differential correction function provides improved accuracy required for precision approach.

What is the purpose of runway aiming point marking?

The aiming point markings serve as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft. These two rectangular markings consist of a broad white stripe, located on each side of the runway centerline, and approximately 1,000 ft from the landing threshold. The pilot can estimate a visual glide path that will intersect the marking ensuring a landing within the 3,000 ft touchdown zone.

What is necessary for structural icing to occur?

The aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets; temperature must be at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft at 0C or colder.

What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions (91.167)

The aircraft must carry enough fuel (considering weather reports, forecasts and weather conditions) to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airpport, and fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed .

What is the definition of a "stabilized" approach?

The airplane must be stabilized by 1,000 ft above airport elevation in IMC and by 500 ft above airport elevation during straight-in approaches in VMC. The FAA considers an approach to touchdown stabilized when the airplane meets all of the following criteria, with only minor deviations: a. Glide path--on the correct flight path, normally 3 degrees to the runway TDZ, obstructions permitting. b. Heading--tracking extended centerline to runway with only minor heading/pitch changes to correct for wind, turbulence and maintain alignment. Bank angle should not exceed 15 degrees on final. c. Airspeed--maintains a constant airspeed within +10/-5 KIAS of the recommended landing speed. d. Configuration--in the correct landing configuration (flaps as required, landing gear extended, and airplane is in trim.) e. Rate of Descent--is constant and no greater than 500 fpm; if a descent greater than 500 fpm is required due to approach considerations, it must be reduced prior to 300 ft AGL and well before the landing flare and touchdown phase. f. Power Setting--is appropriate for the airplane configuration and not below the minimum power for approach. g. Checklists/Briefings--all briefings and checklists (except the landing checklist) completed prior to initiating the approach.

On IFR enroute charts, what does the "MON" designator displayed above the airport name indicate?

The airport is part of the VOR Minimum Operational Network (MON). The intent of the MON designation to alert pilots, in the event of a GPS outage, of those airports that have retained ILS and VOR instrument approach procedures for safe recovery during such an outage. The VOR MON includes the minimum number of geographically situated VORs in the contiguous United States (CONUS) necessary to provide coverage at and above 5,000 ft AGL.

You are operating on an IFR flight plan into an airport without an operating control tower, and have forgotten to close your flight plan after landing. Discuss the effect this will have on ATC. (AIM 5-1-14)

The airspace surrounding that airport cannot be released for use by other IFR aircraft until the status of your flight has been determined.

What instruments are used to determine and control power?

The airspeed indicator and engine instrument, which are the manfiold pressure gauge (MP) and tachometer/RPM.

Where is the localizer/transmitter antenna installation located in relation to the runway?

The antenna is located at the far end of the approach runway.

What is a METAR?

The aviation routine weather report (METAR) is the weather observer's interpretation of the weather conditions at a given site and time. There are two types of METAR reports: a routine METAR report that is transmitted every hour and an aviation selected special weather report (SPECI). This is a special report that can be given at any time to update the METAR for rapidly changing weather conditions, aircraft mishaps, or other critical information.

Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix beyond which a higher MEA exists.

The climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude shall beign immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies, except that when ground obstructions intervene, the point beyond which that higher minimum altitude applies shall be crossed at or above the applicable MCA.

What are the control instruments?

The control instruments display immediate attitude and power indications and are calibrated to permit attitude and power adjustments in precise amounts. In this discussion, the term "power" is used in place of the more technically correct term "thrust or drag relationship." Control is determined by reference to the attitude indicator and power indicators. These power indicators vary with aircraft and may include manifold pressure, tachometers, fuel flow, etc.

Assuming two-way communications failure, discuss the recommended procedure to follow concerning altitudes to be follow concerning altitudes to be flown for the following trip: The MEA between A and B is 5,000 ft; the MEA between B and C is 5,000 ft; the MEA between C and D is 11,000 ft; and the MEA between D and E is 7,000 ft. You have been cleared via A, B, C, D, to E. While flying between A and B, your assigned altitude was 6,000 ft and you were told to expect a clearance to 8,000 ft at B. Prior to receiving the higher altitude assignment, you experience two-way communication failure.

The correct procedure would be as follows: a. Maintain 6,000 ft to B, then climb to 8,000 ft (the altitude you were advised to expect). b. Continue to maintain 8,000 ft, then climb at 11,000 at C, or prior to C if necessary to comply with an MCA at C. c. Upon reaching D, you would descend to 8,000 ft (even though the MEA was 7,000 ft), as 8,000 ft was the highest of the altitude situations stated in the rule.

If no FAF is published, where does the final approach segment begin on a nonprecision approach?

The final approach segment begins where the procedure turn intersects the final approach course inbound.

The instrument proficiency check required by 61.57 can be accomplished by flying with an authorized flight instructor. Does that flight instructor have to be an instrument instructor?

The flight instructor must hold an instrument rating on his/her pilot and flight instructor certificate appropriate to the category and class of aircraft used for the IPC. For example, an IPC conducted in a multi-engine airplane requires that the flight instructor hold both multi-engine and instrument ratings on his/her pilot and flight instructor certificate. The basis for flight instructor privileges and limitations are found in 61.193 and 61.195. The flight instructor should also meet currency requirements for his or her pilot and flight instructor certificate. Note. In addition to having the appropriate instructor ratings, the flight instructor should consider other factors relating to his or her ability to conduct an IPC, including those discussed for the flight review, as well as the instructor's own instrument currency.

After conducting the knowledge portion of an IPC, what actions should the flight instructor request the pilot to complete prior to conducting the flight skill portion of the check?

The flight instructor should ask the pilot to prepare for the skill portion of the proficiency check by completing the necessary flight planning, obtaining current weather data, filing a flight plan, and conducting the preflight inspection. In order to fully evaluate the pilot's skills under normal operating conditions, the flight instructor may wish to have the pilot conduct a short IFR cross-country flight with at least part of the flight conducted "in the system" under IFR.

What areas of knowledge should be reviewed by the flight instructor when conducting the knowledge portion of an IPC?

The flight instructor should determine whether the pilot has adequate knowledge and understanding of 14 CFR Part 91, especially Subpart B, "Flight Rules"; Subpart C, "Equipment, Instrument, and Certificate Requirements"; and Subpart E, "Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and Alterations"; and also the following areas: a. Instrument enroute and approach chart interpreation, including departure procedures (SIDS and ODPs), standard terminal arrival routes (STAR), and area navigation (RNAV)/global positioning system (GPS)/wide area augmentation system (WAAS) procedures. b. Obtaining and analyzing weather information, including knowledge of hazardous weather phenomena, such as icing and convective activity. c. Preflight planning, including aircraft performance, Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) information (including temporary flight restrictions [TFR]), fuel requirements, alternate requirements, and use of appropriate FAA publications such as the Chart Supplement US. d. Aircraft systems related to IFR operations, including appropriate operating methods, limitations, and emergency procedures due to equipment failure. e. Aircraft flight instruments and navigation equipment, including characteristics, limitations, operating techniques, and emergency procedures due to malfunction or failure, such as lost communications and automation failure procedures. f. Determining the airworthiness status of the aircraft for instrument flight, including required inspections and documents. g. Air Traffic Control (ATC) procedures pertinent to flight under IFR with emphasis on elements of ATC clearances and pilot/controller responsibilities. h. A general, working knowledge of aerodynamic principles relating to angle of attack (AOA) and the purpose, operation, and limitations of AOA indicators (if installed).

What are several pre-check considerations a flight instructor should think about prior to conducting an IPC?

The flight instructor should-- a. Structure an IPC in a manner similar to that of the flight review, tailoring the check to the needs of the pilot. b. Discuss with the pilot the operating conditions under which the check will occur if the check is in an aircraft. (VFR or IFR in simulated IMC or under IFR in actual IMC). If the flight instructor conducts the check under IFR, or while under VFR conditions simulating IMC with a view-limiting device, it is the flight instructor's responsibility to constantly remain vigilant to other aircraft throughout all phases of the flight. c. Develop a plan of action that uses realistic scenarios to organize and sequence the required tasks and maneuvers. d. Discuss crewmember roles and responsibilities with the pilot.

What type of aviation forecasts are available when selecting the "Forecast" tab of the GFA?

The forecasts tab provides gridded displays of various weather parameters as well as NWS textual weather observations, forecasts, and warnings out to 15 hours. Icing, turbulence, and wind gridded products are three-dimensional. Other gridded products are two-dimensional and may represent a "composite" of a three-dimensional weather phenomenon or a surface weather variable, such as horizontal visibility. Selecting the Forecasts tab will provide the following: a. TAF b. CIG/VIS c. Clouds d. PCPN/WX e. TS f. Winds g. Turb h. Ice

What is the definition of the term "freezing level" and how can you determine where that level is?

The freezing level is the lowest altitude in the atmosphere over a given location at which the air temperature reaches 0C. It is possible to have multiple freezing layers when a temperature inversion occurs above the defined freezing level. Potential sources of icing information for determining its location are: GFA, PIREPS, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, low-level significant weather charts, surface analysis (for frontal location and freezing precipitation) and winds and temperatures aloft (for air temperature at altitude). Pilots can use graphical data including freezing level graphics, the current icing product (CIP), and forecast icing product (FIP).

What is the normal glide slope angle for a standard ILS?

The glide path projection angle is normally 3 degrees above horizontal so that it intersects the MM at about 200 ft and the OM at about 1,400 ft above the runway elevation.

Where is the glide slope antenna located and what is its normal usable range?

The glide slope transmitter is located between 750 ft and 1,250 ft from the approach end of the runway (down the runway), and offset 250 ft to 650 ft from it. The glide slope is normally usable to a distance of 10 NM.

What is an HSI?

The horizontal situation indicator (HSI) is a direction indicator that uses the output from a flux valve to drive the compass card. The HSI combines the magnetic compass with navigation signals/glideslope and gives the pilot an indication of the location of the aircraft with relationship to the chosen course or radial. The aircraft magnetic heading is displayed on the compass card under the lubber line and the course select pointer shows the course selected and its reciprocal. The course deviation bar operates with a VOR/Localizer (VOR/LOC) or GPS navigation receiver to indicate left or right deviations from the course selected with the course select pointer. The desired course is selected by rotating the course select pointer in relation to the compass card by means of the course select know. The HSI has a fixed aircraft symbol and the course deviation bar displays the aircraft's position relative to the selected course.

When is the inner marker used?

The inner marker beacon is used with an ILS Category II precision approach and is located between the middle marker and the end of the ILS runway. It indicates the point at which an aircraft is at decision height on the glide path of a CAT II approach. It also marks progress during a CAT III approach.

What limitations does the magnetic compass have?

The jewel-and-pivot type mounting gives the float freedom to rotate and tilt up to approximately 18 degrees angle of bank. At steeper bank angles, the compass indications are erratic and unpredictable.

What is the angular width of a localizer signal?

The localizer signal is adjusted to provide an angular width of between 3° to 6°, as necessary to provide a linear width of 700 feet at the runway approach threshold.

What range does a standard localizer have?

The localizer signal provides course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of 18 NM from the antenna site.

Describe a U.S. low-level significant weather prog chart

The low-level significant weather (SIGWX) charts provide a forecast of aviation weather hazards, primarily intended as guidance products for pre-flight briefings. The forecast domain covers the continental U.S. and the coastal waters for altitudes Flight Level 240 and below. Each depicts a snapshot of weather expected at the specified valid time. The charts depict weather flying categories, turbulence, and freezing levels, and are issued four times per day in two types: a 12-hour and 24-hour prog.

What are some of the general considerations a flight instructor should have in determining the specific maneuvers and procedures for an IPC?

The maneuvers and procedures selected for the IPC must include those listed in the Instrument Proficiency Check Table in the Instrument Rating ACS. The flight instructor conducting the IPC has the discretion to require any other maneuver(s) necessary to determine that the pilot can safely operate under IFR in a broad range of conditions appropriate to the aircraft flown and the ATC environment selected. However, in any case, the flight instructor should pay particular attention to those areas within the ACS identified as "Special Emphasis." The flight instructor should emphasize proper adherence to ATC clearances. Regardless of the maneuvers and procedures selected, the flight instructor should ensure the pilot demonstrates satisfactory basic attitude instrument flying skills.

Can a GPS with an expired database be used for navigation under IFR?

The navigation database contained in the GPS/FMS must be current if the system is to be used for IFR approaches. Some units allow enroute IFR operations with an expired database if the navigation waypoints are manually verified by referencing an official current source, such as an enroute chart. To determine equipment approvals and limitations, refer to the AFM or AFM supplements. Note: the FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual Supplement (required to be onboard the aircraft) is regulatory and specifies the requirements and operations permitted.

How often are GPS databases required to be updated?

The navigation database is updated every 28 days. Obstacle databases may be updated every 56 days and terrain and airport map databases are updated as needed.

What are the navigation instruments?

The navigation instruments indicate the position of the aircraft in relation to a selected navigation facility or fix. This group of instruments includes various types of course indicators, range indicators, glideslope indicators, and bearing pointers. Technologically advanced aircraft can provide all of these instruments and GPS in one electronic display, giving the pilot more accurate positional information.

Explain the function of NDB and ADF equipment.

The non-directional radio beacon (NDB) is a ground-based radio transmitter that transmits radio energy in all directions. NDBs operate within the low-to-medium frequency band, 190 to 535 kHz. The automatic direction finder (ADF) receiver in the airplane determines the bearing from the aircraft to the transmitting station. The ADF needle points to the NDB ground station to determine the relative bearing (RB) to the transmitting station. It is the number of degrees measured clockwise between the aircraft's heading and the direction from which the bearing is taken.

How does the heading indicator work?

The operation of the heading indicator works on the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and fixed to the rotor is a compass card. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading information.

What are the performance instruments?

The performance instruments indicate the aircraft's actual performance. Performance is determined by reference to the altimeter, airspeed, or vertical speed indicator (VSI).

What reports should be made to ATC without a specific request (radar and non-radar)?

The pilot must report: Missed approach; request clearance for specific action, such as another approach, alternate airport, etc. Airspeed change; change in average KTAS at cruising altitude of 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater. Reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared; report time and altitude or flight level Vacating any previously assigned altitude or flight level. ETA change when previous estimate in excess of 2 minutes (non-radar). Leaving assigned holding fix or point. Outer marker inbound or fix used in lieu of the OM (non-radar) Unforecast weather. Safety of flight compromised. VFR on top, when any altitude change is made. Final approach fix inbound (non-radar). Radio malfunction -- any loss or impairment of navigation/communication receiver capability Compulsory reporting points (non-radar) 500 FPM -- unable to climb/descend 500 fpm.

What are several factors a pilot should consider (prior to the approach) when assessing options available if it becomes necessary to execute a missed approach from beyond the MAP or below the MDA or DA/DH?

The pilot should consider factors such as the aircraft's geographical location with respect to the prescribed missed approach point, direction of flight, and/or minimum turning altitudes in the prescribed missed approach procedure. The pilot must also consider aircraft performance, visual climb restrictions, charted obstacles, availability of a published obstacle departure procedure, takeoff visual climb requirements as expressed by nonstandard takeoff minima, other traffic expected to be in the vicinity, or other factors not specifically expressed by the approach procedures.

What action should a pilot take in the event a balked (rejected) landing occurs at a position other than the published missed approach point?

The pilot should contact ATC as soon as possible to obtain an amended clearance. If unable to contact ATC for any reason, the pilot should attempt to re-intercept a published segment of the missed approach and comply with route and altitude instructions. If unable to contact ATC, and in the pilot's judgment it is no longer appropriate to fly the published missed approach procedure, then the pilot should consider either maintaining visual conditions if practicable and reattempt a landing, or a circle-climb over the airport. Contact ATC when able to do so.

While flying the final segment of a non-precision approach with a VFP, a pilot breaks out of the clouds prior to the VDP and has the required visibility and necessary visual references available to begin the descent. Does the pilot have to wait until the VDP is reached before descending below the MDA?

The pilot should not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP and acquiring the necessary visual references. Note: By delaying your descent until crossing the VDP, you mitigate the risk of hitting an unseen obstacle or experiencing an optical illusion during your descent from MDA (rain on windscreen, at night/featureless terrain illusion, etc.)

Assuming two-way radio failure while being progressively descended to lower altitudes to begin an approach is assigned 2,700 ft until crossing the VOR and then cleared for the approach. The MOCA along the airway is 2,700 ft and the MEA is 4,000 ft. The aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR.

The pilot should remain at 2,700 ft until crossing the VOR because that altitude is the minimum IFR altitude for the route segment being flown.

Dicuss FAR 91.3, "Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command."

The pilot-in-command (PIC) of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft. Being PIC means you, and only you are repsonsible for the operational and safety-related decisions pertaining to your flight. No one else, not the aircraft owner, the FBO, ATC, or anyone else shares in that responsibility. The decision to begin, cancel, divert, or terminate the flight, determine aircraft airworthiness, or make any other safety or operational decision are yours, and yours alone.

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in an airworthy condition? (91.7)

The pilot-in-command is repsonsible

During your descent and while being vectored for an approach, you notice a trace amount of time ice collecting on the wing's leading edges and struts. The ice is extremely light, and even though you are in a descent, your airspeed is decreasing towards stall speed. What could be the problem?

The pitot tube opening and the drain hole are blocked. If the pitot tube ram air input plus the drain hole are blocked, the pressure is trapped in the system and the airspeed indicator will act like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends. If the static port is not blocked, the airspeed indicator will show an increase in a climb and decrease in a descent. During level flight, airspeed indication will not change. Your pitot heat is either off or has failed.

What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?

The pitot/static system operates the altimeter, VSI, and airspeed indicator. All three instruments receive static air pressure for operation with only the ASI receiving pitot and static pressure.

If an airplane has anti-icing and/or deicing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions?

The presence of anti-icing and deicing equipment does not necessarily mean that an airplane is approved for flight in icing conditions. The AFM/POH, placards. and manufacturer should be consulted for specific determination of approvals and limitations.

What are possible reasons your GPS receiver would fail to sequence from the "Armed" to the "Approach" mode prior to the final approach waypoint (FAWP)?

The receiver performs a RAIM prediction by 2 NM prior to the FAWP to ensure that RAIM is available at the FAWP as a condition for entering the approach mode. Failure to sequence may be an indication of the detection of a satellite anomaly, failure to arm the receiver (if required), or other problems which preclude completing the approach. The pilot should always ensure that the receiver has sequenced from "Armed" to "Approach" prior to the FAWP (normally occurs 2 NM prior to the FAWP).

What color are runway edge lights?

The runway edge lights are white--except on instrument runways, yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 ft or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.

What are the required qualifications for a person to act as a "safety pilot?" (61.3, 61.23, 91.109)

The safety pilot must: a. Possess at least a private pilot certificate with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown. b. Possess an appropriate medical certificate (the safety pilot is acting as a required crewmember). c. If the flight is to be conducted on an IFR flight plan, the person acting as PIC of the flight must hold an instrument rating and be instrument current.

What does the second fundamental skill of instrument interpretation consist of?

The second fundamental skill, instrument interpretation, requires the most thorough study and analysis. You must understand each instrument's construction and operating principles. Then you must apply this knowledge to the performance of the aircraft you are flying, the particular maneuvers to be executed, the cross-check and control techniques applicable to that aircraft, and the flight conditions in which you are operating.

Explain the difference between a stable atmosphere and an unstable atmosphere. Why is the stability of the atmosphere important?

The stability of the atmosphere depends on its ability to resist vertical motion. A stable atmosphere makes vertical movement difficult, and small vertical disturbances dampen out and disappear. In an unstable atmosphere, small vertical air movements tend to become larger, resulting in turbulent airflow and convective activity. Instability can lead to significant turbulence, extensive vertical clouds, and severe weather.

What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?

The stability of the atmosphere determines type and vertical extent of clouds.

What is the leg length for a standard holding pattern?

The standard leg length is: a. 1 minute inbound at or below 14,000 ft MSL, and b. 1 1/2 minutes inbound above 14,000 ft MSL.

For aircraft with electronic flight instrumentation, what is the function of the standby battery?

The standby battery is held in reserve and kept charged in case of a failure of the charging system and a subsequent exhaustion of the main battery. The standby battery is brought online when the main battery voltage is depleted to a specified value, approximately 19 volts. Generally, the standby battery switch must be in the ARM position for this to occur, but pilots should refer to the aircraft flight manual (AFM) for specifics on an aircraft's electrical system.

After an alternator failure and depletion of the main battery, what items will still receive power from the standby battery?

The standby battery powers the essential bus and allows the PFD to be utilized. The essential bus usually powers the following components: AHRS ADC PFD NAV 1 COMM 1 Standby indicator light

Describe the different recommended entry methods for holding.

The three types of entry are: a. Parallel b. Teardrop c. Direct

How far down a runway does the touchdown zone extend?

The touchdown zone is the first 3,000 ft of the runway beginning at the threshold. The area is used for determination of Touchdown Zone Elevation in the development of straight-in landing minimums for instrument approaches.

What are the two basic methods for learning attitude instrument flying?

The two basic methods used for learning attitude instrument flying are "control and performance" and "primary and supporting." Both methods involve the use of the same instruments, and both use the same responses for attitude control. They differ in their reliance on the attitude indicator and interpretation of other instruments.

What is indicated when an approach procedure title (e.g., VOR-A) is followed only by a letter (no runway designation)?

The type of approach followed by a letter identifies approaches that do not have straight-in landing minimums and only have circling minimums. The first approach of this type created at the airport is labeled with the letter A, and the lettering continues in alphabetical order (e.g., "VOR-A" or "LDA-B").

Name the types of nonprecision approach procedures available.

The types of nonprecision approaches available are: LNAV, VOR, TACAN, NDB, LOC, ASR, LDA, and SDF.

What is a "VDA"

The vertical descent angle (VDA) found on non-precision approach charts provides the pilot with information required to establish a stabilized approach descent from the FAF or stepdown fix to the TCH. Pilots can use the published angle and estimated or actual ground speed to find a target rate of descent using the rate of descent table in the back of the TPP.

What are the different types of AIRMETs?

There are three AIRMETs--Sierra, Tango, and Zulu: a. AIRMET Sierra describes IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations. b. AIRMET Tango describes moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater, and/or nonconvective low-level wind shear. c. AIRMET Zulu describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights.

If you encounter unforecasted freezing rain, would you allow the autopilot to control the plane or would you hand-fly it?

There is no "right" answer to this question. The examiner wants to know that you have given thought to how you will handle this situation. Possible answers: AGAINST using the autopilot: I would hand fly. The largest hazard in freezing rain is that ice accumulates quickly on the aircraft surface and results in a loss of lift. If flying with the autopilot on, I won't receive tactile inputs on the effectiveness of control surfaces and may not perceive the loss of lift. FOR using the autopilot: I would turn on the autopilot. This represents a busy time in the cockpit. I have to alter plans and reprogram technology. I want the autopilot to relieve some of the workload tasks.

What is a surface analysis chart?

These are a charted analysis of surface weather observations, depicting the distribution of several items including sea-level pressure, the positions of highs, lows, ridges, and troughs, the location and type of fronts, and the various boundaries such as drylines. Pressure is expressed in mean sea level (MSL); all other elements are presented as they occur at the surface point of observation.

What are the two fundamental flight skills that must be developed during attitude instrument training?

These two skills are instrument cross-check and instrument interpretation, and use of both result in positive aircraft control. Although these skills are learned separately and in deliberate sequence, a measure of proficiency in precision flying is the ability to integrate these skills into unified, smooth, positive control responses to maintain any prescribed flight path.

Are the courses depicted on an Enroute Low Altitude Chart magnetic or true courses?

They are magnetic courses.

Under what conditions are missed approach procedures published on an approach chart not allowed

They are not followed when ATC has assigned alternate missed approach instructions.

What operational procedures must pilots on IFR flight plans adhere to when operating VFR-On-Top?

They must: a. Fly at the appropriate VFR altitude b. Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from cloud criteria c. Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to this flight; i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, radio communications, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearance, etc.

Describe a mid-level significant weather (SIGWX) chart.

This chart provides a forecast and an overview of significant enroute weather phenomena over a range of flight levels from 10,000 ft MSL to FL450, and associated surface weather features. It is a "snapshot" of weather expected at the specified valid time and depicts numerous weather elements that can be hazardous to aviation. The AWC issues the 24-hour Mid-Level Significant Weather chart 4 times daily.

When can you begin your descent to the runway during a circling approach?

Three conditions are required before descent from the MDA can occur: a. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. b. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used. c. At least one of the specific runway visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot.

When attempting to circumnavigate thunderstorms, what minimum distance is recommended?

Thunderstorms identified as severe or displaying an intense radar echo should be avoided by at least 20 miles. This is especially true under the anvil of a large cumulonimbus.

When reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared what information will ATC expect you to provide without request

Time and altitude

For IFR operations off established airways, the "Route of Flight" portion of an IFR flight plan should list VOR navaids which are no further than what distance from each other?

To facilitate use of VOR, VORTAC, or TACAN aids, consistent with their operational service volume limits, pilot use of such aids for defining a direct route of flight in controlled airspace should not exceed the following: Below 18,000 ft MSL, use aids not more than 80 NM apart. Between 14,500 ft MSL and 17,999 ft MSL in the conterminous US., H (high-altitude service volume) facilities not more than 200 NM apart may be used.

What is the definition of TDZE?

Touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) is the highest elevation in the first 3,000 ft of the landing surface. TDZE is indicated on the instrument approach procedure chart when straight-in landing minimums are authorized.

What are runway touchdown zone markings?

Touchdown zone markings identify the touchdown zone for landing operations and are coded to provide distance information in 500-foot increments. These markings consist of groups of one, two, and three rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline. Normally, the standard glide slope angle of 3 degrees, if flown to the surface, will ensure touchdown within this zone.

When using RNAV equipment for navigation, what is the difference between the terms "Track (TRK)" and "Desired Track (DTK)?"

Track -- the actual flight path of an aircraft over the surface of the earth. The track, which is the result of aircraft heading and winds, tells you which direction the aircraft is actually flying. Winds make it likely that the track and heading will be different. Desired Track -- the planned or intended track between two waypoints. Desired track is measured in degrees from either magnetic or true north. The instantaneous angle may change from point to point along the great circle track between waypoints. The desired track is the intended course for the active leg in the programmed flight plan.

What procedure is used when checking VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?

Tune in the VOT frequency of 108.0 MHz. With CDI centered, the OBS should read 0 degrees with TO/FROM indication showing FROM or the OBS should read 180 degrees with the TO/FROM indication showing TO.

What is the source of power for the turn coordinator?

Turn coordinator gyros can be driven by either air or electricity; some are dual-powered. Typically the turn coordinator is electrically powered, but always refer to the AFM for specifics.

What procedures are applicable concerning courses to be flown when operating IFR?

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no one may operate an aircraft within controlled airspace under IFR except on an air traffic services route, along the centerline of that airway, or on any other route along the direct course between the navigational aids or fixes defining that route. However, this does not prohibit maneuvering the aircraft to pass well clear of other air traffic, or maneuvering in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent.

What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?

Unless specified otherwise, required obstacle clearance for all departures, including diverse, is based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at least 35 feet above the departure end of runway elevation, climbing to 400 feet above the departure end of runway before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 feet per nautical mile (FPNM), unless required to level off by a crossing restriction, until the minimum IFR altitude. A greater climb gradient may be specified in the DP to clear obstacles or to achieve an ATC crossing restriction.

What are "unpublished" RNAV routes?

Unpublished RNAV routes are direct routes based on area navigation capability, between waypoints defined in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates, degree-distance fixes, or offsets from established routes/airway at a specified distance and direction. Radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished RNAV routes, except for GNSS-equipped aircraft cleared via filed published waypoints recallable from the aircraft's navigation database.

What requirement must be met before ATC will allow an aircraft to operate on an unpublished RNAV route?

Unpublished RNAV routes are direct routes, based on area navigation capability between waypoints defined in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates, degree-distance fixes, or offsets from established routes/airways at a specified distance and direction. Radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished RNAV routes, except for GNSS-equipped aircraft cleared via filed published waypoints recallable from the aircraft's navigation database.

Can a pilot perform the required database updates or must this action be accomplished by authorized maintenance personnel? (43.3)

Updates of databases of installed avionics may be performed by pilots provided they can be initiated from the flight deck, performed without disassembly of the avionics unit, and performed without the use of tools and/or special equipment. Updating databases for self-contained, front-panel, or pedestal-mounted GPS units is a non-maintenance task, and does not require an entry in the aircraft logbook.

What postflight actions and logbook entries should occur upon completion of an IPC?

Upon completion of the proficiency check, the flight instructor should completion the plan and checklist (if used) and debrief the pilot on the results of the check (satisfactory or unsatisfactory). Regardless of the determination, the flight instructor should provide the pilot with a comprehensive analysis of his or her performance, including suggestions for improving any weak areas. If the proficiency check was unsatisfactory, the flight instructor should not endorse the pilot's logbook, but should sign the logbook to record the instruction given. If the proficiency check was satisfactory, the endorsement for a satisfactory proficiency check should be in accordance with the current issue of AC 61-65. If a lesson plan and checklist was used, the flight instructor may wish to retain the plan as a record of the scope and content of the competency check, even though it is not required.

When being radar-vectored for an approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower altitude if "cleared for the approach"?

Upon receipt of an approach clearance while on an unpublished route or being radar vectored, a pilot will comply with the minimum altitude for IFR and maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a segment of a published route or IAP, at which time published altitudes apply.

Define upslope fog.

Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. Unlike radiation fog, it can form under cloudy skies. It is common along the eastern slopes of the Rockies and somewhat less frequent east of the Appalachians; can often be quite dense and extend to high altitudes.

The FAA has transitioned to using the ICAO format flight plans for all flights. When is it mandatory to use one?

Use of an ICAO flight plan is: a. Mandatory for assignment of RNAV SIDs and STARs or other PBN routing, b. Mandatory for all IFR flights that will depart US domestic airspace, and c. Recommended for domestic IFR flights

How are airways and route systems depicted on enroute low altitude charts?

VHF/UHF data is depicted in black. LF/MF data is depicted in brown. RNAV route data is depicted in blue. Note: Segments of VOR airways in Alaska are based on L/MF navigation aids and charted in brown instead of black on en route charts.

What degree of accuracy can be expected in VOR navigation?

VOR navigation is accurate to plus or minus 1 degree

What restrictions are VORs subject to?

VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions, and the range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment.

Within what frequency range do VORs operate?

VORs operate within the 108.0 to 117.95 MHz VHF band.

Why is there a difference between the distance information provided by a GPS receiver and the distance information provided by conventional DME equipment?

Variations in distances will occur since GPS distance-to-waypoint values are along-track distances (ATD) computed to the next waypoint, and the DME values published on underlying procedures are slant-range distances measured to the station. This difference increases with aircraft altitude and proximity to the NAVAID.

When temperature and dew point are close together (within 5 degrees), what type of weather is likely?

Visible moisture is likely, in the form of clouds, dew or fog.

Define VDP.

Visual Descent Point—a VDP is a defined point on the final approach course of a nonprecision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced, provided the approach threshold of that runway, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the approach end of that runway, are clearly visible to the pilot. Pilots not equipped to receive the VDP should fly the approach procedure as though no VDP had been provided.

Can a handheld GPS receiver be used for IFR operations?

Visual flight rules (VFR) and hand-held GPS systems are not authorized for IFR navigation, instrument approaches, or as principal instrument flight reference. During IFR operations they may be considered only as an aid to situational awareness.

Briefly describe the operation of WAAS.

WAAS ground station receive GPS signals and forward position errors to two master ground stations. Time and location information is analyzed, and correction instructions are sent to communication satellites in geostationary orbit over the National Airspace System (NAS). The satellites broadcast GPS-like signals that WAAS-enables GPS receivers use to correct position information received from GPS satellites. A WAAS-enabled GPS receiver (TSO-C145A or TSO-146A) is required to use the wide area augmentation system.

Can onboard datalink weather (FIS-B) be useful in navigating an aircraft safely around an area of thunderstorms?

Weather data linked from a ground weather surveillance radar system is not real-time information; it displays recent rather than current conditions. This data is typically updated every 5 minutes, but can be as much as 15 minutes old by the time it displays in the cockpit. Therefore, FIS aviation weather products are not appropriate for tactical avoidance of severe weather such as negotiating a path through a hazardous weather area.

What is the recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?

When ATC has not used the term "At Pilot's Discretion" nor imposed any climb or descent restrictions, pilots should initiate climb or descent promptly on acknowledgement of the clearance. Descend or climb at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft to 1,000 ft above or below the assigned altitude, and then attempt to descend or climb at a rate of between 500 and 1,500 fpm until the assigned altitude is reached.

Why do certain airports have only circling minimums published?

When either the normal rate of descent or the runway alignment factor of 30 degrees (15 degrees for GPS IAPs) is exceeded, a straight-in minimum is not published and a circling minimum applies.

What does "clearance void time" mean?

When operating from an airport without a tower, a pilot may receive a clearance containing a provision that if the flight has not departed by a specified time, the clearance is void. A pilot who does not depart prior to the clearance void time must advise ATC as soon as possible of his/her intentions. ATC will normally notify the pilot of the time allotted to notify ATC. This time cannot exceed 30 minutes.

What are standard IFR separation minimums?

When radar is employed in the separation of aircraft at the same altitude, a minimum of 3 miles separation is provided between aircraft operating within 40 miles of the radar antenna site, and 5 miles between aircraft operating beyond 40 miles from the antenna site. These minima may be increased or decreased in certain specific situations.

What is the significance of the "negative W" symbol placed on some RNAV (GPS) approach charts?

When the approach chart is annotated with the W symbol, site specific WAAS UNRELIABLE NOTAMs or Air Traffic advisories are not provided for outages in WAAS LNAV/VNAV and LPV vertical service. Vertical outages may occur daily at these locations due to being close to the edge of WAAS system coverage. Use LNAV or circling minima for flight planning at these locations, whether as a destination or alternate. For flight operations at these locations, when the WAAS avionics indicate that LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available, then the vertical guidance may be used to complete the approach using the displayed level of service. If an outage occurs during the procedure, reversion to LNAV minima may be required.

How does steam fog form?

When very cold air moves across relatively warm water, enough moisture may evaporate from the water surface to produce saturation. As the rising water vapor meets the cold air, it immediately re-condenses and rises with the air that is being warmed from below. Because the air is destabilized, fog appears as rising filaments or streamers that resemble steam. This phenomenon is called steam fog. It is commonly observed over lakes and streams on cold autumn mornings, and over the ocean during the winter when cold air masses move off the continents and ice shelves.

Explain how frontal (or precipitation-induced) fog forms.

When warm, moist air is lifted over a front, clouds and precipitation may form. If the cold air below is near its dew point, evaporation (or sublimation) from the precipitation may saturate the cold air and form fog. Frontal fog can become quire dense and continue for an extended period of time and may extend over large areas, completely suspending air operations. It is most commonly associated with warm fronts, but can occur with other fronts as well.

What are the right-of-way rules pertaining to IFR flights?

When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is under IFR or VFR, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft.

Would an incorrect altimeter setting have an effect on your Mode C/S transponder and ADS-B Out altitude information?

While an incorrect altimeter setting has no effect on the transmitted altitude information, it will cause the aircraft to fly at a true altitude different from the assigned altitude. When a controller indicates that an altitude readout is invalid, the pilot should verify that the aircraft altimeter is set correctly. Note: Altitude encoders are preset at standard atmospheric pressure. Local altimeter correction is applied by the surveillance facility before the altitude information is presented to ATC.

What is a winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FB)?

Winds and temperature aloft forecasts are computer prepared forecasts of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times, altitudes, and locations. They are produced 4 times daily for specified locations in the continental United States, Hawaii, Alaska and coastal waters, and the western Pacific Ocean. Amendments are not issued to the forecasts. Wind forecasts are not issued for altitudes within 1,500 ft of a location's elevation. Some of the features of FBs are: a. Product header includes date and time observations collected, forecast valid date and time, and the time period during which the forecast is to be used. b. Altitudes up to 15,000 ft referenced to MSL; altitudes at or above 18,000 ft are references to flight levels (FL). c. Temperature indicated in degrees Celsius (two digits) for the levels from 6,000 through 24,000 ft. Above 24,000 ft, minus sign is omitted since temperatures are always negative at those altitudes. Temperature forecasts are not issued for altitudes within 2,500 ft of a location's elevation. Forecasts for intermediate levels are determined by interpolation. d. Wind direction indicated in tens of degrees (two digits) with reference to true north and wind speed is given in knots (two digits). Light and variable wind or wind speeds of less than 5 knots are expressed by 9900. Forecast wind speeds of 100 through 199 knots are indicated by subtracting 100 from speed and adding 50 to the coded direction. For example, a forecast of 250 degrees, 145 knots, is encoded as 7545. Forecast wind speeds of 200 knots or greater are indicated as a forecast speed of 199 knots. For example, 7799 is decoded as 270 degrees at 199 knots or greater.

If cleared for a "straight-in VOR-DME 34 approach" can a pilot circle to land, if needed?

Yes. A "straight-in approach" is an instrument approach wherein final approach is begun without first having executed a procedure turn. Such an approach is not necessarily completed with a straight-in landing or made to straight-in minimums.

Can ATC issue you a cruise clearance that authorizes you to proceed to and execute an approach at the destination airport without an operating control tower?

Yes. ATC may issue a cruise clearance that authorizes you to execute an approach upon arrival at the destination airport. When operating in uncontrolled airspace on a cruise clearance, you are responsible for determining the minimum IFR altitude. In addition, descent and landing at an airport in uncontrolled airspace are governed by the applicable visual flight rules and/or operations specifications, i.e., 14 CFR 91.126, 91.155, 91.175, 91.179, etc.

Can a pilot make a straight-in landing if using an approach procedure having only circling minimums?

Yes; the fact that a straight-in minimum is not published does not preclude pilots from landing straight-in, if they have the active runway in sight and have sufficient time to make a normal approach to landing. Under such conditions and when ATC has cleared them for landing on that runway, pilots are not expected to circle, even though only circling minimums are published.

If ATC issues your flight a STAR, must you accept it?

You are not required to accept a STAR, but if you do, you must be in possession of at least the approved chart. RNAV STARs must be retrievable by the procedure name from the aircraft database and conform to the charted procedure. Pilots should notify ATC if they do not wish to use a STAR by placing "NO STAR" in the remarks section of the flight plan, or by the less desirable method of verbally stating the same to ATC.

What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR in controlled airspace?

You must report: a. Any loss in controlled airspace of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low-frequency navigation receiver capability. b. GPS anomalies while using installed IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers. c. Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability. d. Impairment of air/ground communication capability. e. Loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair safety and/or the ability to operate under IFR.

What action is recommended if you inadvertantly encounter icing conditions?

You should leave the area of visible moisture. This might mean descending to an altitude below the cloud bases, climbing to an altitude above the cloud tops, or turning to a different course. If this is not possible, then the pilot must move to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing. If you're going to climb, do so quickly; procrastination may leave you with too much ice. If you're going to descend, you must know the temperature of the air and the type of terrain below.

When must a pilot execute a missed approach?

a) Arrival at missed approach point and runway environment not in sight; b) Arrival at DH on glide slope with runway environment not in sight; c) Anytime pilot determines a safe landing is not possible; d) When circling-to-land visual contact is lost; or e) When instructed by ATC

While enroute, operating in IMC, what procedure would you use if all communication and navigation equipment failed (complete system failure)?

a) First determine you have complete loss. Determine cause (check circuit breakers, alternator, ammeter, etc)b) Review preflight weather briefing for nearest VFR; determine heading and altitude and proceed to VFR conditions using VFR altitudesc) If VFR conditions are not within range of aircraft, get off airway and determine heading to unpopulated area relatively free of obstacles (rural, large lake, ocean)d) Establish descent on a specific heading to VFR conditions; proceed VFR to nearest airport

What time is considered "training" time and how should this be logged?

a. A person may log training time when that person receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device. b. The training time must be logged in a logbook and be endorsed in a legible manner by the authorized instructor; and include a description of the training given, the length of the training lesson, and the authorized instructor's signature, certificate number, and certificate expiration date.

What pertinent information should a weather briefing include?

a. Adverse conditions b. VFR flight not recommended c. Synopsis d. Current conditions e. Enroute forecast f. Destination forecast g. Winds aloft h. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) i. ATC delay

After cruising above an overcast layer en route to your destination, you determine that weather reports and PIREPs at your destination now indicate that your descent will take you through clouds that contain ice. If you cannot divert to your alternate (low fuel), what can you do to prepare for a descent through icing conditions in a non-FIKI (flight into known icing) aircraft?

a. Advise ATC of your situation and declare an emergency. b. Apply carburetor heat, windshield heat and pitot heat. c. Set the propeller to max RPM to prevent ice from forming on the propeller blades. d. Advise ATC that you would like to remain above the clouds for as long as possible. Ask for a descent at pilot's discretion. e. Expedite your descent through the clouds to minimize the aircraft's exposure to icing conditions. f. Delay flap and gear extension and maintain a clean configuration for as long as possible.

How can your IFR clearance be obtained?

a. At airports with an ATC tower in operation, clearances may be received from either ground control or a specific clearance delivery frequency when available. b. For IFR clearances off uncontrolled airports: -Pilots departing on an IFR flight plan should consult the Chart Supplement US to determine the frequency or telephone number to use to contact clearance delivery. On initial contact, pilots should advise that the flight is IFR and state the departure and destination airports. -Air traffic facilities providing clearance delivery services via telephone will have their telephone number published in the Chart Supplement US of that airport's entry. This same section may also contain a telephone number to use for cancellation of an IFR flight plan after landing. The procedure may vary due to geographical features, weather conditions, and the complexity of the ATC system. To determine the most effective means of receiving an IFR clearance, pilots should ask an FSS briefer for the most appropriate means of obtaining their IFR clearance.

What regulations apply concerning supplemental oxygen? (91.211)

a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 MSL up to an including 14,000 MSL, the minimum flight crew must use oxygen after 30 minutes. b. Above 14,000 MSL up to and including 15,000 MSL, the minimum flight crew must continuously use oxygen. c. Above 15,000 MSL, each passenger must be provided with supplemental oxygen and the minimum flight crew must continuously use oxygen.

Explain how you will use the published VDA on a non-precision approach chart to fly a stabilized descent to the MDA?

a. Determine the published vertical descent angle on the approach chart (e.g., 3.1 degrees). b. Determine your estimated or actual ground speed (i.e., 90 knots GS). c. Locate the Rate of Climb/Descent Table (inside the back cover of TPP). d. The table indicates that a VDA of 3.1 degrees equates to a descent rate of 329 ft/NM. e. 329 ft/NM converts to a descent rate of 494 fpm at 90 knots ground speed. To fly the VDA, at the FAF or stepdown fix, descend at the required descent rate and maintain your airspeed/ground speed.

How can a pilot maintain situational awareness during taxi operations?

a. Ensure that a current airport diagram is available for immediate reference during taxi. b. Monitor ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft for the "big picture." c. Focus attention outside the cockpit while taxiing. d. Use all available resources (airport diagrams, airport signs, markings, lighting, and ATC) to keep aircraft on its assigned taxi route. e. Cross-reference heading indicator to ensure turns are being made in the correct direction and that you're on the assigned taxi route. f. Prior to crossing any hold short line, visually check for conflicting traffic; verbalize "clear left, clear right." g. Be alert for other aircraft with similar call signs on the frequency. h. Understand and follow all ATC instructions and if in doubt--ask!

If icing is inadvertently encountered, how would configuration for approach and landing be different?

a. Extension of landing gear may create excessive drag when coupled with ice. Flaps should be deployed in stages, carefully noting the aircraft's behavior at each stage. b. If anomalies occur, it is best not to increase the amount of flaps and perhaps even to retract them depending on how much the aircraft is deviating from normal performance. c. If landing with an accumulation of ice, use a higher approach speed. d. During the landing flare, carry higher-than-normal power if there is ice on the airplane. Use a longer runway if available. e. After touchdown, use brakes sparingly to prevent skidding. Be prepared for possible loss of directional control caused by ice buildup on landing gear.

While en route, how can a pilot obtain updated weather information?

a. FSS on 122.2 or appropriate frequency; use of RCO frequency, if available b. ATIS/ASOS/AWOS c. Datalink weather--cockpit display of FIS-B information d. ATC (workload permitting)

What are the general requirements for a person to be eligible for an instrument rating?

a. Hold at least a current private pilot certificate, or be concurrently applying for a private pilot certificate, with an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift rating appropriate to the instrument rating sought; b. Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. If the applicant is unable to meet any of these requirements due to a medical condition, the Administrator may place such operating limitations on the applicant's pilot certificate as are necessary for the safe operation of the aircraft; c. Receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor or accomplish a home-study course of training on the aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the instrument rating sought; d. Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required knowledge test; e. Receive and log training on the areas of operation from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, full flight simulator, or flight training device that represents an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the instrument rating sought; f. Receive a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the person is prepared to take the required practical test; g. Pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas; however, an applicant is not required to take another knowledge test when that person already holds an instrument rating; and h. Pass the required practical test on the areas of operation in an airplane, helicopter, or powered-lift appropriate to the rating sought; or a full flight simulator or a flight training device appropriate to the rating sought and for the specific maneuver or instrument approach procedure performed. If an approved flight training device is used for the practical test, the instrument approach procedures conducted in that flight training device are limited to one precision and one nonprecision approach, provided the flight training device is approved for the procedure performed.

Explain the process you will use to obtain a good weather briefing prior to your flight.

a. I will get a "big picture" of weather patterns by watching television (The Weather Channel, etc.) and/or the internet several days prior to my flight. b. On the day or evening before my flight, I'll obtain an outlook briefing from Flight Service and/or download weather and forecast charts from the internet. c. As close to departure time as possible, with my preliminary flight planning complete (basic route, altitudes, preliminary alternates), I'll call Flight Service or log on to 1800wxbrief for my standard briefing. I can also access weather products on the internet or other sources (making sure the products are suitable for aviation use and are current). d. If my standard briefing is several hours prior to my flight or the weather is questionable, I'll call FSS for an abbreviated briefing just before takeoff.

What items of information should be included in every position report?

a. Identification b. Position c. Time d. Altitude or flight level e. Type of flight plan (not required in IFR position reports made directly to ARTCCs or approach control) f. ETA and name of next reporting point g. The name only of the next succeeding reporting point along the route of flight, and h. Pertinent remarks

What self announced radio calls should you make when conducting an instrument approach to an airport without a control tower?

a. Initial call within 5-10 minutes of the aircraft's arrival at the IAF with aircraft location approach intentions. b. Departing the IAF, stating the approach that is being initiated. c. Procedure turn (or equivalent) inbound. d. FAF inbound, stating intended landing runway and maneuvering direction if circling. e. Short final, giving traffic on the surface notification of imminent landings.

Describe the following lines of minima found on area navigation RNAV (GPS) instrument approach charts.

a. LNAV -- Lateral navigation only; non-precision approach; requires TSO-C129 (non WAAS) or C145/C146 (WAAS) equipment. Minimums shown as MDA. b. LP -- Localizer Performance; non-precision approach; requires TSO C145/C146 (WAAS) equipment; minimums shown as MDA. c. LNAV/VNAV -- Latera Nav/Vertical Nav; APV approach; requires approach approved Baro-VNAV or TSO-C145/C146 (WAAS) equipment; minimums are shown as DA. d. LPV -- Localizer performance with vertical guidance; APV approac; requires TSO-C145/C146 (WAAS) equipment; minimums are shown as DA. e. GLS -- GBAS landing system; U.S. version of GBAS is Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS); provides lateral and vertical guidance; requires an aircraft GBAS receiver; relatively new category of approach. Most RNAV (GPS) approach charts have had the GLS minima line replaced by a WAAS LPV line of minima.

A majority of controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) accidents have been attributed to what factors?

a. Lack of pilot currency b. Loss of situational awareness c. Pilot distractions and breakdown of SRM d. Failure to comply with minimum safe altitudes e. Breakdown in effective ADM f. Insufficient planning, especially for the descent and arrival segments

What are several examples of operations where RNAV equipment cannot be used as a substitute means of navigation?

a. Lateral navigation on localizer-based courses (including localizer back-course guidance) without reference to raw localizer data. b. Procedures that are identified as not authorized ("NA") by NOTAM, without exception c. Pilots may not substitute for the NAVAID (for example, a VOR or NDB) providing lateral guidance for the final approach segment. This restriction does not refer to instrument approach procedures with "or GPS" in the title when using GPS or WAAS.

What are some examples of other sources of weather information?

a. Leidos Flight Services via the Internet. Pilots can receive preflight weather data and file domestic VFR and IFR flight plans. b. Weather and aeronautical information available from numerous private industry sources. c. Flight Information Services (FIS-B via ADS-B)

During preflight planning, what type of meteorological information should you be aware of with respect to icing?

a. Location of fronts -- the front's location, type, speed, and direction of movement b. Cloud layers -- the location of cloud bases and tops; this is valuable when determining if you will be able to climb above icing layers or descend beneath those layers into warmer air. c. Freezing level(s) -- important when determining how to avoid icing and how to exit icing conditions if accidentally encountered. d. Air temperature and pressure -- icing tends to be found in low-pressure areas and at temperature at or around freezing. e. Precipitation -- knowing the location and type of precipitation forecast will assist in avoiding areas conducive to icing Exam Tip: Know what your plan will be if you accidentally encounter in-flight icing. Be able to explain how you will determine the potential for icing during preflight planning. What weather products will you use on the ground and inflight to determine potential areas of icing? (GFA, CIP, FIP, prog charts, winds aloft, etc.)

Describe several operational techniques that will help you avoid a CFIT accident.

a. Maintain situational awareness at all times. b. Adhere to safe takeoff and departure procedures c. Familiarize yourself with surrounding terrain features and obstacles. d. Adhere to published routes and minimum altitudes. e. Fly a stabilized approach. f. Fly a stabilized approach g. Don't become complacent

What are several types of weather observing programs?

a. Manual observations -- Reports made from airport locations staffed by FAA or NWS personnel. b. AWOS -- Automated Weather Observing System, which consists of various sensors, a processor, a computer-generated voice sub-system, and a transmitter to broadcast local, minute-by-minute weather data directly to the pilot. Observations include the prefix "AUTO" in the data. c. AWOS Broadcasts -- Computer-generated voice is used to automate the broadcasts of minute-by-minute weather observations d. ASOS/AWSS -- Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)/Automated Weather Sensor System (AWOS), the primary US surface weather observing system. AWSS is a follow-on program that provides identical data as ASOS. The system provides continuous minute-by-minute observations generating METARs and other aviation weather information, transmitted over a discrete VHF radio frequency or the voice portion of a local NAVAID.

What are the two types of DPs?

a. ODPs (Obstacle Departure Procedures)--printed either textually or graphically, provide obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area to the appropriate enroute structure. ODPs are recommended for obstruction clearance and may be flown without ATC clearance unless an alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC. ODPs are published, when obstructions penetrate the 40:1 departure obstacle clearance surface (OCS). b. SIDs (Standard Instrument Departures)--always printed graphically. Standard Instrument Departures are air traffic control (ATC) procedures printed for pilot/controller use in graphic form to provide obstruction clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. SIDs are primarily designed for system enhancement and to reduce pilot/controller workload. ATC clearance must be received prior to flying a SID.

What are the essential components of all VOR indicator instruments?

a. Omnibearing selector (OBS) b. Course deviation indicator (CDI) c. TO/FROM indicator d. Flags or other signal strength indicators

What procedures can be used for maintaining situational awareness in technically advanced aircraft?

a. Perform verification checks of all programming prior to departure. b. Check the flight routing--ensure all routing matches the planned route of flight. c. Always verify waypoints. d. Make use of all onboard navigation equipment--use VOR to backup GPS, and vice versa. e. Match the use of the automated system with pilot proficiency--stay within personal limitations. f. Plan a realistic flight route to maintain situational awareness--ATC doesn't always give you direct routing. g. Be ready to verify computer data entries--incorrect keystrokes can lead to loss of situational awareness.

Name several types of fog.

a. Radiation fog b. Advection fog c. Upslope fog d. Frontal fog or precipitation-induced fog e. Steam fog

What is recommended recovery procedure for a roll upset?

a. Reduce the angle of attack by reducing aircraft pitch. In a turn, roll wings level. b. Set appropriate power and monitor the airspeed and angle of attack. A controlled descent is a vastly better alternative than an uncontrolled descent. c. If flaps are extended, do not retract them unless you can determine that the upper surface of the airfoil is clear of ice, because retracting the flaps will increase the AOA at a given airspeed. d. Verify that wing ice protection is functioning normally by visual observation of the left and right wing.

Pre-flight planning for taxi operations should be an integral part of the pilot's flight planning process. What information should this include?

a. Review and understand airport signage, marking and lighting. b. Review the airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify any hot spots. c. Review the latest airfield NOTAMs and ATIS (if available) for taxiway/runway closures, construction activity, etc. d. Conduct a pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing that includes the expected/assigned taxi route, any hold short lines and restrictions based on ATIS information or previous experience at the airport. e. Plan for critical times and locaitons on the taxi route (complex intersections, crossing runways, etc.) f. Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxi.

Give examples of weather charts you will use during the flight planning process.

a. Surface Analysis Chart b. Weather Depiction Chart (being phased out in favor of the CVA, or ceiling and visibility analysis) c. Significant Weather Prognostic Chart d. Short-Range Surface Prognostic Chart e. Convective Outlook Chart f. Constant Pressure Analysis Chart (being phased out in favor of upper air constant pressure level forecasts) g. Freezing Level Graphics

For the purposes of meeting the recent instrument experience requirements, what information must be recorded in the person's logbook?

a. The location and type of each instrument approach accomplished; and b. The name of the safety pilot, if required.

Prior to departing an airport on an IFR flight, a pilot should determine whether they will be able to ensure adequate separation from terrain and obstacles. What information should this include?

a. The type of terrain and other obstacles on or in the vicinity of the departure airport. b. Whether an ODP is available. c. If obstacle avoidance can be maintained visually or if the ODP should be flown. d. The effect of degraded climb performance and the actions to take in the event of an engine loss during the departure.

In the event that you inadvertently enter a thunderstorm, what recommended procedures should you follow?

a. Tighten your safety belt, put on your shoulder harness if you have one, and secure all loose objects. b. Keep your eyes on your instruments. Looking outside the cockpit can increase the danger of temporary blindness from lighting. c. Plan your course to take you through the storm in a minimum time and hold it. Don't turn back once you are in the thunderstorm. Remember that turning maneuvers increase stresses on the aircraft. d. To avoid the most critical icing, establish a penetration altitude below the freezing level or above the level of -15C. e. Turn on pitot heat and carburetor or jet inlet heat. Icing can be rapid at any altitude and cause almost instantaneous power failure or loss of airspeed indication. f. Establish power settings for reduced turbulence penetration airspeed recommended in your aircraft manual. Reduced airspeed lessens the structural stresses on the aircraft. g. Turn up cockpit lights to highest intensity to lessen danger of temporary blindness from lightning. h. If using automatic pilot, disengage altitude hold mode and speed hold mode. The automatic altitude and speed controls will increase maneuvers of the aircraft, thus increasing structural stresses. i. Maintain a constant attitude; let the aircraft "ride the waves." Maneuvers to try to maintain constant altitude increase stresses on the aircraft.

What are the intensity categories of aircraft structural icing?

a. Trace -- ice becomes noticeable; rate of accumulation slightly greater than rate of sublimation; a representative accretion rate for reference purposes is less than 1/4 inch (6mm) per hour on the outer wing. The pilot should consider exiting the icing conditions before they become worse. b. Light -- rate of ice accumulation requires occasional cycling of manual deicing systems to minimize ice accretions on the airframe. A representative accretion rate for reference purposes is 1/4 inch to 1 inch (0.6 to 2.5cm) per hour on the unprotected part of the outer wing. The pilot should consider exiting the icing condition. c. Moderate -- the rate of ice accumulation requires frequent cycling of manual deicing systems to minimize ice accretions on the airframe. A representative accretion rate for reference purposes is 1 to 3 inches (2.5 to 7.5cm) per hour on the unprotected part of the outer wing. The pilot should consider exiting the icing condition as soon as possible. d. Severe--the rate of ice accumulation is such that ice protection systems fail to remove the accumulation of ice and ice accumulates in locations not normally prone to icing. A representative accretion rate for reference purposes is more than 3 inches (7.5cm) per hour on the unprotected part of the outer wing. By regulation, immediate exit is required.

What are standard procedure turn limitations?

a. Turn on the depicted side. b. Adhere to depicted minimum altitudes. c. Complete the maneuver within the distance specified in the profile view. d. Maneuver at a maximum speed not greater than 200 knots (lAS).

What is the procedure for determining an intercept angle when intercepting a VOR radial?

a. Turn to a heading to parallel the desired course, in the same direction as the course to be flown. b. Determine the difference between the radial to be intercepted and the radial on which you are located. c. Double the difference to determine the interception angle, which will not be less than 20 degrees nor greater than 90 degrees. d. Rotate the OBS to the desired radial or inbound course. e. Turn to the interception heading. f. Hold this heading constant until the CDI centers, which indicates the aircraft is on course. (With practice in judging the varying rates of closure with the course centerline, you learn to lead the turn to prevent overshooting the course.) g. Turn to the MH corresponding to the selected course and follow tracing procedures inbound or outbound. Note: Steps a. through c. may be omitted if you turn directly to intercept the course without initially turning to parallel the desired course.

Explain additional strategies you would use to mitigate risk when considering a takeoff and departure in low IMC.

a. Use your pre-determined personal minimums. b. Determine if obstacles and/or rising terrain exist in the area around the airport. c. Determine if your departure airport has published takeoff minimums for your expected departure runway. d. Determine if obstacle departure procedures (ODPs) are available. e. Use Part 121/135 minimums (1 statute mile, 2 engines or less) as a minimum visibility for your departure. f. Consider delaying or cancelling your departure until ceilings/visibilities are equal to or higher than the lowest approach minimums for any approach at your departure airport.

What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?

a. VOT check; plus or minus 4 degrees b. Radio repair station test signal; plus or minus 4 degrees c. VOR ground checkpoint at departure airport: plus or minus 4 degrees d. VOR airborne checkpoint; plus or minus 6 degrees e. Airborne over prominent landmark along centerline of established VOR airway (more than 20 NM from VOR); plus or minus 6 degrees f. Dual VOR system check by checking one system against the other; both systems tuned to same VOR and note the indicated bearings to station; maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings is 4 degrees. The dual system check can be used in place of all other VOR check procedures specified. Note: A repair station can use a radiated test signal, but only the technician performing the test can make an entry in the logbook.

During preflight planning, how can you mitigate the total risk encountered enroute when the possibility of operating in or around icing conditions exists?

a. When determining routes, consider the climb performance of the airplane and the route's minimum altitude, particularly in mountainous terrain. Airplane climb performance will be degraded if ice is encountered. b. If the aircraft is loaded near maximum gross weight, climb performance will be degraded, which could increase the time spent in icing conditions. c. Determine icing exit strategies during preflight. Determine if climbing or descending will be viable options based on the planned route of flight. This includes required altitude in order to maintain clearance from terrain, airspace, published routes, departure procedures, arrival procedures and approaches. d. Extra fuel may be necessary because of fuel needed to operate icing systems. Additionally, excess drag or weight caused by ice formation may require extra power to maintain altitude or airspeed, increasing fuel consumption. e. When choosing alternate airports, remember that if structural icing occurs, higher approach speeds and consequently additional runway length may be required for landing.

What reporting requirements are required by ATC when not in radar contact?

a. When leaving final approach fix inbound on the final (non-precision) approach, or when leaving the outer marker (or fix used in lieu of the outer marker) inbound on final (precision) approach. b. A corrected estimate at anytime it becomes apparent that an estimate as previously submitted is in error in excess of 2 minutes. For flights in the North Atlantic (NAT), a revised estiamte is required if the error is 3 minutes or more.

Both communication receivers have failed. In what other way could you receive atc instructions with cell phone or handheld radio unavailable?

light signal; monitor VOR with voice reception

ATC will issue speed adjustments to pilots of radar controlled aircraft. Pilots complying with speed adjustments are expected to maintain speed within what tolerance?

plus or minus 10 knots

What are the alternate airport requirements? (91.169c)

1-2-3 Rule--If from 1 hour before to 1 hour after your planned ETA at the destination airport, the weather is forecast to be at least 2,000 ft ceilings and 3 mile visibilities, no alternate is required. If less than 2,000 and 3 miles, an alternate must be filed using the following criteria: a. If an IAP is published for that airport, the alternate airport minimums specified in that procedure or, if none are specified, the following minimums-- --Precision approach procedure: ceiling 600 ft and visibility 2 statute miles --Nonprecision approaches: ceiling 800 ft and visibility 2 statute miles b. If no IAP has been published for that airport, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

What requirements must be met before a pilot can log an IAP for currency or training?

1. When conducted in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, the pilot must operate that aircraft or authorized training device solely by reference to instruments. 2. When conducted in an aircraft, full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, the pilot must be established on each required segment of the IAP to the minimum descent altitude (MDA) or decision altitude/decision height (DA/DH) 3. When conducted in an aircraft simulating instrument flight conditions, a full flight simulator, a flight training device, or an aviation training device, the simulated instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) must continue to MDA or DA/DH 4. When conducted in an aircraft, the flight must be conducted under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions. 5. When conducted in an aircraft maneuvering in IMC, the aircraft transitions from IMC to visual flight conditions on the final approach segment of the IAP prior to or upon reaching MDA or DA/DH.

If the air temperature is +6C at an airport elevation of 1,200 ft and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?

4,200 MSL; 6C at the surface divided by the average temperature lapse rate of 2C results in a 3,000 ft freezing level, converted to sea level by adding the 1,200 ft airport elevation.

After filing an IFR flight plan, can you depart VFR and pick up your IFR clearance in the air?

A VFR departure can be used as a tool that allows you to get off the ground without having to wait for a time slot in the IFR system; however, departing VFR with the intent of receiving an IFR clearance in the air can also present serious hazards worth considering. A VFR departure dramatically changes the takeoff responsibilities for you and for ATC: a. Upon receiving clearance for a VFR departure, you are cleared to depart; however, you must maintain separation between yourself and other traffic. b. You are also repsonsible for maintaining terrain and obstruction clearance as well as remaining in VFR weather conditions. You cannot fly in IMC without first receiving your IFR clearance. c. Departing VFR relieves ATC of these duties, and basically requires them only to provide you with safety alerts as workload permits. d. You must maintain VFR until you have obtained your IFR clearance and have ATC approval to proceed on course in accordance with your clearance. If you accept this clearance and are below the minimum IFR altitude for operations in the area, you accept responsibility for terrain/obstruction clearance until you reach that altitude.

What conditions are necessary for a pilot to log instrument time? (61.51)

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

If a pilot allows his/her instrument currency to expire, what can be done to become current again? (61.57, 91.109)

A pilot is current for the first 6 months following his/her instrument checkride or proficiency check. If the pilot has not accomplished at least 6 approaches (including holding procedures, intercepting/tracking courses through the use of navigation systems) within this first 6 months, he/she is no longer legal to file and fly under IFR. To become legal again, the regulations allow a "grace period" (the second 6-month period), in which a pilot may get current by finding an "appropriately rated" safety pilot, and in simulated IFR conditions only, acquire the 6 approaches, etc. If the second 6-month period also passes without accomplishing the minimum, a pilot may reinstate his/her currency by accomplishing an instrument proficiency check given by an examiner, an authorized instructor, or an FAA-approved person to conduct instrument practical tests.

How does an altimeter work?

A sensitive altimeter is an aneroid barometer that measures the absolute pressure of the ambient air and displays it in terms of feet or meters above a selected pressure level. The "sensitive element" in a sensitive altimeter is a stack of evacuated, corrugated bronze aneroid capsules. The air pressure acting on these aneroids tries to compress them against their natural springiness, which tries to expand them. The result is that their thickness changes as the air pressure changes. Stacking several aneroids increases the dimension change as the pressure varies over the usable range of the instrument.

When utilizing GPS for IFR navigation, are you required to have an alternate means of navigation appropriate for the route of flight?

Aircraft using GPS TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 (non-WAAS) navigation equipment under IFR must be equipped with an approved and operational alternate means of navigation appropriate to the flight. During preflight, ensure that this equipment is onboard and operational, and that all required checks have been performed (e.g., 30-day VOR check). Active monitoring of alternate navigation equipment is not required if the GPS receiver uses RAIM for integrity monitoring. Active monitoring of an alternate means of navigation is required when the RAIM capability of the GPS equipment is lost. Note: Aircraft equipped with a WAAS receiver may use WAAS as a primary means of navigation. No additional equipment is required.

What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight? (91.9, 91.203)

Airworthiness Certificate Registration Certificate Radio Station License (international) Operating Limitations Weight and Balance Data Compass Deviation Card External Data Plate/Serial Number

What are "area charts?"

Area charts show congested terminal areas such as DFW or Atlanta at a large scale. They are included with subscriptions to any conterminous US set Low (Full set, East or West sets). Revised every 56 days.

What is the definition of the term "ceiling"?

Ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as "broken," "overcast," or "obscuration," and not classified as "thin" or "partial."

When logging instrument time, what should be included in each logbook entry (61.51)

Each entry must include the location and type of each instrument approach accomplished and the name of the safety pilot, if required.

What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts?

Enroute high-altitude charts are designed for navigation at or above 18,000 ft MSL. This four-color chart series includes the jet route structure; VHF NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic cooridnates; selected airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.

What is the definition of the term "flight time?" (14 CFR Part 1)

Flight time means pilot time that commences when an aircraft moves under its own power for the purpose of flight and ends when the aircraft comes to rest after landing.

What corrective action is needed if the pitot tube freezes? If the static port freezes?

For pitot tube -- Turn pitot heat on For static system -- Use alternate air if available or break the glass on the VSI. The VSI is not required for instrument flight and breaking the glass provides the altimter and the ASI a source of static pressure.

What restrictions apply concerning filing an airport as an alternate when using TSO-C129 and TSO C-196 (non-WAAS) GPS equipment?

For the purpose of flight planning, any required alternate airport must have an available instrument approach procedure that does not require the use of GPS. This restriction includes conducting a conventional approach at the alternate airport using a substitute means of navigation that is based upon the use of GPS. For example, these restrictions would apply when planning to use GPS equipment as a substitute means of navigation for an out-of-service VOR that supports an ILS missed approach procedure at an alternate airport. In this case, some other approach not reliant upon the use of GPS must be available. This restriction does not apply to RNAV systems using TSO-C145/-146 WAAS equipment.

During the preflight inspection in an aircraft that doesn't have an MEL, you notice that an instrument or equipment item is inoperative. Describe how you will determine if the aircraft is still airworthy for flight.

I will ask myself the following questions to determine if I can legally fly the airplane with the inoperative equipment item: a. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment part of the VFR-day type certification? b. Are the inoperative instrument or equipment listed as "Required" on the aircraft's equipment list or "Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL)" for the type of flight operation being conducted? c. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required by 14 CFR 91.205, 91.207 or any other rule of 14 CFR Part 91 for the specific kind of flight operation being conducted? (For example, VFR, IFR, day, night.) d. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required to be operational by an AD? If the answer is "Yes" to any of these questions, the aircraft is not airworthy and maintenance is required before I can fly. If the answer is "No" to any of these questions, then the inoperative instruments or equipment must be removed (by an A&P) from the aircraft, or deactivated and placarded "Inoperative."

What instrument indications should you expect to observe should it become necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane?

In many unpressurized aircraft equipped with a pitot-static tube, an alternate source of static pressure is provided for emergency use. If the alternate source is vented inside the airplane where static pressure is usually lower than outside, selection of the alternate static source may result in the following indications: Altimeter -- will indicate higher than actual altitude Airspeed -- will indicate greater than actual airspeed Vertical speed -- will show a momentary climb, then stabilize, if in level flight Note: Always consult the POH/AFM to determine the amount of error

What are the different types of aircraft speeds?

Indicated Airspeed -- IAS is shown on the dial of the instrument, uncorrected for instrument or system errors. Calibrated Airspeed -- CAS is the speed at which the aircraft is moving through the air, which is found by correcting IAS for instrument and position errors. The POH/AFM has a chart or graph to correct IAS for these errors and provide the correct CAS for the various flap and landing gear configurations. Equivalent Airspeed -- EAS is CAS corrected for compression of the air inside the pitot tube. EAS is the same as CAS in standard atmosphere at sea level. As the airspeed and pressure altitude increase, the CAS becomes higher than it should be, and a correction for compression must be subtracted from the CAS. True Airspeed -- TAS is CAS corrected for nonstandard pressure and temperature. TAS and CAS are the same in standard atmosphere at sea level. Under nonstandard conditions, TAS is found by applying a correction for pressure altitude and temperature to the CAS.

Define and state how to determine the following altitudes: Indicated altitude True altitude Absolute altitude Pressure altitude Density altitude

Indicated altitude--altitude is read directly from the altimeter (uncorrected) after it is set to the current altimeter setting (QNH) in the Kollsman window. True altitude--the vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level (MSL). Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations on aeronautical charts and true altitudes. Absolute altitude--vertical distance above the terrain, above ground level (AGL). An altimeter set to the proper pressure reading (QFE setting) indicates zero feet at touchdown. It is referred to as QFE. Pressure altitude--indicated altitude with altimeter set to 29.92 in. Hg. Pressure altitude is used to compute density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed (TAS), and other performance data. Density altitude--pressure altitude corrected for variations from standard temperature.

While enroute in IMC, ATC clears you to climb to a new altitude. After establishing the appropriate pitch attitude and power setting, your altimeter and VSI correctly indicate a climb, but your airspeed is increasing. What could be the problem?

Moisture (including ice), insects, or other foreign matter may have caused a pitot tube blockage. If the pitot tube ram pressure hole and drain hole have become obstructed, the ASI operates like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends. During a climb, the airspeed increases; during a descent, the airspeed decreases. The danger is that a pilot will not recognize the problem and during a climb, will attempt to reduce airspeed by increasing pitch attitude and/or reducing power, possibly resulting in a stall in IMC.

Does adjusting the altimeter's Kollsman window have any effect on the altitude that is displayed to an ATC controller? Why?

No, the encoding altimeter measures the pressure referenced to 29.92 in. Hg (pressure altitude) and delivers this data to the transponder. When a pilot adjusts the barometric scale to the local altimeter setting, the data sent to the transponder is not affected. This is to ensure that all Mode C aircraft are transmitting altitude data referenced to a common pressure level. ATC equipment adjusts the displayed altitudes to compensate for local pressure differences allowing display of targets at correct altitudes.

Must a flight instructor be present if you are planning on using an aviation training device to maintain your IFR currency? (61.51, 61.57)

No. A pilot may accomplish the recency of experience requirements in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device, provided the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating priveleges to be maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A logbook or training record must specify the training device, time, and the content. An instructor is not required to be present.

You have just executed a missed approach at your destination airport due to un-forecast weather and during the climb, you are unable to contact ATC. You make the decision to proceed to your filed alternate. Does ATC know what your filed alternate is? Can you divert to a different alternate than what is filed?

No. Although alternate airport information filed in a flight plan will be accepted by air traffic computer systems, it will not be presented to controllers. If diversion to an alternate airport becomes necessary, pilot are expected to notify ATC and request an amended clearance. There is no requirement for you to proceed to your filed alternate. You may select any airport that you determine is appropriate, considering actual conditions (weather, fuel remaining, etc.) at the time. Note: In this case, if unable to contact ATC, you would proceed to your alternate or any other airport that you determine is necessary and will result in a safe outcome for your flight. Selecting and filing an alternate is mainly a fuel planning requirement and is done to ensure that you have enough fuel to execute a plan B in the event you cannot land at your destination.

When flying an IAP in IMC, does the FAA require the ceiling to be at MDA or DA/DH before the approach may be logged?

No; the two possible outcomes are the aircraft will transition from IMC to VMC allowing a landing (in accordance with 91.175), or the aircraft will remain in IMC and execute a missed approach at the MAP or DA/DH. In both cases, the pilot may log the IAP.

What are NOTAMs?

Notice to Airmen - time critical aeronautical information which is of either a temporary nature or not sufficiently known in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications receives immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM system. It is aeronautical information that could affect a pilot's decision to make a flight. It includes such information as airport or primary runway closures, changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS's, radar service availability, and other information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations.

What are the various compass error?

Oscillation error -- Erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique Deviation error -- Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the aircraft Variation error -- Angular differences between true and magnetic north; reference isogonic lines of variation. Dip errors: a. Acceleration error -- On east or west headings, while accelerating, the magnetic compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south. b. Northerly turning error -- As the airplane turns, the force that results from the magnetic dip causes the float assembly to swing in the opposite direction that the float turns resulting in a false turn indication opposite from the direction of actual turn. Because of this lag of the compass card, or float assembly, a northerly turn should be continued past arrival at the desired heading by the lag correction value. One rule of thumb to correct for this lag error is to continue the turn 15 degrees plus half of the latitude. c. Southerly turning error -- When turning in a southerly direction ,the forces are such that the compass float assembly leads rather than lags resulting in a flase excessive turn indication. The compass card, or float assembly, should not be allowed to exceed teh rollout point. To correct for this leading error, the aircraft should not be allowed to pass the rollout lead point ahead of the desired compass heading by 15 degrees + half of the latitude.

As an instrument rated pilot, can you fly IFR under BasicMed?

Pilots can fly as BasicMed (in covered aircraft) under VFR or IFR. There is no prohibition against flying in IMC, but BasicMed doesn't change the requirement to hold an instrument rating and be instrument current to act as PIC under IFR. Further, BasicMed does not relieve an aircraft from the requirement to be approved for IFR operations for flight under IFR.

What instrument approach procedures may you flight plan to use as the planned approach at the required alternate when using TSO-C145/-C146 (WAAS) equipment?

Pilots with TSO-C145/C146 WAAS receivers may flight plan to use any instrument approach procedure authorized for use with their WAAS avionics as the planned approach at a required alternate, with certain restrictions.

Before conducting an IFR flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what basic preflight checks should be made?

Preflight preparations should include: a. Verify that the GPS is properly installed and certified for the planned IFR operation. b. Verify that the databases (navigation, terrain, obstacle, etc.) have not expired. c. Review GPS and WAAS NOTAMs. d. Review GPS RAIM availability for non-WAAS receivers. e. Review operational status of ground-based NAVAIDs and related aircraft equipment (e.g., 30-day VOR check) appropriate to the route of flight, terminal operations, instrument approaches at the destination, and alternate airports at ETA. f. Determine that the GPS receiver operation manual or airplane flight manual supplement is onboard and available for use.

When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?

Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace, a pilot must submit a complete flight plan and receive clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR minimums. The pilot should file the flight plan at least 30 minutes prior to the estimated time of departure to preclude a possible delay in receiving a departure clearance from ATC.

Explain the function of RAIM.

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) is the self-monitoring function performed by a TSO-129 certified GPS receiver to ensure that adequate GPS signals are being received at all times. The GPS alerts the pilot whenever the integrity monitoring determines that the GPS signals do not meet the criteria for safe navigation use.

During preflight you notice several static discharge wicks are missing from your airplane. Explain the function of the static wicks and the problems that could occur inflight if they are missing.

Static dischargers, or wicks, are installed on aircraft to reduce radio receiver interference caused by corona discharge emitted from the aircraft as a result of precipitation static. Precipitation static occurs when an aircraft encounters airborne particles during flight (rain or snow) and develops a negative charge. The problems created by P-static range from serious, such as complete loss of VHF communications and erroneous magnetic compass readings, to the annoyance of high-pitched audio squealing.

When is a RAIM check required?

TSO-C129 (non-WAAS) equipped aircraft--If TSO-C129 (non-WAAS) equipment is used to solely satisfy the RNAV and RNP requirement, GPS RAIM availability must be confirmed for the intended route of flight (route and time) using current GPS satellite information.

What conditions must exist in order to log "actual" instrument flight time?

The FAA has never defined the term "actual" instrument time. 14 CFR Part 61 defines "instrument flight time" as that flight time when a person operates an aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions. A reasonable guideline for determining when to log "actual instrument time" would be any flight time that is accumulated in IMC conditions with flight being conducted solely by reference to instruments. The definition of IMC is weather conditions below the VFR minimums specified for visual meteorological conditions. VFR minimums are found in 14 CFR 91.155.

How does the vertical-speed indicator work?

The VSI is a rate-of-pressure change instrument that gives an indication of any deviation from a constant pressure level. Inside the VSI instrument case is an aneroid. Both the inside of the aneroid and the inside of the instrument case are vented to the static system. The case is vented through a calibrated orifice that causes the pressure inside the case to change more slowly than the pressure inside the aneroid. Changing pressures inside the case and the aneroid compress and expand the aneroid, moving the pointer upward or downward indicating a climb, a descent, or level flight.

How does the airspeed indicator operate?

The airspeed indicator measures the difference between ram pressure from the pitot head and atmospheric pressure from the static source.

How does the attitude indicator work?

The gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon and is fixed to the gyro; it remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.

What information does the turn coordinator provide?

The miniature aircraft in the turn coordinator displays the rate of turn, rate of roll and direction of turn. The ball in the tube indicates the quality of turn (slip or skid). Skip -- ball on the inside of turn; not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank Skid -- ball to the outside of turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank

How does a pilot determine the type and status of an instrument approach light system at the destination airport?

The pilot should checks the Chart Supplement US and any NOTAMs to determine the availability and status of lighting systems, light intensities and radio-controlled light system frequencies. An FSS briefer will also have access to any recent changes in the status of airport lighting systems.

How can a pilot determine what type of operations a GPS receiver is approved for?

The pilot should reference the FAA-approved AFM and AFM supplements to determine the limitations and operating procedures for the particular GPS equipment installed.

What are the recency-of-experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR? (14 CFR 61.57)

The recency-of-experience requirements are: a. A flight review; b. To carry passengers, 3 takeoffs and landing within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category, class and type, if a type rating is required (landings must be full stop at night or in tailwheel) c. Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of flight, performed and logged in actual weather conditions or under simulated conditions using a view-limiting device, at least the following tasks in an airplane: -Six instrument approaches -Holding procedures and tasks -Intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems. Note: 14 CFR 61.57 allows the use of an aircraft and/or a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for maintaining instrument experience, subject to certain limitations. Remember: 6-6-HIT. 6 approaches in previous 6 months including Holding, Intercepting, and Tracking courses.

On takeoff, as you climb away from the runway into IMC, you notice that your vertical speed indicator is indicating zero, you airspeed indicator is still alive but doesn't seem accurate, and the altimeter is frozen. What is the problem?

The static system is blocked and you would observe the following: Airspeed indicator -- Accurate at the altitude frozen as long as static pressure in the indicator and the system equals outside pressure. If the aircraft descends, the airspeed indicator would read high (outside static pressure would be greater than that trapped). If the aircraft climbs, the airspeed indicator would read low. Altimeter -- Indicates the altitude at which the system is blocked. Vertical speed -- will indicate level flight

What do the NOTAM terms "UNRELIABLE" and "MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE" indicate when used in conjunction with GPS and WAAS NOTAMs?

The terms "UNRELIABLE" and "MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE" are cautions indicating that the expected level of service might not be available. "UNRELIABLE" does not mean there is a problem with GPS signal integrity. If GPS service is available, pilots may continue operations. If the LNAV or LNAV/VNAV service is available, pilots may use the displayed level of service to fly the approach. The term MAY NOT BE AVBL is used in conjunction with WAAS NOTAMs and indicates that due to ionospheric conditions, lateral guidance may still be available when vertical guidance is unavailable. Under certain conditions, both lateral and vertical guidance might be unavailable. This NOTAM language is a pilot advisory that the expected level of WAAS service (LNAV/VNAV, LPV, LP) might not be available.

How does the turn coordinator operate?

The turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied, thus moving the miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The inclinometer in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid. The ball measures the relative strength of the force of gravity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.

How does the vacuum system operate?

The vacuum or pressure system spins the gyro by drawing a stream of air against the rotor vanes to spin the rotor at high speeds, essentially the same as a water wheel or turbine operates. The amount of vacuum or pressure required for instrument operation varies by manufacturer and is usually between 4.5 to 5.5 in. Hg. One source of vacuum for the gyros installed in light aircraft is the vane-type engine-driven pump, mounted on the accessory case of the engine.

What are the limitations of the heading indicator?

They vary with the particular design and make of instrument: on some heading indicators in light airplanes, the limits are approximately 55 degrees of pitch and 55 degrees of bank. When either of these attitude limits are exceeded, the instrument "tumbles" or "spills" and no longer gives the correct indication until it is reset with the caging knob. Many modern instruments used are designed in such a manner that they will not tumble.

What aircraft instruments/equipment are required for IFR operations? (91.205)

Those required for VFR day and nigh flight plus: Generator/Alternator Radios Altimeter (sensitive) Ball (slip/skid indicator of turn coordinator) Clock Attitude indicator Rate of turn (turn coordinator) Directional gyro DME or RNAV (for flight at FL240 and above if VOR equipment is required for the route)

Name several types of power sources commonly used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an aircraft.

Various power sources used are: electrical, pneumatic, venturi tube, wet-type vacuum pump, and dry-air pump systems. Aircraft and instrument manufacturers have designed redundancy into the flight instruments so that any single failure will not deprive the pilot of his/her ability to safely conclude the flight. Gyroscopic instruments are crucial for instrument flight; therefore, they are powered by separate electrical or pneumatic sources. Typically, the heading indicator and attitude indicator will be vacuum-drive and the turn coordinator electrically-drive. Note: It is extremely important that pilots consult the POH/AFM to determine the power source of all instruments to know what action to take in the event of an instrument failure.

When is an instrument rating required? (61.3, 61.133, 91.135, 91.157)

When operations are conducted: a. Under instrument flight rules (IFR flight plan) b. In weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight, c. In Class A airspace, d. Under Special VFR within Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas between sunset and sunrise. e. When carrying passengers for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night.

What restrictions apply to flight planning when using WAAS avionics at the alternate airport?

When using WAAS avionics at an alternate airport, flight planning must be based on flying the RNAV (GPS) LNAV or circling minima line, or minima on a GPS approach procedure, or conventional approach procedure with "or GPS" in the the title. 14 CFR Part 91 non-precision weather requirements must be used for planning. Upon arrival at an alternate, when the WAAS navigation system indicates that LNAV/VNAV or LPV service is available, then vertical guidance may be used to complete the approach using the displayed level of service.

What airspeeds are indicated by the various color codes found on the dial of an airspeed indicator?

White arc -- flap operating range Lower limit of white arc -- stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration Upper limit of the white arc -- maximum speed with flaps extended Green arc -- normal operating range Lower limit of green arc -- stall speed or minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specified or clean configuration Upper limit of green arc -- maximum structural cruising speed (do not exceed this speed except in smooth air) Yellow arc -- caution range; fly within this range only in smooth air, and then, only with caution Red line -- never exceed speed; operating above this speed is prohibited; may result in damage or structural failure

Are you required to have an instructor present when using time in an FFS, FTD, or ATD to acquire instrument aeronautical experience for a pilot certificate or rating? (61.51)

Yes, an instructor must be present. A person may use time in a full flight simulator, flight training device, or aviation training device for acquiring instrument aeronautical experience for a pilot certificate or rating, provided an authorized instructor is present to observe that time and signs the person's logbook or training record to verify the time and the content of the training session.

Are electronic chart systems (electronic flight bags) approved for use as a replacement for paper reference material (POH and supplements, charts, etc.) in the cockpit?

Yes: electronic flight bags (EFBs) can be used during all phases of flight operations in lieu of paper reference material when the information displayed is the functional equivalent of the paper reference material replaced and is current, up-to-date, and valid. It is recommended that a secondary or back-up source of aeronautical information necessary for the flight be available.

During preflight planning, you notice that your destination airport has no published instrument approach procedure. The weather is forecast to be 3,000 ft ceilings with 5 miles of visibility within the 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA. Are you required to file an alternate airport? (91. 169)

Yes; 14 CFR 91.169 requires that each person filing an IFR flight plan must include in it the following information: a. Information required under 14 CFR 91.153 (VFR flight plan information), and b. An alternate airport. An alternate airport must be included in the IFR flight plan unless the conditions prescribed in 14 CFR 91.169(b)(1) and (2) are satisfied: 91.169(b)(1)...The first airport of intended landing has a Part 97 standard instrument approach procedure (SIAP) or a special instrument approach procedure issued by the Administrator; and 91.169(b)(2)...Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate the following for at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the ETA, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 ft above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles." In this case, the first airport of intended landing does not have a published SIAP, although it does have the required weather of at least 2,000 ft ceilings and 3 statute miles visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA. Therefore, the requirements of 91.169(b)(1) and (2) have not been completely satisfied and the pilot is required to include the information specified in 91.169(a)(1) and (2).

Explain the following types of NOTAMs: (D) NOTAMs, FDC NOTAMs, Pointer NOTAMs, Military NOTAMs, and SAA NOTAMs.

a. (D) NOTAMs--Information that requires wide dissemination via telecommunication, regarding enroute navigational aids, civil public-use airports listed in the Chart Supplement US, facilities, services, and procedures b. FDC NOTAMs--Flight information that is regulatory in nature including, but not limited to, changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage c. POINTER NOTAMs--issued by a flight service station to highlight or point out another NOTAM; for example, an FDC NOTAM. These NOTAMs assist users in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID identifier. d. MILITARY NOTAMs--these pertain to US Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy navigational aids/airports that are part of the NAS. e. SAA NOTAMs--issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required; SAA includes special use airspace (restricted area, military operations area (MOA), warning area, and alert area airspace), instrument and visual military training routes, aerial refueling tracks and anchors.

Where can NOTAM information be obtained?

a. Call the flight service station b. NOTAM search FAA.gov c. Flight service flight briefing d. Flight information services (FIS-B via ADS-B In). Note: The NOTAM-D and NOTAM-FDC products broadcast via FIS-B are limited to those issued or effective within the past 30 days. Except for TFRs, NOTAMs older than 30 days are not provided.

What types of errors is the altimeter subject to?

a. Mechanical errors -- Differences between ambient temperature and/or pressure can cause an erroneous indication on the altimeter. b. Inherent errors -- Non-standard temperature and pressure. -Warmer than standard air -- The air is less dense and the pressure levels are farther apart. The pressure level for a given altitude is higher than it would be in air at standard temperature, and the aircraft is higher than it would be if the air were cooler. True altitude is higher than indicated altitude whenever the temperature is warmer than ISA. -Colder than standard air -- The air is denser and the pressure levels are closer together. The pressure level for a given altitude is lower than it would be in air at standard temperature, and the aircraft is lower than it would be if the air were warmer. True altitude is lower than indicated altitude whenever the temperature is colder than ISA. -Extreme cold altimeter errors -- A correctly calibrated pressure altimeter indicates true altitude above mean sea level (MSL) when operating within ISA parameters of pressure and temperature. When operating in extreme cold temperatures (i.e., +10 - -50C), pilots may wish to compensate for the reduction in terrain clearance by adding a cold temperature correction. -High pressure to low pressure -- If an aircraft is flown from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure without adjusting the altimeter, the true altitude of the aircraft will be lower than indicated altitude -Low pressure to high pressure -- If an aircraft is flown from an area of low pressure to an area of higher pressure without adjusting the altimeter, the true altitude of the aircraft will be higher than indicated altitude.

What are several methods a pilot can use to satisfy the predictive RAIM requirement (RAIM check(?

a. Operators may contact a Flight Service Station to obtain non-precision approach RAIM. Briefers will provide RAIM information for a period of 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, unless a specific time frame is requested by the pilot. b. Use the Service Availability Prediction Tool (SAPT) on the FAA enroute and terminal RAIM prediction tool at: http://sapt.faa.gov/default.php c. Use a third-party interface, incorporating FAA/Volpe Center Raim prediction data without altering performance values to predict RAIM outages for the aircraft's predicted flight path and times. d. Use the receiver's installed RAIM prediction capability (for TSO-C129a/CLass A1/B1/C1 equipment) to provide non-precision approach RAIM.

What other useful information can be found in the Chart Supplement US which might be helpful in route planning?

a. Special notices--prohibited areas, aerobatic and glider practice areas, noise abatement etc. b. ARTCCs--low and high altitude transmitter site frequencies c. FSS frequencies d. Routes/waypoints--low and high altitude preferred routes; VFR waypoints e. GPS Q routes f. VOR receiver checkpoints and VOTs h. Aeronautical chart bulletins