ISTQB_FULL

33. You are testing a scale system that determines shipping rates for a regional Web-based auto parts distributor. Identify how many equivalence classes are necessary for following range? Weight

1-10lb 11-25lb 26-40lb 41-50lb 51-100lb Shipping Cost $5 5 $7. $12 $17 $25 a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

.27. Which of following is Not a typical Entry Criteria? [K1] a. Estimates of defect density or reliability measures b. Test environment availability and readiness c. Test tool readiness in test environment d. Testable code availability

a

.33. For a formal review, at what point in the process are the entry and exit criteria defined? a. Planning b. Review initiation c. Individual review d. Fixing and reporting

a

21. When should configuration management procedures be implemented? a. During test planning b. During test analysis. c. During test execution. d. When evaluating exit criteria

a

29. : Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the specification of a component? a. Black Box Techniques. b. White Box Techniques c. Glass Box Techniques d. Experience Based Techniques

a

Which of the statements about reviews are correct? A. it is not useful to in review of specifications because it can bias them B. Reviews are useful because they help management to assign responsibility of failure on individual developers. C. Reviews can help find bugs early resulting in savings of cost. D. Requirement of additional time for reviews is likely to result in longer development cycle. A. C is true; A, B and D are false B. A&C are true; B&D are false C. D is true; A, B and C are false D. A&C are true; B &D are false

a

.05. What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk? a. Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues&&& product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages b. Project risks are the risks that surround the project's capability to deliver its objectives&&& product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system c. Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work&&& product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues d. Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system&&& product risks are risks that surround the project's capability to deliver its objectives.

b

.05. Which describes about the Pesticide paradox is one of Seven Principles of Testing ? a. Testing is done differently in different context. For example, safety-critical software is tested differently from an ecommerce site b. If the same tests are repeated over and over again, no new defects can be found. • To overcome this pesticide paradox, test cases need to be regularly reviewed and revised& new and different tests need to be written to exercise different parts of the software to find potentially more defects c. Test everything (all combination of inputs and preconditions) is not feasible. Instead of exhaustive testing, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts d. To find early defects, testing activities should start as early as possible in the software or software development life cycle and should focus on defined objectives

b

.05. Which of following is the development model that the planing start early, testing start lately in the lifecycle? a. Iterative models b. Sequential models c. Agile models d. Spiral models

b

.05. Which of standards define the software characteristic of testing example: reliability, Efficiency, Maintainability a. IEEE829 b. ISO 25010 c. ISO 27000 d. BS 7925_1

b

.06. Which of roles and responsibilities should be selected in formal review? a. The manager: vice of review leader b. The moderator or leader: This is the chair of the review meeting. c. The reviewers: writes down the findings d. The scribe: review the item under review

b

.07. The following program part is given: IF (condition A) or (condition B) Then DO C END IF How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% decision coverage? Select one: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

b

.10. In below specification, How many different valid combinations of inputs exist for computing the price? [K4] [Specification] Vietnam Railway company runs a train from HCM City to Hanoi City. This train has four different kinds of accommodation with different ticket prices: "Hard seat", "Soft seat", "Hard sleeper", "Soft sleeper". For "hard sleeper", there are different price for lower and upper berth. For "Soft sleeper", there is a different price for lower, middle and upper berth. For sleeping accommodation, different for compartments with own bathroom and air condition. High-speed trains exist, but have only hard and soft seat, and they have another price than "Normal" trains. a. 18 b. 24 c. 36 d. 48

b

.10. This testing includes regression testing to parts of the system that have not been changed. The scope of this testing is related to the risk of the change, the size of the existing system and to the size of the change. What is this testing? [K1] a. Structural testing b. Maintenance testing c. Re-testing d. Interoperability testing

b

.10. Which of the following is a black box design technique? a. statement testing b. equivalence partitioning c. error- guessing d. usability testing

b

.11. Integration testing has this fundamental purpose: [K2] a. Testing components together in a hierarchical, incremental way like top-down or bottom-up. b. Testing interfaces between components, interactions between different parts of the system, as well as interfaces between systems. c. Testing the new system together with the systems existing before. d. Testing the client part together with different other layers of the software (like for example, application server code, database server code etc.).

b

.11. What is the fundamental difference between "static analysis" and test? [K2] a. Static analysis is applied only in the early phase, test only in the late phases of the software life cycle b. Static analysis is done without executing the test object. A test is an examination during "run time" c. Static analysis checks only documents without a formal structure. Test checks software systems d. Static analysis can be applied at any time during the software life cycle. Test can only be applied after implementation

b

.13. How many rows will this table have?... [K3] a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

b

.31. Usability testing is an example of which type of testing? a. Functional b. Non-functional c. Structural d. Change-related

b

.35. What is the benefit of independent testing? a. More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time b. Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers c. Independent testers do not need extra education and training d. Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process

b

.36. As a test manager you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in your report? a. The number of test cases using Black Box techniques. b. A summary of the major testing activities, events and its status in respect of meeting goals. c. Overall evaluation of each development work item d. Training taken by members of the test team to support the test effort.

b

.36. If test cases are derived from looking at the code, what type of test design technique is being used? a. Black-box b. White-box c. Specification-based d. Behavior-based

b

.36. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:- i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author). ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations iii. Formal Follow up process. iv. Main Objective is to find defects a. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false b. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false c. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true d. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

b

.40. Who is normally responsible for the creation and update of a test plan for a project? a. The project manager b. The test manager c. The tester d. The product owner

b

.45. What is the test basis? a. The point during software development when testing should start b. The body of knowledge used for test analysis and design c. The source to determine the actual results from a set of tests d. The methods used to systermatically devise test conditions

b

.47. Which of following is the purpose of a proof-of-concept for a new tool? a. To verify that the liciensing cost is affordable b. To verify that the tool will work effectively within the current infrastructure c. To verify that the vendor will provide adequate support d. To verify that the return on investement will be sufficient

b

01. What principle is best described when test designs are written by a third party? a. Exploratory testing b. Independent testing c. Integration testing d. Interoperability testing

b

07. Which of the following are included as part of static testing?:,:[K2] Inspections, execution of the software, and walldhroughs. Inspection of work products and analysis of software artifacts using tools. Walldhroughs, simulation, and defect tracking. Inspections, walkthroughs, and comparison of expected to actual results

b

08. Who typically use static analysis tools? a. Customers and users b. Developers and designers c. Business and systems analysts d. System and acceptance testers

b

09. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing: User Acceptance Test Cases Integration Level Test Cases Unit Level Test Cases Program specifications

b

100

b

27. State transition testing is used to test the ability of the software are to enter into and exit from defined states via valid and invalid transitions. Given the following state transition diagram, how many test cases are required to cover 100% 1-switch coverage respectively from 1st try?[K4] a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

b

Which of following is suitable explanation about testing principle? One tester has tested software applications running on mobile phone for 5 years. He has great deal of information for testing the applications and is able to test faster than anyone else. However, he has not put sufficient efforts for deriving new test cases and modifying them to find new defects any longer, which led to finding less and less defects. What is the basic test principle that he has ignored? A. Early testing B. Pesticide paradox C. Absence-of-errors fallacy D. Defect clustering

b

"03. From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?: i) Identifying the version of software under test. ii) Controlling the version of testware items. iii) Developing new testware items. iv) Tracking changes to testw are items. v) Analysing the need for new testware items. " a. ii, iv and v b. ii, iii and iv c. i, ii and iv d. i, iii and v

c

"36. Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test tools? i) Easy to access information about tests and testing. ii) Reduced maintenance of testware. iii) Easy and cheap to implement. iv) Greater consistency of tests." a. ii and iv b. ii and iii c. i and iv d. i and iii

c

.01. Methodical approaches use which of following test techniques? a. Risk based b. Expert based c. Failure based d. Exploratory testing

c

.03. Ms. Lan is a tester in software development company is performing a test. She notices an unusual amount of network access during a period when she knows the application should not be accessing the network. Even though the test does not specify comparing actual network access to an expect result, she decides to investigate. This is an example of what? a. A tester performing maintenance testing b. A tester performing exhaustive testing c. A tester's curious mindset d. A tester's effective communication with development

c

.04. Which of activity is the systematic inspection of the user interface design for usability? a. Usability testing b. Demo c. Review d. Scenario

c

.06. Which of following is NOT correct regarding of Iterative - incremental Development Models? [K1] a. A system that is produced using this model is tested at several test levels during each iteration b. This is the process of establishing requirements, designing, building and testing a system in a series of short development cycles c. This model demonstrates the relationships between each phase of the life cycles and its associated phase of testing d. Regression testing is increasing important on all iterations after the first one.

c

.07. One approach to "this testing" is to prepare and automate test cases before coding. This is called a test-first approach or test-driven development. What is this testing? [K1] a. Integration testing b. System testing c. Component testing d. Acceptance testing

c

.09. In which testing level are the developers most heavily involved? a. Compatibility b. Acceptance c. Component d. Conversion

c

.19. If you are using a testing technique to identify test cases that were missed when you applied formal testing techniques, what type of test design are you doing? a. Defect-based b. Ad hoc test c. Experience- based d. Informal

c

.20. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why? a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing. b. wages are rising c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc d. none of the above

c

.24. A metric that tracks the number of test cases executed is gathered during which activity in the test process? a. Planning b. Implementation c. Execution d. Reporting

c

.24. Which of the following tasks is most typical for a tester a. Coordinate the testing strategy with project managers b. Determine what tests should be automated c. Acquire and prepare data to be used for testing d. Use test results to guide future planning

c

.24. Which test technique is a black box technique? [K1] a. Condition coverage b. Statement coverage c. Equivalence class partitioning d. Data flow testing

c

.25. Which of the following is NOT an example of dynamic testing? Select one: a. Coverage analysis b. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it c. Code inspection d. Testing for performance

c

.26. How many test cases are need to achieve 100% statement coverage? a. 5 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3

c

.26. In a formal review, which role is normally responsible for documenting all the open issues? a. The facilitator b. The author c. The scribe d. The manager

c

.26. Which of following Test Approach includes Exploratory testing where testing is more reactive to events than pre-planned, and where execution and evaluation are concurrent tasks? [K2] a. Model-based approach b. Analytical approach c. Re-active approach d. Regression-averse approach

c

.29. Use case testing is useful for which of the following? A. Designing acceptance tests with users or customers. B. Making sure that the mainstream business processes are tested. C. Finding defects in the interaction between components. D. Identifying the maximum and minimum values for every input field. E. Identifying the percentage of statements exercised by sets of tests. a. B, D and E b. A, B and D c. A, B and C d. C, D and E

c

.36. Which of the following statements correctly describe black-box testing? Select one: a. Test of the interfaces between components and of the interactions with different parts of a system b. Test on an individual software component in isolation from other components, to avoid external influence c. Tests that investigate the input vs. the output behavior of a software system d. Test derived from the ability of the testers and their intuition and experience with similar applications and technologies (sometimes used to strengthen systematic techniques)

c

.36. Which test activities are supported by test harness or unit test framework tools? a. Test management and control. b. Test specification and design c. Test execution and logging d. Performance and monitoring

c

33. Which of following is NOT a typical defects discovered by static analysis tools? [K2] Referencing a variable with an undefined value Inconsistent interfaces between modules and components Memory leak Unreachable code

c

Which of following is a typical tester's tasks? [K1] A. Contribute the testing perspective to other project activities, such as integration planning. B. Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing C. Analyze, review and assess user requirements, specifications and models for testability D. Select tools to support testing and organize any training in tool use for testers

c

Which of following is correct to be defined as the chance of an event, hazard, threat or situation occurring and resulting in undesirable consequences or a potential problem? [K1] A. incident B. Defect C. Risk D. Failure

c

"27. Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below? S. Process-compliant approaches T. Heuristic approaches U. Consultative approaches V. Regression-averse approaches 1. Includes reuse of existing test material 2. Listens to suggestions from technology experts 3. Adheres to industry-specific standards 4. Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently" a. S4, T3, U2, V1 b. S1, T2, U3, V4 c. S2, T3, U1, V4 d. S3, T4, U2, V1

d

.12. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test? a. Portability b. Usability c. Performance d. Accuracy

d

.15. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging? a. Testing identifies the source of defects& debugging analyzes the defects and proposes prevention activities. b. Testing prevents the causes of failures& debugging removes the failures. c. Testing removes faults& debugging identifies the causes of failures. d. Testing shows failures caused by defects& debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.

d

.15. Which testing technique would be most effective is determining and improving maintainability of the code? a. Dynamic testing b. Unit testing c. Peer review d. Static analysis

d

.18. Static code analysis typically identifies all but one the following problems. Which is it? [K1] a. Too few comments. b. Unreachable code. c. Undeclared variables. d. Faults in the requirements.

d

.22. Which of the following options lists techniques categorized as White box design techniques? a. Boundary Value analysis and Use Case Based testing b. Equivalence Partitioning and Decision Table testing c. Statement testing and Use Case Base testing d. Decision coverage and Statement coverage

d

10. Atest case has the following elements:...[K1] A test environment description, and test instructions Execution instructions, and a function description to help decide if the outcome is correct A test plan , test inputs, and logging instructions A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes developed

d

Which of following is a common characteristics of specification — based test design techniques? A. The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive the test case B. The extent of coverage of software can be measured for existing test case C. Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive the test cases D. Models, either formal or informal, are used for the specification of the problem to be solved, the software or its component.

d

01. The digital Thermometer uses 7 colors to show the ambient temperature. Each color spans a range of just 5 Deg. C, with an operating minimum and maximum of 15 Deg. C and 50 Deg. C. Which of the following values is MOST likely to have been identified when applying the boundary value test design technique? 60 Deg. C 0 Deg. C 12 Deg. C 25 Deg. C

h

.09. At which stage of the fundamental test process do testers write the steps of the test procedures? Select one: a. Test implementation and execution b. Test closure activates c. Test planning and control d. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

a

.15. In performance testing, tools can be used to collect metrics. Which statement about monitoring tools is correct? Select one: a. They make it possible to observe possible performance problems and give warnings b. They store version information and can be replaced by configuration management tools c. They are technical tools a used by developers and not testers d. They supervise the testing effort and report related metrics

a

.18. What do use case describe? a. Process flows b. Control flows c. Data flows d. Code flows

a

.19. Static analysis ... [K2] a. ... is an analysis without execution of the test object (under analysis) b. ... is the precondition for executing the dynamic analysis c. ... serves for creating test cases d. ... is the check of the program code for compliance with the documentation rules

a

.29. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following : a. Explaining the objective b. Fixing defects found typically done by author c. Follow up d. Individual Meeting preparations

a

.38. Error guessing is best used: a. after more formal techniques have been applied b. as the first approach to deriving test cases c. by inexperienced testers d. after the system has gone live

a

.38. Which of the following is false? a. Incidents should always be fixed b. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ. c. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement d. An incident can be raised against documentation.

a

.39. Which of following statement describles correctly about software testing terms for problems in software? a. Errors or mistakes result in faults, which, when execute, may result in failures. b. Errors result in failures which, when executed, may result in incidents c. Human failures may result in defects, which, when executed, will result in incidents d. Problems during analysis and design my result in errors, which during execution my result in failures

a

05. Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning? a. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks b. Initiating corrective actions c. Monitoring progress and test coverage d. Measuring and analyzing results

a

09. Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities? a. Developers b. Analysts c. Testers d. Incident Managers

a

15. Unlike dynamic testing, which requires the execution of software, static testing techniques rely on the manual examination (reviews) and automated analysis (static analysis) of the code or other project documentation without the execution of the code. Which of the following is a benefit of using static techniques? [K2] a. Productivity improvements in the development process. b. Fewer performance defects c. More efficient regression testing. d. Quick return on investment in static analysis tools

a

23. Test Conditions are derived from: Specifications Test Cases Test Data Test Design

a

30. If the same testes are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find any new defects. To overcome this, test cases need to be regularly reviewed and revised. Which of the following describes this in Software testing principle? Pesticide paradox Defect clustering Absence-of-errors fallacy Early testing

a

.14. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test? a. Output comparator b. Capture/Playback c. Boundary tester d. Data tester

b

.21. If you want to track all changes to versions of your testware, what should you implement? a. Tracker control b. Configuration management c. Test control d. Test reporting

b

.23. Which one is the definition of use case? Select one: a. A response of on e system to users interaction with other, integrated systems b. A sequence of steps that describe the interactions between the actor (system or user) and the system c. An description of an environment in which a system needs to operate d. An operation on a system by a user, with no regards to the systems response

b

.30. Which of following is correct to be defined as the chance of an event, hazard, threat or situation occurring and resulting in undesirable consequences or a potential problem ? [K1] a. Defect b. Risk c. Incident d. Failure

b

20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique? State transition testing LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) syntax testing boundary value analysis

b

40. What is non-functional testing?..[K1] The process of testing to determine the compliance of a system. Testing the attributes of system like usability or stability. The process of testing an integrated system toverif,i that it meets specified requirements Testing without reference to the internal structure of a system

b

Which of following may NOT be included in Component testing? A. Quality characteristic testing B. Operational testing C. Structural testing D. Testing of functionality

b

.02. Which of the following coverage of boolean operator value? a. Condition testing b. Path testing c. Decision testing d. Statement testing

c

.09. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct? a. They are used to support multi-user testing b. They are used to capture and animate user requirements. c. They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool. d. They capture aspects of user behavior

c

.14. If a review is being led by the author of the document, what type of review is it? a. Inspection b. Technical review c. Walkthrough d. Informal

c

.17. Which is the most formal kind of review in the following list? [K2] a. Walkthrough b. Peer review c. Inspection d. Informal review

c

.28. Which of following is a Product Risk? [K1] a. Test environment not ready on time b. Problems in defining the right requirements c. Failure-prone software delivered d. Low quality of the design, code, configuration data, test data and tests

c

.31. Functional system testing is: a. testing that the system functions with other systems b. testing that the components that comprise the system function together c. testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole d. testing the system performs functions within specified response times

c

.32. You have been receiving daily builds from the developers. Even though they are documenting the fixes they are including in each build, you are finding that the fixes either aren't in the build or are not working. What type of testing is best suited for finding these issues? a. Unit testing b. System testing c. Confirmation testing d. Regression testing

c

.40. Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution: a. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts. b. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware. c. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning. d. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

c

10. Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report? a. The name and / or organisational position of the person raising the problem b. Version of the Software Under Test c. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem d. Actual and expected results

c

27. Which of the following describes NOT related with testing objective? Providing information for decision -making Gaining confidence about the level of quality Preventing defects Making a zero defect Software

d

You are testing System Response Time under load testing. What test type are you performing? A. Structural B. Acceptance C. Functional D. Non-functional

d

"06. Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report? a) Summary b) Test incident report identifier c) Test deliverables d) Risks and contingencies e) Variances f) Approvals g) Output specifications" a. a, e and f b. a, c and d c. a, b and f d. a, d and e

a

"18. Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage? if width > length then biggest_dimension = width if height > width then biggest_dimension = height end_if else biggest_dimension = length if height > length then biggest_dimension = height end_if end_if" a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1

a

"24. The above diagram represents the following paths through the code. A. vwy B. vwz C. vxy D. vxz What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement coverage? a. A b. ABD c. ABCD d. ACD

a

"30. Match the following terms and statements. 1.Decision Table Testing 2.Decision Testing 3.State Transition Testing 4.Exploratory Testing W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement structured testing. X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on current conditions or previous history. Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have been exercised during testing. Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes." a. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W. b. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y. c. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y. d. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.

a

.01. Which of following is an example of defect? a. A defect that causes raw sewage to be dumped into the ocean b. A usability defect that results in user dissatisfaction c. A defect that causes slow response time when running reports d. A regression defect that causes the desktop window to display in green

a

.03. The most visible part of testing i test execution. But to be effective and efficient, test plan should also include time to be spent on planning the tests, designing test cases, preparing for execution and evaluating result. Which of following is a major task of test planning? a. Determining the test approach b. Preparing test specifications c. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting d. Measuring and analyzing results

a

.04. Consider the following high level program design and assume you can provide the values for today, A, B and C: Start; Do until B = C If today = Monday set A = 1 else if today = Wednesday Set A = 2 Set B = C End if; If B < C B = B + 1 End if; Endloop; End; Which of the following sets of values will achieve 100% decision coverage with the least number of test cases (the order of the values is today, A, B, C)? a. Monday, 1, 3, 3& Monday 3, 2, 4& Wednesday, 1, 2, 3& Tuesday, 5, 4, 3 b. Monday, 1, 2, 4& Wednesday 1, 2, 4 c. Monday, 5, 1, 1& Tuesday, 5, 1, 2& Wednesday, 5, 1, 2 d. Monday, 5, 3, 2& Monday, 5, 1, 1& Monday 5, 2, 3& Tuesday, 4, 4, 3& Wednesday, 1, 2, 3

a

.04. The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities: i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques. ii. Specify the order of test case execution. iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions. iv. Specify expected results. According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities? a. iii, i, iv, ii b. iii, iv, i, ii c. iii, ii, i, iv d. ii, iii, i, iv

a

.04. Which of following statement does NOT define the level of independence from low to high? i. Test designed by a person from an independent test team or performance test specialists ii. Test designed by a person from an outsourcing or certification by an external body iii. Test designed by the person who wrote the software under test with the low level of independence iv. Test designed by another person form development team a. i, ii, iii, iv b. iv, ii, i, iii c. iii, iv, i, ii d. iv, iii, ii, i

a

.06. Acceptance testing may occur at more than just a single test level. With the exception of: a. Acceptance testing after a change has been released to the user community b. A COTS software product may be acceptance tested when it is installed or integrated c. Acceptance testing of the usability of a component may be done during component testing d. Acceptance testing of a new functional enhancement may come before system testing

a

.06. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing? Select one: a. It mainly tests interfaces and interactions between components b. It identifies defects in the functionality of modules, objects and classes c. It may be applied using a test-first approach. d. Simulators and stubs may be required

a

.07. Analyze the following highly simplified procedure: Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?" IF the customer wants 'return' Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?" IF the customer replies 'Cheap-day' Say: "That will be £11:20" ELSE Say: "That will be £19:50" ENDIF ELSE Say: "That will be £9:75" ENDIF Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all replies given. a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

a

.07. Which characteristic must a tester possess in order to be successful when working with a project team? a. Constructive communication skills b. Authoritarian leadership style c. Extroverted personality d. Extensive organizational network

a

.07. Which goal is usually not part of component testing? [K2] a. Testing correct interactions between component. b. Testing completeness of the component's functionality. c. Testing correct functionality of the component. d. Testing robustness of the component.

a

.08. Consider the following statements about risk-based testing: I. Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of project risks. II. Tests should be prioritized to find the critical defects as early as possible. III. Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk. IV. Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis. V. The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks. Select one: a. II, III, IV and V are correct. I is false b. II, III and V are true. I and IV are false c. I, II and IV are true. III and V are false d. I, III, IV and V are true. II is false

a

.08. Which of following statement does NOT correctly describe a valid approach to Component testing? a. Functional testing of the interfaces between modules b. Functional testing of the component in isolation c. Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents d. Automation tests that are run until the component passes

a

.08. Why is it important to define usage guidelines for a new tool? a. Because this is a proven success factor in tool deployment b. Because this will ensure the licensing restrictions are enforced c. Because management needs to understand the details of the tool usage d. Because this will provide the information needed for the cost/benefit analysis

a

.09. The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or white box techniques: i. information about how the software is constructed. ii. models of the system, software or components. iii. analysis of the test basis documentation. iv. analysis of the internal structure of the components. Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques? a. ii and iii b. ii and iv c. i and iv d. i and iii

a

.09. What is important to do when working with software development models? a. To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics b. To choose the warefall model because it is the first and best proven model c. To start with the V-model and then to move to either iterative or incremental models d. To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa

a

.09. Which of following is Not about non-functional testing? [K2] a. This testing is considers the external behavior of the software (black - box testing) b. Security testing investigates the functions relating to detection of threats c. Interoperability testing evaluates the capability of the software product to interact with one or more specified components or systems d. This testing describes the tests required to measure characteristics of systems and software that can be quantified on a varying scale

a

.11. Which of following is NOT true about Condition Determination Testing and Coverage?... [K3] a. 100% decision condition coverage implies 100% condition determination coverage b. A white box test design technique in which test cases are independently affect a decision outcome that have been exercised by a test case suite. c. The percentage of all signle condition outcomes that independently affect a decision outcome that heve been exxercised by a test case suite d. The possible combinations of true/false conditions that can affect decisions are identified.

a

.12. For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management? i. All items of software are identified and version controlled ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository iv. All items of testware are tracked for change v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items. a. i, iv, vi b. i, iii, iv c. ii, iii, v d. iv, v, vi

a

.13. Which of following is an effective method for finding defects early in the software lifecycle? a. Static testing b. System testing c. User acceptance testing d. Implementation validation testing

a

.13. While reporting a defect, which of the following indicates the level of business importance assigned to the defect? Select one: a. Priority b. Severity c. Difficulty d. Urgency

a

.14. For which of following would a static analysis tool be useful? a. Enforcement of coding standard b. Validating models of software c. Testing code executed in a special test harness d. Supporting reviews

a

.14. Non-functional testing includes ... [K1] a. Testing the quality attributes of the system including reliability and usability. b. Testing to see where the system does not function correctly. c. Gaining user approval for the system. d. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function.

a

.14. Which of the following is a static test? a. code inspection b. coverage analysis c. usability assessment d. installation test

a

.15. A test design technique is a. a process for selecting test cases b. a process for determining expected outputs c. a way to measure the quality of software d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done

a

.15. In a typical formation review, who is the person in charge of leading the review of the document or set of documents including planning the review, running the meeting, and following - up after the meeting ? [K1] a. Moderator b. Author c. Reviewer d. Manager

a

.15. What is the fundamental difference between "static analysis" and test? [K2] a. Static analysis is done without executing the test object. A test is an examination during "run time". b. Static analysis can be applied at any time during the software life cycle. Test can only be applied after implementation. c. Static analysis checks only documents without a formal structure. Test checks software systems. d. Static analysis is applied only in the early phases, test only in the late phases of the software life cycle.

a

.16. When should the expected results of a test case be defined? a. When the test case is written, prior to execution b. When the test case is executed c. When the risk is assessed d. When the test condition is identified

a

.16. Which of the statements about reviews are correct? [K3] a. Reviews can help find bugs early resulting in saving of cost b. It is not useful to involve testers in review of specifications because it can bias them. c. Reviews are useful because they help management to assign responsibility of failure on individual developers. d. Requirement of additional time for reviews is likely to result in longer development cycle

a

.17. Question 4 / 40 Which of the following statements about roles in a typical formal review is correct ? Select one: a. The manager allocates time in project schedules b. The manager is responsible for planning the review c. The author documents the problems and open points d. The moderator determines if the review objectives have been met

a

.17. Testware(test cases, test dataset) a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system

a

.17. Which of the statements about reviews are correct? I. Reviews are useful because, through their use, defects can be found early, resulting in cost savings. II. Reviews are useful because they help management understand the comparative skills of different developers. III. Testers should not get involved in specification reviews because it can bias them unfavorably. IV. Many early defects are found in reviews, lengthening the time needed for the development life cycle a. I b. IV c. I and IV d. I and III

a

.18. Which of the following is a good reason to use experience-based testing? a. You can find defects that might be missed by more formal techniques b. You can test for defects that only experienced users would encounter c. You can target the developer's efforts to the areas that users will be more likely to use d. It is supported by strong tools and can be automated

a

.19. In below specification, how many different valid combinations of inputs exist for computing the price?[K4] Vietnam Railway Company runs a train from Hanoi to Ho Chi Minh city. This train has four different kinds of accommodation with different ticket prices: "Hard seat", "soft seat", "hard sleeper", "soft sleeper". For "hard sleeper", there are different prices for lower, middle and upper berth. For "soft sleeper", there is a different price for lower and upper berth. For sleeping accommodation, different prices apply for non-air-condition and air-condition. For soft sleeper, a higher price applies for compartments with own bathroom. Higher-speed trains exist, but have only hard and soft seat, and they have another price than "normal" trains. a. 18 b. 24 c. 36 d. 48

a

.19. Which is a wrong explanation about static analysis tools? [K1] a. Static analysis tools measure a source codes coverage and an effectiveness of static testing. b. Static analysis tools measure level of accordance with coding rules. c. Static analysis tools find defects of certain patterns of source codes. d. Static analysis tools measure a complexity of source codes.

a

.19. You have been given the following set of test cases to run. You have been instructed to run them in order by risk and to accomplish the testing as quickly as possible to provide feedback to the developers as soon as possible. Given this information, what is the best order in which to run these tests? Test Case ID 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 5 - 6 Duration (in minutes) 30 - 10 - 45 - 30 - 10 - 15 Risk Priority (H, M,L) L - M - H - H - M - L Dependency (prerequisite case) 6 - none - 1 - 2 - 4 - 2 a. 2,4,5,6,1,3 b. 4,3,2,5,6,1 c. 2,5,6,4,1,3 d. 6,1,3,2,4,5

a

.20. Which alternative contains ONLY defects which can be discovered by static analysis ... [K2] a. Violations of coding standards, referencing a variable with an undefined value, unreachable (dead) code, security vulnerabilities. b. Referencing a variable with an undefined value, unreachable (dead) code, security vulnerabilities, race conditions. c. Referencing a variable with an undefined value, unreachable (dead) code, inconsistent interface between modules and components, race conditions. d. Referencing a variable with an undefined value, deadlocks, unreachable (dead) code, security vulnerabilities.

a

.21. When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage? Select one: a. Multiple condition coverage b. Statement coverage c. Use case testing d. Decision table

a

.21. Which of the following is a correct statement? a. A developer makes a mistake which causes a defect that may be seen as a failure during dynamic testing b. A developer makes an error which results in a failure that may be seen as a fault when the software is executed c. A developer has introduced a failure which results in a defect that may be seen as a mistake during dynamic testing d. A developer makes a mistake which causes a bug that may be seen as a defect when the software is executed

a

.21. Which of the following is not the integration strategy? a. Design based b. Big-bang c. Bottom-up d. Top-down

a

.22. Features of White Box Testing Technique :- i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data. ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program. iii. Checking for the performance of the application iv. Only checks for functionality. a. i, ii are true and iii and iv are false b. iii is true and i,ii, iv are false c. ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false d. iii and iv are true and i,ii are false

a

.22. Which of following is NOT true about Condition Determination Testing and Coverage? [K3] a. 100% decision condition coverage implies 100% condition determination coverage b. A white box test design technique in which test case are independently affect a decision outcome that have been exercised by a test case suite c. The percentage of all single condition outcomes that independently affect a decision outcome that have been exercised by a test case suite d. The possible combination of true/false conditions that can affect decisions are identified

a

.24. The following rule must be followed when using the equivalence class partioning method: a. The representatives of the valid equivalence classes of the actual parameters can be combined b. The representatives of one invalid equivalence classes shall be combined with another representative of another invalid equivalence class. c. The representatives of the invalid equivalence classes of the actual parameters shall be combined d. The representatives of the invalid equivalence classes of the actual parameters must be combined pair wise

a

.25. Given the state diagram in Figure, which test case is the minimum series of valid transitions to cover every state? a. SS-S1-S2-S4-S1-S3-ES b. SS-S1-S2-S3-S4-ES c. SS-S1-S2-S4-S1-S3-S4-S1-S3-ES d. SS-S1-S4-S2-S1-S3-ES

a

.25. Which of the following are included as part of static testing? a. Inspection of work products and analysis of software artifacts using tools. b. Inspections, execution of the software, and walkthroughs. c. Inspections, walkthroughs, and comparison of expected to actual results d. Walkthroughs, simulation, and defect tracking

a

.26. At what point in the project should the test execution be scheduled? a. During test planning b. During test analysis and design c. During test implementation d. During test execution

a

.26. Success Factors for a review include : i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement. a. ii, iii, iv are correct and i is incorrect b. iii, i, iv is correct and ii is incorrect c. i, iii, iv, ii is incorrect d. ii is correct

a

.26. Which of the following is usually not be a coverage measure for state transition testing? [K2] a. The response time for each transaction is adequate. b. All states have been reached. c. Every transition has been exercised. d. Specific sequences of transitions have been exercised.

a

.26. Which of the following statements are correct ? I. System testing is often carried out by an independent test team. II. The main goal in acceptance testing is to find defects III. Component testing may include testing of functionality and non functional characteristics. IV. User acceptance testing typically verifies the fitness for use of the system by business users. V. The environment for system testing should correspond to the production environment. Select one: a. I, III, IV, V b. II, III, IV c. II, III, V d. I, II, V

a

.27. Consider the following high level program design and assume you can provide the values for today, A, B and C: Which of the following sets of values will achieve 100% decision coverage with the least number of test cases (the order of the values is today, A, B, C)? a. Monday, 1, 3, 3 & Monday 3, 2, 4& Wednesday, 1, 2, 3& Tuesday, 5, 4, 3 b. Monday, 1, 2, 4& Wednesday 1, 2, 4 c. Monday, 5, 1, 1& Tuesday, 5, 1, 2& Wednesday, 5, 1, 2 d. Monday, 5, 3, 2& Monday, 5, 1, 1& Monday 5, 2, 3& Tuesday, 4, 4, 3& Wednesday, 1, 2, 3

a

.27. The Test Cases Derived from use cases a. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system b. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system c. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system d. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level

a

.28. How do experience-based techniques differ from specification-based techniques? a. They depend on an individual's personal view rather than on a documented record of what the system should do. b. They depend on a documented record of what the system should do rather than on an individual's personal view. c. They depend on having older testers rather than younger testers. d. They depend on the tester's understanding of the way the system is structured rather than on a documented record of what the system should do.

a

.29. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence? a. Testers have different biases than developers b. Testers are isolated from the development team c. Testers lack information about the test object d. Testers will accept responsibility for quality

a

.30. During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation? Select one: a. Perform bug isolation to find the conditions that cause the crash b. Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem c. Report the incident as is without any further action d. Do a root cause analysis

a

.30. How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch or decision coverage of the following program part? We assume that the two conditions are independent of each other. If (condition 1) then statement 1 else statement 2 end if If (condition 2) then statement 3 end if a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. none

a

.30. If you need to provide a report showing test case execution coverage of the requirements, what do you need to track? a. Traceability between the test cases and the requirements b. Coverage of the risk items by test case c. Traceability between the requirements and the risk items d. Coverage of the requirements by the test cases that have been designed

a

.31. Given the following two programs: Program X: If A>B then Execute function _A() Else Execute function _B() Endif Execute function _C() Program Y if D > E then Execute function _D() endif Execute function _E() Execute function _F() Which one of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the programs? Select one: a. At least 2 test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage of program Y b. At least 2 test cases are needed to achieve 100% decision coverage of program Y c. At least 2 test cases are needed to achieve 100% statement coverage of program X d. At least 2 test cases are needed to achieve 100% decision coverage of program X

a

.31. Which of the below would be the best basis for fault attack testing? a. Experience, defect and failure data, knowledge about software failures b. Risk analysis performed at the beginning of the project c. Use Cases derived from the business flows by domain experts d. Expected results from comparison with an existing system

a

.33. What is the purpose of exit criteria? a. To define when a test level is complete. b. To determine when a test has completed. c. To identify when a software system should be retired. d. To determine whether a test has passed.

a

.34. One of the test goals for the project is to have 100% decision coverage. The following three tests have been executed for the control flow graph shown below. Test A covers path: A, B, D, E, G. Test B covers path: A, B, D, E, F, G. Test C covers path: A, C, F, C, F, C, F, G. Which of the following statements related to the decision coverage goal is correct? a. Decision D has not been tested completely. b. 100% decision coverage has been achieved. c. Decision E has not been tested completely d. Decision F has not been tested completely

a

.34. Which of following is Not risks of using tools? [K1] a. Greater consistency and repeatability b. Unrealistic expectations for the tool c. Neglecting version control of test assets within the tool. d. Underestimating the time, cost and effort needs to achieve significant and continuing benefits form the tool

a

.35. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because: a. Each test stage has a different purpose. b. It is easier to manage testing in stages c. We can run different tests in different environments. d. The more stages we have, the better the testing.

a

.35. Which of following is project risk? a. A problem with the development manager which is resulting in his rejecting all defect reports b. An issue with the interface between the system under test and a peripheral device c. A failed performance test d. A module that performs incorrect calculations due to a defect in a formula

a

.36. Unlike dymamic testing, which requires the execution of software, static testing techniques rely on the manual execution (reviews) and atomated analysis (static analysis) of the code or other project documentation without the execution of the code. Which of the following is a benefit of using static techniques? a. Productivity improvements in the development process b. Fewer performance defects c. More effectiveness regression testing d. Quick return on investment in static analysis tools

a

.36. Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults? a. They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases. b. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then c. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then. d. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.

a

.37. Which of following alternative describles NOT a major task of test implementation? a. Executing tests either manually or by using test execution tools b. Developing and prioritizing test procedures, and, potentially, creating automated test scripts. c. Creating test suits from test procedures and (if any) automated test scripts. d. Preparing test data and ensuring it is properly loaded in the test environment.

a

.37. You are a tester in a safety-critical software development project. During execution of a test, you find out that one of your expected results was not achieved. You write an incident report about it. What do you consider to be the most important information to include according to the IEEE Std. 829? a. Impact, incident description, date and time, your name b. Unique id for the report, special requirements needed c. Transmitted items, your name and you are feeling about the defect source. d. Incident description, environment, expected results.

a

.41. You are working in a team of testers who are all writing test cases. You have noticed that there is a significant inconsistency with the length and amount of detail in the different test cases. Where should the test case guidelines have been documented? a. The test plan b. The test approach c. The test case template d. The project plan

a

.44. Which of the following is an example of a tool that supports static testing? a. A tool that assists with tracking the results of reviews b. A defect tracking tool c. A test automation tool d. A tool that helps design test cases for security testing

a

.48. If a test tool is causing a probe effect, what does this mean? a. The outcome of the test may be influenced by the use of the tool b. The tool is used to continuously probe the software for defects c. The tool is used primarily to assist with exploratory testing d. The tester will require special training to be able to effectively use the tool

a

01. Accrording to ISTQB syllabus, A software error can be described as...[K1] A mismatch between the program and its specification A description of the relationship between two or more variables or set members in which the values of one does not influence the values of others. The process in which developers determinate the root cause of a bug and identify possible fixes. Any ill-advised, substandard, or temporary fix applied to an urgent problem in the ( often misguided) belief that doing so will keep a project moving forward.

a

03. A certain degree of independence (avoiding the author bias) often makes the tester more effective at finding defects and failures. Independence is not, however, a replacement for familiarity, and developers can efficiently find many defects in their own code. Which of the following is the lowest level of independence? [K1] a. Tests designed by the person(s) who wrote the software under test with the low level of independence b. Tests designed by a person(s) from an outsourcing or certification by an external body c. Tests designed by a person(s) from an independent test team or performance test specialists d. Tests designed by another person(s) from development team

a

03. The design of a newspaper subscriptions system is being reviewed. The expected system users are: - Subscribers - Technical support team - Billing department - Database administrator Each type of user logs into the system through a different login interface (e.g. subscribers login via a web page; technical support via an application). Different reviewers were requested to review the system's login flow from the perspective of the above user categories. Which of the following review comments is MOST LIKELY to have been made by Subscribers reviewers? The login page on the web is cluttered with too much advertisement space. As a result, it is hard to find the "forgot password?" link. The login to access the billing information should also allow access to subscribers' information and not force a second login session After logging-in to the database application, there is no log-out function. The log in flow is un-intuitive since it requires entering the password first, before the user name can be keyed-in.

a

04. A certain degree of independence (avoiding the author bias) often makes the tester more effective at finding defects and failures. Independence is not, however, a replacement for familiarity, and developers can efficiently find many defects in their own code. Which of the following is the lowest level of independence? [K1] a. Tests designed by the person(s) who wrote the software under test with the low level of independence b. Tests designed by a person(s) from an outsourcing or certification by an external body c. Tests designed by a person(s) from an independent test team or performance test specialists. d. Tests designed by another person(s) from development team

a

05. Test planning has which of the following major tasks? i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing. ii. Determining the test approach (techniques, test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing, testware) iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design,interface) iv. Determining the exit criteria. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false i,iii,iv are true and ii is false i,ii are true and iii,iv are false ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

a

06. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase: Test Analysis and Design Test Planning and control Test Implementation and execution Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

a

06. Which of the following statements is NOT true? [K2] a. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found b. Rigorous testing and fixing of found defects could help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment. c. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the product d. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.

a

11. Which of the following defines the expected results of a test? a. Test case specification b. Design specification c. Test procedure specification d. Test results.

a

12. Impact Analysis helps to decide: How much regression testing should be done. Exit Criteria How many more test cases need to written. Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

a

12. Which following is NOT true about test levels? [K2] a. Acceptance testing include testing of functionality and specific non-functional characteristics, such as resource-behavior (e.g.., searching for memory leaks) or robustness testing, as well as structural testing (e.g., decision coverage) b. Integration testing tests interfaces between components, interactions with different parts of a system, such as the operating system, file system and hardware, and interfaces between systems. c. System testing is concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product. The testing scope shall be clearly addressed in the Master and/ or Level Test Plan for that test level. d. Component Testing searches for defects in, and verifies the functioning of, software modules, programs, objects, classes, etc,., that are separately testable.

a

15. Which is a correct combination to achieve fiAo/o branch coverage for following code?. (x:1, y:l), (x:0, y:0), (x:1, y:0) (x:1, y:l), (x:0, y:0) (x:1, y:1), (x:1, y:-1), (x:1, y:0) (x:1, y:1)

a

15. Which is a correct cornbination to achieve fiAo/o branch coverage for following code?. (x:1, y:l), (x:0, y:0), (x:1, y:0) (x:1, y:l), (x:0, y:0) (x:1, y:1), (x:1, y:-1), (x:1, y:0) (x:1, y:1)

a

16. Consider the following statements: i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage. iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage. v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

a

17. The Initial Review (Kick Off) phase of a formal review includes the following: Explaining the objective Fixing defects found typically done by author Follow up Individual Meeting preparations

a

18. Which test techniques might be most appropriate to be performed as the product is evolving or as a final check before the software is released? [K1] a. Exploratory Testing b. Boundary Value Analysis c. Error Guessing d. Decision Table Testing

a

20. Which of the following altematives are typical test exit criteria? Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction and residual risks. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, time to and product completeness, number of defects. market Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence, thoroughness measures and test cost. Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, degree of tester independence and product completeness.

a

20. Which of the following is TRUE? a. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. b. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects. c. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. d. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

a

21. Success Factors for a review include: i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively iii. Management supports a good review process. iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect i , iii , iv , ii is in correct ii is correct

a

22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include: i. Variables that are never used. ii. Security vulnerabilities. iii. Programming Standard Violations iv. Uncalled functions and procedures i , ii,iii,iv is correct iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect iv, ii is correct

a

22. Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID? a. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500. b. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500. c. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500. d. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.

a

25. Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution? a. Implementation and execution. b. Planning and control. c. Analysis and design. d. Test closure.

a

28. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader. i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing iii. Decide what should be automated, to what degree and how. iv. Create the Test Specifications i, ii, iii is true and iv is false ii,iii,iv is true and i is false i is true and ii,iii,iv are false iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

a

29. Features of White Box Testing Technique: i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data. ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the path of logic in a unit or a program. iii. Checking for the performance of the application iv. Also checks for functionality. i, ii are true and iii and iv are false iii is true and i,ii, iv are false ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false iii and iv are true and i,ii are false

a

3. As a test leader you are collecting measures about defects. You recognize that after the first test cycle — covering all requirements — subsystem C has a defect density that 150% higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a defect density that is 60% lower than the average. What conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact?.. A According to the testing principle "defect clustering" it is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsystem C in more detail. B. We focus testing on subsystem A, because we have found fewest defects in that module so far. C. Because we have already found many defects in subsystem C we do not need to test it much more. D. Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about the amount of additional testing.

a

32. Which of following is NOT success factors for review? [K1] Developers should not involve to increase effectiveness of defect identification Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively Tester are valued reviewers who contributes to the review and also learn about the product which enables them to prepare tests earlier The review is conducted in an atmosphere of trust

a

33. Once the test effort is estimated at the test estimation activity, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up. Which following factor is NOT about factors that the testing effort may depend on?[K1] a. Coverage of functionality b. Outcome of testing c. Characteristics of the product d. Characteristics of the development process

a

34. What is the purpose of exit criteria? a. To define when a test level is complete. b. To determine when a test has completed c. To identify when a software system should be retired. d. To determine whether a test has passed.

a

35. : Which of the following can be considered as success factors when deploying a new tool in an organization? a. Providing coaching to users and defining usage guidelines b. Monitoring tool usage and reducing the need for risk analysis c. Improving processes and focusing more on component testing d. Assessing testing completion and minimizing code reviews

a

37. Consider the following statements about early test design: i.early test design can prevent fault multiplication ii.faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix iii.early test design can find faults iv.early test design can cause changes to the requirements v.early test design normally takes more effort i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false

a

37. Which of following describes the testing techniques that is concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning, based on a test charter containing test objectives, and carried out within time-boxes? [K2] Exploratory testing Error Guessing Decision Table Testing State Transition Testing

a

39. Which of the problems below BEST characterize a result of software failure? a. Damaged reputation b. Lack of methodology c. Inadequate training d. Regulatory compliance

a

Below shows several levels of independence defined. Which of following has lowest independence? A. Tests designed by the person who wrote the software under test. B. Tests designed by another person C. Tests designed by a person from a different organizational group or test specialists. D. Tests designed by a person from a different organizational or company

a

This testing is one type of non-functional testing which evaluates the capability of the software product to interact with one or more specified components or system. Which of following is correct about this testing? [K2] A. interoperability testing B. Security Testing C. Integration Testing D. System Testing

a

Which of following is NOT a Test Planning Activity in Test Planning? [K1] A. Estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owner of the tasks or by experts B. integrating and coordination the testing activities into the software life cycle activities C. Determining the scope and risks and identifying the objectives of testing D. Determininq the scope and risks and identifying the obiectives of testing

a

[Specification] Vietnam Railway company runs a train from Ho Chi Minh City to Hanoi. This train has four different kinds of accommodation with different ticket prices: Hard seat, soft seat, hard sleeper, and soft sleeper. For hard sleeper, there is a different price for lower, middle and upper berth. For soft sleeper, there is a different price for lower and upper berth. For sleeping accommodation, different prices apply for non-air-condition and air-condition. For soft sleeper, a higher price applies for compartments with own bathroom. High—speed trains exist, but have only hard and soft seat, and they have another price than " normal" trains. Which of the following testing technique is most likely to be selected to minimize testing effort within limited time frame? A. Equivalence Partitioning techniques B. Pair Wise technique and Orthogonal Array techniques C. State transition techniques D. Condition- Decision coverage techniques

a

"12. Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details those for developers i) Performance testing tools. ii) Coverage measurement tools. iii) Test comparators. iv) Dynamic analysis tools. v) Incident management tools." a. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers b. ii. and iv. are more for developers. c. ii, iii and iv. are more for developers d. ii. and iii. are more for developers

b

"31. Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment v) Writing test conditions." a. i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false. b. ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false c. iv& v are true, i, ii & iii are false. d. i, ii & iii are true iv& v are false.

b

.01. Which of the following is a major task of test planning? a. Preparing test specifications. b. Determining the test approach c. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting d. Measuring and analyzing results

b

.02. Which testing technique would be most effective in determining and improving the maintainability of the code (assuming developers fix what is found)? a. Peer reviews b. Static analysis c. Dynamic testing d. Unit testing

b

.02. You are running a written test which other testers have run previously. In addition, this test has found bugs previously, and those bugs have been confirmed to be fixed. The test manager has encouraged you to vary the specific way in which you run the test, such as the order of certain actions, the use of mouse versus hot-keys, and the particular input values, based on the way users will use in the system. Which of the following is a testing principle that could explain the test manager's directive? a. Early testing b. Pesticide paradox c. Absence-of-errors fallacy d. Random testing

b

.03. Under limited project time and budget, Testing effort shall be focused proportionally to the expected and later observed defect density of modules so that project constraints are properly managed. Which testing principle is explained? [K2] a. Pesticide paradox b. Defect clustering c. Absence-of-errors fallacy d. Early testing

b

.03. Which of following is not a testing phase in IEEE829 standard of testing fundamental process? a. Design b. Development c. Report d. Closure

b

.04. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide: a. linkage of customer requirements to version numbers b. facilities to compare test results with expected results. c. the precise differences in versions of software component source code d. restricted access to the source code library.

b

.04. Which testing technique is the most suitable for testing the functionality of a fully computerized elevator ? Select one: a. Decision table testing b. State Transition Testing c. Use case testing d. Man machine interface testing

b

.07. Which of following is a major task of test planning? a. Preparing test specification b. Determining the test approach c. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting d. Measuring and analyzing results

b

.08. Which is a correct relation between test conditions and test cases ?...[K2] a. Test conditions explain procedures to execute of test case. b. Test cases are designed to fill test conditions. c. Test conditions are designed to fill certain test cases. d. Test conditions are equivalent to certain test cases.

b

.09. Which option best describes objectives for test levels with a life cycle model? ... [K2] a. Objectives are the same for each test level. b. Each level has objectives specific to that level. c. The objectives of a test level don't need to be defined in advance. d. Objectives should be generic for any test level.

b

.10. How are exit criteria utilized? a. To reprioritize remaining tasks b. To determine when to stop testing c. To indicate when additional test coverage can be achieved d. To automatically determine the Go/No-Go decision

b

.10. How does a test condition relate to a test case? a. A test condition defines the test case b. A test case tests a test condition c. A test condition is the output from a test case d. A test case creates test conditions

b

.11. Which of following is NOT the indicators of maintenance testing? a. Retirement b. Creation c. Modification d. Migration

b

.12. Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase? a. Test Implementation and execution b. Test Analysis and Design c. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting d. Test Closure Activities

b

.12. Negative test is ... [K1] a. ... Not related to the testers' attitude b. ... Tests aimed at showing that a component or system does not work. c. ... Test aimed at showing that a component or system does work. d. ... Related to a specific test approach or test design technique.

b

.13. Which of the following is true? a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box b. if you find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.

b

.13. Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress? a. Effort required to fix all defects b. Number of test cases not yet executed c. Total number of defects in the product d. Number of undetected defects

b

.13. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a test condition? a. An attribute of a component or system specified or implied by requirements documentation. b. An aspect of the test basis that is relevant to achieve specific test objectives. c. The capability of the software product to provide functions which meet stated and implied needs when the software is used under specified conditions. d. The percentage of all single condition outcomes that independently affect a decision outcome that have been exercised by a test case suite.

b

.13. You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns grades. Based on the score achieved the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F, 50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-89 = B, 90-100=A If you apply equivalence partitioning, how many test cases will you need to achieve minimum test coverage? a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

b

.14. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing? a. To determine whether enough component tests were executed within system testing. b. To find as many failures as possible so that defects can be identified and corrected. c. To prove that all possible defects are identified. d. To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures.

b

.15. Which of following is a key factor in the success of a work product review? a. Limit the number of defects found b. Define the objectives c. Couple it to performance reviews d. Open invitation

b

.15. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard? a. Usability b. Supportability c. Functionality d. Maintainability

b

.16. Coverage measurement a. is nothing to do with testing b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

b

.16. Which are the typical roles to be filled in a formal review? [K1] a. A colleague of the author doing the same kind of work (as an expert), someone new to the project, a person taking the testing viewpoint, a person taking the document user viewpoint. b. Moderator, manager, author, reviewer, recorder. c. Author, reviewer, moderator. d. Author, manager.

b

.16. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the V-model lifecycle? a. Testing involvement starts when the code is complete b. The test process is integrated with the development process c. The software is built in increments and each increment has activities for requirements, design, build and test d. All activities for development and test are completed sequentially

b

.16. Which of the following test types are EXAMPLES of non-functional tests ? I. Acceptance test II. Regression test III.Load test IV.Component test V. Usability test Select one: a. I, III and V b. III and V c. I, II and IV d. II, III and V

b

.17. Mr. Smith has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has awealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter time thanothers. Over several months Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test cases and did notcreate any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found by executing thetests. What principle of testing did Mr. Smith not observe? a. Exhaustive testing is not possible b. Repeating of tests will not find new defects c. Defects cluster together. d. Testing depends on the environment.

b

.17. Which alternative is not defect which can be discovered by static analysis? [K3] a. Violations of coding standards b. race conditions c. Referencing a variable with an undefined value d. security vulnerabilities

b

.18. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use? a. how well you know a particular technique b. the objective of the test c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application d. whether there is a tool to support the technique

b

.19. Which of the following statements about static analysis is FALSE? a. Static analysis can find defects that are likely to be missed by dynamic testing b. Static analysis is a good way to force failures in the software. c. Static analysis tools examine code or other types of product documentation. d. Static analysis can result in cost saving by finding bugs early

b

.20. What factors should an organization take into account when determining how much testing is needed? I. Level of risk II. Tools to be used during test sub-project III. Project constraints such as time and budget IV. Skill of the testers V. Expected selling cost of the system a. All of the factors should be taken into account. b. I and III c. I, III and IV d. I, II, IV, and V

b

.21. Which of the following statements about functional testing is TRUE?...tK21 a. Control flow models and menu structure models are used primarily in functional testing. b. Functional testing is primarily concerned with "what" a system does rather than "how" it does it. c. Functional testing includes, but is not limited to, load testing, stress testing and reliability testing. d. Functional testing is often referred to as "structural" testing by testers and developers

b

.22. Which of the following are key success factors to the review process? a. Review time is allowed in the test execution schedule, process improvement is recognised in the follow up meeting and the objective is always to find defects b. Each review has a clear objective, the right people are involved, training is provided in the review technique and management fully support the process c. Participants are trained, all review meetings are time boxed and moderators are project managers d. Every team member will be involved, all review techniques are used on every work product and test managers control the review process

b

.23. Match the following formal review roles and responsibilities: Roles 1. Moderator. 2. Recorder. 3. Reviewer. 4. Manager. Responsibilities P. The person chosen to represent a particular viewpoint and role. Q. The person who decides on the execution of inspections and determines if the inspection objectives have been met. R. The person who leads the inspection of a document or set of documents. S. The person who documents all the issues, problems and open points. a. 1Q, 2S, 3P, 4R b. 1R, 2S, 3P, 4Q c. 1Q, 2P, 3S, 4R d. 1R, 2P, 3S, 4Q

b

.23. Which of following is a typical test leader's tasks? [K1] a. Prepare and acquire test data b. Adapt planning based test result and progress c. Set up the test environment often coordinating with system administration and network management d. Use test administration or management tools and test monitoring tools as required

b

.23. Which statement is included in the common characteristics of structure-based test design tecniques? a. Test case can be derived systematically from these models b. Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases c. Knowledge about likely defects and their distribution is another source of information d. Model, either formal or informal, are used the specifications of the problems to be solved, the software or its component

b

.24. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing : a. User Acceptance Test Cases b. Integration Level Test Cases c. Unit Level Test Cases d. Program specifications

b

.24. Which of the following BEST describes a keyword-driven testing approach? a. Test input and expected results are stored in a table or spreadsheet, so that a single control script can execute all of the tests in the table b. Action-words are defined to cover specific interactions in system (e.g., log-on entries) which can then be used by testers to build their tests c. Keywords are entered into a test harness to obtain pre-defined test coverage reports d. The test basis is searched using keywords to help identify suitable test conditions

b

.25. If you need to attain a certain level of code coverage for a particular software product your team is testing, what type of testing should you use? a. Specification-based b. Structure-based c. Experience-based d. Defect-based

b

.25. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :- i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team. iv. The size of the testing Team a. i,ii,iii,iv are true b. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. c. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false. d. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

b

.25. Which of following is NOT a test planning activity in test planning? [K1] a. Assigning resources for the different activities defined b. Estimating the tasks based on estimates made by the owner of the tasks or by experts c. Adapt planning based test result and progress d. Determining the scope and risks and identifying the objectives into the software life cycle activities

b

.25. Which of the following is a true statement about exhaustive testing? a. It is a form of stress testing b. It is not feasible except in the case of trivial software c. It is commonly done with test automation d. It is normally the responsibility of the developer during unit testing

b

.26. Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organization? a. Defining best practice guidelines for users. b. Roll out the tool across the organization as quickly as possible to all users. c. Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool. d. Introduce a system to monitor tool usage and user feedback. e. Ensure that the test process is not changed as result of the tool's introduction. a. a, b and c b. a, c and d c. c, d and e d. b, d and e

b

.26. Which of the following statements are true for Review?..[K1] A. Meeting is led by author B. Main purpose is to review inexpensive way to get some benefit. C. Main purpose is to discuss problems and check conformance to specifications and standard D. Formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria. T. Informal U. Walkthrough V. Technical Review W. Inspection a. A and W, B and V, C and T, D and U b. A and U, B and T, C andV, D and W c. A and T, B andU, C and V, D and W d. A andU, B and T, C and W, D and V

b

.27. Which of the following statements describe why error guessing is a useful test design technique? a. It can help derive test cases based on analysis of specification documents. b. It can identify tests not easily captured by formal techniques. c. It can make good use of tester's experience and available defect data. d. It is a cheaper alternative to more formal test design techniques. a. a and b b. b and c c. c and d d. a and c

b

.27. Which of the following statements is true about the minimum number of test cases required to reach a 100% statement and branch coverage of the piece of program below? Read A Read B If (A+B > 100) then Print "Hello" Endif If (A > 50) then Print "world" Endif Select one: a. 2 test case for statement coverage& 2 test case for branch coverage b. 1 test case for statement coverage& 2 test case for branch coverage c. 1 test case for statement coverage& 1 test case for branch coverage d. 1 test case for statement coverage& 3 test case for branch coverage

b

.29. Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to component testing? i) Functional testing of the component in isolation. ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents. iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes. iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules. a. i and ii. b. I, ii and iii c. iii. d. ii and iv

b

.30. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique? a. State transition testing b. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump) c. Grammar testing d. boundary value analysis

b

.31. Which of following terms is used to establish and maintain the integrity of the products ( components, data and documents) of the software or system through the project and product life cycle? a. Incident management b. Configuration management c. Test mornitoring d. Risk management

b

.32. Development staff may participate in testing especially at the lower levels, but the lack of objectivity often limits their effectiveness. The independent testers may have the authority to require and define the test processes and rules, but the testers should take on such process-related roles only in the presence of a clear management mandate to do so. Which of following is NOT drawbacks of independent testing? a. Isolation from the development team b. Development team may be hard to find defects c. Independent testers may be seen as a bottleneck or blamed for delays in release d. Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for quality

b

.32. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)? a. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects b. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case c. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case d. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case

b

.32. Which of following tools are necessary for storage and version management of test-ware and related software especially when configuring more than on hardware/software environment in terms of operating system versions compilers browsers? [K1] a. Test management tools b. Configuration management tools c. Incident management tools d. Requirements management tools

b

.33. For which of the following would maintenance testing be used? a. Correction of defects during the development phase b. Planned enhancements to an existing operational system c. Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing d. Integrating functions during the development of a new system

b

.33. Which of following tools measure the percentage of specific types of code that have been exercised? [K1] a. Security testing tools b. Coverage measurement tools c. Test Harness/Unit Test Framework Tools d. Test comparators

b

.34. If the author of the code is leading a code review for other developers and testers, what type of review is it? a. An informal development review b. A walkthrough c. An inspection d. An audit

b

.34. What is a potential risk in using tools to support testing? ... [K2] a. Insufficient reliance on the tool, i.e. Still doing manual testing when a test execution tool has been purchased. b. Unrealistic expectations, expecting the tool to do too much. c. The tool many find defects that aren't there. d. The tool will repeat exactly the same thing it did the previous time.

b

.35. Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), which sections of the test incident report should the following items be recorded? Sections a) Test incident report identifier b) Summary c) Incident description d) Impact Items 1. Impact on test plans 2. Unique identifier 3. Anomalies 4. Procedure step 5. Environment 6. References to other relevant documents a. a: 2&&& b: 4&&& c: 1, 3 and 5&&& d: 6 b. a: 2&&& b: 3&&& c: 4, 5 and 6&&& d: 1 c. a: 2&&& b: 6&&& c: 3, 4 and 5&&& d: 1 d. a: 2&&& b: 1&&& c: 3, 4 and 5&&& d: 6

b

.37. Which of the following best describes the behaviors defined in a use case that should be covered by tests? a. Positive path and negative path b. Basic, exception and error c. Normal, error, data, and integration d. Control flow, data flow and decision paths

b

.38. Which of following alternative describles a general testing principle... a. Defect are evenly distributed through the system b. Repeating the same test cases over again in new version of software find less and less defects c. Test can prove that there are no defect d. If test show no defect, the the system is useful

b

.38. You have been given the following requirement: A user must log in to the system with a valid username and password. If they fail to enter the correct combination three times, they will receive an error and will have to wait 10 minutes before trying again. The test terminates when the user successfully logs in. How many test cases are needed to provide 100% state transition coverage? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5

b

.38. You have to specify test cases based on equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis for an internet shop selling baby shoes. The shop provides a selection of shoes based on the following input parameters There are 4 different sizes, depending on the age of the baby. The system selects the appropriate size based on the following criteria: 1. 0 < age <= 4 months: size 1 2. 4 < age <= 8 months: size 2 3. 8 < age <= 15 months: size 3 4.15 < age <= 24 months: size 4 The gender of the baby: boy or girl Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. There are two invalid equivalence classes for the age input parameter b. The total number of combinations of valid equivalence classes of age and gender is 8 c. All combinations of valid equivalence classes could be covered with 4 test cases d. All valid equivalence classes could be covered with 6 test cases

b

.40. Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team a. The goal is to fulfill all testing activity requirements as specified in the project handbook b. The goal is to cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected c. The goal is to prove that all faults are identified d. The goal is to prove that failures may not be caused any more by the remaining defects

b

02. Which is not a goal of writing effective Problem/Bug report?[K2] Explain how to reproduce the problem llustrate how to fix the problem Analyze the error so you can describe it in a minimum number of steps. Write a report that is complete, easy to understand, and non-antagonistic

b

02. Which of following action define "Rework" correctly? a. Update review reports for those findings that require changes b. Fixing defects found in the work product reviewed c. Update the information of defects to the appropriate person or team d. Update the work product when the exit criteria are not reached

b

04. How many test cases are required to cover 100% 0 - switch coverage respectively from X2? (image) a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

b

05. What is the most important factor for successful performance of reviews? a. A separate scribe during the logging meeting b. Trained participants and review leaders c. The availability of tools to support the review process d. A reviewed test plan

b

05. Which of the following is true of acceptance testing? A goal of acceptance testing is to stress-test the system. A goal of acceptance testing is to establish confidence in the system. Acceptance testing is only used to address functionality issues within the system Acceptance testing is performed by technical staff.

b

07. What is the Cyclomatic Complexity of the code below? public void ProcessPages() { while (nextPage !=true) { if ((lineCount<=linesPerPage) && (status != Status.Cancelled) && (morePages == true)) { //.... } } } a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 8

b

07. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and debugging? [K2] a. Testing identifies the source of defects debugging analyzes the faults and propose prevention activities. b. Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software c. Testing removes faults debugging identifies the causes of failures d. Dynamic testing prevents the causes of failures, debugging removes the failures

b

10. Validation involves which of the following i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true ii is true and i,iii,iv are false i,ii,iii are true and iv is false iii is true and i,ii,iv are false

b

10. What is the purpose of performing regression testing when system maintenance activities have occurred? [K2] a. To ensure no unauthorized changes have been applied to the system b. Ensure the overall system has not regressed c. To identify any maintainability issues with the code d. To assess the scope of maintenance performed on the system

b

13. Which of the following is not part of performance testing? measuring response times recovery testing simulating many users generating many transactions

b

16. The formality of a review process is related to factors such as the maturity of the development process, any legal or regulatory requirements or the need for an audit trail. The followings details about the main phases of a formal review. Which is NOT correct? [K2] a. Planning: defining the review criteria and selecting the personnel b. Kick-off: selecting which parts of documents to review c. Rework: fixing defects found and recording updated status of defects d. Follow-up: checking that defects have been addressed

b

16. You start specification- based testing of a program. If calculates the greatest common divisor[ abbr,: GCD] of two integers IntA and IntB bigger than zero. The following test cases have been specified. lntcalcGCD (intintA, intintB); INT_MAX; largest Integer (e.G,.216 : 65536); Which test technique has been applied in order to determine the test cases A to F?..[I3] Equivalence partitioning Boundary value analysis State transition testing Decision table testing.

b

16. You start specification- based testing of a program. If calculates the greatest common divisor[ abbr,: GCD] of two intergers IntA and IntB bigger than zero. The following test cases have been specified. lntcalcGCD (intintA, intintB); INT_MAX; largest Integer (e.G,.216 : 65536); Which test technique has been applied in order to determine the test cases A to F?..[I3] Equivalence partitioning Boundary value analysis State transition testing Decision table testing.

b

17. Inspect the following piece of code: If Payment by Cash If it's Vietnam Dong Accept the VietNam Dong Else Exchange to Vietnam Dong End if Else Pay by Credit Card End if How many test cases are needed at least to cover decision coverage testing?. ..tK3] 2 3 4 5

b

17. What is beta testing? a. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location. b. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations. c. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location d. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

b

18. For the following piece of code, how many test cases are needed to get 100% statement coverage? Procedure X Read (Color) IF(Colors *Red*) THEN Call Roses(Color) ELSE IF ( Color - (<Blue*) THEN CaIl Violets(Color) ELSE PRINT *User is no Shakespeare* SaveToDatabase(Color) End Procedure X 1 3 5 7

b

20. Experience-based testing is where tests are derived from the tester's skill and intuition and their experience with similar applications and techologies. Which of the following is a reason to use experience-based testing?[K1] a. To target the developer's efforts to the areas that users will be more likely to use b. To find defects that might be missed by more formal techniques. c. To test for defects that only experienced users would encounter d. It is supported by tools and can be automated

b

22. Which of the following details would most likely be included in an incident report? I. Identification of the test item (configuration item) and environment II. Development process characteristics such as organization stability and test process used III. A review of the test basis, such as requirements, design, interfaces IV. Scope or degree of the impact on the stakeholders' interest. I, II and III I and IV III and IV II and III

b

23. Which of the following alternatives are typical project risks to be considered by the test manager?...[K2] Supplier problems, organizational factor and the quality of design . code and tests Delays and especially complex areas in the delivered product. Low quality of requirements, design, code and tests, as well as error areas in the delivered product Potential failure areas in the software or system.

b

24. What does it mean if a set of tests has achieved 90% statement overage? [K1] a. 9 out of 10 decision outcomes have been exercised by this set of tests. b. 9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests. c. 9 out of 10 tests have been run on this set of software. d. 9 out of 10 requirements statements about the software are correct.

b

25. Which is a wrong explanation about static analysis tools?... Static analysis tools measure a complexity of source codes. Static analysis tools measure a codes coverage and a effectiveness of static testing. Static analysis tools find defects of certain patterns of source codes. Static analysis tools measure level of accordance with coding rules.

b

26. Benefits of Independent Testing Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased. Independent Testers cannot identify defects. Independent Testers can test better than developers

b

26. You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns grades. Based on the score achieved the grades are as follows: 0-39=D-, 40-44=D, 45-49=D+, 50-54=C-, 55-59=C, 60-64=C+, 65-69=B-, 70-74=B, 75-79=B+, 80-84=A-, 85-89=A, 90-100=A+ If you apply boundary value analysis, how many test cases will you need to achieve minimum test coverage? [K3] a. 24 b. 25 c. 48 d. 49

b

28. With the help of testing, It is possible to measure the quality of software in terms of defects found for both functional and nonfunctional software requirements and characteristics [e.g.,reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability and portability). Which of following international standards describe on software characteristics? [K1] IEEE 829 ISO 25010 IEEE1028 ISO 15504

b

29. Which of the following describes NOT related with Testing Principles on Syllabus? Testing can show that defects are present but cannot prove that there are no defects. Exhausitive testing is feasible when risk analysis is used. Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the users needs and expectation To find defects early, testing activities shall be as early as possible in the software or system development lifecycle.

b

30. Planning is influenced by the test policy of the organization, the scope of testing, objectives, risks, constraints, criticality, testability and availability of resources. As the project and test planning progress, more information becomes available and more detail can be included in the plan. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in a test plan: [K1] a. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs b. To plan when to stop testing c. To know when a specific test has finished its execution d. To ensure that the test case specification is complete

b

32. Exit Criteria may consist of: i. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality or risk ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures. iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas iv. Verifying the Test Environment. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect. i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect

b

33. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress: i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation. iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

b

33. Which test design technique relies heavily on prior thorough knowledge of the system? a. Data driven testing technique b. Experience-based technique c. White-box technique d. Structure-based technique

b

34. Test reporting is concerned with summarizing information about the testing endeavor and the outline of a test summary report is given in IEEE Std 829-1998. What is covered in the variances section of the test summary report? [K2] a. The variances between the weekly status reports and the final summary report b. The variances between what was planned for testing and what was actually tested c. The variances between the test cases executed and the total number of test cases d. The variances between the defects found and the defects fixed

b

34. The selection of a test approach should consider the context : i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team. iv. The size of the testing Team i,ii,iii,iv are true. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false ii,iii,iv are true and i is false. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

b

37. What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle? a. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases. b. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code. c. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later. d. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

b

38. Non-functional system testing includes: testing to see where the system does not function correctly testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability testing a system function using only the software required for that function testing for functions that should not exist

b

39. As a test leader you are collecting measures about defects. You recogn ize thatafter the first test cycle-covering all requirements-subsystem C has a defect density that is 150% higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a defect density that 60% lower than the average. What conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact?[K31. We focus testing on subsytem A, because we have found fewest defects in that module so far. According to the testing principle &quot;defect clustering&quot; it is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsytem C in more detail. Because we are already found many defects in subsystem C we do not need to test is much more Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about the amount of additional testing.

b

39. As a test leader you are collecting measures about defects. You recognize that after the first test cycle-covering all requirements-subsystem C has a defect density that is 150% higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a defect density that 60% lower than the average. What conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact?[K31. We focus testing on subsytem A, because we have found fewest defects in that module so far. According to the testing principle &quot;defect clustering &quot; it is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsytem C in more detail. Because we are already found many defects in subsystem C we do not need to test is much more Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about the amount of additional testing.

b

40. Consider the following statements: i.an incident may be closed without being fixed. ii.incidents may not be raised against documentation. iii.the final stage of incident tracking is fixing. iv.the incident record does not include information on test environments. ii is true, i, iii and iv are false i is true, ii, iii and iv are false i and iv are true, ii and iii are false i and ii are true, iii and iv are false

b

Inspect the following piece of code: How many test cases are needed at least to cover decision coverage testing? // Procedure XXXX READ (Age) "This statement gets the actual age from the input device READ (Gender) "This statement gets the gender age from the input device READ (Customer country) "This statement gets the country. alias IF (Age >18) THEN CustomerType = "Main Target Customer" CustomerPotential = 1.000 IF Gender = "Male" THEN CustomerProductSet = "Technique" ELSE CustomerProductSet = "Clothes" END IF END IF Customer "Yes" IF CustomerCountry<> "Vietnam" THEN CustomerIsTarget = "No" CustomerIsInternational = "Yes" CustomerPotential = CustomerPtential * 1.1 ELSE CustomerIsInternational = "NO" END IF END Procedure // A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

b

Which alternative of following contains ONLY defects which can be discovered by static analysis? A. Referencing a variable with an undefined value, unreachable (dead) code, security vulnerabilities, race conditions. B Violations of coding standards, referencing a variable with an undefined value, unreachable (dead) code, security vulnerabilities C. Referencing a variable with an undefined value, deadlocks, unreachable (dead) code, security vulnerabilities. D Referencing a variable with an undefined value, unreachable (dead) code, inconsistent interface between modules and components, race conditions.

b

Which of following describes the testing techniques that is concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning, based on a test charter containing test objectives, and carried out within time-boxes? A. Error Guessing B. Exploratory testing C. Decision Table Testing D. State Transition Testing

b

Which of the following is a set of test cases that has clear traceability to, and complete coverage of, exactly one of the test conditions listed? Assume the inputs are the first two items in each triple, and the expected result the third. // As tester, you are working on a project to build an online banking application. Consider the following excerpt of the requirements specification: The system shall allow the customer three attempts to enter a valid user ID and password at the welcome screen- If three invalid use ID/password combinations have been entered, the system shall temporarily lock the user account. You have written a test design specification that includes, among others, the following two test conditions: 1. Test successful user ID/password login with: zero failed attempts before success; one failed attempt before success; and, two failed attempt before success- 2. Test unsuccessful user ID/password login. // A. (rest1, invalid1, fail) ; (rest1, invalid1, fail) B (Test0, vailid0, success) (Test1, invalid1, fail), (Test1, vaiid1, success), (Test2, invalid2, fail), (Test2, invalid2, fail), (Test2, valid2, success) C. (Test0, valid0, success) D. (Test1, invalid1, fail); (Test1, valid1, success)

b

You are brought in as the sole tester at the end of a project. You are were selected because of your understanding of the system and its intended behavior, user, customers, and other project stakeholders consider the software low-risk. You are give one week to execute tests to see if any show-stopping defects are present A. Specification based B. Experience based C. Structure based D. Static testing

b

"19. You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code. if width > length then biggest_dimension = width else biggest_dimension = length end_if The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above. print ""Biggest dimension is "" &biggest_dimension print ""Width: "" & width print ""Length: "" & length How many more test cases are required?" a. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage. b. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage. c. None, existing test cases can be used. d. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.

c

.01. According to ISTQB syllabus, A human being can make (P) which produces (Q) in the program code, or in a document. If (Q) in code is executed, the system may fail to do that it should do, causing (R). which of following is correct? [K1] a. P: Failure, Q: Defect, R: Error b. P: Error, Q: Failure, R: Defect c. P: Error, Q: Defect, R: Failure d. P: Failure, Q: Error, R: Defect

c

.01. What is not test objective? a. Finding defects b. Gaining confidence in and providing information about the level c. Preventing errors d. Providing decision-making information

c

.01. When test cases are designed early in the lifecycle, verifying the test basis via the test design, which common test objective is being achieved? a. Gaining confidence b. Finding defects c. Preventing defects d. Providing information for decision making

c

.01. Which of the following requirements is testable? a. The system shall be user friendly b. The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults. c. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load d. The system shall be built to be portable

c

.01. Which statement about testing is true? ...[K1] a. Testing can only be done by an independent test team. b. Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to work. c. Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle. d. Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.

c

.02. Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true? a. Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components. b. Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing c. Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable d. Source-code inspections are often used in component testing

c

.03. During testing, ... [K2] a. ... all parts of the system should be tested with the same intensity, because defects can be everywhere. b. ... the user interface should primarily be tested, because failures in it are most annoying for the customer. c. ... system parts where failures may cause great risks should be tested most intensively. d. ... data base access should be tested intensively, in order to prevent wrong data and inconsistencies an the database

c

.03. What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan? a. To produce a work breakdown structure b. To produce a test schedule. c. To communicate how testing will be performed d. To communicate how incidents will be managed

c

.03. Which of following is correct the order of independence testing from low to high ? a. Test designed by the persons b. Test designed from a different organization group c. Test designed by an external company d. Test designed by the another person a. a-b-c-d b. a-c-d-e c. a-d-b-c d. d-c-b-a

c

.03. Which of the following is false? a. In a system two different failures may have different severities b. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault c. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system d. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour

c

.04. Which is a correct explanation about non-functional testing? a. Non-functional testing shall not be executed in component testing, because non-functional testing is required to integrate whole functions b. Non-functional testing is a testing which requires inspirations and experiences, and has difficulty with numeric evaluation c. Non-functional testing is a testing which measure and judge various quality attributes d. Non-functional testing shall be executed based on ISO/IEC 9126

c

.04. Which is the example of a defect that causes the harm? a. A usability defect that results in user dissatisfaction b. A defect that causes slow response time when running reports c. A defect that causes raw sewage to be dumped into the ocean d. A regression defect that causes the desktop window to display in green

c

.04. Which of following is Not "Test Analysis and Design " activity in "Fundamental Test Process" ? [K2] a. Identifying and prioritizing test conditions based on analyses of test items, the specification, behavior and structure of the software b. Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases c. Creating test suites from the test procedures for efficient test execution d. Creating bi-directional traceability between test basis and test cases

c

.05. Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality? Select one: a. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities b. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system c. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects d. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

c

.05. Which of following will help prevent defects from reoccuring? a. Rotating developers to keep them motivated b. etermining the environmental conditions that cause the failure c. Improving processes based on root cause analysis d. Prioritizing re-occurring defects higher than new defects

c

.05. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts? a. Actual results b. Program specification c. User requirements d. System specification

c

.06. Which is NOT part of the test execution phase a. Performing the test basis b. Logging test results c. Reviewing the test basis d. Verify test environment

c

.07. You are a tester for company that provides grading software for the local school districts. The grade boundaries are: 75% pass, 85% distinctive, 95% honorable. Using the three-value boundary value analysis technique, how many test cases would be required to cover the valid grade transitions? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12

c

.08. If you need to add system integration testing as a test level for a particular project, what testing level should it directly follow? a. Unit test b. Integration test c. System test d. Acceptance test

c

.08. Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the requirements and system? a. Test closure. b. Test implementation and execution. c. Test analysis and design d. Test planning and control.

c

.08. Which is following is Not about System testing ? [K1] a. The test environment should correspond to the final target or production environment b. May include tests based on risks and/or on requirements specification, business process, use cases c. Tests the interactions between different system or between hardware and software d. Should investigate functional and non-functional requirements of the system and data quality characteristics

c

.08. Which of the following is true of the V-model .... [K2] a. ... it specifies the test techniques to be used b. ... it only models the test phase c. ... it includes the verification of design d. ... it only states that testing against user requirement

c

.08. You are currently working with a web-based retail company that recently created an online shopping portal. The user is only allowed to use one form of payment, credit card or debit card (with PIN). The system interfaces with the warehouse software system to verify items are instock prior to confirming the order. In addition, a third party credit/debit card vendor validates the credit/debit card and confirms available funds to cover the transaction prior to the final sale. Given this information, using the decision table technique, what is the minimum number of test cases you would need to test the full decision table? a. 8 b. 12 c. 16 d. 32

c

.09. What is covered in the variances section of the Test Summary Report? a. The variances between the weekly status reports and the final summary report b. The variances between the defects found and the defects fixed c. The variances between what was planned for testing and what was actually tested d. The variances between the test cases executed and the total number of test cases

c

.10. Which of the following is wrong? Select one: a. Static analysis tools support developers and testers in finding defects before dynamic testing b. Monitoring tools provide information that can be used for testing purposes c. Test execution tools generate test inputs or executable tests e.g. from requirements d. Security tools check for viruses and denial of service attacks

c

.11. Which of the following are major objectives of a pilot project for a tool introduction? a. Roll out, adapt, train, implement b. Monitor, support, revise, implement c. Learn, evaluate, decide, assess d. Evaluate, adapt, monitor, support

c

.11. Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing? a. The time since the last change was made to the system b. Defects found at the last regression test run c. The size and risk of any change(s) to the system. d. The coverage of the current regression pack.

c

.11. You executed your final 10 test cases to complete your test cycle. 4 test cases passed, 3 failed, 2 had exceptions and 1 is still in progress. What percent of execution should be indicated in your test progress report? a. 40% b. 70% c. 90% d. 100%

c

.11. which of the following statements are true? a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix. c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix

c

.12. Which of following is a trigger of maintenance testing? a. A new software product is being developed and defects have been found in unit testing b. A new software product is being developed and will work across multiple platforms c. A component of existing production software product has been removed d. A component of existing production software product has received high usage

c

.12. Which of following statement is true about Static Analysis? [K1] a. Static analysis is the precondition for executing the dynamic analysis b. Static analysis serves for creating test case c. Static analysis is an analysis without execution of the test object (under analysis) d. Static analysis is the check of the program code for compliance with the documentation rules

c

.12. You have been tasked with organizing a set of test cases into a test procedure that will indicate the order in which the test cases will be run. The order of execution is important because you are trying to test end-to-end transactions in this e-commerce book sales application, but you must also consider the priority of the test cases as some are more critical than others. Given the test cases in this table, what would be the best order for execution to achieve both goals? (Note: 1 is the highest risk) a. 4, 6, 1, 3, 2, 5, 7 b. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 1, 3, 4, 6, 7 c. 1, 3, 4, 6, 1, 2, 5, 6, 7 d. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7

c

.14. Which of the following is correct? Select one: a. Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect b. Testing tools allow developers do testing. Use of such tools changes the role of the test team c. Testing tools can be use by both developers and testers d. Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

c

.15. You are participating in a role-based review session. Your assigned role is that of a senior citizen. The product is an online banking application that is targeted for use on smart phones. You are currently reviewing the user interface of the product with a prototype that works on iPhones. Which of the following is an area that you should review? a. The speed of response from the banking backend b. The attractiveness of the application c. The size and clarity of the instruction text d. The reliability of the application when the connection is dropped

c

.16. The followings details about main phases of a formal review, which is NOT correct? a. Planning: defining the review criteria and selecting the personal b. Kick-off meeting: distributing documents and explaining the objectives, process and documents c. Rework: examining and evaluating issues during any physical meetings d. Follow up: checking that defects have been addressed

c

.16. When conducting reviews, psychological sensitivity is required. Which mistakes often occurs when conducting reviews and may lead to interpersonal problems within harms? [K2] a. Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product are already found and fixed by the developers. b. Due to time constraints, testers and reviewers do not believe they can afford enough time to find failures. c. Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against humans instead of against the software product. d. Testers and reviewers are not sufficiently trained to accurately identify failure and faults in the item under review.

c

.16. Which one of the statements below describes a failure discovered during testing or in production? a. The wrong version of one source code file was included in the build. b. The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables. c. The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box. d. The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.

c

.18. The following open incident report provided: Date : 01.01.01 Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in "Attention" instead of "Ready" Severity: High Life cycle: Integration Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report? I. Identification or configuration of the application II. The name of the developer III. Recommendation of the developer IV. The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button Select one: a. IV b. II, III c. I, IV d. I, II

c

.18. Which of following is a common characteristic of specification-based test design techniques? [K1] a. Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive the test cases b. The extent of coverage of software can be measured for existing test case c. Models, either formal or informal, are used for the specification of the problem to be solved, the software or its component d. The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive the test case

c

.18. Which of the following answers reflect characteristics of test management tools? [K2] A. Logging of test results and generation of progress reports B. Improve the efficiency of testing activities by automating repetitive tasks. C. Independent version control or interface with an external configuration management tool D. Assignment of actions to people (e.g. fix or confirmation test) a. B, C & D b. A, B & D c. A & C d. B & D

c

.19. A program validates a numeric field as follows: values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions? a. 10,11,21 b. 3,20,21 c. 3,10,22 d. 10,21,22

c

.20. Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test processes activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed? Select one: a. Requirements specification b. Analysis and design c. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting d. Implementation and execution

c

.20. The system shall allow the customer three attempts to enter a valid user ID and password at the welcome screen. If three invalid use ID/password combinations have been entered, the system shall temporarily lock the user's account. You have written a test design specification that includes, among others, the following two test conditions: 1) Test successful user ID/password login with: zero failed attempts before success&&& one failed attempt before success&&& and , two failed attempts before success 2) Test unsuccessful user ID/password login Which of the following is a set of test cases that has clear traceability to, and complete coverage of, exactly one of the test conditions listed? Assume the inputs are the first two items in each triple, and the expected result the third. [K3] a. (Test 0, valid0, success) b. (Test 1, invalid 1, fail), (Test 1, invalid 1, fail) c. (Test 0, valid 0, success), (Test 1, invalid 1, fail), (Test 1, valid1, success), (Test 2, invalid 2, fail), (Test 2, invalid 2, fail), (Test 2, valid 2, success) d. (Test 1, invalid 1, fail), (Test1, valid 1, success)

c

.20. Which statement is included in the common characteristics of experience-based test design techniques? a. Test case can be derived systematically from these models b. Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases c. Knowledge about likely defects and their distribution is another source of information d. Model, either formal or informal, are used the specifications of the problems to be solved, the software or its component

c

.20. ou have been given the following conditions and results from those condition combinations. Conditions: Valid cash - Valid credit card - Valid debit card - Valid pin - Bank accepts - Valid Selection - Item in Stock Results: Reject Cash - Reject Card - Error Message - Return Cash- Refund Card - Sell Item. Given this information, using the decision table technique, what is the minimum number of test cases you would need to test these conditions? a. 7 b. 13 c. 15 d. 18

c

.21. Which of following is Not true about Multiple condition coverage? ..[K3] a. In this coverage, all possible combinations of true/false conditions are identified. b. 100% multiple condition coverage implies 100% condition determination coverage c. The percentage of combinations of all multi condition outcomes within one statement that have been exercised by a test suite d. White box test design technique

c

.22. A test case has the following elements:...[K1] a. A test environment description, and test instructions b. A test plan, test inputs, and logging instructions c. A set of inputs, execution preconditions, and expected outcomes developed d. Execution instructions, and a function description to help decide if the outcome is correct

c

.22. If you are using error guessing to target your testing, which type of testing are you doing? a. Specification-based b. Structure-based c. Experience-based d. Reference-based

c

.22. In which document would you find instructions for the steps to be taken for a test including set-up, logging, environment and measurement? ... [K2] a. Test design specification. b. Test plan c. Test procedure specification. d. Test case specification.

c

.22. Which of the following should include the scheduling of test analysis? a. Test approach b. Test strategy c. Test planning d. Test estimation

c

.23. In an incident report, what is another attribute that can be used to indicate the priority of the incident? a. Severity b. Risk c. Urgency d. Impact

c

.23. Which of the following is an example of debugging? a. A tester finds a defect and reports it b. A tester retests a fix from the developer and finds a regression c. A developer finds and fixes a defect d. A developer performs unit testing

c

.23. White Box techniques ... [K1] a. ... check the interfaces of component b. ... are useful in system testing c. ... take into consideration the structure of the test object d. ... find if not initials are used

c

.27. A new retail product was released to production by your company. Shortly after the release it was apparent that there were numerous problems with the point of sale application. This resulted in a number of customer complaints and negative postings on social media encouraging people to take their business to your competitor. You have investigated the problems and have discovered that the production point of sale equipment is a later model than the model used in testing. The software functions correctly on the old version, but fails on the later model. Given this scenario, what is the root cause and what is the effect? a. The root cause is the old equipment and the effect is the new equipment b. The root cause is the customer complaints and the effect is the social media postings c. The root cause is conducting the testing on the wrong version of the equipment and the effect is the customer complaints and postings d. The root cause is the software failing on the later model and the effect is the customer complaints

c

.28. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :- Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 then Print "Large" End if If p > 50 then Print "pLarge" End if a. Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2 b. Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2 c. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2 d. Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

c

.28. Which of the following is NOT classified as a Non-Functional Testing?...[K1] a. Performance Testing b. Usability testing c. Structural Testing d. Reliability testing

c

.28. Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements. B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developers work. C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment. D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found. a. B and C are true; A and D are false b. A and D are true; B and C are false c. A and C are true, B and D are false d. C and D are true, A and B are false

c

.28. You have been give the following set of test case to run. You have been instructed to run them in order by risk and to accomplish the testing as quickly as possible to provide feedback to the developers as soon as possible. Give this information, what it the best order in which to run these tests ? a. 5, 1,3,2,4 b. 1,2,4,3,5 c. 1,3,2,4,5 d. 3,4,5,1,2

c

.29. Integration testing has this fundamental purpose:... a. Testing the new system together with the systems existing before. b. Testing components together in a hierarchical, incremental way like top-down or bottom-up. c. Testing interfaces between components, interactions between different parts of the system, as well as interfaces between systems. d. Testing the client part together with the different other layers of the software (like for example, application server code, database server code etc.)

c

.29. Which of following is a Project Risk? [K1] a. The potential that the software/hardware could cause harm to an individual or company b. Poor data integrity and quality c. Improper attitude toward or expectations of testing d. Software that does not perform its intended functions

c

.29. Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same. B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved. C. Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing. a. A, C and D and E are true; B is false b. A, C and E are true; B and D are false c. C and D are true; A, B and E are false d. B and E are true; A, C and D are false

c

.30. As a Test Manager you have the following requirements to be tested: Requirements to test: R1 - Process Anomalies � High Complexity R2 - Remote Services � Medium Complexity R3 - Synchronization � Medium Complexity R4 - Confirmation � Medium Complexity R5 - Process closures � Low Complexity R6 - Issues � Low Complexity R7 - Financial Data � Low Complexity R8 - Diagram Data � Low Complexity R9 - Changes on user profile � Medium Complexity Requirements logical dependencies (A -> B means that B is dependent on A.) How would you structure the test execution schedule according to the requirement dependencies? a. R4 &gt; R5 &gt; R1 &gt; R2 &gt; R3 &gt; R7 &gt; R8 &gt; R6 &gt; R9 b. R1 &gt; R2 &gt; R3 &gt; R4 &gt; R5 &gt; R7 &gt; R8 &gt; R6 &gt; R9 c. R1 &gt; R2 &gt; R4 &gt; R5 &gt; R3 &gt; R7 &gt; R8 &gt; R6 &gt; R9 d. R1 &gt; R2 &gt; R3 &gt; R7 &gt; R8 &gt; R4 &gt; R5 &gt; R6 &gt; R9

c

.31. During regression test ... [K2] a. ... all already executed tests are repeated after the unit, build or system under test is modified in order to check if the defects found so far are corrected. b. ... all already executed tests are repeated after the unit, build or system under test is modified in order to assure that changes of the test object have not created new defects. c. ... a part of the already executed tests are repeated after the unit, build or system under test is modified, in order to check that the changes have not created new defects. d. ... a part of the already executed tests are repeated after the unit, build or system under test is modified in order to check if the defects found so far are corrected.

c

.31. Which of following is NOT objectives of incident report? [K1] a. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary b. Provide test leaders a means of tracking the quality of the system under test and the progress of the testing c. Provide evidence of tester's worthiness d. Provide ideas for test process improvement

c

.31. Which of the following are NOT a reasonable conclusions you could draw from the test principles?...[K1] a. The testing coverage required in one organization may not be appropriate in another organization. b. Risk assessment is required to understand how much testing is enough for each system. c. Safety critical systems are tested exhaustively d. Safety critical systems are likely to need more coverage than non-safety critical system.

c

.32. Non-functional requirements ... [K1] a. ... are always documented in detail in the specification by the customers. b. ... should only be validated by the customer, because only the customer can decide if they fulfill his requirements. c. ... are often overlooked when writing specification documents, but should be checked anyway. d. ... need only to be considered in the test if they are documented in the requirements specification.

c

.32. Test planning has which of the following major tasks? i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing. ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware) iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements, architecture, design, interface) iv. Determining the exit criteria. a. i, iii, iv are true and ii is false b. i, ii are true and iii, iv are false c. i, ii, iv are true and iii is false d. ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

c

.33. For which of the following activities is a static analysis tool not useful? Select one: a. Calculation of complexity of the code b. Enforcement of coding standards c. Quantitative analysis related to the tests (e.g tests passed) d. Calculation of complexity of the code

c

.33. Which following activity may cover the estimates of defect density or reliablity measures? a. Test planning b. Entry criteria c. Exit criteria d. Test estimation

c

.33. Which of the following is an example of debugging? a. A tester finds a defect and reports it b. A tester retests a fix from the developer and finds a regression c. A developer finds and fixes a defect d. A developer performs unit testing

c

.34. Four equivalences classes are given for integer value, 0<x<100& 100<=x<=200& 200<x<500& x>=500, Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions? Select one: a. 0, 50, 100, 150, 200, 350, 500 b. 50, 100, 200, 1000 c. 50, 100, 250, 1000 d. 0, 1, 99, 100, 200, 201, 499, 500

c

.34. Which of statement correctly describles about metrics and example of test reporting and control? a. Test reporting: changing the test schedule due to availability and unavailability of test environment b. Test reporting: re-prioriting test when an identified risk occur c. Test control: setting an entry criterion requiring fixed to have been re-tested by a developer before accepting them into a build d. Test control: assessing the effectiveness of testing with respect to objectives

c

.35. The most visible part of testing is test execution. But to be effective and efficient, test plans should also include time to be spent on planning on planning the tests, designing test cases, preparing for execution and evaluation results. Which of the following is a major task of test planning? a. Preparing test specifications b. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting c. Determine the test approach d. Measuring and analyzing results

c

.35. Which of the following is an extension of equivalence partitioning? a. Decision tables b. Decision testing c. Boundary value analysis d. State transition testing

c

.37. The most important thing about early test design is that it: a. makes test preparation easier b. means inspections are not required. c. can prevent fault multiplication. d. will find all faults.

c

.39. Which of the following structure-based test design technique would be most likely to be applied to? 1 Boundaries between mortgage interest rate bands. 2 An invalid transition between two different areas statuses. 3 The business process flow for mortgage approval. 4 Control flow of the program to calculate repayments. a. 2, 3 and 4 b. 2 and 4 c. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3

c

.39. Which one of the following statements about independent testing is not correct? Select one: a. Independent testing may be performed at any level of testing b. Independent testing is often more effective at finding defects and failures c. Independent testing is not appropriate for unit testing d. Independent testing can be performed by developers with the right mindset

c

.39. You are testing a thermostat for a heating/air conditioning system. You have been given the following requirements: • When the temperature is below 70 degrees, turn on the heating system • When the temperature is above 75 degrees, turn on the air conditioning system • When the temperature is between 70 and 75 degrees, inclusive, turn on fan only Which of the following is the minimum set of test temperature values to achieve 100% two-value boundary value analysis coverage? a. 70, 75 b. 65, 72, 80 c. 69, 70, 75, 76 d. 70, 71, 74, 75, 76

c

.46. Which of the following is a true statement about test automation scripts that are captured using a capture/play tool? a. The script are easy to maintain b. The script are data driven c. The script are unstable d. The script are created by experienced automators

c

01. The most visible part of testing is test execution. But to be effective and efficient, test plans should also include time to be spent on planning the tests, designing test cases, preparing for execution and evaluating results. Which of the following is a major task of test planning? [K1] a. Preparing test specifications b. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting c. Determining the test approach. d. Measuring and analyzing results

c

02. An Android application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the 'purchase identification' module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase after payment by the customer. Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application. An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

c

02. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence? a. It does not require familiarity with the code. b. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code. c. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests. d. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.

c

03. Which of the following are NOT a reasonable conclusions you could draw from the test principles?...[K1] Safety critical systems are likely to need more coverage than nonsafety critical system Risk assessment is required to understand how much testing is enough for each system Safety critical systems are tested exhaustively The testing coverage required in one organization may not be appropriate in another or ganization.

c

03. Which of the following is the international standard for the Incident Report template? a. ISO25010 b. IEEE1044 c. IEEE829 d. ISO9126

c

04. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account: i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk ii. Project constraints such as time and budget iii. Size of Testing Team iv. Size of the Development Team i,ii,iii are true and iv is false i,,iv are true and ii is false i,ii are true and iii,iv are false ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

c

04. In any software development life cycle (SDLC) model, which of the following are characteristics of good testing? I. Providing complete test coverage of all branches of the system code i II. Having a corresponding testing activity for each development activity. III. Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available IV. Each test level has test objectives speciftc to that level. I and III I, II and IV II, III and IV I and II

c

05. The followings describe about causes of software defects. Which of the following is a correct statement? [K1] a. A developer makes a mistake which causes a bug that may be seen as a defect when the software is executed b. A developer makes an error which results in a failure that may be seen as a fault when the software is executed c. A developer makes a mistake which causes a defect that may be seen as a failure during dynamic testing d. A developer has a failure which results in a defect that may be seen as a mistake during dynamic testing

c

09. A defect was found during testing that the system crashed when the network got disconnected while receiving data the server. The defect was fixed by correcting codes which check the network availability during data transferring. The corresponding module did cover 100% of statement with existing test cases. To verifi. the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some tests were designed and added to the test suite. What types of testing are mentioned above?..[K3] A. Functional testing B. Structural testing C. Confirmation testing D. Perfonnance testing A,BandD A,CandD A,BandC AandC

c

11. A group of test activities can be aimed at verifying the software system (or a part of a system) based on a specific reason or target for testing. Which following statement is NOT true about the objectives of test types? [K2] a. A function to be performed by the software b. The structure or architecture of the software or system c. A non-functional quality characteristic, such as appropriateness and correctness testing d. Changed related, i.e.., confirming that defects have been fixed ( confirmation testing) and looking for unintended changes (regression testing)

c

13. There are several characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model. Which statement is NOT true about the characteristics of good testing? [K1] a. Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available in the development life cycle b. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level c. The planning of tests for a given test level should begin during the corresponding d. For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.

c

14. Functional system testing is: testing that the system functions with other systems testing that the components that comprise the system function together testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole testing the system performs functions within specified response times

c

15. Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design? a. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout b. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout c. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout. d. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout

c

18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle: i. Hi-level design ii. Code iii. Low-level design iv. Business requirements a Unit tests b Acceptance tests c System tests i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

c

19. If you are testing a module of code, how do you determine the level of decision coverage you have achieved?[K2] a. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of executable statements in the module b. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decisions in the module c. By taking the number of decision outcomes you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decision outcomes in the module d. By taking the number of decisions you have you tested and dividing that by the total lines of code in the module.

c

19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process? Test Planning and Control Test implementation and Execution Requirement Analysis Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

c

19. You have become the test manager of a software development project that is already underway. Which questions do you ask FIRST in order to write a test plan and to define the overall testing strategy? A. What are the biggest product risks? B. Where and how are the system requirements specified? C. Is there already test data available? D. When is the project due to be finished? E. Have end-users already been selected as testers? F. Is a tool for automated testing in place? A, D and F are true; B, C and E are false A, C and E are true; B, D and F are false ... A, B and D are true; C, E and F are false B, C and D are true; A, E and F are false

c

23. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box) techniques? a. Test cases can be easily automated b. Test cases are independent of each other. c. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system . d. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.

c

24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique: Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary Value Analysis, Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques. Equivalence partitioning, State Transition, Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques. Equivalence Partioning, State Transition, Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing Techniques.

c

25. Regression testing should be performed: i. every week ii. after the software has changed iii. as often as possible iv. when the environment has changed v. when the project manager says i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false

c

26. Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove? a. Usability defects found by customers b. Defects in infrequently used functionality c. Defects that were detected early d. Minor defects that were found by users

c

26. Which of the following testing activities can be automated? A. Reviews and inspections B. Collecting and measurements C. Test planning D. Test execution E. Test data generation A, C and D are true; B and E are false B, C and E, are true; A and D are false B, D and E are true; A and C are false A, B and C are true; D and E, are false

c

27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage: Read P Read Q If p+q > 100 then Print "Large" End if If p > 50 then Print "pLarge" End if Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2 Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2 Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2 Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2

c

29. Consider the following decision table Given this decision table, what is the expected result for the following test case?[K3] TC1: A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving record TC2: A 62-year-old tourist with a clean driving record a. TC1: Don't supply car, TC2: Supply car with premium charge. b. Information TC1: Supply car with premium charge, TC2: Supply car with no premium charge c. TC1: Don't supply car, TC2: Supply car with no premium charge d. TC1: Supply car with premium charge, TC2: Don't supply car.

c

30. In any software development life cycle (SDLC) model, which of the following are characteristics of good testing? I. Providing complete test coverage of all branches of the system code II. Having a corresponding testing activity for each development activity. III. Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available IV. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level. a. I and III b. I and II c. II, III and IV d. I, III and IV

c

30. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities? i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered ii. Defect report analysis. iii. Finalizing and archiving testware. iv. Analyzing lessons. i , ii , iv are true and iii is false i , ii , iii are true and iv is false i , iii , iv are true and ii is false All of above are true

c

31. Which of following is NOT related with Inspection type of review? Led by trained moderator Includes metrics gathering Result may be documented Specified entry and exit criteria for acceptance of the software product.

c

32. The test approach is the implementation of the test strategy for a specific project and defined and refined in the test plans and test designs. There are several approaches and which following statement is TRUE about Methodical approaches? [K2] a. Stochastic testing using statistical information about failure rates (such as reliability growth models) or usage (such as operational profiles) b. Exploratory testing where testing is more reactive to events than pre-planned, and where execution and evaluation are concurrent tasks c. Failure-based (including error guessing and fault attacks), experience-based, checklist-based, and quality charactetistic-based d. Risk-based testing where testing is directed to areas of greatest risk.

c

32. With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY associated? a. Tool support for performance and monitoring. b. Tool support for static testing c. Tool support for test execution and logging. d. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.

c

34. ln this type of software testing techniques, inputs to the software or system are divided into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behavior, so they are likely to be processed the same way.Which of following techniques is correct? Use Case Testing Boundary values analysis Equivalence Partitioning Decision Testing

c

35. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called: an error a fault a failure a defect

c

35. Which of following is NOT a Specification-based or Black-box Techniques? Decision Table Testing State Transition Testing Decision testing and Coverage Use Case Testing

c

36. You have received the following description section in an incident report. The report executed per the attached steps, but the data was incorrect. For example, the information in column 1 was wrong. See the attached screenshot. This report is critical to the users and they will be unable to do their jobs without this information. What is the biggest problem with this incident report? [K2] a. The developer will not know how to repeat the test b. The developer will not know how important the problem is c. The developer does not know what the tester expected to see d. The developer will not be able to see what the tester is saying is wrong

c

37. You are testing a scale system that determines shipping rates for a regional web-based auto parts distributor. Due to regulations, shipments cannot exceed 100 lbs. You want to include boundary value analysis as part of your black-box test design. How many tests will you need to execute to achieve 100% two-value boundary value analysis? Weight 1-10lb 11-25lb 26-50lb 51-100lb Shipping Cost $5 5 $7. $12 $17 a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

c

A simple gaming system has been specified as a set of use cases. it has been tested by the supplier and is now ready for user acceptance testing. The system is assessed as low risk and there is pressure to release the software into the market as soon as possible. Which of the following test techniques would be most appropriate for this testing? A. State transition testing and decision testing B. Equivalence partitioning and statement testing C. Use case testing and exploratory testing D. Decision table testing and exploratory testing

c

Developers of market, of COTS software often want to get feedback from potential existing customers in their market before the software product is put up for sale commercially. This testing is performed at the developing organization's site but not by developing team. What is this testing? A. User Acceptance Testing B. Operational Testing C. Alpha Testing D. Beta testing

c

Given the following sample of pseudo code: input ExamScore if ExamScore <= 75 then Print "Candidate has failed" Else Print "Candidate has passed" if ExamScore >= 120 then Print "Candidate has achieved a distinction" Endlf Endlf. What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee 100% decision coverage? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

c

The fundamental process for a formal review comprises the following main phases: A. Initiate review- Reviewer selection- Individual review- Issue communication and analysis - Rework B. Planning& Preparation- Overview meeting- individual review- fix- Report C. Planning- initiate review- individual review- issue communication and analysis- Fix defect and report D. Preparation- issue Detection- issue communication and analysis- Rework- Report

c

Which of following activity is NOT related with Test implementation and execution the fundamental test process? A. Creating test suites from the test procedures for efficient execution B. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly C. Identifying necessary test data to support test condition and test cases. D. Finalizing, implementing and prioritizing test case including the identification test data.

c

Which of following is NOT a Test control actions in Test Progress monitoring and control? A. Re-prioritizing test when an identified risk occurs. B. Making decisions based on information from test monitoring C. Setting an exit criterion requiring fixes to have been re-tested. D. Change the test schedule due to availability or unavailability of test environment.

c

Which of following is NOT a typical Entry Criteria? A. Test Tool readiness in test environment B. Test environment availability and readiness C. Estimates of defect density or reliability measures D. Testable code availability

c

Which of following is NOT correct regarding of Testing and Quality?.. A. Testing can give confidence in the quality of the software if it finds few or no defect. B. A properly designed test that passes reduces the overall level of risk in a system. C. Testing should not be integrated as one of the quality assurance activities for independent. D. By understanding the root cause of defects found in other project, testing processes can be improved.

c

Which of following statement defines the highest independence? a. Test designed by a person from an independent test team or performance test specialists b. Test designed by another person form development team c. Test designed by a person from an outsourcing or certification by an external body d. Test designed by the person who wrote the software under test with the low level of independence

c

in below specification, how many different valid combinations of inputs exist for computing the price? [Specification] Vietnam Railway company runs a train from Ho Chi Minh City to Hanoi. This train has four different kinds of accommodation with different ticket prices: Hard seat, soft seat, hard sleeper, and soft sleeper. For hard sleeper, there is a different price for lower, middle and upper berth. For soft sleeper, there is a different price for lower and upper berth. For sleeping accommodation, different prices apply for non-air-condition and air-condition. For soft sleeper, a higher price applies for compartments with own bathroom. High-speed trains exist, but have only hard and soft seat, and they have another price than " normal" trains. A. 12 B. 14 C. 18 D. 36

c

"38. Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool? i) Investigate the organisation's test process. ii) Conduct a proof of concept. iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool." a. i, ii, iii. b. ii, iii, iv. c. i, iii, iv. d. i, ii, iv.

d

.01. Which of statement is not true about test coverage a. 100% path coverage ensure 100% statement coverage b. 100% path coverage detect more failure than 100% branch coverage c. 100% LCSAJ coverage ensure 100% statement coverage d. 100% statement coverage detect more failure than path coverage

d

.01. Which of the following are conclusions you could draw from the principles? A. Safety critical systems are tested exhaustively B. The testing coverage required in one organization may not be appropriate in another organizations C. Risk assessment is required to understand how much testing is enough for each system D. Safety critical systems are likely to need more coverage than non-safety critical system E. Web sites cannot be tested because of the vast number of combinations of platform, browser, internet route and navigation options a. B, D and E are reasonable conclusions, the others are not b. A, D and E are reasonable conclusions, the others are not c. B, C and E are reasonable conclusions, the others are not d. B, C and D are reasonable conclusions, the others are not

d

.02. Debugging and testing are different. Dynamic testing can show failures that are cause by defects. Debugging is the development activity that find, analyzes and removes the cause of failure. Which of following is the example of debuging? a. A tester retests a fix from a developer and finds a regression b. A developer performs unit test c. A tester finds defect and reports its d. A developer finds and fixes a defect

d

.02. Deciding how much testing is enough should take account of followings except? [K2] a. Level of Risk b. Project constraints c. Safety d. Decision Table

d

.02. Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool? a. Test comparator b. Database model checker c. Coverage measurement tool d. Memory leak detector

d

.02. Which of the following is a goal for a proof-of-concept or pilot phase for tool evaluation? a. Decide which tool to acquire b. Decide on the main objectives and requirements for this type of tool. c. Evaluate the tool vendor including training, support and commercial aspects d. Decide on standard ways of using, managing, storing and maintaining the tool and the test assets

d

.02. the risk of an undetected defect ... [K2] a. ... does not influence testing in any way. b. ... has no influence on the specification of the test cases. c. ... has no influence on the prioritization of the tests. d. ... has influence on test comprehensiveness and intensity.

d

.03. If you are testing a module of code, how do you determine the level of decision coverage you have achieved? a. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of executable statements in the module b. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decisions in the module c. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total lines of code in the module d. By taking the number of decision outcomes you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decision outcomes in the module

d

.03. Which of the following are valid testing principles ? I. Exhaustive testing is in general impossible II. Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused III. Testing may guarantee that a program is correct IV. Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct V. Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product Select one: a. I, V b. II, IV c. II, IV d. I, IV, V

d

.04. Which of the following is a true general testing principle? [K2] a. Testing can prove that there are no defects. b. If testing shows no defects, then the system is useful. c. Defects are evenly distributed throughout the system. d. Repeating the same test cases over again in new versions of the software finds less and less defects.

d

.05. Which of following is correct about regression testing? [K2] a. During regression test all already executed tests are repeated after the unit, build or system under test is modified in order to assure that changes of the test object have NOT created new defect b. During regression test all part of the already executed tests are repeated after the unit, build or system under test is modified in order to check if the defect found so far are corrected c. During regression test a part of the already executed tests are repeated after the unit, build or system under test is modified in order to check if the defects found so far are corrected d. During regression test a part of the already executed tests are repeated after the unit, build or system under test is modified, in order to check that the changes have NOT created new defects

d

.05. Which of the following alternatives describes the fundamental test process? [K1] a. Planning, follow up and control, analysis and specification, design and implementation, execution and evaluating exit criteria, reporting and test closure activities. b. Strategic planning, specification, implementation, test environment implementation, execution and checking, follow-up and reporting. c. Planning and control, evaluation, implementation, execution, retest and regression test, test closure activities, evaluating exit criteria and reporting. d. Planning and control, tesst analysis, test design, test implementation, test execution, test completion

d

.05. Which of the following is a project risk? a. A module that performs incorrect calculations due to a defect in a formula b. A failed performance test c. An issue with the interface between the system under test and a peripheral device d. A problem with the development manager which is resulting in his rejecting all defect reports

d

.06. Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? a. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality b. Testing is isolated from development c. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete d. Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased

d

.06. Which of the following statement is true? [K2] a. Tests are best designed by the person who wrote the Software Quality Engineering b. Component testing is best done by developer, system testing must be done by a group independent from developers. c. Independence assures effective testing. d. A certain degree of independence is often more effective in finding defects

d

.06. Which of the following statements about reviews is true? a. Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications. b. Reviews are the least effective way of testing code. c. Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans. d. Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans

d

.06. Which testing level is primarily focused on building confidence rather than finding defects? a. Unit test b. Integration test c. System test d. Acceptance test

d

.06. You have received the following description section in an incident report. "The report executed per the attached steps, but the data was incorrect. For example, the information in column 1 was wrong. See the attached screenshot. This report is critical to the users and they will be unable to do their jobs without this information. " What is the biggest problem with this incident report? a. The developer won't know how important the problem is b. The developer won't know how to repeat the test c. The developer won't be able to see what the tester is saying is wrong d. The developer doesn't know what the tester expected to see

d

.07. Which of following statement is NOT one of test objectives? a. Providing information for decision-making b. Finding defects c. Gaining confidence about the level of quality d. Preventing errors

d

.07. Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? a. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete b. All document reviews involve the development team c. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities d. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level

d

.08. Which of the following is a form of functional testing? a. Boundary value analysis b. Usability testing c. Performance testing d. Correctness testing

d

.09. You are a Tester for a company that provides incentives to its customers based on how much money they spend online shopping: Category 1: $1 - $100 = 5% Category 2: $100.01 - $500 = 7.5% Category 3: Over $500 = 10% The company recently discovered that their competitors were offering better incentives for the same amounts of money spent and now want to update their current incentive rate to match the competitor's. Using the two-value boundary value analysis test design technique, which of the following is the correct set of test cases to achieve 100% coverage with the minimum number of test cases? a. $0, $1, $100, $500, max spend b. $1, $100, $100.01, $500, $500.01, max spend, max spend+$0.01 c. $0, $1, $100, $150, $500, $550, max spend, max spend+$50 d. $0, $0.99, $1, $100, $100.01, $500, $500.01, max spend, max spend+$0.01

d

.10. If you are testing to ensure that the software will be easy to analyze and change, what type of non-functional testing are you conducting? a. Portability b. Functional c. Usability d. Maintainability

d

.10. Testing according to the V-model has the following fundamental principles [K2] a. There must a least be the following test levels: Component testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing. b. The model is only useful for large critical software projects where there is one delivery only. c. For every development level, there must be a corresponding test level. d. For every development level, there must be a corresponding test level. For every test level, early test design should be implemented.

d

.10. What are good practices for testing within the development life cycle? a. Testers are involved in document reviews b. Different test levels are defined with specific objectives c. Early test analysis and design d. All of above

d

.10. What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts? a. Because software is inherently risky. b. Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value. c. Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs d. Because testing everything is not feasible

d

.11. Which of following is an importance of characteristic of tests used for regression testing? a. They focus on testing the intricate and difficult-to-test aspects of software b. They require signification maintenance effort for each release c. They are used for one release and are then discarded to keep the test set fresh d. They are reusable for multiple releases with little maintenance

d

.11. Which of the following statements correctly characterizes the risk analysis used in testing ? I. The risk level depends on the probability of occurrence of an undesired event. II. The risk level is determined by the probability of occurrence of an undesired event and by its impact. III. Project risks are those that characterize the project ability to achieve its objectives. IV. Product risks are areas of potential failures (i.e. future undesired events ) in the software or system. Select one: a. I, II, III b. I, II c. III, IV d. II, III, IV

d

.12. A system for calculation of taxes has the people's age as input. The "Age" field is supposed to accept integer numbers between 18 and 75 (including). Which is the correct result of boundary value analysis? Select one: a. 0, 18, 75, 99 b. 17, 18, 19, 50,75, 76 c. 0, 17, 18, 75, 76, 99 d. 17, 18, 75, 76

d

.12. Which of following is NOT true about multiple condition coverage? ... [K3] a. 100% multiple condition coverage implies 100% determination coverage b. In this coverage, all possible combinations of true/false conditions are identified c. White box test design technique d. The percentage of combinations of all multi condition outcomes within one statement that have been exercised by a test suite

d

.12. Which testing is the repeated testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of changes? a. Functional testing b. Non-functional testing c. Structure testing d. Regression testing

d

.13. What is the purpose of performing regression testing when system maintenance activities have occurred? a. To ensure no unauthorized changes have been applied to the system b. To assess the scope of maintenance performed on the system c. To identify any maintainability issues with the code d. To ensure the overall system has not regressed

d

.13. Which of following is NOT a typical "Planning" activity of formal review? [K1] a. Defining the review criteria b. Defining the entry and exit criteria for more formal review types c. Selecting which parts of documents to review d. Preparing for the review meeting by reviewing the documents

d

.13. Which of these is a functional test? ... [K1] a. Measuring response time on an on-line booking system. b. Checking the effect of high-volumes of traffic in a call-center system. c. Checking how easy the system is to use. d. Checking the online bookings screen information and the database contents against the information on the letter to the customers.

d

.14. Which of following is related a typical "Fixing" activity of formal review ? [K1] a. Gathering metrics b. Checking on exit criteria for more formal review type c. Checking that defects have been addressed d. Recording updated status of defect in formal review

d

.14. You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns grades. Based on the score achieved the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F, 50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-89 = B, 90-100=A If you apply boundary value analysis, how many test cases will you need to achieve minimum test coverage? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14

d

.14. _____________ approaches, such as exploratory testing where testing is more reactive to events than pre-planned, and where execition and evaluation are concurrent tasks? [K3] a. Exploratory b. Regression-averse c. Analytical d. Reactive

d

.15. Which is a correct explanation about product risk?... [K1] a. Due to shortage of budgets, tessting members cannot be assigned to a tessting team as planned b. Due to delay of development phase, period of test phase get to be shortened c. Due to delay of development phase, period of test phase get to be shortened d. Delivery of software which may include some easy bugs

d

.16. Which of the following is an advantage of independent testing? a. Independent testers don't have to spend time communicating with the project team b. Programmers can stop worrying about the quality of their work and focus on producing more code. c. The others on a project can pressure the independent testers to accelerate testing at the end of the schedule. d. Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs and implementations.

d

.17. What type of testing is normally conducted to verify that a product meets a particular regulatory requirement? a. Unit testing b. Integration testing c. System testing d. Acceptance testing

d

.17. Which of following black-box testing techniques focuses covering on all combinations of triggering conditions? a. State transition testing b. Equivalence partitioning c. Boundary value analysis d. Decision table

d

.17. Which of the following is NOT the one of Experience-based techniques? a. Error guessing b. Exploratory testing c. Checklist based testing d. Cause Effect Graphing

d

.18. In what way can testing be part of Quality assurance? a. It ensures that requirements are detailed enough. b. It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases. c. It ensures that standards in the organization are followed. d. It reduces the level of risk to the quality of the system.

d

.18. Which of the following is a good reason for a developer to use a Test Harness tool? a. To help the developer to compare differences between files and databases. b. To reduce the quantity of component tests needed to be run. c. To make it easier for developers to peer-test each others code. d. To simplify running unit tests when related components are not available yet.

d

.18. Which of the following statements for the boundary value test technique is TRUE? a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests b. Is used in white box testing strategy c. Test combinations of input circumstances d. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence class

d

.19. If you are testing a module of code, how do you determine the level of decision coverage you have achieved? a. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of executable statements in the module b. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decisions in the module c. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the total lines of code in the module d. By taking the number of decision outcomes you have tested and dividing that by the total number of decision outcomes in the module

d

.19. Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader? Select one: a. To automate tests b. To prepare and acquire test data c. To set up the test environment d. To coordinate the test strategy with project managers

d

.20. Which of the following test estimation approaches is based on typical values? a. Risk-based b. Value-based c. Expert-based d. Metrics-based

d

.20. lT.Company ABC is going to provide their employees with a bonus which will be based on the employee's length of service in the company. The bonus calculation will be zero if they have been with the company for less than two years, 10% of their salary for more than two but less than five years, and 25% for five to ten years, 35% for ten years or more. The interface will not allow a negative value to be input, but it will allow a zero to be input. How many equivalence partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus?...[K3] a. Two equivalence partitions. b. Three equivalence partitions c. Four equivalence partitions d. Five equivalence partitions

d

.21. A defect was found during testing that the system crashed when the network got disconnected while receiving data the server. The defect was fixed by correcting codes which check the network availability during data transferring. The corresponding module did cover 100% of statement with existing test cases. To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some tests were designed and added to the test suite. What types of testing are NOT mentioned above? a. Functional testing b. Structural testing c. Confirmation testing d. Perfomance testing

d

.21. How is "expected result" defined? [K1] a. The output result computed by the test object. b. The intended behavior and output of the test object when executed under specified conditions. c. Intended output and/or state value when executing a test object with test data. d. The behavior predicted by the specification, or another sources, of the test object when executed under specified conditions.

d

.21. Which of the following would be MOST USEFUL in estimating the amount of re-testing and regression testing likely to be required? a. The purchase of an automated test execution tool. b. Time allocated for acceptance testing. c. Metrics from previous similar projects. d. Impact analysis. a. a and b b. b and c c. a and d d. c and d

d

.22. Consider the following excerpt from a defect report, "To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_TC_16.dat, which is available in the common shared folder." Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy? Select one: a. Provides test leaders with information to report test progress b. Provides ideas for test process improvement c. Does not belong in an incident report d. Provides developers with information to isolate the failure

d

.23. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most? a. Component testing b. Non-functional system testing c. User acceptance testing d. Maintenance testing

d

.23. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplier such as spices, flour and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other expensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g.,half a gram of cardamom pods,) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? a. 12.3 b. 0.4,0.5,25.0,25.1 c. 10.0,28.0 d. 0.2,0.9,29.5

d

.24. Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project? Select one: a. To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies b. To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers c. To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs d. To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact

d

.24. Which of following is a typical tester's tasks? [K1] a. Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing b. Contribute the testing perspective to other project activities, such as integration planning. c. Select tools to support testing and organize any training in tool use for testers d. Analyze, review and assess user requirements, specifications and models for testability

d

.24. You are testing a scale system that determines shipping rates for a regional Web-based auto parts distributor. Identify how many equivalence classes are necessary for following range? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

d

.25. Arrive-and-Go airline wants to clarify its baggage handling policy, whilst maximizing revenues, and will introduce the following tariffs for all baggage per individual customer (weights are rounded up to the nearest 0.1Kg): The first 2Kg will be carried free of charge. The next 10 Kg will be carried for a flat charge of $10. An additional 15Kg will be charged a total charge of $17. Luggage over this amount will be charged at $5 per Kg, up to a maximum of 150Kg per person. No passenger may take more that 150Kg with them. Which of the following would constitute boundary values for baggage weights in the price calculation? a. 0, 5.0, 10.0, 17.0 b. 2.0, 9.9, 15.0, 26.9 c. 1.9, 12.0, 14.9, 150.0 d. 2.0, 12.1, 27.0, 150.1

d

.25. If a test of a test object achieved 100% decision coverage then it is guaranteed that ... [K3] a. ... 50% path coverage has been achieved b. ... 100% minimal condition coverage has been achieved c. ... no other coverage has been achieved d. ... 100% statement coverage has been achieved

d

.27. Which of the following is true of acceptance testing? a. A goal of acceptance testing is to stress-test the system. b. Acceptance testing is performed by technical staff. c. Acceptance testing is only used to address functionality issues within the system. d. A goal of acceptance testing is to establish confidence in the system

d

.27. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing : a. The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works. b. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free. c. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do. d. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

d

.28. Find the mismatch 1. Test data preparation tools 2. Test design tools 3. Requirement management tools 4. Configuration management tools a. Manipulate Data bases b. Enables individual tests to be traceable c. Check for consistence d. Generate test inputs a. 1-a, 2-b,3-c,4-d b. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c c. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c d. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c

d

.28. When following the fundamental test process, when should the test control activity take place? a. During the planning activities b. During the implementation and execution activities c. During the monitoring activities d. During all the activities

d

.28. Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases? Select one: a. Covering only start and end states b. Can't be determined c. Covering all states at least once d. Covering all transitions at least once

d

.29. Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE? I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for any test level. III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. IV. Expressing the input conditions of interest so that they are boolean values. Select one: a. II, III b. I, III c. I, IV d. II, IV

d

.29. You have received the following description section in an incident report. The report executed per the attached steps, but the data was incorrect. For example, the information in column 1 was wrong. See the attached screenshot. This report is critical to the users and they will be unable to do their jobs without this information. What is the biggest problem with this incident report? a. The developer won't know how important the problem is b. The developer won't know how to repeat the test c. The developer won't be able to see what the tester is saying is wrong d. The developer doesn't know what the tester expected to see

d

.30. The activities and tasks performed by test leader depend on the project and product context, the people in the roles, and the organization. Which of following is NOT a task of the test leader? a. Initiate the analysis, design, implementation, and execution of tests b. Monitor test results and check the status of exit criteria c. Contribute testing perspectives with other project activities d. Set up test environment

d

.30. Which is not the project risks a. Supplier issues b. Organization factors c. Technical issues d. Error-prone software delivered

d

.31. Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team? a. Prove that the remaining defects will not cause any additional failures. b. Run all of the tests that are defined for the test object as quickly as possible. c. Prove that all faults have been identified through thorough testing. d. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.

d

.32. Load testing tool checks for : Select one: a. Monitoring system resources b. The amount of testers needed in order to achieve "dead line" c. Correct behavior of the system under test d. Time response and system breaking point

d

.32. Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model? a. Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied b. All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature c. Testers are involved as soon as the first piece of code can be executed d. For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity

d

.33. Incident management deals with...[K2] A. .... Management of deviations from the project plan. B. ... Registration of problems, faults and failures. C. ... Showing product quality through use of metrics. D. ... Definition and implementation of new software requirements. E. ... Development of proposals to correct faults. a. A, C and D are true, B and E are false b. B and C are true, A, D and E are false c. A, B and E are true, C and D are false d. A, B and C are true, D and E are false

d

.34. Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report? a) Summary b) Test incident report identifier c) Test deliverables d) Risks and contingencies e) Variances f) Approvals g) Output specifications a. a, d and e b. a, b and f c. a, c and d d. a, e and f

d

.34. Non-functional testing may be performed at which test level(s)? a. Unit and integration b. Load and performance c. Unit, integration, and system d. Unit, integration, system and acceptance

d

.35. Comparators belong to this category of tools ... [K2] a. ... Tools for test specification and test design b. ... Tools for planning and test management c. ... Tools for test results analysis and test object analysis d. ... Tools for test execution

d

.35. For withdrawing money from an automated teller machine (ATM), the following conditions are required: - The bank card is valid - The PIN code is correct - Money is available in the users account The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM: - The entered card is invalid: The card is rejected - The PIN code is wrong: The ATM asks for another PIN code -The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount - The requested amount is available in the user's account: The ATM dispense the money Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the input conditions? Select one: a. Use case based testing b. Boundary value analysis c. Equivalence class partitioning d. Decision table

d

.36. Which of the following would NOT be done as part of selecting a tool for an organization? a. Evaluate the tool features against clear requirements and objective criteria. b. Identify internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool c. Assess organization maturity, strengths and weaknesses d. Roll out the tool to as many users as possible within the organization.

d

.37. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of non-functional testing? Select one: a. It covers the evaluation of the interaction of various specified components b. It tests "how" the system works c. It may be performed at unit, integration, system and acceptance test levels d. It may include testing the ease of modification of systems

d

.40. Which of the following statements is correct? Select one: a. Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection b. Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together c. Pair programming is used usually in water fall model d. Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method

d

.42. Which of the following is an example of a good exit criterion from system testing? a. All tests should be completed b. The project budget should be spent c. All defects should be fixed d. All severity 1 defects must be resolved

d

.43. You have received the following description section in a defect report: The report executed per the attached steps, but the data was incorrect. For example, the information in column 1 was wrong. See the attached screenshot. This report is critical to the users and they will be unable to do their jobs without this information. What is the biggest problem with this defect report? a. The developer won't know how important the problem is b. The developer won't know how to repeat the test c. The developer won't be able to see what the tester is saying is wrong d. The developer won't know what the tester expected to see

d

.49. Which of the following is most correct regarding when functional tests may be executed? a. Unit and integration b. Integration and system c. System and acceptance d. All levels

d

02. Seven Testing Principles is a number of testing principles have been suggested over the past 40 years and offer general guidelines common for all testing. Which one of the following descriptions about seven testing principles is FALSE? [K2] a. Testing everything is not feasible except for trivial cases. Instead of exhaustive testing, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts b. Testing effort shall be focused proportionally to the expected and later observed defect density of modules c. Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the user's needs and expectations d. Testing can show that defects are present, and can prove that there are no defects

d

02. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test? a. To find faults in the software b. To assess whether the software is ready for release. c. To demonstrate that the software doesn't work. d. To prove that the software is correct

d

04. Which of following is the sample of Pesticide Paradox? a. Dynamic testing is less reliable in finding bugs b. Pesticides mixed with static testing can allow bugs to escape detection c. Tests should not be context dependent d. Running the same tests over and over will reduce the chance of finding new defects

d

06. Which of the following statements are true for Review?..[K1] A. Meeting is led by author B. Main purpose is to review inexpensive way to get some benefit. C. Main purpose is to discuss problems and check conformance to specifications and standard D. Formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria. T. Informal U. Walkthrough V. Technical Review W. Inspection A and W, B and V, C and T, D and U A And T, B andU, C and V, D and W A andU, B and T, C and W, D and V A and U, B and T, C andV, D and W

d

07. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case. Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value. CLASS cLASS CLass CLa01ss

d

07. Which is a potential product risk factor? a. Failure of third party vendor b. Training issues c. Problems requirements definition d. Poor software functionality

d

08. A common perception of testing is that it only consists of running tests, i.e.., executing the software. This is part of testing, but not all of the testing activities. Which of the following statements is NOT one of testing objectives? [K1] a. Providing information for decision-making b. Finding defects c. Gaining confidence about eh level of quality d. Preventing errors

d

08. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40%. Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class? £4800; £14000; £28000 £5200; £5500; £28000 £28001; £32000; £35000 £5800; £28000; £32000

d

08. Which of the following statements about functional testing is TRUE?...tK21 Functional testing includes, but is not limited to, load testing, stress testing and reliability testing. Control flow models and menu structure models are used primarily in functional testing. Functional testing is often referred to as structural testing by testers and developers Functional testing is primarily concerned with what a system does rather than how it does it.

d

09. Non-functional testing includes, but is not limited to, performance testing, load testing, stress testing, usability testing, maintainability testing, reliability testing and portability testing. It is the testing of "how' the system works. Where the Non-functional testing is performed? [K1] a. At system and acceptance testing levels only b. At the acceptance testing level only c. At all level above integration testing d. At all test levels

d

11. Vietnamese Company is going to provide their employees with a bonus which will be based on the employee's length of service in the company. The bonus calulation will be zero if they have been with the company for less than two years, 10% of their salary for more than two but less than five years, and 25% for five to ten years, 35%for ten years or more. The interface will not allow a negative value to be input, but it will allow a zero to be input. How many equivalency partitions are needed to test the calculation of the bonus?...IK3] Two equivalence partitions Three equivalence partitions Four equivalence partitions Five equivalence partitions

d

11. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most? Component testing Non-functional system testing User acceptance testing Maintenance testing

d

12. You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplier such as spices, flour and other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other expensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g.,half a gram of cardamom pods,) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units field is 0.1 units. Which of the following is a set of input values that cover the equivalence partitions for this field? [K3] 12.3 0.4,0.5,25.0,25.1 10.0,28.0 0.2,0.9,29.5

d

13. Which of the following is correct? a. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing b. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team. c. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been fixed correctly. d. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do

d

13. You are working on testing an e-learning application. A business analyst gives you a document that describes the most common user scenarios. You would use this document to create what kind of test? Component tests Structure -base test Experiences-based tests Specification-based tests

d

14. In software testing what is the main purpose of exit criteria? a. To enhance the security of the system b. To prevent the endless loops in code c. To swerve as an alternative or "Plan-B" d. To define when to stop testing

d

14. Maintenance testing is done on an existing operational system, and is triggered by modifications, migration, or retirement of the software or system. Which following statement describes about the indicators of maintenance testing? [K1] a. Regression testing is the repeated testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the change. b. Conversion testing is needed when data from another application will ve migrated into the system being maintained c. Modifications of a system may include the testing of data migration or archiving if long data-retention periods are required d. Maintenance testing for the retirement include planned enhancement changes (e.g., release-based), corrective and emergency changes, and changes of environment

d

14. The following rule must be followed when using the equivalence class panitioning method: [K3] The representatives of the valid equivalence classes of the actual parameters can be combined The representatives of the invalid equivalence classes of the actual parameters shall be combined The representatives of the invalid equivalence classes of the actual parameters must be combined pair wise The representatives of one invalid equivalence classes shall be combined with another representative of another invalid equivalence class. Which of the following statements for the given state table designed with state transition test technique is NOT correct?...[K3] B - TV Play A- PowerOn D - S1 C - S2

d

15. Pair Programing are also called as: Inspection Walkthrough Technical Review Informal Review

d

16. Which of the following is a KEY test closure task? a. Ensuring proper environment setup b. Writing a test summary report c. Assessing the need for additional tests d. Finalizing and archiving testware.

d

17. In a formal review, which role is normally responsible for leading the review of the document or set of documents, including planning the review, running the meeting, and following-up after the meeting, the person upon whom the success of the review rests? [K1] a. The manager b. The author c. The scribe d. The moderator

d

21. Decision coverage is determined by the number of all decision outcomes covered by ( designed or executed) test cases divided by the number of all possible decision outcomes in the code under test. If your goal is to achieve 100% decision coverage, what testing techniques is used for this?[K2] a. Behavior-based techniques b. Experience-based techniques c. Defect-based techniques d. Structure-based techniques

d

21. Which of the following are NOT valid objectives for incident reports?...tK21 Provide ideas for test process improvement Provide developers and other parties with feedback about problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary Provide testers with a means of tracking the qualrty of the system under test. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence

d

22. During test analysis, the test basis documentation is analyzed in order to determine what to test, i.e., to identify the test conditions. How does a test condition relate to a test case?[K1] a. A test condition is the output from a test case b. A test case creates test conditions c. A test condition defines the test case d. A test case tests a test condition

d

23. Which statement is included in the common characteristies of specified-based test design techniques?[K1] a. The extent of coverage of the software can be measured for existing test cases, and further test cases can be dervied systematically to increase coverage b. Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive the test cases c. Knowledge about likely defects and their distribution is another source of information d. Models, either formal or informal, are used for the specification of the problem to be solved, the software or its components

d

24. Which is a correct about test management tools?..[Kl] A. Logging of test results and generation of progress reports. B. Improve the efficiency of testing activities by automating repetitive tasks. C. Independent version control or inter ce with an external configuration management tool. D. Assignment of actions to people (e.g. fix or confirmation test) B&amp;D A,B&amp;D B,C&amp;D A&amp;C

d

25. 24. You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns grades. Based on the score achieved the grades are as follows: 0-39=D-, 40-44=D, 45-49=D+, 50-54=C-, 55-59=C, 60-64=C+, 65-69=B-, 70-74=B, 75-79=B+, 80-84=A-, 85-89=A, 90-100=A+ If you apply equivalence partitioning, how many test cases will you need to achieve minimum test coverage? [K3] a. 11 b. 12 c. 13 d. 14

d

28. For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful? a. Supporting reviews. b. Validating models of the software c. Testing code executed in a special test harness. d. Enforcement of coding standards.

d

28. You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following fragment of code. if width > length then biggest_dimension = width else biggest_dimension = length end_if The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above print "Biggest dimension is "& biggest_dimension print "Width: "& width print "Length:"& length How many more test cases are required? [K3] a. One more test case will be required for 100% statement coverage b. Two more test cases will be required foe 100% statement coverage, one of which will be used to provide 100% decision coverage c. One more test case will be required for 100% decision coverage. d. None, existing test case can be used.

d

31. Development staff may participate in testing, especially at the lower levels, but their lack of objectivity often limits their effectiveness. The independent testers may have the authority to require and define test processes and rules, but testers should take on such process-related roles only in the presence of a clear management mandate to do so. Which following is NOT the benefits of independent tester? [K2] a. Independent testers may not verify assumptions people made during specification and implementation of the system b. Isolation from the development team c. Independent testers may be seen as a bottleneck for blamed for delay in release d. Developers may lose a sense of responsibility for quality.

d

31. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing: The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

d

35. Which following description is NOT correct about risk and testing? [K1] a. Risks are used to decide where to start testing and where to test more testing is used to reduce the risk of an adverse effect occurring, or to reduce the impact of an adverse effect b. The level of risk will be determined by the likelihood of an adverse event happening and the impact c. Risk can be defined as the chance of an event, hazard, threat or situation occurring and resulting in undesirable consequences or a potential problem d. The purpose of risk is to establish and maintain the integrity of the the products of the software or system

d

36. When should testing be stopped? when all the planned tests have been run when time has run out when all faults have been fixed correctly it depends on the risks for the system being tested

d

36. Which of followingis NOT correct? [K2] Statement coverage is determined by the number of all executable statements in the code under test Decision coverage is determined by the number of all decision outcomes covered by test cases divided by the number of all possible decision outcomes in the code under test &#039;&#039; Decision coverage is a form of control ftow testing as it follows a specific flow of control through the decision points. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage

d

37. You have been given the following set of test cases to run. You have been instructed to run them in order by risk and to accomplish the testing as quickly as possible to provide feedback to the developers as soon as possible. Given this information, what it the best order in which to run these tests?[K3] a. 6,1,3,2,4,5 b. 4,3,2,5,6,1 c. 2,5,6,4,1,3 d. 2,4,5,6,1,3

d

38. Which of the following describes related with Testing Principles on Syllabus?[K2] Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products than manually executed tests. Exhaustive testing of software is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software. The purpose of testing is demonstrating the absence of defects. For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations.

d

39. What is the purpose of a test completion criterion? to know when a specific test has finished its execution to ensure that the test case specification is complete to set the criteria used in generating test inputs to determine when to stop testing

d

According to ISTQB Syllabus, A human being can make (A), which produces (B) in the program code, or in a document. Which of the following combination is correct?... A. A- Fault, B- Mistake B. A- Fault, B- Error C. A- Defect, B- Bug D. A— Error. B- Fault

d

An estimate of resources should be made so that an organization can create a schedule for testing. Which of the following approaches can be used for creating an estimate? I. A skills-based approach, in which the estimate is based on all the testers' skills. II. An expert-based approach, in which the owner or other expert creates the estimate. III. E metrics-based approach, in which the estimate is based on previous testing effort. IV. A bottom-up approach, in which each tester estimates their work and all estimates are integrated. a. II, III, and IV b. I, III, and IV c. I and IV d. II and III

d

In any life cycle model, there are several characteristics of good testing. Which of following is NOT related? A. Testers should be involved in reviewing documents as soon as drafts are available in the development cycle. B. For every development activity, there is a corresponding testing activity C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level D The analysis and design of tests for a given test level should not begin during the corresponding development activity.

d

Which of following Test Approach includes Exploratory testing where testing is more reactive to events than pre-planned, and where execution and evaluation are concurrent tasks? A. Analytical Approach B. Model-based Approach C. Regression-averse approaches D. Re-active approach

d

Which of following describes the testing level that tests interfaces between components, interaction with different parts of a system such as the operating system, file system and hardware, and interfaces between systems? [K2] A. System Testing B. Acceptance Testing C. Component Testing D. integration Testing

d

Which of following is NOT a typical "Planning" activity of formal review? [K1] A. Defining the entry and exit criteria for more forrnai review types B. Defining the review criteria C. Selecting which parts of documents to review D. Preparing for the review meeting by reviewing the documents

d

Which of following is NOT objectives of incident report? [K1] A. Provide ideas for test process improvement B. Provide test leaders a means of tracking the quality of the system under test and progress of the testing C. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation and correction as necessary D. Provide evidence of tester's worthiness

d

Which of following is a Product Risk? A. Problem in defining the right requirements B. Low quality of the design, code, data, test data and tests C. Test Environment not ready on time D. Failure-prone software delivered

d

Which of following is a typical test leader's tasks? [K1] A. Prepare and acquire test data B. Set up the test environment often coordinating with system administration and network management. C. Use test administration or management tools and test monitoring tools as required D. Adapt planning based test results and progress

d

Which of following is not a Product Risk? A. The potential that the software/hardware could cause harm to an individual or company B. Software that does not perform its intended functions C. Poor data integrity and quality D. Improper attitude toward or expectations of testing

d

Which of following tools are necessary for storage and version management of testware and related software especially when configuring more than on hardware/software environment in terms of operating system versions compilers, browsers? [K1] A. Test Management Tools B. Requirements Management Tools C. incident Management Tools D. Configuration Management Tools

d

Which of following tools measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercised? [K1] A. Test Hamess/Unit Test Framework Tools B. Test Comparators C. Security Testing Tools D. Coverage Measurement Tools

d

Which of the following is a difference between the contents of a test case specification and a test procedure specification? A. The test procedure specification is used only for automated test execution B. The two terms are synonyms and have exactly the same contents C. The test case specification specifics the sequence of action for the execution of a test D. The test procedure specification specifics the sequence of action for the execution of a test

d

Which of the following test aspects is important for "maintainability"?. A. Response time [in milliseconds] B. Memory use fin kilo- or megabyte] C. Robustness D. Modularity

d

You are working on a project on which nay slippage in the test execution completion date would result in financial penalties for your employer. Achieving the planned delivery date is seen as the highest single priority. Which benefit of static techniques is likely to convince management to use them? A. Productivity improvements B. improved communication within the team C. Reduce post-release support costs D. Reduce testing cost and time

d