ITIL Foundations

True or false: The continual service improvement stage of the service lifecycle is concerned only with improvement in the service operation and service transition stages.

False

True or false: The service desk is one of a set of multiple contact points for users to communicate with the IT department.

False

The processes responsible for managing an IT service provider's budgeting, accounting, and charging requirements.

Financial management

What is the change output described by the definition "A fallback plan or proposal for remedial action where backout is not achievable"?

Remediation plan

What does the acronym RFC stand for?

Request for change

A formal proposal for a change to be made. It includes details of the proposed change and may be recorded on paper or electronically.

Request for change (RFC)

Which of the following is the period at which the availability and service continuity plans should be developed and reviewed? A) At least annually B) Bi-annually C) Everyday D) Quarterly

A) At least annually

Which of the following is included by each configuration item? A) Attributes B) Components C) Catalogs D) Features

A) Attributes

Which of the following is not a fundamental activity of Financial Management for IT services? A) Auditing B) Funding C) Chargeback D) IT accounting

A) Auditing

At which step in the normal change process would you expect to see a change schedule issued? A) Authorize RFC B) Creation of the RFC C) Implementation of the RFC D) Review and closure of the RFC

A) Authorize RFC

Which process should ensure the agreed level of availability is provided? A) Availability management B) Change management C) Business management D) Service management

A) Availability management

Any resource or capability.

Answer: Assets

Information held about a configuration item, such as serial number, make, model, and so on.

Answer: Attribute

Warranty requires assurance of which areas?

Answer: Availability, Capacity, Security, and Continuity

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: Service management provides a standardized approach that ensures ____________ for IT delivery.

Answer: Best practices

The ability of an organization, person, process, application, IT service, or other configuration items to carry out an activity. Capabilities are intangible assets of an organization.

Answer: Capabilities

A service that delivers the basic outcomes desired by one or more customers (see enabling and enhancing services).

Answer: Core Service

Someone who buys goods or services. The customer of an IT service provider is the person or group that defines and agrees on the service-level targets.

Answer: Customer

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: IT service management is important for organizations because businesses are _____________ IT.

Answer: Dependent On

A service that is needed in order to deliver a core service.

Answer: Enabling service

A service that is added to a core service to make it more attractive to the customer.

Answer: Enhancing service

Utility is defined as what?

Answer: Fit for purpose

Warranty is defined as what?

Answer: Fit for use

A team or group of people and the other resources or tools that are used to carry out s process or process activities.

Answer: Function

Ensures that policies and strategy are actually implemented and that required processes are correctly followed.

Answer: Governance

A service provided by an IT service provider. An IT service consists of a combination of information technology, people, and processes.

Answer: IT service

The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet the needs of the business.

Answer: IT service management (ITSM)

The result of carrying out an activity, following a process, delivering an IT service, and so on. The term is used to refer to intended results, as well as to actual results.

Answer: Outcome

A workload profile of one or more business activities. Patterns of business activity are used to help the IT service provider understand and plan for different levels of business activity.

Answer: Patterns of business activity (PBA)

A structured set of activities designed to accomplish a specific objective. A process takes one or more defined inputs and turns them into defined outputs.

Answer: Process

A generic term that includes IT infrastructure, people, money, or anything else that might help to deliver an IT service. They are often considered to be assets of an organization.

Answer: Resources

The approach adopted to identify, document, analyze, and mitigate against the likelihood of potential impact to a project or service.

Answer: Risk management

A centralized record of the risks that need to be managed.

Answer: Risk register

A means of delivering value to customers by facilitating the outcomes customers want to achieve, without the ownership of specific costs and risks.

Answer: Service

A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services.

Answer: Service management

" How can we make a case for strategic investment?" is a question answered by which lifecycle stage?

Answer: Service strategy

" How do we resolve conflicting demands for resource?" is a question answered by which lifecycle stage?

Answer: Service strategy

" How do we truly create value for our customers?" is a question answered by which lifecycle stage?

Answer: Service strategy

"What services should we be offering and to whom?" is a question answered by which lifecycle stage?

Answer: Service strategy

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: An event that occurs requires detection and a specific action to be taken (for example, raising an incident) is called ________________.

An exception

A phase in the service lifecycle. Service strategy defines the perspective, position, plans, and patterns that a service provider needs to execute to meet an organization's business outcomes.

Answer: Service strategy

Which service lifecycle stage is considered to be the core of the lifecycle?

Answer: Strategy

Who developed ITIL?

Answer: The U.K. government

True or False: A service asset is defined as any resource or capability of a service provider.

Answer: True

The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need or whether it is fit for purpose.

Answer: Utility

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: ITIL is a framework of common best practices that provide ____________ for customers.

Answer: Value

The assurance that a product or service will meet the agreed requirements, fit for use.

Answer: Warranty

The function responsible for managing applications throughout their lifecycle.

Application management

The structure of a system or IT service, including the relationships of components to each other.

Architecture

Which deployment option is described here: "A rollout is delivered on-demand or forced to the target recipients"?

Automation or manual

The process responsible for ensuring that IT services meet the current and future availability needs of the business in a cost-effective and timely manner.

Availability management

What does the acronym AMIS stand for?

Availability management information system

Event management can be used to monitor which of the following? 1. Environmental conditions 2. System messages 3. Staff rosters 4. License use A) 2 and 3 B) 1 and 4 C) All the answers are correct. D) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 4

Which of these statements about the Deming cycle is correct? 1. The Deming cycle is an iterative approach. 2. The Deming cycle is exclusive to the service management lifecycle. A) 2 only B) 1 only C) Neither D) Both

B) 1 only

Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (CIs)? 1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems 2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes 3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service 4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A) 1, 2, and 4 only B) 1, 2, 3, and 4 C) 1 and 2 D) 1, 3, and 4 only

B) 1, 2, 3, and 4 C) 1 and 2

With which of the following activities are the Service Improvement Plan (SIP) costs associated? 1. Staff resources trained in the right skill sets to support ITSM processes 2. Tools for monitoring, gathering, processing, analyzing, and presenting data 3. Application Development and Customization 4. Constant internal assessments studies 5. Service improvements either to services or service management process 6. Training and development on CSI activities A) 2, 4, and 6 only B) 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 3, 4, 5, and 6 only E) 1, 3, 5, and 6 only

B) 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6 only

As a strategic tool to evaluate the value of IT services, Financial Management pertains to which service provider types? 1. An internal service provider embedded inside a business unit. 2. An internal service provider providing shared IT services. 3. An external service provider. A) 1 and 3 only B) 1, 2, and 3 C) 1 and 2 only D) 2 and 3 only

B) 1, 2, and 3

Which of these statements are correct? 1. The customer's perspective is unimportant when measuring service performance. 2. Nothing should be included in an SLA unless it can be effectively monitored and measured. 3. Performance measures should include subjective and objective measures. A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 D) 1 and 3

B) 2 and 3

Requests must be as follows: 1. Authorized by the CAB 2. Authorized by the budget holder when an expense will be incurred 3. Authorized by technical management 4. May be preauthorized A) 2 only B) 2 and 4 C) 1 only D) 1 and 3

B) 2 and 4

Which of the following processes monitors progress and escalation of incidents? A) Configuration Management B) Incident Management C) Release Management D) Capacity Management

B) Incident Management

Which of the following takes possession for an incident and behaves as the primary level of escalation? A) Capacity Management B) Incident Management C) Release Management D) Configuration Management

B) Incident Management

Which process facilitates Problem Management to share categorization as well as impact coding systems? A) Capacity Management B) Incident Management C) Service Catalog Management D) Configuration Management

B) Incident Management

Which of the following is an input to the Problem Management process? A) Request for Change B) Incident Records C) KPIs D) Known Errors

B) Incident Records

Which of the following uses an internal service provider to manage IT services? A) Internal case B) Internal sourcing C) Internal user D) Internal customer

B) Internal sourcing

What is the benefit of using a change model? A) It allows project teams to use the change process for project changes. B) It allows predefined steps to be used when handling similar types of change. C) It allows a change to be accepted into release more easily. D) It allows the customer to bypass the normal change process.

B) It allows predefined steps to be used when handling similar types of change.

Which of the following are the requirements of Business Relationship Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It plans the management of shortfalls where budgetary requirements exceed available funds. B) It ensures that the customer satisfaction is measured and managed. C) It makes sure that complaints are handled effectively. D) It ensures that there is an effective management of the contract or a similar formal documented agreement.

B) It ensures that the customer satisfaction is measured and managed. C) It makes sure that complaints are handled effectively. D) It ensures that there is an effective management of the contract or a similar formal documented agreement.

Which deployment option is described here: "A rollout is delivered to all targets/users at the same time."

Big bang

Name the subprocesses for capacity management.

Business capacity, service capacity, and component capacity management

Justification for a significant item of expenditure, identifying costs and benefits, including options considered.

Business case

The business process is responsible for managing risks that could seriously affect the business and ensuring that critical business functions can be made available following a major disruption, within the timeframe the business requires. Business continuity management defines what will be required from its IT service provider in terms of IT service continuity management.

Business continuity management (BCM)

The activity in business continuity management that identifies vital business functions and their dependencies. It is used to identify what the business impact will be if an IT service is unavailable.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

The process responsible for maintaining a positive relationship with customers. The business relationship manager's focus is strategic, ensuring that IT will deliver what is required by the business strategy.

Business relationship management

Which of the following is a written agreement between a service provider and a customer? A) Operational Level Agreement B) Sample Service Level Agreement C) Service Level Agreement D) Vendor Service Level Agreement

C) Service Level Agreement

What does the acronym DML stand for?

Definitive media library

One or more secure locations containing the definitive and authorized versions of all software. It may also hold license documentation.

Definitive media library (DML)

The process responsible for managing events throughout their lifecycle.

Event management

The process responsible for managing the lifecycle of all service requests.

Event management

The function responsible for managing the physical environment where the IT infrastructure is located.

Facilities management

True or false: All infrastructure components should be recorded as configuration items.

False

True or false: Incident management is the process that identifies the root cause of incidents and ensures they do not recur.

False

True or false: People, process, products, and partners are four principles used to manage strategic outcomes.

False

True or false: Service asset and configuration management is the process that manages all assets of an organization.

False

True or false: Service design is free to design according to the technical needs of the IT department.

False

True or false: Service design is solely concerned with the day-to-day enhancements and changes to service.

False

True or false: The ECAB is a group of processes to assist in the evaluation of changes that impact the business as a whole.

False

The complete set of services that is managed by a service provider. It includes three categories: service pipeline (proposed or in development), service catalog (live or available for deployment), and retired services.

Service portfolio

The process that manages and maintains the service portfolio. It ensures that the service provider has the right mix of services to meet required business outcomes at an appropriate level of investment.

Service portfolio management

An organization supplying services to one or more internal or external customers.

Service provider

What does the acronym RACI stand for?

Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

A written agreement between customers and IT service providers is known as what?

SLA

Service pipeline, service catalog, and retired services are elements of which service management tool?

Service portfolio

A phase in the service lifecycle. Service transition ensures that new, modified, or retired services meet the expectations of the business as documented in the service strategy and service design stages of the lifecycle.

Service transition

The process responsible for validating and testing a new or changed IT service to ensure it meets the requirements of the business.

Service validation and testing

An agreement covering a single service used by multiple customers is known as which type of service-level agreement?

Service-based SLA

What does the acronym SLA stand for?

Service-level Agreement

Service description, service availability, and service review schedules are all terms you would expect to find documented in which type of agreement?

Service-level agreement

Part of a business process that is critical to the success of the business.

Vital business function (VBF)

What type of service desk is described in the following statement? "All business locations/sites, including those globally placed, are able to contact a constantly manned single service desk staffed by personnel who may be located at any site."

"Follow the sun" service desk

A service catalog, as defined in Information Technology Infrastructure Library Service Design, is a list of services that an organization provides, often to its employees or customers. Match the appropriate options that are part of Service Catalog Elements with the correct places. 1. First type of catalog in Service Catalog 2. Second type of catalog 3. First service under second type of catalog 4. Second service under second type of catalog 5. Service under Service E A) Business Service Catalog B) Technical Service Catalog C) Software D) Data E) Hardware

1. A) Business Service Catalog 2. B) Technical Service Catalog 3. E) Hardware 4. C) Software 5. D) Data

The RACI matrix is a formal way of establishing the role for each stakeholder/participant whenever multiple parties are involved. Match the action in front with the mentioned RACI key responsibilities. 1. Multiple Responsibilities is possible. 2. Only one accountable for each task. 3. Communication flows both ways - Consulted 4. One way only. Keep them, well...Informed A) We are doing it B) Want to know C) The Golden rule D) We know/share

1. A) We are doing it 2. C) The Golden rule 3. D) We know/share 4. B) Want to know

Release Management is used for platform-independent and automated distribution of software and hardware, including license controls across the entire IT infrastructure. You need to create a release management process. Choose the appropriate steps in the correct order to accomplish this task. Here, you have to arrange the options given in the list into their correct order. Steps in the correct order 1. Distribute and Install 2. Build and configure 3. Schedule and Plan 4. Communicate and prepare 5. Test and Accept

2. Build and configure 5. Test and Accept 3. Schedule and Plan 4. Communicate and prepare 1. Distribute and Install

Configuration Management Database is the fundamental component of the ITIL Configuration Management (CM). CMDB represents the authorized configuration of the significant components of the IT environment. Choose the appropriate processes that are stored in CMDB. Here, you have to arrange the options given in the list into their correct order. Processes Stored in CMDB 1. Incident Management 2. Configuration Management 3. Availability Management 4. Change Management 5. Software Asset Management 6. Capacity Management

4. Change Management 3. Availability Management 6. Capacity Management 1. Incident Management 2. Configuration Management

What are the costs associated with SIP's executing activities?

A Service Improvement Plan (SIP) has costs associated with executing the following activities: 1. Staff resources trained in the right skill sets to support ITSM processes 2. Tools for monitoring, gathering, processing, analyzing, and presenting data 3. Constant internal/external assessments studies 4. Service improvements either to services or service management process 5. Management time to review, recommend, and monitor CSI progress 6. Communication and understanding campaigns to change behaviors and ultimately culture 7. Training and development on CSI activities

A set of responsibilities, activities, or authorities assigned to a person or team is known as what?

A role

How would you describe the virtual type of service desk?

A single service desk whose staff may be located at any site

A person who uses an IT service on a daily basis is known as what?

A user

Which of these statements about governance is true? 1. Ensures that policies and strategy are actually implemented 2. Ensures that required processes are correctly followed 3. Ensures that the CAB assesses all changes A) 1 and 2 B) 1, 2, and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 1 only

A) 1 and 2

Which of the following are responsibilities of IT service continuity management? 1. Ensuring IT services can continue in the event of a disaster 2. Carrying out risk assessments 3. Ensuring the business has contingency plans in place in case of a disaster 4. Ensuring all IT staff know their role in the event of a disaster A) 1 and 2 only B) 1, 2, and 4 C) 2, 3, and 4 D) All the answers are correct.

A) 1 and 2 only

The service desk carries out two processes. What are they? 1. Incident management 2. Design coordination 3. Request fulfillment 4. Change management A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 3 and 4 D) All the answers are correct.

A) 1 and 3

Which of the following are types of event monitoring? 1. Passive 2. Virtual 3. Active 4. Standard A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 3 C) 1 and 2 D) All the answers are correct.

A) 1 and 3

Outputs from design coordination include what? 1. The service design package 2. The CMS 3. The governance requirements 4. Suggestions for improvements to be made to the design stage A) 1 and 4 only B) 2, 3, and 4 C) 1 and 2 only D) All the answers are correct.

A) 1 and 4 only

Which of these statements is/are correct about the purpose of continual service improvement? 1. CSI is concerned with maintaining services in line with business requirements. 2. CSI does not make any process improvements; it is solely concerned with service improvement. A) 1 only B) Neither C) Both D) 2 only

A) 1 only

Which of the following are commonly used terms when discussing service improvement outcomes? 1. Improvements 2. Benefits 3. Return On Investment (ROI) 4. Value On Investment(VOI) 5. Resources A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only B) 1, 2, and 4 only C) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 D) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only E) 2, 3, and 5 only

A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

Which of the following is the output of the Problem Management process? 1. Resolve root cause of incidents 2. Known Error Records 3. RFC's 4. Problems Records A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only B) 2, 3, and 4 only C) 1, 2, and 3 only D) 3 and 4 only

A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

Which of the following are the objectives of service level management (SLM)? 1. To negotiate SLAs with the customers and to design services in accordance with the agreed service level targets 2. Defining, documenting, and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided 3. Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in 4. Monitoring, measuring, and reporting the actual level of services provided 5. Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction A) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only B) 1, 2, and 3 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 E) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only

A) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only

In a report, a consultant has made three proposals to you, which are as follows: 1. Include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements. 2. It is not necessary to measure all targets in an SLA. 3. It is not necessary to meet the targets in an SLA. Which of the proposals does not conform to Service Level Management good practice? A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 1 and 3 only C) 1 and 2 only D) 2 only E) 1 only

A) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following should be considered when drawing up a capacity plan? 1. The business plan to streamline its operations 2. The possibility of moving a business operation such as a call center overseas 3. New advances in technology 4. Plans to restructure the IT department A) 1, 2, and 3 B) All the answers are correct. C) 1, 3, and 4 D) 1 and 2

A) 1, 2, and 3

Which of these are valid service provider types according to ITIL? 1. Internal 2. Shared services 3. Fully outsourced A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 2 and 3 C) 1 and 2 D) 1 and 3

A) 1, 2, and 3

Which of these statements represent acceptable criteria for defining a standard change? 1. The risk associated to the change is low or clearly understood. 2. The change follows a defined procedure or predefined steps. 3. The change can be completed within 24 hours of being requested. 4. The change can be traced to a predefined trigger. 5. The change delivers its results to IT service providers only. A) 1, 2, and 4 B) 1, 3, and 5 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 D) 2, 3, and 4

A) 1, 2, and 4

For which of these situations would automation by using event management be appropriate? 1. Hierarchical escalation of incidents 2. Speeding up the processing of month-end sales figures 3. Notification of "intruder detected" to local police station 4. Running backups A) 1, 3, and 4 B) 3 and 4 C) All the answers are correct. D) 2 and 3

A) 1, 3, and 4

Which of the following activities should a service owner undertake? 1. Representing a specific service across the organization 2. Updating the known error database with details of errors that have been identified for the service 3. Attending the CAB meeting to discuss changes to the service 4. Attending service reviews with the business A) 1, 3, and 4 only B) 1 and 2 only C) All the answers are correct. D) 1, 2, and 3 only

A) 1, 3, and 4 only

Which of these is a recognized "business benefit" or "value statement" for the service transition lifecycle stage? 1. Deliver changes to services with a consistent approach 2. Manage the business strategic plans 3. Control the assets of the infrastructure 4. Improve business strategy through service transformation 5. Provide increased confidence in the success of changes A) 1, 3, and 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 C) 1, 2, 3, and 4 D) 2, 4, and 5

A) 1, 3, and 5

Which of these statements about service portfolio management is/are correct? 1. Service portfolio management should be responsible for monitoring the performance of the services according to the service level agreements. 2. Service portfolio management should be responsible for evaluating the value of the services provided throughout the whole of their lifecycle. 3. Service portfolio management should be able to compare the merits of the existing services against those that are being planned. 4. Service portfolio management should compare the results of continual service improvement initiatives to decide whether to improve services. A) 2 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 1, 2, and 4

A) 2 and 3

Which of the following are responsibilities of capacity management? 1. Negotiating capacity requirements to be included in the SLA 2. Monitoring capacity 3. Forecasting capacity requirements 4. Dealing with capacity issues A) 2, 3, and 4 B) 1, 2, and 4 C) All the answers are correct. D) 1 and 2 only

A) 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following is the first step to register an incident? A) Assign an incident number B) Determine the priority C) Perform matching D) Record the incident time

A) Assign an incident number

What are the basic steps involved in Continuity Management? 1. Prioritizing the businesses to be recovered by conducting a Business Impact Analysis (BIA). 2. Performing a Risk Assessment (aka Risk Analysis) for each of the IT Services to identify the assets, threats, vulnerabilities, and countermeasures for each service. 3. Evaluating the options for recovery. 4. Producing the Contingency Plan. 5. Testing, reviewing, and revising the plan on a regular basis. A) 2, 3, and 4 B) 1, 2, and 5 only C) 3, 4, and 5 only D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 E) 1, 3, and 5 only

A) 2, 3, and 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages. 1. Monitor, Measure, and Review 2. Continual Improvement 3. Implement Initiatives 4. Plan for Improvement A) 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act B) 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Plan, 1 Act C) 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act D) 3 Check, 4 Plan, 2 Do, 1 Act

A) 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act

What is an IT service made up of? A) A combination of information technology, people, and processes B) A combination of best practices, information technology, and outcomes C) A combination of best practices, outcomes, and inputs D) A combination of controls, outcomes, and inputs

A) A combination of information technology, people, and processes

What are the attributes of a configuration item? A) A description of the characteristics of a configuration item B) A definition of the financial status of a configuration item C) A definition of a configuration item D) A statement of the benefit of the configuration item

A) A description of the characteristics of a configuration item

The ITIL framework refers to a number of operational functions. What is meant by the term function? A) A function is a unit of the organization specialized to deliver particular processes or activities. B) A function is a collection of technical infrastructure elements designed to manage an IT service. C) A function manages the requirement of controlling costs in an IT department. D) A function is used to deliver the security requirements across the service lifecycle.

A) A function is a unit of the organization specialized to deliver particular processes or activities.

Problem management is an important process in the service operation lifecycle stage. How does the process define a problem? A) A problem is the unknown, underlying cause of one or more incidents. B) A problem is a set of incidents that have been linked together in a customer report. C) A problem is an incident that has become extremely serious and is causing significant business impact. D) A problem is an issue that has no solution and needs to be raised to the senior management for a decision.

A) A problem is the unknown, underlying cause of one or more incidents.

Which one of these statements best describes the service knowledge management system? A) A set of tools and databases used to manage knowledge and information B) A database of the service management structure C) An information logging system for service management failures D) A database of known issues for the support of service management issues

A) A set of tools and databases used to manage knowledge and information

Which of the following is someone with a vested interest in what IT has to offer? A) A stakeholder B) An external customer C) A process manager D) An internal service provider

A) A stakeholder

Which of the following is an illustration of Proactive Problem management? A) A trend analysis B) An urgent change C) A report management process D) A change request

A) A trend analysis

Which of the following is not a satisfactory resolution to an incident? A) A user complains of poor response; second-line support runs diagnostics to be able to monitor it the next time it occurs. B) A user complains of poor response; a reboot speeds up the response. C) The service desk takes control of the user's machine remotely and shows the user how to run the report they were having difficulty with. D) The service desk uses the KEDB to provide a workaround to restore the service.

A) A user complains of poor response; second-line support runs diagnostics to be able to monitor it the next time it occurs.

Which of the following processes is used to involve Identity and Rights as the two major concepts? A) Access Management B) Event Management C) Release Management D) IT Facilities Management

A) Access Management

Which incidents should be logged? A) All incidents B) Minor incidents C) All incidents that resulted from a user contacting the service desk D) Major incidents

A) All incidents

Which of the following statements is used to define the best guidance on incident logging? A) All incidents must be completely logged. B) Incidents must only be logged if a decision is not instantly available. C) The Service Manager decides which incidents to log. D) Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged.

A) All incidents must be completely logged.

A service consists of constituent parts, all of which must be considered as part of the design. Which of these are identified as part of service composition? 1. Utility 2. Warranty 3. Resources 4. Capabilities A) All of these B) 1, 2, and 4 C) 1 and 2 D) 3 and 4

A) All of these

Which of the following is the best description of an alert? A) An event that notifies staff of a failure or that a threshold that has been breached B) The unknown, underlying cause of one or more incidents C) An unplanned interruption to a service D) A change of state that has significance for the management of a CI

A) An event that notifies staff of a failure or that a threshold that has been breached

Which of the following is a customer who works for the same business as the IT Service Provider? A) An internal customer B) A business function C) An internal service D) An external customer

A) An internal customer

Which of the following tasks is a part of Proactive Problem Management? A) Analyzing trends B) Resolving a problem C) Registering frequently occurring errors D) Managing known errors

A) Analyzing trends

Which of the following is the input to the Capacity Management processes? A) Application sizing B) A Request for Change C) Management information D) Known Errors

A) Application sizing

Which of the following tasks is performed by Problem Management? A) Approval of all changes to the Known Error database B) Classification of RFC C) Implementing changes to the IT infrastructure D) Coordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure

A) Approval of all changes to the Known Error database

Change Management is used to ensure that all changes are assessed, approved, implemented, and reviewed in a controlled way. Which of the following are the key performance indicators for Change Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Average time taken between registering an RFC with Change Management until change clearance B) The trends recognized regarding the actual service levels C) Number of changes that are reviewed by the Change Advisory Board D) The service elements covered in the Service Level Agreements

A) Average time taken between registering an RFC with Change Management until change clearance C) Number of changes that are reviewed by the Change Advisory Board

Which of the following statements about IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) is true? A) BCM defines the level of IT service that will be required in the event of a major disruption. ITSCM is responsible for delivering this level of service. B) ITSCM and Business Continuity Management (BCM) have no impact on each other. C) ITSCM defines the service that can be provided in the event of a major disruption. The business can then plan how it will use the service. D) It is the responsibility of ITSCM to deliver a single continuity plan, that will fit all situations.

A) BCM defines the level of IT service that will be required in the event of a major disruption. ITSCM is responsible for delivering this level of service.

Which of these statements is correct? 1. Mean time between failures is a measure of service uptime. 2. Mean time to restore service is a measure of service downtime. A) Both B) Neither C) 1 only D) 2 only

A) Both

Which one of the following statements is correct? A) Both warranty and utility are required to deliver value to customers. B) Only utility is required to deliver value to customers. C) Only warranty is required to deliver value to customer. D) Neither warranty nor utility is required to deliver value to customers.

A) Both warranty and utility are required to deliver value to customers.

Which of the following is prepared by the business and serves as a starting point for producing the IT Service Continuity Strategy? A) Business Continuity Strategy B) Index of Disaster-Relevant Information C) Disaster Invocation Guideline D) Availability/ ITSCM/ Security Testing Schedule

A) Business Continuity Strategy

Which of the following is the customer view of the Service Catalog? A) Business Service Catalog B) Technical Service Catalog C) Hardware Catalog D) Physical Catalog

A) Business Service Catalog

What are the names by which the Service Desk function is known? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Call Center B) Service Request C) Help Desk D) Service Desk

A) Call Center C) Help Desk D) Service Desk

Service Desk supports the provision of services that are agreed by assuring access to the IT organization and providing a range of support activities. Which of the following are the approaches of Service Desk? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Centralized Service Desk B) Local Service Desk C) Virtual Service Desk D) Apparent Service Desk

A) Centralized Service Desk B) Local Service Desk C) Virtual Service Desk

Which of the following is a cumulative body that is used to access, prioritize, and plan changes? A) Change Advisory Board B) Compliance C) Accreditation Body D) Baseline

A) Change Advisory Board

Which of the following has an objective to ensure that all the changes are assessed, approved, implemented, and reviewed in a controlled manner? A) Change Management B) Capacity Management C) Incident Management D) Problem Management

A) Change Management

Which of the following has the responsibility to ensure that the back-out plans are created? A) Change Management B) Incident Management C) Capacity Management D) Problem Management

A) Change Management

Which process has the scope of covering changes to baseline service assets and configuration items across the complete service lifecycle? A) Change Management B) Service management C) IT management D) Configuration management

A) Change Management

Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which of the following processes? A) Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, and Release and Deployment Management B) Change Management, Capacity Management, Event Management, and Service Request Management C) Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset, and Configuration Management D) Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release Management, and Request Fulfillment

A) Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, and Release and Deployment Management

Which of the following phases of the Plan-Do-Check-Act methodology is used to monitor, measure, and review that the service management objectives and plans are effectively achieved? A) Check B) Do C) Plan D) Act

A) Check

The objective of Release Management is to deliver, distribute, and track changes in a release into the live environment. Which of the following are the activities of Release Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Communication, preparation, and training B) Status Accounting C) Design, building, and configuration D) Release policy and planning

A) Communication, preparation, and training C) Design, building, and configuration D) Release policy and planning

Which process performs the Status Accounting function? A) Configuration Management B) Change Management C) IT Financial Management D) Incident Management

A) Configuration Management

Which of the following records the statuses of changes? A) Configuration Management Database B) Change Database C) Known error database D) Definitive Software Library

A) Configuration Management Database

Which of the following can be helpful in determining the level of impact of a problem? A) Configuration Management System B) Standard Operating Procedures C) Definitive Media Library D) Statement of Requirements

A) Configuration Management Systemww

Status accounting is the activity of Configuration Management. Which of the following information are provided by Configuration Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Configuration baselines B) Latest software item versions C) Problem history D) Two aspects of Service catalog

A) Configuration baselines B) Latest software item versions C) Problem history

Considering what to measure along with why it is being measured are the core contributors to which part of Service Lifecycle? A) Continual Service Improvement B) Service Portfolio C) Service Operation D) Service Design

A) Continual Service Improvement

Which process helps IT departments to continually improve their services in order to remain appealing to the business? A) Continual service improvement B) Service asset and configuration management C) ICT management D) IT Operations management

A) Continual service improvement

You are the project manager of a large construction project. Within the project, you are working with several vendors to complete different phases of the construction. Your client has asked you to arrange some of the materials that a vendor is required in the project. According to the change management plan, what subsystem will be needed to manage this change request? A) Contract B) Schedule C) Cost D) Resource

A) Contract

Which of the following is a sub-process of Supplier Management? A) Contract Renewal or Termination B) Demand Management C) Performance Management D) Workload Analysis

A) Contract Renewal or Termination

Measurement is a key part of the CSI lifecycle stage. Processes will be measured by key performance indicators; to what do KPIs relate? A) Critical success factors B) Customer satisfaction focus C) Customer success factors D) Critical business factors

A) Critical success factors

Which of the following is not a type of service provider as identified in the service design lifecycle stage? A) Customer-based service provider B) Embedded service provider C) Shared service unit provider D) External service provider

A) Customer-based service provider

Which of the following versions of RACI centralizes decision making and clarifies who can re-open discussions? A) DACI B) VARISC C) RACIO D) CAIRO

A) DACI

What is the purpose of the service strategy lifecycle stage? A) Define the strategic approach for service management across the service lifecycle. B) Define the objectives for all roles and responsibilities across the service lifecycle. C) Identify the processes in use for the service lifecycle. D) Create a database of services for the service lifecycle.

A) Define the strategic approach for service management across the service lifecycle.

Which of these is an objective of service level management? A) Define, document, agree, monitor, measure, report, and review services B) Monitor changes throughout their lifecycle C) Establish the root cause of incidents and problems efficiently and cost effectively D) Respond to service requests and inquiries promptly

A) Define, document, agree, monitor, measure, report, and review services

Which of these is not a characteristic of a process? A) Delivers functions B) Responds to a trigger C) Delivers a specific result D) Is measurable

A) Delivers functions

Early life support is an important concept in the release and deployment management process. In which phase of the release and deployment process does early life support happen? A) Deployment B) Review and close C) Release build and test D) Release deployment and planning

A) Deployment

Which of the following is not one of the responsibilities of a service owner? A) Designing the metrics for the process and ensuring that these provide the necessary information to judge the effectiveness and efficiency of the process B) Communicating with the customer as required on all issues regarding the delivery of the service C) Being the escalation (notification) point for major incidents affecting the service D) Representing the service across the organization and attending service review meetings with the business

A) Designing the metrics for the process and ensuring that these provide the necessary information to judge the effectiveness and efficiency of the process

A service catalog contains which of the following? A) Details of all services currently available to the users B) Details of all services being considered C) Details of all services being developed D) Details of all services

A) Details of all services currently available to the users

The three stages of the Deming Cycle are Check, Act, and Plan. Which is the fourth one? A) Do B) Measure C) Perform D) Implement

A) Do

Which of the following groups reviews changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process? A) Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) B) Service Request Fulfillment Group C) Emergency Committee (EC) D) Change Advisory Board (CAB)

A) Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)

Which of these is a purpose of business relationship management (BRM)? A) Establish a relationship between the service provider and the customer B) Establish a mechanism for recording service requests from the customer C) Manage the services provided to a customer D) Manage the funding for services provided to a customer

A) Establish a relationship between the service provider and the customer

Who should have access to the security policy? A) Everyone B) Senior management C) IT staff D) Business users

A) Everyone

Which of the following is not a phase of the Deming Cycle? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. The shortcut keys to perform this task are A to H and alt+1 to alt+9. A) Execute B) Check C) Act D) Plan

A) Execute

Which of the following refers to outsourcing? A) External service provider B) Internal service provider C) Business service provider D) Shared service provider

A) External service provider

Which of the following manages contracts relating to an outsourced Data Centre? A) Facilities Management B) Service Support C) Service Desk D) Technical Management

A) Facilities Management

An availability plan should consider the requirements for what period? A) For the next 12 to 18 months B) For the next 24 hours C) For the next week D) For the next month

A) For the next 12 to 18 months

Which strategies are the entry points to service strategy in the ITIL lifecycle? A) Four Ps B) KPIs C) PBAs D) CIs

A) Four Ps

Which of the following statements is used to describe a Service Desk activity? A) Functions as the first point when the customer contacts B) Outlines the cause of incidents C) Investigates the cause of disruptions for the customer D) Investigates the information about the customer

A) Functions as the first point when the customer contacts

The Service Support component of ITIL is used to deal with the day-to-day support and maintenance processes of Problem Management, Incident Management, Configuration Management, Change Management, and Release Management plus the Service Desk function. Which of the following is not a type of Service Desk structure? A) Help Service Desk B) Local Service Desk C) Central Service Desk D) Virtual Service Desk

A) Help Service Desk

Which of the following roles is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure? A) ICT Operations Management B) Incident Management C) Events Management D) Capacity Management

A) ICT Operations Management

Which of the following is an annual financial plan that provides an estimate of projected expenditures of service management processes within the IT organization? A) IT Budget B) Budget Request C) Budget Allocation D) Invoice

A) IT Budget

Which of the following assesses risks, determines costs to alleviate those risks, and prioritizes the recovery plan developed through Risk Assessment? A) IT Service Continuity Management B) Service Level Management C) Service Capacity Management D) Release Management

A) IT Service Continuity Management

Which of the following is known as Disaster Recovery planning? A) IT Service Continuity Management B) Plan-Do-Check-Act Methodology C) Service Reporting D) Service Level Management

A) IT Service Continuity Management

Which of the following roles is used to ensure that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the services are maintained to the levels approved on the Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A) IT security manager B) Change manager C) Configuration manager D) Service level manager

A) IT security manager

What factors should be taken into consideration when assessing the priority of an incident? A) Impact and urgency B) Impact and cost C) Severity and cost D) Urgency and severity

A) Impact and urgency

Problem Management reduces the adverse impact of incidents and problems on the business that are caused due to errors in the IT infrastructure. It restricts the recurrence of incidents associated to these errors. Which of the following are the benefits of Problem Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Improved IT service quality B) Incident volume reduction C) Permanent solutions D) Quick service restored to the customer

A) Improved IT service quality B) Incident volume reduction C) Permanent solutions

The objective of Problem Management is to reduce disruption to the business by proactive identification and analysis of the reason of incidents. It is used for handling the problems to closure. Which of the following are the inputs to the Problem Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Incident details B) Configuration details C) Supplier details regarding the products that are used in the infrastructure D) Up-to-date problem records

A) Incident details B) Configuration details C) Supplier details regarding the products that are used in the infrastructure

Who is the owner of Request Fulfillment? A) Incident manager B) Process manager C) Product manager D) Service manager

A) Incident manager

Who should carry out advance testing once a change has been built under an ITIL Change Management process? A) Independent tester B) Change Builder C) Change Manager D) Change Advisory Board

A) Independent tester

Which of the following are the features of Service Level Agreement (SLA)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Information included within an SLA is measurable. B) The language used in an SLA should be clear and concise. C) SLA provides one service for all customers of that service. D) SLA is used as a legal document for imposing penalties.

A) Information included within an SLA is measurable. B) The language used in an SLA should be clear and concise. C) SLA provides one service for all customers of that service.

IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) ensures that the recovery of required IT infrastructure and the IT service provision within required and agreed business time scales occurs. Which of the following are the stages of IT Service Continuity Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Initiation B) Threat C) Implementation D) Operational Management E) Requirements and Strategy

A) Initiation C) Implementation D) Operational Management E) Requirements and Strategy

Which of the following works for the same business as the IT service provider? A) Internal customer B) Internal manager C) In-sourcing agent D) IT service manager

A) Internal customer

Which of the following are the activities of IT Service Continuity Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It assess risks, determines costs to alleviate those risks, and prioritizes the recovery plan that is to be developed through a Risk Assessment. B) It works with BCM and Service Level Management (SLM) for the purpose of determining potential issues and recovery requirements via Business Impact Analysis. C) It translates recovery requirements into infrastructure options and data storage requirements. D) It takes possession for an incident and behaves as the primary level of escalation.

A) It assess risks, determines costs to alleviate those risks, and prioritizes the recovery plan that is to be developed through a Risk Assessment. B) It works with BCM and Service Level Management (SLM) for the purpose of determining potential issues and recovery requirements via Business Impact Analysis. C) It translates recovery requirements into infrastructure options and data storage requirements.

Release Management is used for platform-independent and automated distribution of software and hardware, including license controls across the entire IT infrastructure. Which levels are related to releasing hardware or software into an IT infrastructure? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Major B) Minor C) Emergency D) Delta E) Package

A) Major B) Minor C) Emergency

Failure of a critical component, causing a severe effect on a number of services, would justify which type of change?

An emergency change

Release Management is used to implement a group of related and compatible Configuration Items into a batch, known as a release. Which of the following are the objectives of Release Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It communicates and handles the customer expectations. B) It investigates problems, according to impact, via resolution or error identification. C) It makes sure that master copies of all software are secure and there is updated Configuration Management Database (CMDB). D) It plans the successful roll-out of software and associated hardware.

A) It communicates and handles the customer expectations. C) It makes sure that master copies of all software are secure and there is updated Configuration Management Database (CMDB). D) It plans the successful roll-out of software and associated hardware.

The Configuration Management Database (CMDB) includes a set of one or more related databases and information sources that provide information about a logical model of the IT infrastructure. Which of the following is the feature of the Configuration Management Database? A) It contains Configuration Items (CIs) and describes the relationship that exist between the Configuration Items. B) It is used to prioritize the recovery of IT services by working with BCM and SLM. C) It minimizes costs related with recovery plans using proper proactive planning and testing. D) It minimizes disruption in IT services when it follows a major interruption or disaster.

A) It contains Configuration Items (CIs) and describes the relationship that exist between the Configuration Items.

Which of the following are the strategic objectives of Capacity Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It determines upgrade plans in order to ensure accurate and timely procurements. B) It aligns equipment according to business need, supply, and demand. C) It is used to resolve the root cause of incidents. D) It is used to ensure effective service level management.

A) It determines upgrade plans in order to ensure accurate and timely procurements. B) It aligns equipment according to business need, supply, and demand. D) It is used to ensure effective service level management.

Which of the following statements are true about the capacity plan? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It documents the actual performance and the expected requirements. B) It should be created at least annually. C) It is a database or structured document used to manage supplier contracts throughout their lifecycle. D) It contains Configuration Items (CIs) and describes the relationship that exists between Configuration Items.

A) It documents the actual performance and the expected requirements. B) It should be created at least annually.

Which of the following is the objective of planning and implementing new or changed services? A) It ensures that the delivery of new services and changes to services will be at the agreed cost and maintained service quality. B) It ensures that agreed service continuity and availability commitments to customers are met in all the situations. C) It manages information security effectively among all service providers. D) It delivers, distributes, and tracks changes in a release into the live environment.

A) It ensures that the delivery of new services and changes to services will be at the agreed cost and maintained service quality.

The objective of Configuration Management is to define and control the service and infrastructure components, and to maintain accurate configuration information. Which of the following are the benefits of Configuration Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It facilitates the visibility of software changes. B) It provides data relevant to incident and problem trends for Problem Management. C) It deals with the day-to-day availability of services. D) It supports the organization in reducing the use of unauthorized software.

A) It facilitates the visibility of software changes. B) It provides data relevant to incident and problem trends for Problem Management. D) It supports the organization in reducing the use of unauthorized software.

Which of the following information are included in the Configuration Management Database? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It includes hardware and software Configuration Items on which release has an impact. B) It covers contents of planned release that include hardware and software Configuration Items with reference to the original RFC. C) It covers the two aspects of service catalog. D) It includes details of the physical location of hardware covered by the release.

A) It includes hardware and software Configuration Items on which release has an impact. B) It covers contents of planned release that include hardware and software Configuration Items with reference to the original RFC. D) It includes details of the physical location of hardware covered by the release.

Which of the following statements is the best description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)? A) It is an agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization. B) It is a document that describes business services to operational staff. C) It is an agreement between the service provider and an external organization. D) It is a document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis.

A) It is an agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization.

Which of the following statements best describes a problem? A) It is an unknown cause of one or more incidents. B) It is a Known Error with one or more incidents. C) It is one or more Known Errors. D) It is a known cause of one or more disruptions.

A) It is an unknown cause of one or more incidents.

Which of the following statements about ITIL Services is NOT true? A) It is technical recommendations B) It is assessment guidelines C) It is recommendation of their implementation D) It is description of management processes

A) It is technical recommendations

An important focus for the service lifecycle is the capture and management of knowledge relating to IT service provision. How does the process of knowledge management work in the service lifecycle? A) Knowledge management is used across the whole service lifecycle to ensure that appropriate knowledge is delivered to enable informed decision making. B) Knowledge management is solely concerned with the transfer of knowledge when implementing new or changed services. C) Knowledge management is used across the lifecycle stages of continual service improvement and service operation to ensure that improvements are managed effectively. D) Knowledge management is used solely in the service operation stage of the lifecycle to ensure that operation issues are managed efficiently.

A) Knowledge management is used across the whole service lifecycle to ensure that appropriate knowledge is delivered to enable informed decision making.

Configuration Management process supports the other Service Management processes by managing the service assets and Configuration Items. Which of the following are the goals of Configuration Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It is used for providing a sound basis for Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, and Release Management. B) It executes a cost-benefit analysis of all costs related to prevention. C) It is used for verifying the configuration records against the infrastructure and for correcting any exception. D) It reports for all the IT assets and configurations within the organization and its services.

A) It is used for providing a sound basis for Incident Management, Problem Management, Change Management, and Release Management. C) It is used for verifying the configuration records against the infrastructure and for correcting any exception. D) It reports for all the IT assets and configurations within the organization and its services.

Which of the following are the advantages of Deming Cycle? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It is used for quality control. B) It provides continuous improvement. C) It is used during the design phase. D) It is a problem solving process.

A) It is used for quality control. B) It provides continuous improvement. D) It is a problem solving process.

Which of the following is the objective of Budgeting and Accounting for IT Services? A) It is used to budget and account for the cost of service provision. B) It determines the running strategies. C) It recognizes and resolves bottlenecks. D) It is used to ensure the correct level of investment, resource, and capacity.

A) It is used to budget and account for the cost of service provision.

The Service Desk deals with the day-to-day issues of the customer, end-user calls, and related service issues. Which of the following are the activities of the Service Desk? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It manages and coordinates the Incident lifecycle. B) It serves as an interface for various ITIL processes. C) It serves as a single point of contact for the issues related to the IT Service. D) It is used to resolve the root cause of incidents.

A) It manages and coordinates the Incident lifecycle. B) It serves as an interface for various ITIL processes. C) It serves as a single point of contact for the issues related to the IT Service.

Budgets are used to specify the financial plans for the objectives during the period that the budget covers. Which of the following is the objective of budgeting? A) It plans and controls the activities of an organization. B) It produces agreed, timely, reliable, and accurate reports for the purpose of decision making and effective communication. C) It defines, agrees, records, and manages levels of service. D) It manages information security effectively among all service providers.

A) It plans and controls the activities of an organization.

IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) is used to support the overall Business Continuity Management (BCM) in order to ensure that the required IT infrastructure and the IT service provision are recovered within an agreed business time scales. Which of the following are the benefits of implementing IT Service Continuity Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It prioritizes the recovery of IT services by working with BCM and SLM. B) It minimizes disruption in IT services when it follows a major interruption or disaster. C) It minimizes costs related with recovery plans using proper proactive planning and testing. D) It confirms competence, impartiality, and performance capability of an organization that performs audits.

A) It prioritizes the recovery of IT services by working with BCM and SLM. B) It minimizes disruption in IT services when it follows a major interruption or disaster. C) It minimizes costs related with recovery plans using proper proactive planning and testing.

Which of the following is not a Configuration Management (CI) activity? A) It provides updates to CMDB. B) It verifies CMDB accuracy. C) It plans, designs, and manages Configuration Management Database. D) It identifies CIs for entry into CMDB.

A) It provides updates to CMDB.

The objective of Capacity Management is to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient capacity, so that the current and the future needs of the customer get fulfilled. Which of the following should be the requirements of Capacity Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It should directly support the growth of new and changed services. B) It should meet all its objectives defined in the policy that exist on the financial management of services. C) Its capacity plan should be created at least annually. D) It should plan for the management of shortfalls where budgetary requirements exceed available funds.

A) It should directly support the growth of new and changed services. C) Its capacity plan should be created at least annually.

Supplier Management is used to ensure that all contracts with suppliers support the needs of business, and that all suppliers meet their contractual commitments. Which of the following are the objectives of the Supplier Management process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It supports in managing relationship with suppliers. B) It manages and maintains a supplier policy and a supporting supplier and contract database. C) It plans the successful roll-out of software and associated hardware. D) It supports in managing supplier performance.

A) It supports in managing relationship with suppliers. B) It manages and maintains a supplier policy and a supporting supplier and contract database. D) It supports in managing supplier performance.

Which of the following are the responsibilities of Budgeting and Accounting? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Its accounting practices used should be aligned to the wider accountancy practices of the whole service provider's organization. B) It should identify its requirements on the basis of the priorities of customer's business, service level agreements, and assessed risks. C) It should meet all its objectives defined in the policy that exist on the financial management of services. D) It should plan for the management of shortfalls, where budgetary requirements exceed available funds.

A) Its accounting practices used should be aligned to the wider accountancy practices of the whole service provider's organization. C) It should meet all its objectives defined in the policy that exist on the financial management of services. D) It should plan for the management of shortfalls, where budgetary requirements exceed available funds.

Which of the following is not a Capacity Management activity? A) Maintainability B) Tuning C) Application sizing D) Demand Management

A) Maintainability

The objective of Service Level Management is to define, agree, record, and manage levels of service. Which of the following are the benefits of Service Level Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Measurement of service performance is possible. B) IT services are designed in order to meet the expectations, which are specified in the Service Level Requirements. C) Minimizes disruption in IT services when it follows a major interruption or disaster. D) Improved customer relationships and customer satisfaction is achieved.

A) Measurement of service performance is possible. B) IT services are designed in order to meet the expectations, which are specified in the Service Level Requirements. D) Improved customer relationships and customer satisfaction is achieved.

The Release categories consist of the new or changed software and/or hardware required to implement approved changes. Which of the following are the Release categories? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three. A) Minor software B) Major software C) Emergency software D) Minor hardware

A) Minor software B) Major software C) Emergency software

Which of the following are Service Level Agreement (SLA) structures as defined by ITIL? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Multi-Level B) Component Based C) Segment Based D) Service Based E) Customer Based

A) Multi-Level D) Service Based E) Customer Based

Which of the following is not a part of the four Ps strategy? A) Packages B) People C) Products D) Partners

A) Packages

Which of the following help the IT Service Provider to understand and plan for different levels of business activity? A) Patterns of business activity B) Business continuity activities C) Business assets D) Confidentiality services

A) Patterns of business activity

Which one of these four assets can be classed as both a resource and a capability? A) People B) Knowledge C) Organization D) Financial capital

A) People

Which of the following concepts is part of Change Management? A) Post Implementation Review B) Emergency Release C) Service Request D) Work-group

A) Post Implementation Review

Which of the following is not a category of supplier described in ITIL? A) Preferred B) Operational C) Strategic D) Commodity

A) Preferred

Which of the following is not a category of supplier described in ITIL? A) Preferred B) Commodity C) Strategic D) Operational

A) Preferred

Which of the following sequences is used to deal with a problem? A) Priority B) Demand C) Urgency D) Impact

A) Priority

Which ITIL process is related with a Post Implementation Review? A) Problem Management B) Release Management C) Incident Management D) Application Management

A) Problem Management

Which of the following ITIL processes is used to provide change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors? A) Problem Management B) Security Management C) Capacity Management D) Availability management

A) Problem Management

Which of the following corrects the underlying root causes by using a process called Root Cause Analysis (RCA)? A) Problem Management B) Incident Management C) Capacity Management D) Supplier Management

A) Problem Management

Which process will on a regular basis evaluate incident data to identify discernable trends? A) Problem Management B) Event Management C) Change Management D) Service Level Management

A) Problem Management

The Change Advisory Board (CAB) is the consultative body that meets on regular basis in order to assess, prioritize, and plan changes. What are the fixed items on the agenda of the CAB meeting? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) RFC's that are required to be accessed by the CAB's members B) Structure of Service Level Agreement (SLA) C) Unauthorized changes D) Authorized changes that are not presented to the CAB

A) RFC's that are required to be accessed by the CAB's members C) Unauthorized changes D) Authorized changes that are not presented to the CAB

Which of the following enables the user to take a comprehensive view of changes in the IT sector? A) Release Management B) Customer Management C) Service Level Management D) Task Management

A) Release Management

Which of the following is required when major hardware or new software is installed? A) Release Management B) Service Level Management C) Customer Management D) Business Management

A) Release Management

Which stage of the Change Management process is used to deal with what should be done if the change is not successful? A) Remediation planning B) Categorization C) Peer review D) Change requests

A) Remediation planning

Which of the following processes is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services? A) Request Fulfillment B) Service Portfolio Management C) IT Financial Management D) Service Desk

A) Request Fulfillment

What is meant by the term request fulfillment in the ITIL framework? A) Request fulfillment is a process for managing the requests from users to the IT department. B) Request fulfillment is the report produced on the number of password resets carried out by the IT department. C) Request fulfillment is a means of managing the changes that users request in the IT environment. D) Request fulfillment is used to deliver non-IT-related business components to the users.

A) Request fulfillment is a process for managing the requests from users to the IT department.

Which of the following sub-processes of Capacity Management is concerned with the management of the individual components of the IT Infrastructure? A) Resource Capacity Management B) Service Capacity Management C) Business Capacity Management D) Capacity Management Reporting

A) Resource Capacity Management

The responsibility assignment matrix is commonly known as a RACI matrix. RACI is an acronym derived from the four key responsibilities. Choose the appropriate responsibilities. *Key Responsibilities* A) Responsible B) Accountable C) Consulted D) Availability E) Informed

A) Responsible B) Accountable C) Consulted E) Informed

What does RACI stand for? A) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed B) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Involved C) Recorded, Assessed, Consulted, Informed D) Review, Authorize, Consult, Inform

A) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

A service provider guarantees for end-to-end network traffic performance to a customer. Which of the following types of agreement is this? A) SLA B) VPN C) NDA D) LA

A) SLA

Which document will you see to get an overview of actual service achievements against targets? A) SLA Monitoring Chart B) Target Level Agreement C) Operational Level Agreement D) Service Level Agreement

A) SLA Monitoring Chart

Information security management keeps information about security in what? A) SMIS B) ISDB C) KEDB D) IMSS

A) SMIS

Which of the following is required by Major Incidents? A) Separate procedures B) Less documentation C) Less urgency D) Longer timescales

A) Separate procedures

Which of the following ITIL processes requires to be set up to improve unmanaged situation? A) Service Desk B) Improvement Management C) Error Control D) Problem Management

A) Service Desk

Which of the following has an objective to define, agree, record, and manage levels of service? A) Service Level Management B) Budgeting and Accounting for IT services C) Service Continuity and Availability Management D) Service Reporting

A) Service Level Management

Which of the following is used for composing a service catalog? A) Service Level Management B) Problem Management C) Incident Management D) Capacity Management

A) Service Level Management

Which of the following processes provides workload information on service level requirements to Capacity Management? A) Service Level Management B) Incident Management C) Change Management D) Configuration Management

A) Service Level Management

Which of the following recognizes underpinning contract service requirements? A) Service Level Management B) Customer Management C) Release Management D) Problem Management

A) Service Level Management

Which of the following roles in Service Design is responsible for delivering a particular service within the agreed service levels and also acts as the counterpart of the Service Level Manager when negotiating OLAs? A) Service Owner B) Service Catalog Manager C) Service Level Manager D) Service Design Manager

A) Service Owner

Which process ensures that organizations are in a position to deal with the costs and risks associated with their service portfolios? A) Service Strategy B) Service Transition C) Service Operation D) Service Design

A) Service Strategy

Which process ensures that the new or changed services are better aligned with the customer's business operation? A) Service Transition B) Service Strategy C) Continual Service Improvement D) Service Design

A) Service Transition

Which of the following defines customer perceptions and business outcomes? A) Service Value B) Customer Relationship Management C) Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) D) Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

A) Service Value

What are the basic components of availability? A) Service availability and component availability B) Customer availability and service availability C) Server availability and resource availability D) Customer availability and application availability

A) Service availability and component availability

What service management output might the service level manager use to help determine the best structure of service-level agreements for the organization? A) Service catalog B) Infrastructure monitoring system C) Configuration management system D) Service desk logging tool

A) Service catalog

The service operation lifecycle stage has a number of key objectives. Which of these statements best reflects the key objectives of service operation? A) Service operation should ensure the day-to-day service is delivered according to the agreed-on requirements of the business. B) Service operation ensures the financial obligations of the IT department are met and reported to the business. C) Service operation should ensure the details of the IT infrastructure are captured in the service asset database. D) Service operation should agree on the strategy for delivering IT services to the business.

A) Service operation should ensure the day-to-day service is delivered according to the agreed-on requirements of the business.

Into which of the following phases is the Service Portfolio divided? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. A) Service pipeline B) Service catalog C) Service audit D) Retired Services

A) Service pipeline B) Service catalog D) Retired Services

Which of the following serve as a decision support tool amongst all management processes? A) Service reports B) Test reports C) Choice reports D) Decision reports

A) Service reports

In which one of the lifecycle stages will the conflict for operational resource allocation be discussed to plan for future resource utilization? A) Service strategy B) Service transition C) Service design D) Continual service improvement

A) Service strategy

The agreement between an IT service provider and their customers regarding the services provided is called what? A) Service-level agreement B) Service targets C) Service charter D) Service contract

A) Service-level agreement

Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to perform at an agreed level over a period of time? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. A) Serviceability B) Maintainability C) Reliability D) Error Control

A) Serviceability B) Maintainability C) Reliability

What value does service design provide for the business? A) Services are delivered effectively and aligned to business needs. B) Strategic plans are developed and aligned to the business. C) Operational testing is carried out successfully. D) Operational processes are managed effectively.

A) Services are delivered effectively and aligned to business needs.

Which of the following is defined as a statistical measure of variations and a methodology used for improving processes? A) Six Sigma B) Microsoft Operations Framework (MOF) C) Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT) D) Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI)

A) Six Sigma

Which of the following are the basic change models that are included in service transitions? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Standard change model B) Normal change model C) Emergency change model D) Maximum change model

A) Standard change model B) Normal change model C) Emergency change model

Which type of improvement should be accomplished by using Deming Cycle? A) Steady, ongoing improvement B) ROI improvement C) Achieve ISO/IEC 20000 standard D) Quick, runs

A) Steady, ongoing improvement

Which of the following processes is responsible for managing relationships with vendors? A) Supplier Management B) Service Portfolio Management C) Service Level Management D) Continual Service Improvement E) Change Management

A) Supplier Management

Which of the following processes reviews Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis? A) Supplier Management and Service Level Management B) Supplier Management, Demand Management, and Service Level Management C) Supplier Management and Demand Management D) Demand Management and Service Level Management

A) Supplier Management and Service Level Management

Which of the following roles will you most expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts? A) Supplier Manager B) IT Designer C) Process Manager D) Service Catalog Manager

A) Supplier Manager

Which of the following perspectives is covered by the Information Security Management to ensure the confidentiality of an organization's assets, data, and IT services? A) Technical B) Hierarchal C) Structural D) Theoretical

A) Technical

Which of the following is the correct list of functions described in ITIL? A) Technical management function, operations management function, application management function, service desk function B) Infrastructure management function, desktop support function, application management function, service desk function C) Technical management function, facilities management function, service desk function D) Infrastructure management function, service desk function, application development function

A) Technical management function, operations management function, application management function, service desk function

Which of the following best describes the purpose of event management? A) The ability to detect events, makes sense of them, and determines the appropriate control action B) The ability to monitor and control the responsibilities of technical staff C) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices D) The ability to implement monitoring tools

A) The ability to detect events, makes sense of them, and determines the appropriate control action

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) provides practical supervision for which of the following? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. A) The continual alignment of the portfolio of IT services with the current and future business requirements. B) The development of the enabling IT processes required supporting business process in a Continual Service Lifecycle model. C) CSI Monitoring. D) The overall health of ITSM as a discipline.

A) The continual alignment of the portfolio of IT services with the current and future business requirements. B) The development of the enabling IT processes required supporting business process in a Continual Service Lifecycle model. D) The overall health of ITSM as a discipline.

Which one of these statements is correct? A) The level of authorization should be judged by the type, size, or risk of the change, as agreed on to meet the requirements of the organization. B) The level of authorization is set only by and for the business to accommodate their needs and requirements in the management of business processes. C) The change authority level is set only according to the cost of the change. D) The level at which change authorization takes place depends only on the severity of the change.

A) The level of authorization should be judged by the type, size, or risk of the change, as agreed on to meet the requirements of the organization.

Which role should update process documentation following a change? A) The process owner B) The change manager C) The process manager D) The knowledge manager

A) The process owner

Which of the following statements about the service catalog is true? A) The service catalog shows which IT service supports each business process. B) The service catalog contains information on supporting services only. C) The service catalog contains information on customer-facing services only. D) The service catalog shows details of services under development.

A) The service catalog shows which IT service supports each business process.

Service Portfolio is divided into how many phases? A) Three B) Two C) Seven D) Six

A) Three

Which of the following statements about design coordination responsibilities is incorrect? A) To design the solution B) To provide a single coordination point C) To ensure the design meets the requirements D) To ensure that the goals and objectives of the design stage are met

A) To design the solution

Which one of these statements best reflects the purpose of continual service improvement? A) To improve the efficiency of services and service management processes B) To define and agree the strategy for service management C) To improve the effectiveness of the business processes in support of the organization D) To design operational services to meet the requirements of the business

A) To improve the efficiency of services and service management processes

Accounting supports in validating expenditure on new and better services. Which of the following is the objective of accounting? A) To monitor how money is spent by an IT organization. B) To define, agree, record, and manage levels of service. C) To manage information security effectively among all service providers. D) To produce agreed, timely, reliable, and accurate reports for the purpose of decision making and effective communication.

A) To monitor how money is spent by an IT organization.

Which of these is the best description of the purpose of transition planning and support process? A) To provide overall planning and coordination of resources for service transition B) To provide planning for operational activities during release management C) To provide planning for all designs in the service lifecycle D) To provide coordination for all change management activities

A) To provide overall planning and coordination of resources for service transition

The service transition stage of the service lifecycle has a number of different processes. Which of these is the process most concerned with the management of the whole approach to service transition? A) Transition planning and support B) Service transition release and deployment C) Change management D) Transition management and support

A) Transition planning and support

Which of the following is an activity of Proactive Problem Management? A) Trend analysis B) Problem identification and recording C) Error assessment D) Error closure

A) Trend analysis

There are four commonly used terms when discussing service improvement outcomes, what are those? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Value on Investment B) Return on Investment C) Benefits D) Improvements E) Sale on Investment F) Service on Investment

A) Value on Investment B) Return on Investment C) Benefits D) Improvements

Which of these is not one of the phases of the release and deployment process? A) Verification and audit B) Review and close C) Deployment D) Release and deployment planning

A) Verification and audit

What are the elements of a service's business value from customers' perspective? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Warranty B) Configuration Item C) Utility D) Availability

A) Warranty C) Utility

When should an incident be closed? A) When the user confirms that the service has been restored B) When desktop support staff members say that the incident is over C) When the technical staff members are confident that it will not recur D) When the target resolution time is reached

A) When the user confirms that the service has been restored

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) aligns and realigns IT Services to changing business needs by identifying and implementing improvements to the IT services that support the Business Processes. Choose the appropriate business questions for CSI in correct order. Here, you have to arrange the options given in the list into their correct order. Business questions for CSI A) Where are we now? B) What do we want? C) What did we get? D) What can we afford? E) What will we get? F) What do we actually need?

A) Where are we now? B) What do we want? F) What do we actually need? D) What can we afford? E) What will we get? C) What did we get?

The process responsible for allowing users to make use of IT services, data, or other assets. Access management implements the policies of information security management and is sometimes referred to as rights management or identity management.

Access management

A notification that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred.

Alert

Requests can be fulfilled by the following: 1. Service desk staff 2. Second-line staff 3. Service level manager 4. Business relationship manager A) All the answers are correct. B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 D) 1 and 3

B) 1 and 2

Which of the following is included in a service catalog? 1. Customer-facing services 2. Strategic services 3. Supporting services 4. Retired services A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

Which of the following should service desk staff members possess? 1. Specialist technical knowledge 2. Customer service skills 3. Technical ability 4. Business knowledge A) All the answers are correct. B) 2, 3, and 4 C) 1 and 2 D) 2 and 3

B) 2, 3, and 4

Who does ITIL say is responsible for identifying improvements to a process? 1. The service owner 2. The process improvement manager 3. The process manager 4. The process owner A) 1 and 2 only B) 3 and 4 only C) All the answers are correct. D) 4 only

B) 3 and 4 only

In which of the following a structured set of Release units can be defined? A) The RACI Model B) A Release Package C) A Request Model D) The PDCA cycle

B) A Release Package

Which of the following is the correct definition of the service catalog? A) Justification for a particular item of expenditure, including information about costs, benefits, options, and risks B) A database or document with information about all live IT services C) The complete set of services managed by a service provider, used to manage the entire lifecycle of all services D) A document that describes the IT service, service level targets, and responsibilities of the IT service provider and the customer

B) A database or document with information about all live IT services

Which of these statements best describes a configuration record? A) A service asset that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service B) A set of attributes and relationships about a CI and stored in a configuration management database C) Categorization of the CIs that make up the services D) Any resource or capability that could contribute to the delivery of a service

B) A set of attributes and relationships about a CI and stored in a configuration management database

What is the definition of an Alert? A) An audit report indicating areas where IT is not performing accordingly B) A warning that a threshold has been reached C) A type of Incident procedures D) An error message to users of an application

B) A warning that a threshold has been reached

Availability is calculated using the formula AST-DT/AST × 100. What do the terms AST and DT refer to? A) AST = availability service target, DT = downtime B) AST = agreed service time, DT = downtime C) AST = agreed service time, DT = delivery time D) AST = assumed service target, DT = delivery time

B) AST = agreed service time, DT = downtime

Which of the following is the best description of access management? A) Access management enables authorized access to services and data. Information security management removes or prevents access to nonauthorized staff. B) Access management grants authorized users the right to use a service, while preventing access to nonauthorized users. C) Access management is responsible for setting security policies. D) Access management decides what services users should have access to.

B) Access management grants authorized users the right to use a service, while preventing access to nonauthorized users.

How is the process of access management used in the service operation stage of the service lifecycle? A) Access management is used to ensure the active directory entries are audited for accuracy. B) Access management is used to ensure the correct people are able to use the correct systems in the correct way. C) Access management is used to manage the security technology in the infrastructure. D) Access management is used to maintain security controls over the business environment.

B) Access management is used to ensure the correct people are able to use the correct systems in the correct way.

__________ to get the maximum benefit from changes. A) Check B) Act C) Process D) Plan

B) Act

An organization has a standardized Change Management plan that all project managers must adhere to. A project manager has worked with the Change Control Board in his organization to decide the activities of Change Management. Which of the following should be the activities of Change Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It changes an action that results in a new status. B) All changes are reviewed in CAB meetings. C) All the RFCs are sorted depending on category and priority. D) All changes are logged to Change Management in a standardized Request For Change (RFC) document.

B) All changes are reviewed in CAB meetings. C) All the RFCs are sorted depending on category and priority. D) All changes are logged to Change Management in a standardized Request For Change (RFC) document.

Service design delivers a new service or a change to an existing service. Which of the following are included in the service design? 1. Technology 2. Processes 3. Budget 4. Policies A) 2 and 4 B) All the answers are correct. C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 2, 3, and 4

B) All the answers are correct.

Which of these statements are correct? 1. The definitive media library may partially be a physical store. 2. The definitive media library may partially be an electronic store. 3. The definitive media library may contain documentation relating to software licenses. A) 1, 2 B) All the answers are correct. C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3

B) All the answers are correct.

Which of the following is the significant element for Security? A) Problem Management B) Availability Management C) Resource Management D) Capacity Management

B) Availability Management

Which of the following is not a typical type of metrics? A)Process metrics B) Baseline metrics C) Service Metrics D) Technology metrics

B) Baseline metrics

Which of the following have to be established at each level, strategic goals and objectives, tactical process maturity, operational metrics, and KPIs? A) Capability Maturity Model Integration B) Baselines C) Capabilities D) IT Architecture Management

B) Baselines

Using ITIL terminology, there is a difference between a baseline and a snapshot. Which of these statements is/are correct? 1. A baseline is a point in time that captures a snapshot of the environment and is verified so that it is an accurate reflection of the environment. 2. A baseline is used for comparison, so it should be captured at regular intervals and recorded. A) 1 only B) Both C) Neither D) 2 only

B) Both

Which of these statements is/are correct? 1. A resource is a generic term used to describe IT infrastructure, people, money, or other items that make up a service. 2. A capability is the ability of an organization, person, process, or IT service to carry out an activity. A) Neither B) Both C) 2 only D) 1 only

B) Both

You work as a Project Manager for uCertify Inc. You are leading the analysis of a new project that may be initiated by your company. The analysis is a focus on the return on investment (ROI) for new programs that may be created if the project is initiated. What type of document are you creating for your company? A) Project charter B) Business case C) Statement of work D) Project scope statement

B) Business case

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) aligns and realigns IT Services to changing business needs by identifying and implementing improvements to the IT services that support the Business Processes. Which of the following CSI sub-processes is used to verify if improvement initiatives are proceeding according to plan, and to introduce corrective measures where necessary? A) Process Evaluation B) CSI Monitoring C) Service Evaluation D) Definition of Improvement Initiatives

B) CSI Monitoring

Which of the following is a new concept to register all CSI initiatives going on? A) ISO/IEC 20000 B) CSI Register C) Deming cycle D) BRM

B) CSI Register

Which of the following has an Application Sizing activity? A) Problem Management B) Capacity Management C) Incident Management D) Configuration Management

B) Capacity Managementb

Which of the following advises Change Management regarding the priorities of the RFCs? A) Incident Manager B) Change Advisory Board C) Accreditation body D) Problem Manager

B) Change Advisory Board

Which of the following is the consultative body that meets on regular basis in order to assess, prioritize, and plan changes? A) Service Level Management B) Change Advisory Board C) Accreditation body D) Information Security Management

B) Change Advisory Board

Which of the following administers each release via a request for change to ensure that there is authorizing, scheduling, and correct implementing of the group of changes in a release? A) Capacity Management B) Change Management C) Information Security Management D) Service Level Management

B) Change Management

Which of the following processes governs Release Management? A) Problem Management B) Change Management C) Configuration Management D) Service Level Management

B) Change Management

Who should initially evaluate the category of a proposed change within an ITIL compliant Change Management process? A) Change Advisory Board B) Change Manager C) Change Implementer D) Change Requestor

B) Change Manager

Which process ensures that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes? A) Incident management B) Change management C) Request management D) Risk management

B) Change management

Which of the following provides details of affected configuration items and how they were affected by authorized changes? A) Capacity plan B) Change record C) Business Service Catalog D) Supplier and Contract Database

B) Change record

You are the project manager of a large project in your organization. You have been actively communicating and working with the project stakeholders. One of the outputs of the manage stakeholder expectations process can actually create new risk events for your project. Which output of the manage stakeholder expectations process can create risks? A) Project management plan updates B) Change requests C) Organizational process assets updates D) Project document updates

B) Change requests

Which of the following activities is used to take place after recording and registering an incident? A) Matching B) Classification C) Analysis D) Restoring

B) Classification

ITIL recommends that you understand and document the profile of patterns of business activity (PBA). Which of these represents the four things that you should capture about each PBA profile? A) Classification, prioritization, requirements, and service asset requirements B) Classification, attributes, requirements, and service asset requirements C) Attributes, service asset serial numbers, prioritization, and requirements D) Management information, prioritization, service asset serial numbers, and configuration baselines

B) Classification, attributes, requirements, and service asset requirements

Which of the following manages the relationship between all system components, including incidents, problems, known errors, changes, and release? A) Business Service Catalog B) Configuration Management Database C) Technical Service Catalog D) Accreditation body

B) Configuration Management Database

Which of the following includes details of the physical location of hardware covered by the release? A) Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) B) Configuration Management Database (CMDB) C) Underpinning Contract (UC) D) Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

B) Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

Which of the following processes is used to manage the service assets and configuration items for supporting other Service Management processes? A) Incident Management process B) Configuration Management process C) Supplier Management process D) Problem Management process

B) Configuration Management process

Which of the following is an input to the Problem Management process? A) Known Errors B) Configuration details from the Configuration Management Database C) A Request for Change (RFC) D) Management information

B) Configuration details from the Configuration Management Database

Which of the following parts of the Service Lifecycle is looking for the ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness? A) Service Transition B) Continual Service Improvement C) Service Operation D) Service Design

B) Continual Service Improvement

Which of the following is the correct list of the three levels of a multi-level SLA? A) Technology, Customer, and End User B) Corporate, Customer, and Service C) Corporate, Customer, and Technology D) Service, User, and IT

B) Corporate, Customer, and Service

Who defines the value of a service? A) Business relationship manager B) Customer C) Service strategy process owner D) Service strategy process manager

B) Customer

What is the last step in the 7 Step Continual Service Improvement process? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. The shortcut keys to perform this task are A to H and alt+1 to alt+9. A) Gathering the data B) Implementing corrective action C) Presenting and using the information D) Define what can be measured

B) Implementing corrective action

Continual Service Improvement (CSI) aligns and realigns IT Services to changing business needs by identifying and implementing improvements to the IT services that support the Business Processes. For things to change efficiently, it is preeminent to follow a rigid set of simply repeatable steps. By following a structured process, slowly but gradually, a slight improvement is sensed as each step has taken place. Therefore, choose the CSI 7-Step Improvement Process in correct order. CSI 7-Steps Improvement Process A) Presenting and using the information B) Define what should be measured C) Analyzing the data D) Processing the data E) Gathering the data F) Implementing corrective action G) Define what can be measured

B) Define what should be measured G) Define what can be measured E) Gathering the data D) Processing the data C) Analyzing the data A) Presenting and using the information F) Implementing corrective action

Which of the following is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process? A) Identify gaps in SLA achievement B) Define what you must measure C) Prepare for action D) Where are you now?

B) Define what you must measure

What is the RACI model used for? A) Defining the different responsibilities of the service owner process owner, manager, and practitioner B) Defining the roles and responsibilities for a process C) Risk assessment for each configuration item D) Defining the process requirements for a new service

B) Defining the roles and responsibilities for a process

Which of the following is the correct description of a service? A) Restores normal operations as soon as possible B) Delivers value to customers, without ownership of specific costs and risks C) Investigates the underlying cause of issues D) Monitors targets according to contractual obligations

B) Delivers value to customers, without ownership of specific costs and risks

Plan, Do, Check, Act are the four stages of which quality improvement approach? A) Improvement initiative cycle B) Deming cycle C) CSI approach D) Edwards cycle of quality improvement

B) Deming cycle

A service catalog contains which of the following? A) Details of all services being considered B) Details of all services currently available to the users C) Details of all services D) Details of all services being developed

B) Details of all services currently available to the users

__________ changes on a small scale first to test them. A) Process B) Do C) Plan D) Execute

B) Do

Which of the following is a configuration Item? A) An incident B) Documentation C) A report D) A process

B) Documentation

Which of the following change models is used for highly critical changes and prevents the occurrence of widespread service failure? A) Normal change model B) Emergency change model C) Maximum change model D) Standard change model

B) Emergency change model

What is one of the key objectives of release and deployment management? A) Ensure that business impact is fully assessed prior to approving a change B) Ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services, operations, and support services C) Ensure that all changes are approved according to the agreed-on process D) Reduce the number of changes approved over a given period

B) Ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services, operations, and support services

Which of the following statements is false? A) It is impossible to plan for disasters, because there are too many different possibilities. The IT department should be ready to quickly devise a recovery plan following a disaster. B) Ensuring the business is able to continue operation is the responsibility of IT. C) Planning for a number of different disaster scenarios that could affect IT services is essential. D) Continuity planning requires an understanding of the key business processes.

B) Ensuring the business is able to continue operation is the responsibility of IT.

Which of the following processes is accountable for monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops beneath adequate limits? A) Service asset and configuration management B) Event management C) Service request management D) Service level management

B) Event management

Which of the following roles tailor a portfolio of investments based on their customer's risk and reward profile? A) Process managers B) Financial managers C) Customer managers D) Service managers

B) Financial managers

What is ITIL? A) Rules for achieving recognized IT standards B) Good advice about how to manage IT services C) Advice on managing projects D) Advice on the technical requirements for infrastructure

B) Good advice about how to manage IT services

Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency? A) Service Strategy B) Governance C) Capacity Management D) Service Management

B) Governance

In which of the following does the Incident Manager resolve a problem, if the Service Desk is unable to resolve the incident in the first instance? A) Service reporting B) Hierarchical escalation C) Information Security Management D) Supplier Management

B) Hierarchical escalation

Which of the following is not a Service Desk type accepted in the Service Operation volume of ITIL? A) Local B) Holistic C) Centralized D) Virtual

B) Holistic

Which of the following is not a main Problem Review check? A) Things that were finished properly B) How to avoid failure C) Things that were done wrongly D) How to avoid recurrence

B) How to avoid failure

Which of the following ITIL processes is responsible for analyzing risks and counter measures? A) Service Desk B) IT Service Continuity Management C) Problem Management D) Capacity Management

B) IT Service Continuity Management

Which of the following ensure that the IT infrastructure and the IT service provision are recovered in the agreed business time scales? A) Configuration Management and Incident Management B) IT Service Continuity Management and Business Continuity Management C) Capacity Management and Change Management D) Incident Management and Problem Management

B) IT Service Continuity Management and Business Continuity Management

Which of the following is not a benefit resulting from good Service Design practice? A) Improved service alignment B) Improved service ownership C) Improved quality of service D) Improved IT governance

B) Improved service ownership

A service catalog provides the detailed description of the operational services in the language that the customer can understand. Which of the following are the features of a service catalog? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It describes the process parameters of the Service Management process and Operational Management. B) It facilitates the alignment process between service customers and service providers. C) It includes a summary of the associated service levels that are provided to the customers by the IT organization. D) It serves as an important communication tool.

B) It facilitates the alignment process between service customers and service providers. C) It includes a summary of the associated service levels that are provided to the customers by the IT organization. D) It serves as an important communication tool.

Which of the following is not a goal of ITIL Service Management? A) It improves communication within IT and with users. B) It improves efficiency of external processes. C) It ensures that IT services are aligned to the needs of users. D) It improves availability and stability of services.

B) It improves efficiency of external processes.

Incident management aims to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible. How is normal service operation defined? A) It is the level of service that IT believes is optimal. B) It is the level of service defined in the SLA. C) It is the level of service that the technical management staff members say is reasonable. D) It is the level of service that the user requires.

B) It is the level of service defined in the SLA.

Service Continuity and Availability Management ensures that agreed service continuity and availability commitments to customers are fulfilled in all the situations. Which of the following are the responsibilities of Service Continuity and Availability Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It should plan for the management of shortfalls where budgetary requirements exceed available funds. B) It should include risk assessment in its Service Continuity Strategy and define general approach to meet service continuity obligations. C) It should identify its requirements on the basis of the priorities of customer's business, service level agreements, and assessed risks. D) It should make sure that there is an availability of all the components of the service.

B) It should include risk assessment in its Service Continuity Strategy and define general approach to meet service continuity obligations. C) It should identify its requirements on the basis of the priorities of customer's business, service level agreements, and assessed risks. D) It should make sure that there is an availability of all the components of the service.

Documentation is a way to communicate information and share knowledge. Which of the following are the features of documentation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It ensures that the customer satisfaction is measured and managed. B) It supports in the improvement of the performance of an organization. C) It understands and discusses the business plans, changes to the business, and service needs with the customer. D) It develops a common understanding across process fields.

B) It supports in the improvement of the performance of an organization. D) It develops a common understanding across process fields.

Which of the following statements about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is correct? A) It will be chaired by the IT Director. B) It will be used for emergency changes where there is insufficient time to call a full CAB. C) It will review completed emergency changes. D) It will consider every high priority Request for Change.

B) It will be used for emergency changes where there is insufficient time to call a full CAB.

What does KEDB stand for? A) Knowledge Error DataBase B) Known Error DataBase C) Known Error Data Binding D) Kauai Economic Development Board

B) Known Error DataBase

Which of the following is true about change management? A) Emergency changes are too urgent to need approval before implementation. B) Low-risk changes may be preapproved. C) The change advisory board is for technical assessment and approval of changes only. D) All changes, however small, must be approved by the change advisory board before implementation.

B) Low-risk changes may be preapproved.

Which of these statements represents an objective of service portfolio management? A) Provide accurate information about the service level achievements for core services. B) Maintain the definitive managed portfolio of services provided by the service provider. C) Maintain records of all service components and their relationships. D) Deliver authorized change requests.

B) Maintain the definitive managed portfolio of services provided by the service provider.

Which of the following activities of Configuration management is used to define strategy, policy, scope, objectives, processes, and procedures? A) Status Accounting B) Management & Planning C) Reporting D) Identification

B) Management & Planning

Which of the following includes metrics about actual service levels and trends? A) Choice reports B) Management reports C) Decision reports D) Test reports

B) Management reports

Which of the following is not a key characteristic of ITIL? A) Good practice B) Non-management C) Non-proprietary D) Non-prescriptive

B) Non-management

Which of the following is not an attribute of hardware Configuration Item (Cl)? A) A supplier's part number B) Number of items C) What it costs D) A manufacturer's serial number

B) Number of items

What is an agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization? A) Overriding level agreement B) Operational level agreement C) Operational location action D) Operations level activity

B) Operational level agreement

Service operation includes which of the following activities? A) Deciding whether to retire the service B) Optimizing the service C) Testing the service D) Rolling out the service

B) Optimizing the service

Which are the key concepts for consideration in the delivery of successful services? A) Planning, proposal, productivity, partners B) People, process, product, partners C) People, process, productivity, partners D) People, proposal, productivity, partners

B) People, process, product, partners

Which of the following information is contained within the CSI Register (SIP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Source of the Service improvement plan (SIP) B) Person in-charge of the process (Process Owner) or service (Service Owner) C) Business logic D) For each defined initiative for process or service improvement E) Approval from senior management

B) Person in-charge of the process (Process Owner) or service (Service Owner) D) For each defined initiative for process or service improvement E) Approval from senior management

__________ for changes to bring about improvement. A) Think B) Plan C) Check D) Act

B) Plan

Which of the following is the sub-process of Problem Management? A) Incident B) Proactive C) Research D) Selection

B) Proactive

Which of the following is used to reduce the number of incidents that disturb the conduct of business? A) Service Level Management B) Problem Management C) Capacity Management D) Release Management

B) Problem Management

Which of the following processes is responsible for removing recurring incidents and reducing the impact of incidents that is impossible to prevent? A) Service Level Management B) Problem Management C) Change Management D) Event Management

B) Problem Management

Which of the following reduces the adverse impact of incidents and problems on the business that occur due to errors in the IT infrastructure? A) Release Management B) Problem Management C) Supplier Management D) Service Capacity Management

B) Problem Management

Which of the following is used for the creation, approval, maintenance, disposal, and control of all the documents across all the processes? A) Documents B) Procedures C) Records D) Attributes

B) Procedures

Who is responsible for ensuring the right numbers of staff are assigned to the various roles within the process and that they understand what is required of them? A) Process owner B) Process manager C) Process practitioner D) Service owner

B) Process manager

Which of the following is not a major CI type? A) Service Software B) Purchase Order C) Accommodation D) Documentation

B) Purchase Order

Which of the following is the most constructive model to define an organizational structure? A) Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model B) RACI Model C) Continual Service Improvement Model D) Service Model

B) RACI Model

Which of the following is the difference between the benefit achieved and the amount expended to achieve that benefit? A) VOI B) ROI C) POI D) EOI

B) ROI

Which of the following versions of the RACI is used by Project Management Institute (PMI)? A) DACI B) RSI C) RASCI D) RACIO

B) RSI

Problem Management reduces the adverse impact of incidents and problems on the business that occur due to errors in the IT infrastructure. Which of the following are the sub-processes in Problem Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Contract Renewal or Termination B) Reactive C) Proactive D) Supplier and Contract Review

B) Reactive C) Proactive

Which of the following has an objective to ensure the successful roll-out of releases? A) Configuration Management B) Release Management C) Service Level Management D) Customer Management

B) Release Management

Which of the following terms is a measure of how long a service, component, or CI can perform its agreed function without interruption? A) Scalability B) Reliability C) Maintainability D) Serviceability

B) Reliability

Which of the following processes is accountable for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low? A) Access Management B) Request Fulfillment C) Incident Management D) Release Management

B) Request Fulfillment

What is meant by the term request fulfillment in the ITIL framework? A) Request fulfillment is the report produced on the number of password resets carried out by the IT department. B) Request fulfillment is a process for managing the requests from users to the IT department. C) Request fulfillment is used to deliver non-IT-related business components to the users. D) Request fulfillment is a means of managing the changes that users request in the IT environment.

B) Request fulfillment is a process for managing the requests from users to the IT department.

Which of the following are the major types of Service Asset? A) Services and IT Infrastructure B) Resources and Capabilities C) Applications and Infrastructure D) Utility and Managements

B) Resources and Capabilities

What does RACI stand for? A) Linear Responsibility Chart B) Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed C) RACI matrix D) Responsibility Assignment Matrix

B) Responsible Accountable Consulted Informed

Which one of these statements represents the main objective of the incident management process? A) Investigate and diagnose the underlying cause of incidents and finding a resolution. B) Restore normal service as quickly as possible, minimizing the impact to the business. C) Manage the root-cause analysis for all incidents. D) Identify the cause of an incident and ensure that normal service is restored.

B) Restore normal service as quickly as possible, minimizing the impact to the business.

Which of the following activities is not a part of the Service Desk? A) Prioritization B) Root cause identification C) Categorization D) Escalation

B) Root cause identification

In which of the following documents will you see an outline of actual service achievements against targets? A) Operational Level Agreement (OLA) B) SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM) C) Underpinning Contract (UC) D) Service Level Agreement (SLA)

B) SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)

Which of the following should provide a point of regular contact and communication to the business managers of an organization? A) SLP B) SLM C) SIP D) SCM

B) SLM

Which of the following is a way of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcome that customers wish to get without the control of specific costs and risks? A) Processes B) Service C) Service Desk D) Functions

B) Service

Which of the following processes is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes, and relationships relating to components of the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure? A) Service Level Management B) Service Asset and Configuration Management C) Service Catalog Management D) ICT Operations Management

B) Service Asset and Configuration Management

Which process is liable for recording, controlling, reporting on versions, attributes, and relationships about components of the IT infrastructure? A) Service Management B) Service Asset and Configuration Management C) Change Management D) Incident Management

B) Service Asset and Configuration Management

Which of the following includes the services that serve as the basis for understanding the Operation Level Agreement? A) Service Table B) Service Catalog C) Service Template D) Service Records

B) Service Catalog

Which of the following is a function? A) Incident B) Service Desk C) Release D) Change

B) Service Desk

Which of the following is defined as a single point of contact for end users who require anything from IT? A) Service Table B) Service Desk C) Service Catalog D) Underpinning contract

B) Service Desk

Which of the following is responsible for Incident Management? A) Service Support B) Service Desk C) Service Level Management D) Service Delivery

B) Service Desk

Which of the following is used to record agreements regarding Security Management? A) Definitive Software Library (DSL) B) Service Level Agreement (SLA) C) Capacity Plan D) Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

B) Service Level Agreement (SLA)

In which of the following processes Risk assessment is not a major part? A) Change Management B) Service Level Management C) Availability Management D) IT Service Continuity Management

B) Service Level Management

The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of concepts and policies for managing information technology (IT) infrastructure, development, and operations. Label the ITIL processes that focus on service planning, i.e., tactical processes in Service Delivery, in the correct places. A) Financial Management B) Service Level Management C) Availability Management D) Capacity Management E) Continuity Management

B) Service Level Management C) Availability Management D) Capacity Management E) Continuity Management A) Financial Management

Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management, and Request Fulfillment are part of which of the following stages of the Service Lifecycle? A) Service Strategy B) Service Operation C) Service Transition D) Continual Service Improvement

B) Service Operation

Which of the following roles is responsible for a specific service within an organization? A) Service Level Manager B) Service Owner C) Continual Service Improvement Manager D) Process Manager

B) Service Owner

Which of the following uses the ISO/IEC 20000-1 standard to monitor, measure, and review the service management processes and services? A) Test Provider B) Service Provider C) Resource Provider D) Information Provider

B) Service Provider

Which of the following parts of the Service Lifecycle considers the business outcomes and value creation as its principles? A) Service Transition B) Service Strategy C) Continual Service Improvement D) Service Design

B) Service Strategy

Which of the following stages of the Service Lifecycle is most concerned with defining policies and objectives? A) Service Transition B) Service Strategy C) Service Design D) Service Desk

B) Service Strategy

Which part of Service Lifecycle holds the principal consideration of business outcomes and value creation? A) Service Design B) Service Strategy C) Service Transition D) Continual Service Improvement

B) Service Strategy

Which part of Service Lifecycle has the purpose of "Planning and managing resources that are required to deploy a release into production"? A) Service Asset B) Service Transition C) Service Operation D) Configuration Management

B) Service Transition

Capacity management considers three subprocesses. What are they? A) System capacity, business capacity, component capacity B) Service capacity, business capacity, component capacity C) System capacity, business capacity, infrastructure capacity D) Service capacity, business capacity, configuration capacity

B) Service capacity, business capacity, component capacity

Which of these is not a stage in the ITIL service lifecycle? A) Service design B) Service implementation C) Continual service improvement D) Service operation

B) Service implementation

The agreement between an IT service provider and their customers regarding the services provided is called what? A) Service targets B) Service level agreement C) Service contract D) Service charter

B) Service level agreement

Which of the following outsourcings defines the performance objectives reached by negotiation between the user and the provider of a service, or between an outsourcer and an organization? A) Contract B) Service level agreement C) Proposal D) Outsource

B) Service level agreement

Which of the following describes a provider's services in terms of business value? A) Service update B) Service portfolio C) Service assessment D) Service value

B) Service portfolio

Which of these is not a part of the structure of the service portfolio? A) Retired services B) Service register C) Service pipeline D) Service catalog

B) Service register

Financial management is a process in which stage of the service lifecycle? A) Service operation B) Service strategy C) Service design D) Continual service improvement

B) Service strategy

In which one of the lifecycle stages will the conflict for operational resource allocation be discussed to plan for future resource utilization? A) Service transition B) Service strategy C) Continual service improvement D) Service design

B) Service strategy

Multilevel service level agreement structures can contain which of the following types of service level agreement? A) Service-based, technology-based, and customer-based B) Service-based, customer-based, and corporate-based C) Technology-based, supplier-based, and user-based D) Technology-based, supplier-based, and customer-based

B) Service-based, customer-based, and corporate-based

Business Relationship Management understands the customers and their business drivers to create and maintain a good relationship between the service provider and the customer. Which of the following are the levels of participation that are needed for aligning the business and IT organization? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Cultural B) Strategic C) Tactical D) Operational

B) Strategic C) Tactical D) Operational

Which of these is not a recognized type of service according to ITIL? A) Core service B) Supplier service C) Enabling service D) Enhancing service

B) Supplier Service

Which of the following roles is responsible for review and risk analysis of all contracts on a regular basis? A) Configuration manager B) Supplier manager C) Service catalog manager D) IT Service continuity manager

B) Supplier manager

The scope of Problem Management covers Proactive Problem Management. Proactive Problem Management includes all the activities that supports in identifying and resolving problems before incidents come up. Which of the following are the activities of Proactive Problem management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Demand Management B) Targeting Preventative Action C) Application Sizing D) Performing a Trend Analysis

B) Targeting Preventative Action D) Performing a Trend Analysis

What are the three types of metrics that an organization needs to use to support CSI? A) CSFs, KPIs, and activities B) Technology, process, and service C) ROI, VOI, and improvements D) ROI, VOI, and benefits

B) Technology, process, and service

Which one of these statements regarding the CSI approach is correct? A) The CSI approach is applicable only to the improvement of operational processes. B) The CSI approach can be applied to the improvement of all processes. C) The CSI approach should not be used in order to improve service performance. D) The CSI approach is applicable only to the introduction of new processes.

B) The CSI approach can be applied to the improvement of all processes.

What is the continual service improvement (CSI) approach? A) The CSI approach is focused on the introduction of projects into the operational environment. B) The CSI approach is used to manage improvement activity in line with business requirements. C) The CSI approach is focused on the delivery of quality management systems into IT. D) The CSI approach is used to manage processes in the operational environment.

B) The CSI approach is used to manage improvement activity in line with business requirements.

What is the continual service improvement (CSI) approach? A) The CSI approach is focused on the introduction of projects into the operational environment. B) The CSI approach is used to manage improvement activity in line with business requirements. C) The CSI approach is focused on the delivery of quality management systems into IT. D) The CSI approach is used to manage processes in the operational environment.

B) The CSI approach is used to manage improvement activity in line with business requirements.

What is the purpose of the continual service improvement (CSI) stage of the service lifecycle? A) The CSI stage considers only the improvements needed for the business outputs. B) The CSI stage is concerned with the management of improvement across the whole service lifecycle. C) The CSI stage manages the improvements between project management and live operational services. D) The CSI stage focuses on improving the operational processes in the service lifecycle.

B) The CSI stage is concerned with the management of improvement across the whole service lifecycle.

What is the purpose of the continual service improvement (CSI) stage of the service lifecycle? A) The CSI stage manages the improvements between project management and live operational services. B) The CSI stage is concerned with the management of improvement across the whole service lifecycle. C) The CSI stage considers only the improvements needed for the business outputs. D) The CSI stage focuses on improving the operational processes in the service lifecycle.

B) The CSI stage is concerned with the management of improvement across the whole service lifecycle.

Change Management is used to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes. Who decides the category of a change? A) The Service Desk B) The Change Manager C) The Process Manager D) The Problem Manager E) The Change Advisory Board

B) The Change Manager

Which of the following is the best description of a Service-based SLA? A) The SLA covers a customer group for the service they use. B) The SLA covers one service for every customer of that service. C) The SLA covers every customer for all services. D) The SLA for a service with one customer.

B) The SLA covers one service for every customer of that service.

Which of the following roles is responsible for a particular service within an organization? A) The Service Continuity Manager B) The Service Owner C) The Business Relationship Manager D) The Service Level Manager

B) The Service Owner

Who "owns" ITIL? A) Microsoft B) The U.K. government C) The Open Group D) The U.S. government

B) The U.K. government

Which of the following describe the basic concept of Integrity in Security Management? A) The accessibility to the data B) The correctness of the data C) The capacity to verify the correctness of the data D) The protection of the data

B) The correctness of the data

Which of these statements is the best definition of architecture? A) The record and capture of the structure of the infrastructure, components, and services and the relationships between them B) The fundamental organization of a system, embodied in its components, their relationships to each other and to the environment, and the principles guiding its design and evolution C) Document(s) defining all aspects of an IT service and its requirements through each stage of its lifecycle D) A formal plan of actions and timescales to implement cost-justified measures to improve the level of service that forms part of continual service improvement

B) The fundamental organization of a system, embodied in its components, their relationships to each other and to the environment, and the principles guiding its design and evolution

In the ITIL guidance on incident management, what is one of the key purposes of the incident management process? A) The purpose of incident management is to ensure that the service desk fulfills all requests from users. B) The purpose of incident management is to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible. C) The purpose of incident management is to prevent incidents from occurring by identifying the root cause. D) The purpose of incident management is to prevent changes from causing incidents when a change is implemented

B) The purpose of incident management is to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible.

Which one of these statements best describes the relationship between the change management process and the release and deployment management process? A) The change management process is entirely dependent on the release and deployment process for the authorization of changes. B) The release and deployment management process carries out the delivery of a change into live operation, which has been approved through the change management process. C) There is no relationship between the processes. D) The change management process uses the release and deployment process to ensure that the configuration management system is updated correctly in a timely manner.

B) The release and deployment management process carries out the delivery of a change into live operation, which has been approved through the change management process.

Which of the following are the responsibilities of Business Relationship Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It should meet all its objectives defined in the policy that exist on the financial management of services. B) The service provider should analyze the record of complaints periodically in order to identify trends and reports. C) It should plan for the management of shortfalls, where budgetary requirements exceed available funds. D) The compliments regarding the service should be documented and reported to the service delivery team.

B) The service provider should analyze the record of complaints periodically in order to identify trends and reports. D) The compliments regarding the service should be documented and reported to the service delivery team.

How is the seven-step improvement process in the continual service improvement lifecycle stage used? A) The seven-step improvement process is used to manage improvement initiatives in line with business requirements. B) The seven-step improvement process is used to gather, analyze, and present data to assist in decision making. C) The seven-step improvement process is used to format the improvement reports delivered to the business. D) The seven-step improvement process is used to manage the improvement program across the organization.

B) The seven-step improvement process is used to gather, analyze, and present data to assist in decision making.

How many types of business models are available for service providers? A) Four B) Three C) Two D) Five

B) Three

Which of these is a key objective in creating and managing a continual service improvement register? A) To capture details of the information used to manage services across the service lifecycle B) To capture details of improvement initiatives across the service lifecycle C) To capture details of the services that are being delivered across the operational lifecycle D) To capture details of the infrastructure and identify risks in their relationships

B) To capture details of improvement initiatives across the service lifecycle

Which of the following activities is involved in Risk Assessment? A) To review service levels B) To gather information on assets C) To provide reporting on results D) To compose a service catalog

B) To gather information on assets

Which of these statements is not a part of the purpose of the SACM process? A) To identify service assets B) To manage the changes to your service assets C) To control the assets that make up your services D) To capture accurate information about service assets

B) To manage the changes to your service assets

Which of these statements best reflects the purpose of change management? A) To deliver successful projects to operations B) To provide controlled change C) To provide success strategies for the business D) To deliver an accurate configuration management system

B) To provide controlled change

What is the purpose of financial management? A) To agree to the business requirements for managing the finance systems B) To secure to the appropriate funding for IT services C) To secure to the appropriate software programs for financial systems D) To agree to the operating policies for the finance systems

B) To secure to the appropriate funding for IT services

Which of the following is a contract with an external supplier that is used by the IT organization in their service delivery? A) Broadcast Contract B) Underpinning Contract C) Under Schedule Contract D) Void Contract

B) Underpinning Contract

What are the elements of a service's business value from customers' perspective? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Availability B) Utility C) Configuration Item D) Warranty

B) Utility D) Warranty

Which concept is part of IT Service Continuity Management? A) Resilience B) Vulnerability C) Maintainability D) Availability

B) Vulnerability

Service level requirements are related to which of the following? A) Change records B) Warranty C) Utility D) Configuration records

B) Warranty

To properly understand the value of a service, the IT service provider requires three pieces of information. Which of these is not one of the pieces of information? A) What the services achieved B) Who designed the services C) How much the services cost D) The services IT provided

B) Who designed the services

Which of the following cannot be stored and handled by a tool? A) Knowledge B) Wisdom C) Information D) Data

B) Wisdom

A snapshot that is verified against the live environment, which is used as a reference point.

Baseline

What does the acronym CMS stand for?

Configuration management system

Who owns the specific costs and risks related with providing a service? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. The shortcut keys to perform this task are A to H and alt+1 to alt+9. A The Customer B The Service Level Manager C The Service Provider D Resources

C

Which of the following agreements commonly supports the achievement of a service level agreement? 1. Operational-level agreement 2. Strategic business plan 3. Underpinning contract 4. Internal finance agreement A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 1 and 3 D) 1, 2, and 4

C) 1 and 3

Which of the following statements about the service catalog is true? 1. The service catalog forms part of the service portfolio. 2. The service portfolio forms part of the service catalog. 3. There is no relationship between the service catalog and the service portfolio. 4. Customer-facing services appear in the service catalog, and supporting services appear in the service portfolio. A) 4 only B) 2 and 4 C) 1 only D) 1 and 3

C) 1 only

Which of these statements about the ITIL framework is/are correct? 1. ITIL provides guidance that supports problem solving, controlling costs, and risks and improvement. 2. ITIL provides a mandated methodology to address the needs of project management and IT delivery in the business environment. A) Both B) Neither C) 1 only D) 2 only

C) 1 only

Which of these statements is correct about the purpose of the continual service improvement lifecycle stage? 1. The purpose of CSI is to continue to support the business with IT services, in the face of changing business needs. 2. The purpose of CSI is to define the strategic approach for service management across the whole of the lifecycle. A) Both B) 2 only C) 1 only D) Neither

C) 1 only

SACM is a process that supports which of the following stages of the service lifecycle? 1. Service strategy 2. Service design 3. Service transition 4. Service operation 5. Continual service improvement A) 2, 3, and 4 B) 1, 3, and 5 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 D) 2, 3, 4, and 5

C) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Which of the following are part of a typically business case structure? 1. Introduction 2. Methods 3. Business impacts 4. Risks and contingencies 5. Recommendations A) 2 and 4 only B) 1, 2, and 4 only C) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 D) 1 and 2 only E) 3 and 4 only

C) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Which of these is/are recommended elements of a business case? 1. Introduction 2. Methods and assumptions 3. Business impacts 4. Risks and contingencies 5. Recommendations A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 B) 1, 3, and 5 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 D) 2, 3, 4, and 5

C) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Processes provide transformation towards a goal. They make use of feedback for self-reinforcing and self-counteractive action to function as closed-loop systems. Which of the following are the characteristics of processes? 1. Processes are measurable 2. Processes have specific results 3. Processes have customers 4. Processes respond to specific events A) 3 and 4 only B) 1, 2, and 3 only C) 1, 2, 3, and 4 D) 2, 3, and 4 only E) 1 and 2 only

C) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of these statements are correct? 1. Capacity management objectives include the development of a capacity plan. 2. Capacity management information is gathered and maintained in the capacity management information system. 3. Capacity management ensures that all service availability targets are met or exceeded. 4. Capacity management ensures that there was no unavailability because of capacity issues only. A) 1, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 2, 3, 4

C) 1, 2, 4

Which of the following are terms used in availability management? 1. Reliability 2. Resilience 3. Resistance 4. Attainability 5. Serviceability 6. Maintainability 7. Detectability A) 2, 3, 5, 6 B) 1, 2, 6, 7 C) 1, 2, 5, 6 D) 1, 4, 6, 7

C) 1, 2, 5, 6

Which of the following could be defined as a service request? 1. "Is the service available at weekends?" 2. "How do I get training on this application?" 3. "I need this application changed to include a web interface." 4. "We have a new member of staff starting. Can you set them up on the system?" A) 3 and 4 B) All the answers are correct. C) 1, 2, and 4 D) 1, 2, and 3

C) 1, 2, and 4

Which of the following would be considered as suitable contents for a service design package? Select the best option. 1. Organizational readiness assessment 2. Organizational business strategy 3. Service lifecycle plan 4. Service transition plan 5. Service operational acceptance plan 6. Service acceptance criteria (SAC) A) 1, 2, and 6 B) 2, 5, and 6 C) 1, 3, 4, 5, and 6 D) 1, 3, 5, and 6

C) 1, 3, 4, 5, and 6

Match the Availability Measurements with their correct definition: Measurements: 1. MTTR 2. MTBF 3. MTBSI 4. MTTF Definitions: a. The predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation. b. The elapsed time between the occurrence of one system or service failure and the next. c. The average elapsed time from the occurrence of an incident to the repair of the failed component. d. The average time taken to repair a Configuration Item or IT Service after a failure. A) 1a, 2b, 3c, 4d B) 1a, 2b, 3d, 4c C) 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c D) 1d, 2a, 3c, 4b

C) 1d, 2a, 3b, 4c

Which of the following are responsibilities of supplier management? 1. Negotiating with internal suppliers 2. Negotiating with external suppliers 3. Monitoring delivery against the contract 4. Ensuring value for money A) All the answers are correct. B) 1 and 2 only C) 2, 3, and 4 D) 1, 2, and 3

C) 2, 3, and 4

How many service provider types does ITIL identify? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

C) 3

How many phases are present in Deming's quality circle? A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3

C) 4

Which of the following is the core structure of ITIL? A) An IT Management Lifecycle B) An IT Lifecycle C) A Service Lifecycle D) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

C) A Service Lifecycle

Which of the following is the best description of an underpinning contract? A) An agreement between an IT service provider and customer relating to the delivery of services B) An agreement between different customers about the requirements of the service C) A contract between an IT service provider and an external third-party organization assisting in the delivery of services D) An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization assisting in the provision of services

C) A contract between an IT service provider and an external third-party organization assisting in the delivery of services

Problem management is an important process in the service operation lifecycle stage. How does the process define a problem? A) A problem is an incident that has become extremely serious and is causing significant business impact. B) A problem is a set of incidents that have been linked together in a customer report. C) A problem is the unknown, underlying cause of one or more incidents. D) A problem is an issue that has no solution and needs to be raised to the senior management for a decision.

C) A problem is the unknown, underlying cause of one or more incidents.

"Documents defining all aspects of an IT service and its requirements through each stage of its lifecycle." This is a description of what? A) A service transition document B) A service definition package C) A service design package D) A service core package

C) A service design package

Which of the following is not an example of a configuration item? A) A user manual B) A company's organization chart C) A unique ID code D) A systems update procedure

C) A unique ID code

Problem management can produce which of the following? 1. Known errors 2. Workarounds 3. Resolutions 4. RFCs A) 1 and 3 B) 1, 2, and 4 C) All the answers are correct. D) 1 and 4

C) All the answers are correct.

Which of these is not a part of the scope of service portfolio management? A) All the services a service provider has retired from live operation B) All the services a service provider is planning to deliver C) All the projects the customer is planning to deliver D) All the services a service provider currently delivers

C) All the projects the customer is planning to deliver

What is this? "The result of carrying out an activity, following a process, or delivering an IT service." A) A procedure B) A work instruction C) An outcome D) An input

C) An outcome

Which is the best description of an incident? A) A user error B) A fault that causes failures in the IT infrastructure C) An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service D) An event that has significance and impacts the service

C) An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service

How frequently should CAB meetings be held? A) Yearly B) Weekly C) As required D) Monthly

C) As required

In which type of measure will the capture of a comparison point be recorded? A) Process metric B) Technology metric C) Baseline D) Service metric

C) Baseline

Which of these statements about transition planning and support is/are correct? 1. Transition planning and support identifies and manages risks, in accordance with the risk management framework adopted by the organization. 2. Transition planning and support ensures that repeatable processes are adopted by all engaged in the transition. A) 1 only B) Neither C) Both D) 2 only

C) Both

Which of these statements is/are correct? 1. Internal services are delivered between departments or business units within the same organization. 2. External services are those delivered to an external customer. A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both D) Neither

C) Both

Which of the following is a decision support and planning tool that projects the possible consequences of a business action? A) Configuration item B) Release unit C) Business case D) Service asset

C) Business case

IT service continuity management carries out a BIA in conjunction with the business. What does BIA stand for? A) Business information alternatives B) Benefit integration assessment C) Business impact analysis D) Business integrity appraisal

C) Business impact analysis

The risk management approach consists of three stages. Which of these is not a stage identified in the ITIL guidance? A) Identify risks B) Analyze risks C) Calibrate risks D)Manage risks

C) Calibrate risks

Which of the following Service Design processes makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management? A) Service Continuity Management B) Service Catalog Management C) Capacity Management D) Service Level Management

C) Capacity Management

Which of the following processes ensures that the organization is aware of new and changing technology? A) Configuration Management B) Service Management C) Capacity Management D) Customer Management

C) Capacity Management

Which of the following processes includes Performance Management and Demand Management? A) Configuration Management B) Release Management C) Capacity Management D) Change Management

C) Capacity Management

Which of the following processes is the focal point for all performance and capacity issues? A) Change Management B) Configuration Management C) Capacity Management D) Incident Management

C) Capacity Management

Which of the following provides the required IT resources consistently at the right time and at the right cost aligned with the current and the future needs of the business? A) Problem Management B) Configuration Management C) Capacity Management D) Incident Management

C) Capacity Management

Which of the following process plays an important role in determining returns on invests and cost justifications? A) Customer Management process B) Problem Management process C) Capacity Management process D) Incident Management process

C) Capacity Management process

In uCertify Inc, a service desk employee has been assigned a task to relocate the Sales department's workstations. In which of the following ITIL processes is this employee currently playing a role? A) Incident Management B) Configuration Management C) Change Management D) Problem Management

C) Change Management

Which of the following is responsible for processing RFCs? A) Configuration Management B) Release Management C) Change Management D) Service Level Management

C) Change Management

Which of the following processes handles any new service, changes to the service catalog, or closure of services? A) Problem Management B) Supplier Management C) Change Management D) Release Management

C) Change Management

Which process/function standardizes the request for a new workstation? A) Incident Management B) Service Desk C) Change Management D) Service Request

C) Change Management

The request fulfillment process is suitable for which of the following? A) Only requests that have been approved by the CAB B) All requests, including RFCs C) Common, low-risk requests with a documented fulfillment procedure D) Emergency requests for change, because the process will ensure a fast implementation

C) Common, low-risk requests with a documented fulfillment procedure

Which of the following sub-processes of Capacity Management is used to manage, control, and predict the performance, utilization and capacity of IT resources and individual IT components? A) Service Capacity Management B) Capacity Management Reporting C) Component Capacity Management D) Business Capacity Management

C) Component Capacity Management

Which discipline performs Planning, Implementation, Controlling, Status Accounting, and Verification activities? A) Change Management B) Financial Management C) Configuration Management D) Capacity Management

C) Configuration Management

Which of the following is used by Service Desk to determine the impact of an error on the services? A) Capacity Management Database B) Change Management Database C) Configuration Management Database D) Information Management Database

C) Configuration Management Database

Which model is used to deliver a view of the services, assets, and infrastructure? A) Change Model B) Problem Model C) Configuration Model D) Incident Model

C) Configuration Model

Which of the following is the configuration of a product or system established at a specific point in time, which captures the structure and details of a configuration? A) Configuration item B) Configuration tool C) Configuration baseline D) Configuration file

C) Configuration baseline

Which of these statements about asset management and configuration management is not true? A) Asset management considers the value of items, and configuration management considers the interdependencies between items. B) Configuration management may include locations and documents. C) Configuration management information is held in a database called the configuration repository. D) Asset management is concerned only with purchased items, such as hardware and software.

C) Configuration management information is held in a database called the configuration repository.

Which of these is not a recognized output document from the change management process? A) Project service outage B) Change schedule C) Configuration schedule D) Remediation plan

C) Configuration schedule

Which of these is not a part of the scope of financial management? A) Charging B) Budgeting C) Consolidating D) Accounting

C) Consolidating

Facilities management is not responsible for which of the following activities? A) Testing the UPS and generators B) Ensuring the power supply at any disaster recovery sites meets the requirement C) Defining the infrastructure requirements to support the services D) Maintaining air conditioning to the required level in the server rooms

C) Defining the infrastructure requirements to support the services

Which of these statements is not a recommended part of a release policy? A) A unique identification structure or naming convention to ensure releases can be easily identified and tracked B) Definitions of the roles and responsibilities required for the management of the release throughout all its stages C) Definition of the configuration management database naming convention D) Use of the definitive media library for all software asset releases

C) Definition of the configuration management database naming convention

In which of the following areas are the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) stored and protected? A) Knowledge Management System B) Configuration Management Database C) Definitive Media Library D) Definitive Software Library

C) Definitive Media Library

Which of the following contains the elements of a hardware or software Configuration Item (CI) that have changed? A) Sigma Release B) Full Release C) Delta Release D) Semi Release

C) Delta Release

Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)? A) Access Management B) IT Financial Management C) Demand Management D) Capacity Management

C) Demand Management

Many processes from other lifecycle stages also take place during the operation stage. Which of the following processes does not fall into this category? A) Availability management B) IT service continuity management C) Design coordination D) Service level management

C) Design coordination

The release and deployment process covers a concept called early-life support. What is meant by early-life support? A) Early-life support refers to the step in the release and deployment process where the project team deliver the documentation of the infrastructure to the service management team. B) Early-life support refers to the introduction of new processes into the operational environment, using service transition processes to ensure a complete integration of the new processes. C) Early-life support refers to the handoff between service transition and service operation, ensuring support for the new or changed service in the initial stages of operation. D) Early-life support refers to the end of the project lifecycle and the management of the post-implementation project review.

C) Early-life support refers to the handoff between service transition and service operation, ensuring support for the new or changed service in the initial stages of operation.

The release and deployment process covers a concept called early-life support. What is meant by early-life support? A) Early-life support refers to the step in the release and deployment process where the project team delivers the documentation of the infrastructure to the service management team. B) Early-life support refers to the introduction of new processes into the operational environment, using service transition processes to ensure a complete integration of the new processes. C) Early-life support refers to the handoff between service transition and service operation, ensuring support for the new or changed service in the initial stages of operation. D) Early-life support refers to the end of the project lifecycle and the management of the post-implementation project review.

C) Early-life support refers to the handoff between service transition and service operation, ensuring support for the new or changed service in the initial stages of operation.

Which of the following is the primary source of demand for services? A) Business outcomes B) Business proposals C) Business activities D) Business processes

D) Business processes

Service design provides value to the business in many different ways. Which of the following is not recognized as value from service design? A) Designs will include governance requirements. B) Lower total cost of ownership. C) Efficient assessment of changes to business strategy. D) Services meet the customer expectations for warranty requirements.

C) Efficient assessment of changes to business strategy.

What is an IT service provider? A) An internal IT department B) An external outsourced IT department C) Either an internal IT department or an external IT department D) A business unit

C) Either an internal IT department or an external IT department

Which of the following is responsible for resolving the Known Errors? A) Change Management B) Error default C) Error control D) Error resolution

C) Error control

Which of the following is the first activity when establishing the Release Management process? A) Communication and training B) Designing and building C) Establishing the release policy D) Conducting release planning

C) Establishing the release policy

Which of the following is used to filter and categorize events and to decide on appropriate actions? A) Access management B) Application management C) Event management D) Data management

C) Event management

Which of the following works for a different business than the IT service provider? A) Public customer B) Internal customer C) External customer D) Private customer

C) External customer

Which of the following is used to provide accurate and cost effective stewardship of IT assets and resources that are used in delivering IT Services? A) Problem Management B) Service Level Management C) Financial Management for IT Services D) Information Security Management

C) Financial Management for IT Services

Which of the following will offer staff to monitor events in a Network Operations Center? A) Applications Management B) Technical Management C) IT Operations Management D) Service Desk

C) IT Operations Management

Which of the following is the implementation and management of quality IT services meeting the requirements of the business? A) IT service continuity management B) IT operations management C) IT service management D) IT service management forum

C) IT service management

Which of the following may have both internal and external customers? A) External sourcing B) Infrastructure service C) IT service provider D) Facility provider

C) IT service provider

Which of the following is the first step in the CSI 7-step improvement process? A) Gathering the data B) Define what can be measured C) Identify the strategy for improvement D) Processing the data

C) Identify the strategy for improvement

Which of these would be a reason to raise a change proposal for authorization? A) If the change has been raised by a user B) If the change has been assessed as being technical C) If the change has a major cost impact on the business D) If the change has been assessed by a supplier

C) If the change has a major cost impact on the business

Which of the following is the last step in the CSI 7-step improvement process? A) Define what can be measured B) Gathering the data C) Implementing corrective action D) Presenting and using the information

C) Implementing corrective action

Which of the following are outcomes that when compared to the previous state? A) Justifications B) Benefits C) Improvements D) Interventions

C) Improvements

Which of the following is a resolution process? A) Configuration Management B) Release Management C) Incident Management D) Capacity Management

C) Incident Management

Which of the following restores agreed service to the business as quickly as possible? A) Release Management B) Change Management C) Incident Management D) Configuration Management

C) Incident Management

Which of the following activities does the Service Desk carry out? A) Error Control and Status accounting B) Impact determination and verification C) Incident management, recording Incidents, and providing management information D) Incident management

C) Incident management, recording Incidents, and providing management information

Which of the following budgeting methods is determined on the last year's figure basis? A) Top-down budgeting B) Zero-Base budgeting C) Incremental budgeting D) Resource budgeting

C) Incremental budgeting

Which of the following provides a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT security activities? A) IT technology management B) Security management C) Information security management D) IT service management

C) Information security management

The performance and peak loads are needed to be understood to ensure that the appropriate services are made and delivered. Which of the following are the features of Service Capacity Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) It recognizes the current and future business needs. B) It plans and implements sufficient capacity in appropriate timescales via trend analysis, strategic, or marketing plans and information from the customers. C) It determines and understands the use of IT services. D) It makes baselines and useful profiles for all services and correlates with service level management in terms of the definition and negotiation of service agreements.

C) It determines and understands the use of IT services. D) It makes baselines and useful profiles for all services and correlates with service level management in terms of the definition and negotiation of service agreements.

Which of the following statements best describes the role of Service Desk? A) It ensures that the agreed IT service is available. B) It ensures that the telephone is always manned. C) It is the Single point of contact for the users. D) It investigates problems.

C) It is the Single point of contact for the users.

What will be the status of the problem if its root cause has been successfully diagnosed? A) Incident B) Request for Change C) Known Error D) Work-around

C) Known Error

In which record is a workaround likely to be captured? A) Service request B) Configuration item C) Known error record D) Request for change

C) Known error record

Which of the following activities of Configuration Management defines the location of storage areas and libraries that contain hardware, software, and documentation? A) Status Accounting B) Reporting C) Management & Planning D) Control

C) Management & Planning

Which of the following activities of Configuration Management is used for defining the strategy, policy, scope, objectives, processes, and procedures? A) Identification B) Status Accounting C) Management and Planning D) Reporting

C) Management and Planning

Which of the following is the responsibility of a Process Owner? A) Ensuring that targets specified in a SLA are met B) Carrying out activities defined in the process C) Monitoring and improving the process D) Use tools to support the process

C) Monitoring and improving the process

What is the name given to the document which defines the responsibilities between internal functional areas with respect to supporting in the provision of an IT Service to the Customers? A) Service Level Agreement B) Underpinning Contract C) Operational Level Agreement D) Service Level Requirements

C) Operational Level Agreement

Which of the following is not a Service Provider capability? A) Organization B) Knowledge C) Performance D) Management

C) Performance

Do, Check, and Act are three of the stages of Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth? A) Perform B) Execute C) Plan D) Implement

C) Plan

Which of the following methodologies is referred to as the Deming cycle? A) Dissertation methodology B) Statistical methodology C) Plan-Do-Check-Act methodology D) Project Management methodology

C) Plan-Do-Check-Act methodology

The service desk is not responsible for which of the following? A) Providing a first point of contact B) Providing updates to users C) Preventing incidents from recurring D) Resolving straightforward incidents

C) Preventing incidents from recurring

What are the two major processes in Problem Management? A) Resource and Proactive B) Active and Reactive C) Proactive and Reactive D) Reactive and Technical

C) Proactive and Reactive

Which of the following minimizes the number and severity of incidents and problems on the business? A) Service Level Management B) Configuration Management C) Problem Management D) Release Management

C) Problem Management

Who is responsible for producing evidence that the process activities have been carried out correctly, in the form of records? A) Service owner B) Process manager C) Process practitioner D) Process owner

C) Process practitioner

Which of the following functions is not a part of Financial Management for IT services? A)Budgeting B) Pricing C) Procurement D) Charging

C) Procurement

You work as a Project Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on a high-profile project. Your project team has team from all departments within the organization, and each team member has a number of activities to complete each week to contribute to the project. Management would like you to create a chart to show each project team member's work assignment using a simple legend. What type of chart is management asking you to create? A) Pareto chart B) Resource Breakdown Structure C) RACI Chart D) Resource histogram chart

C) RACI Chart

Which of the following is a common color scheme applied to a service level management monitoring chart? A) Black, amber, blue B) Blue, green, black C) Red, amber, green D) Red, blue, green

C) Red, amber, green

Which of the following is referred to as an update of a Configuration Item? A) Change B) Modify C) Release D) Upgrade

C) Release

Which is the correct order and detail for the phases of the release and deployment process? A) Deployment, planning, build and test, review, and close B) Release deployment, release build, release test, release planning, release review, and close C) Release and deployment planning, release build and test, deployment, review, and close D) Release and deployment build and test, deployment, release and deployment planning, review, and close

C) Release and deployment planning, release build and test, deployment, review, and close

Which of the following is not a standard Service Desk structure? A) Central Service Desk B) Virtual Service Desk C) Remedial Service Desk D) Local Service Desk

C) Remedial Service Desk

Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk and frequently occurring low cost changes? A) IT facilities management B) Incident management C) Request fulfillment D) Release management

C) Request fulfillment

Which of the following is not associated with each ITIL Process? A) Definition B) Activity C) Scope D) Goal

C) Scope

Functions are BEST described as? A) An organization of knowledge B) Projects focusing on makeover C) Self-Contained units of organizations D) Closed loop systems

C) Self-Contained units of organizations

What is defined as "delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes customers want to achieve without the specific ownership of costs and risks"? A) Business agreement B) Contract C) Service D) Service agreement

C) Service

Which of the following serves as an interface for the activities, such as customer change requests, billing, and availability management? A) Incident Management B) Service Level Management C) Service Desk D) Customer Desk

C) Service Desk

Which of the following supports Configuration Management by verifying details of the caller and IT resources while recording an incident? A) Service Provider B) Capacity Management C) Service Desk D) Release Management

C) Service Desk

Which of the following does not represent a stage in the Service Lifecycle? A) Service Strategy B) Service Operation C) Service Implementation D) Continual Service Improvement

C) Service Implementation

Which of the following can be used to underpin the relationships between suppliers, outsourcers, partners, and organizations for internal suppliers? A) Business Impact Analysis B) Customer Database C) Service Level Agreement D) Customer Catalog

C) Service Level Agreement

Which of the following develops an understanding of the responsibilities of the service provider and the customers through negotiations and Service Level Agreements (SLAs)? A) Problem Management B) Release Management C) Service Level Management D) Information Security Management

C) Service Level Management

Which of the following makes sure that a Service Catalog is produced, maintained, and covers accurate information of all operational services? A) Capacity Management B) Problem Management C) Service Level Management D) Incident Management

C) Service Level Management

Which of the following processes is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets? A) Continual Service Improvement B) Availability Management C) Service Level Management D) Customer Relationship Management

C) Service Level Management

Which process of the Service Strategy is used to decide on a strategy to serve customers, and to develop the service provider's offerings and capabilities? A) Financial Management B) Demand Management C) Service Portfolio Management D) Supplier Management

C) Service Portfolio Management

Which part of Service Lifecycle holds the principal consideration of business outcomes and value creation? A) Continual Service Improvement B) Service Transition C) Service Strategy D) Service Design

C) Service Strategy

Which process is the necessary means to realize, plan, and manage the new service? A) Service Design B) Service Strategy C) Service Transition D) Service Operation

C) Service Transition

The service operation lifecycle stage has a number of key objectives. Which of these statements best reflects the key objectives of service operation? A) Service operation should ensure the details of the IT infrastructure are captured in the service asset database. B) Service operation ensures the financial obligations of the IT department are met and reported to the business. C) Service operation should ensure the day-to-day service is delivered according to the agreed requirements of the business. D) Service operation should agree on the strategy for delivering IT services to the business.

C) Service operation should ensure the day-to-day service is delivered according to the agreed requirements of the business.

Which of the following represents a complete list of the services managed by a service provider? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. The shortcut keys to perform this task are A to H and alt+1 to alt+9. A) Service case B) Service data C) Service portfolio D) Service record

C) Service portfolio

Which of these represents the correct sequence of the service lifecycle? A) Service design, service transition, CSI, service strategy, service operation B) Service strategy, service transition, continual service improvement, service operation, service design C) Service strategy, service design, service transition, service operation, continual service improvement D) Service design, service strategy, service transition, continual service improvement, service operation

C) Service strategy, service design, service transition, service operation, continual service improvement

Which of these represents the five major aspects considered by service design in the design of quality services? A) Service management systems, processes, measurement, business strategy, and service operational readiness plans B) Solution, service design package, business strategy, measurement, and processes C) Solution, architecture, management systems, processes, and measurement D) Architecture, service design package, business strategy, service transition plan, and processes

C) Solution, architecture, management systems, processes, and measurement

In the ITIL framework, what is a customer defined as? A) Business users who manage projects B) A group of people who use IT services on a daily basis C) Someone who buys goods or services D) Third-party suppliers of services

C) Someone who buys goods or services

Which of the following activities is a Release Management responsibility? A) Register where all software versions are available B) Check illegal software on computers within an organization C) Store the original versions of all authorized software within an organization D) Check illegal hardware computer devices within an organization

C) Store the original versions of all authorized software within an organization

Where are supplier information and performance reports, along with contractual information, held? A) Configuration management database B) Service-level agreement C) Supplier and contract management information system D) Service portfolio

C) Supplier and contract management information system

ITIL identifies four common audience types to whom you present information as part of the CSI process. Which of the four is missing from this list? The customers: This group will require information on IT services and what will be done if the service provision has failed specific targets. Senior IT management: This group will often focus on CSFs and KPIs and the actual vs. the predicted performance against targets. This may be presented in the form of a balanced scorecard. Internal IT: This group will be interested in KPIs and activity metrics to help plan and coordinate operational improvement activities. A) Project managers: This group will be interested in CSFs to help them understand how to improve their project plans. B) External users: This group will be interested in KPIs and activity metrics to understand their use of services. C) Suppliers: This group will be interested in KPIs and activity metrics related to their own service offerings and performance. D) Business users: This group will be interested in KPIs to help them understand how to improve their use of services.

C) Suppliers: This group will be interested in KPIs and activity metrics related to their own service offerings and performance.

Service Level Management makes sure that a Service Catalog is produced and maintained. Which of the following are the aspects of the Service Catalog? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A) Information Service Catalog B) Resource Service Catalog C) Technical Service Catalog D) Business Service Catalog

C) Technical Service Catalog D) Business Service Catalog

Which of the following roles in Service Transition is made up of representatives from all areas within the IT Service Provider, the Business, and Third Parties? A) The Change Manager B) The Application Developer C) The Change Advisory Board D) The Emergency Change Advisory Board

C) The Change Advisory Board

uCertify.com plans on implementing a new Network Operating System (NOS). However, before the actual implementation is carried out, the approach for achieving the implementation is conversed. Under whose management should this conversation be held? A) The Process Manager B) The Service Level Manager C) The Change Manager D) The Continual Service Improvement Manager

C) The Change Manager

Which of the following roles is not a part of Continual Service Improvement? A) The CSI Manager B) The Process Manager C) The Service Owner D) The Process Owner

C) The Service Owner

Who "owns" ITIL? A) The U.S. government B) Microsoft C) The U.K. government D) The Open Group

C) The U.K. government

The predicted costs and benefits of a proposed new service are documented in which of the following documents? A) The project plan B) The improvement register C) The business case D)The service strategy

C) The business case

What is the meaning of "utility of a service"? A) The service is "fit for use." B) The service meets the requirements for facilities management. C) The service delivers the functionality required to meet a business outcome. D) The service is capable of supporting the business strategy.

C) The service delivers the functionality required to meet a business outcome.

The knowledge management process maintains and updates a tool used for knowledge management. What is this system called? A) The service management tool B) The service management database C) The service knowledge management system D) The knowledge base for service management

C) The service knowledge management system

ITIL identifies three areas that will be used by customers in their understanding of value. Which of these is not one of them? A) The customer's preferences B) The business outcomes achieved C) The service provider's preferences D) The customer's perception

C) The service provider's preferences

Which of the following is true? A) The process owner is the person informed for every process step. B) Someone must always be consulted for each process step. C) There may be more than one person responsible. D) Accountability can be shared.

C) There may be more than one person responsible.

Which of the following specifies targets and responsibilities that are needed to meet agreed Service Level targets in an SLA? A) Configuration Management Database (CMDB) B) Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) C) Underpinning Contract (UC) D) Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

C) Underpinning Contract (UC)

From the customer's perspective, value consists of two primary elements. What are those elements? A) Service and service catalog B) Proposal and outcome C) Utility and warranty D) Portfolio and service

C) Utility and warranty

What does a service must always deliver to customers? A) Applications B) Resources C) Value D) Infrastructure

C) Value

There can be either customer-based SLA or service-based SLA. In which of the following conditions is the customer-based SLA used? A) When a clear, concise, and measurable description of the service provider's internal support relationships is required B) When a document including all management information is required to manage the IT organization C) When individual customers hold different needs and requirements D) When the adverse impact of incidents and problems on the business that occur due to errors in the IT infrastructure is to be reduced

C) When individual customers hold different needs and requirements

The RACI model is used to __________. This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. A) monitor services B) performance analysis C) define roles and responsibilities D) manage Configuration Items (CI)

C) define roles and responsibilities

A database or structured document used to record and manage improvement opportunities throughout their lifecycle.

CSI register

A set of tools, data, and information that is used to support service asset and configuration management. It may include a federated approach to managing CMDBs.

Configuration management system (CMS)

The process responsible for ensuring that the capacity of IT services and the IT infrastructure is able to meet agreed-on capacity and performance-related requirements in a cost-effective and timely manner. Capacity management includes three sub-processes: business capacity management, service capacity management, and component capacity management.

Capacity management

What does the acronym CMIS stand for?

Capacity management information system

A plan drawn up to address the current and future capacity and performance requirements of the business. It shows current and historic usage of services and components and the expected increase or decrease for capacity for them over the next 12 to 18 months. It recommends actions to ensure sufficient but not excessive capacity will be available to match these demands; these actions could include purchase of new equipment and storage or reallocation of current devices. The plan considers changes in the business, such as downsizing, changes in the demand for individual services, and technical advances in components, and it puts forward plans to meet a number of possible scenarios.

Capacity plan

What type of service desk is described in the following statement: "All business locations/sites utilize a single service desk that is located at one location or site."

Centralized service desk

The addition, modification, or removal of anything that could affect IT services.

Change

A group of people who support the assessment, prioritization, authorization, and scheduling of changes.

Change advisory board (CAB)

The process responsible for formal assessment of a new or changed IT service to ensure that risks have been managed and to help determine whether to authorize the change.

Change evaluation

The process responsible for controlling the lifecycle of all changes.

Change management

Which role is normally responsible for chairing the change advisory board?

Change manager

A high-level description and business case of a potential service or significant change. Once the ________________________ has been authorized, the service will be chartered.

Change proposal

A record containing the details of a change. Each change record documents the lifecycle of a single change.

Change record

What is the change output described by the definition "A document detailing the authorized changes that will take place and dates of implementation"?

Change schedule

A document that lists all authorized changes and their planned implementation dates, as well as the estimated dates of longer-term changes.

Change schedule (CS)

Any component or other service asset that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service.

Configuration items (CIs)

What does the acronym CMDB stand for?

Configuration management database

A database used to store configuration records throughout their lifecycle.

Configuration management database (CMDB)

Continual service improvement is a phase of the service lifecycle. It is concerned with the improvement of services, processes, and service management across the whole lifecycle.

Continual service improvement (CSI)

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: A legally binding agreement between IT service provider and a third party is called a supplier ___________.

Contract

An agreement covering services used across an organization is known as which type of service-level agreement?

Corporate-based SLA

Something that must happen if an IT service, process, plan, project, or other activity is to succeed.

Critical success factor (CSF)

An agreement covering multiple services used by a single customer is known as which type of service-level agreement?

Customer-based SLA

Which of these statements is correct when referring to the service desk? The service desk should act as the single point of contact for the IT department. The service desk is involved with the incident management and request fulfillment processes. The service desk is responsible for the investigation of the root cause of incidents. A) All of these B) 1, 2, 4 C) 2, 3, 4 D) 1 and 2

D) 1 and 2

Which of the following are types of incident escalation defined by ITIL? 1. Hierarchical 2. Management 3. Functional 4. Technical A) 1 and 4 B) All the answers are correct. C) 1, 2, and 4 D) 1 and 3

D) 1 and 3

Which of these statements is correct about the scope of service level management (SLM)? 1. The scope of SLM includes the performance of existing services being provided. 2. The scope of SLM includes the definition of the components that make up the services and their relationships. 3. The scope of SLM includes the definition of required service levels for planned services. 4. The scope of SLM includes the definition of the type of changes for change management. A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 B) 2 and 4 C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 1 and 3

D) 1 and 3

Which two statements reflect the guidance found in the Service Strategy publication? Defining a strategy that allows a service provider the guidance and recommendations to deliver services to meet a customer's business outcomes. Conducting customer satisfaction surveys as required on a periodic basis. Defining a strategy for managing services that meet customers' business outcomes. Measuring and identifying the value created by continual improvement initiatives. A) 2 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 1 and 2 D) 1 and 3

D) 1 and 3

Which of the following are responsibilities of information security management? 1. Defining the protection required for systems and data 2. Undertaking risk assessments 3. Producing the Information security policy 4. Implementing security measures to new systems during service transition A) 2, 3, and 4 B) 1 and 2 only C) All the answers are correct. D) 1, 2, and 3

D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following should be considered when drawing up a capacity plan? 1. The business plan to streamline its operations 2. The possibility of moving a business operation such as a call center overseas 3. New advances in technology 4. Plans to restructure the IT department A) 1 and 2 B) All the answers are correct. C) 1, 3, and 4 D) 1, 2, and 3

D) 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following are categories of supplier described in ITIL? 1. Strategic 2. Operational 3. Trusted 4. Commodity A) All of these B) 1 and 2 only C) 2, 3, and 4 D) 1, 2, and 4

D) 1, 2, and 4

Match the activities to the following functions. Activity 1. Console management 2. Identifying functional and manageability requirements for application software 3. Providing a single point of contact 4. Designing and managing the infrastructure Function a. Service desk b. Technical management c. Application management d. Operations management A) 1a, 2b, 3c, 4d B) 1b, 2c, 3d, 4a C) 1d, 2a, 3c, 4b D) 1d, 2c, 3a, 4b

D) 1d, 2c, 3a, 4b

The seven-step process is mapped against the Data-Information-Knowledge-Wisdom structure from knowledge management. Which step or steps of the seven-step process align with the Data part of the structure? A) 3 B) 3 and 4 C) 1 and 2 D) 2 and 3

D) 2 and 3

Identify the correct sequence of steps for the incident management process. 1. Resolution and recovery 2. Escalation, investigation, and diagnosis 3. Prioritization 4. Identification 5. Initial diagnosis 6. Categorization 7. Closure 8. Logging A) 4, 8, 3, 5, 1, 7, 2, 6 B) 8, 4, 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 7 C) 8, 4, 3, 6, 2, 5, 1, 7 D) 4, 8, 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 7

D) 4, 8, 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 7

The ITIL framework refers to a number of operational functions. What is meant by the term function? A) A function is used to deliver the security requirements across the service lifecycle. B) A function manages the requirement of controlling costs in an IT department. C) A function is a collection of technical infrastructure elements designed to manage an IT service. D) A function is a unit of the organization specialized to deliver particular processes or activities.

D) A function is a unit of the organization specialized to deliver particular processes or activities.

A technical team leader uses a workaround to fix an incident type that has been seen before. This is an example of? A) An alert B) A service request C) A change D) A known error

D) A known error

Which of the following is the best description of a request?A) An RFC B) The procurement process C) A standard change D) A request from a user for information, advice, or a standard change, or access to an IT service

D) A request from a user for information, advice, or a standard change, or access to an IT service

Which of these statements describes an IT service provider? A) A third-party service provider delivering components of services B) A business unit responsible for IT processes C) A function that provides controls for IT infrastructure D) A service provider that provides IT services to internal or external customers

D) A service provider that provides IT services to internal or external customers

Which of the following processes essentially executes policies defined in IT security management? A) Event management B) Policy management C) Data management D) Access management

D) Access management

How is the process of access management used in the service operation stage of the service lifecycle? A) Access management is used to manage the security technology in the infrastructure. B) Access management is used to maintain security controls over the business environment. C) Access management is used to ensure the active directory entries are audited for accuracy. D) Access management is used to ensure the correct people are able to use the correct systems in the correct way.

D) Access management is used to ensure the correct people are able to use the correct systems in the correct way.

Which of the following tasks is a Problem Management responsibility? A) Record incidents for later study B) Coordinate all modifications C) Identify users' need D) Approve all modifications done to the Known Error database

D) Approve all modifications done to the Known Error database

Which of the following is not a recognized source of IT best practices according to ITIL? A) Proprietary knowledge B) Industry standards C) Training D) Auditors

D) Auditors

Which of the following ITIL processes uses Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)? A) Capacity Management B) Change Management C) Service Level Management D) Availability Management

D) Availability Management

Which of the following processes makes sure that there is an appropriate deployment of resources? A) Service Level Management B) Customer Management C) Problem Management D) Availability Management

D) Availability Management

Which of these statements about business relationship management (BRM) is most correct? A) BRM reviews all service changes. B) BRM monitors the service targets for all services. C) BRM focuses on the relationship with users through the service desk. D) BRM focuses on a high-level relationship with customers.

D) BRM focuses on a high-level relationship with customers.

Which of the following is not stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)? A) Software licenses B) Master copies of software C) Master copies of documentation D) Backups of application data

D) Backups of application data

Which of these statements are correct? 1. Service level management acts as the representative of the IT department for the business. 2. Service level management acts as the representative of the business for the IT department. A) 2 only B) 1 only C) Neither D) Both

D) Both

Which one of the following statements is correct? A) Neither warranty nor utility is required to deliver value to customers. B) Only warranty is required to deliver value to customer. C) Only utility is required to deliver value to customers. D) Both warranty and utility are required to deliver value to customers.

D) Both warranty and utility are required to deliver value to customers.

Service Desk is intended to provide a Single Point of Contact (SPOC) to meet the communication needs of both users and IT employees, and to satisfy both customer and IT provider objectives. In which of the following ways does Service Desk support Configuration Management? A) By undertaking activities regarding standard requests B) By informing users regarding the supported products and services for which they are entitled C) By recording and monitoring the incidents D) By verifying details of the caller and their IT resources while recording an incident

D) By verifying details of the caller and their IT resources while recording an incident

In which system will the information regarding configuration items and service assets be held? A) Service catalog B) CMIS C) SCMIS D) CMS

D) CMS

An analysis has been done regarding the expansion of the customer information database. The result specifies that the disk capacity must be increased to contain the projected growth of the database in the near future. Which process is accountable for sharing this information on time to ensure that the available disk space is adequate? A) ICT Infrastructure Management B) Security Management C) Change Management D) Capacity Management

D) Capacity Management

Which of the following Service Design processes is used to make the most efficient use of data supplied by Demand Management? A) Availability Management B) Service Catalog Management C) Service Level Management D) Capacity Management

D) Capacity Management

Which of the following ensures that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient capacity, so that the current and the future needs of the customer get fulfilled? A) Release Management B) Problem Management C) Service Level Management D) Capacity Management

D) Capacity Management

Which of the following processes contains the Performance and Resource Management? A) Incident Management B) Configuration Management C) Availability Management D) Capacity Management

D) Capacity Management

Which of the following documents is used to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient capacity so that the current and future needs of customers get fulfilled? A) Service Improvement Plan B) Availability Plan C) Service Quality Plan D) Capacity Plan

D) Capacity Plan

Which of the following behaves as the greatest contributor to the Configuration Management Database? A) Problem Management B) Incident Management C) Capacity Management D) Change Management

D) Change Management

Which of the following manages the rollout of the new releases? A) Service Management B) Customer Management C) Incident Management D) Change Management

D) Change Management

Which of the following processes governs each release via a request for change? A) Incident Management process B) Service Management process C) Capacity Management process D) Change Management process

D) Change Management process

Which of the following has the responsibility to filter, accept, and classify all Request For Change (RFC)? A) Incident Manager B) Change Director C) Problem Manager D) Change Manager

D) Change Manager

Who is responsible for authorizing a request for change as part of the change management process? A) Supplier B) User C) Customer D) Change authority

D) Change authority

Which of the following is a formal communication seeking an alteration to one or more configuration items? A) Change advisor B) Change phase C) Change plan D) Change request

D) Change request

__________ to see if changes are working and to inspect selected processes. A) Act B) Plan C) Perform D) Check

D) Check

Which of the following includes Self-Assessment Audits? A) Release B) Underpinning Contract C) Normative D) Compliance

D) Compliance

Which of the following involves all aspects of component availability and unavailability? A) Data availability B) Information availability C) Change availability D) Component availability

D) Component availability

Which of the following processes uses Status Accounting as its important part? A) Financial Management B) Incident Management C) Change Management D) Configuration Management

D) Configuration Management

Which of these statements about asset management and configuration management is not true? A) Configuration management may include locations and documents. B) Asset management considers the value of items, and configuration management considers the interdependencies between items. C) Asset management is concerned only with purchased items such as hardware and software. D) Configuration management information is held in a database called the configuration repository.

D) Configuration management information is held in a database called the configuration repository.

Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI matrix? A) Configuration B) Controlled C) Complex D) Consulted

D) Consulted

Which of the following is an IT Service delivering basic Outcomes required by one or more customers? A) Service value B) Service utility C) Request fulfillment D) Core service

D) Core service

Which of the following data is least expected to be used in the Incident Control process? A) Model of faulty item B) Incident category C) Impact code D) Cost of faulty item

D) Cost of faulty item

Which of the following would not be part of a service level agreement? A) Service hours B) Description of the service C) Service continuity arrangements D) Definition of business strategy

D) Definition of business strategy

Which of the following serves as a medium for communicating the information and sharing the knowledge? A) Configuration B) Compliance C) Baseline D) Documentation

D) Documentation

Which of these statements is the best description of the purpose of the service transition lifecycle stage? A) Ensure services are designed to meet business expectations. B) Ensure services are operated according to service level agreements. C) Ensure services are measured and improved according to improvement guidelines. D) Ensure services agreed on and designed in strategy and design are delivered effectively into operation.

D) Ensure services agreed on and designed in strategy and design are delivered effectively into operation.

Which of these statements provides the best description of the purpose of service level management? A) Ensure there is a high-level relationship with customers to capture business demands B) Ensure users have a single point of contact for all operational issues C) Ensure there is a smooth transition of services to and from service providers D) Ensure that all current and planned IT services are delivered to agreed achievable targets

D) Ensure that all current and planned IT services are delivered to agreed achievable targets

Event management is a key operational process in the service operation lifecycle stage. What is the purpose of event management? A) Event management monitors the underlying causes of failures and ensures that changes are made to prevent further failures from taking place. B) Event management manages failures in the infrastructure and ensures that services are restored to normal working as quickly as possible. C) Event management monitors the infrastructure of the IT services and guarantees that no outages occur in peak times of business usage. D) Event management detects events that are significant for the management of the service and ensures the appropriate actions are taken.

D) Event management detects events that are significant for the management of the service and ensures the appropriate actions are taken.

Event management is the process that monitors events in the infrastructure. Which one of the following statements reflects the standard approach to event management? A) Events are always monitored manually by the technical support function. B) Events are always detected manually, and an automated system will be engaged to provide an appropriate response. C) Events are always managed as incidents after detection. D) Events are normally monitored automatically based on conditions agreed by technical management, and a response is determined and carried out.

D) Events are normally monitored automatically based on conditions agreed by technical management, and a response is determined and carried out.

Who should have access to the security policy? A) Senior management B) IT staff C) Business users D) Everyone

D) Everyone

Which one of these statements best reflects an objective of access management? A) Agree the level of access for all individuals in order to define the access policy. B) Define the policies and actions required by security and availability management. C) Determine the access levels required by each individual in order to define the access policy. D) Execute the policies and actions defined in security and availability management.

D) Execute the policies and actions defined in security and availability management.

Operations management is split into two aspects. What are they called? A) Facilities management, operations development B) Facilities ownership, operations control C) Console management, facilities management D) Facilities management, operations control

D) Facilities management, operations control

An availability plan should consider the requirements for what period? A) For the next month B) For the next week C) For the next 24 hours D) For the next 12 to 18 months

D) For the next 12 to 18 months

Which of these is a part of the scope of IT change management? A) Minor operational changes B) Business strategic changes C) Project changes D) IT service changes

D) IT service changes

The CEO of uCertify Inc calls the service desk and reports that the system is running slow. He inquires whether he can be given a different PC, the same as that of his colleague's, which is a lot faster. Which of the following terms is applicable to this situation? A) Problem B) Request For Change C) Service Delivery D) Incident

D) Incident

A service management tool has the ability to store templates for common incidents that define the steps to be taken to resolve the fault. What are these called? A) Minor incidents B) Major incidents C) Incident categories D) Incident models

D) Incident models

What is most likely to cause a loss of trust in the SLM process? A) Involving customers in outlining Service Level Requirements B) Measurements that match the customer's observation of the service C) Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the SLAs D) Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be efficiently measured

D) Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be efficiently measured

Which of the following is a system of policies and procedures, and is designed to recognize, control, and protect information? A) Incident Management B) Capacity Management C) Information System D) Information Security

D) Information Security

Which of the following is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management? A) Rules and Responsibilities B) Departments C) IT resources D) Interrelated activities

D) Interrelated activities

Which of the following is not a Service Provider resource? A) Information B) Infrastructure C) Applications D) Investment

D) Investment

Which of the following is not a step in the Continual Service Improvement model? A) Did we get there? B) Where are we now? C) What is the vision? D) Is there a budget?

D) Is there a budget?

Which of the following statements about the RACI model is true? A) It performs performance analysis. B) It monitors services. C) It records Configuration Items (CI). D) It defines roles and responsibilities.

D) It defines roles and responsibilities.

Which is the best description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration Management? A) It defines how version numbers should be used in a release. B) It describes the topography of hardware. C) It defines which software should be installed on a specific hardware component. D) It describes how the CIs work collectively to deliver the services.

D) It describes how the CIs work collectively to deliver the services.

Which of the following is the feature of Resource Capacity Management? A) It makes baselines and useful profiles for all services. B) It determines and understands the use of IT services. C) It recognizes the current and future business needs. D) It determines and understands the use of IT infrastructure and components.

D) It determines and understands the use of IT infrastructure and components.

Which of the following statements about risk is true? A) It is something that will happen. B) It is something that always happens. C) It is something that won't happen. D) It is something that might happen.

D) It is something that might happen.

Release Management is used to implement a group of related and compatible Configuration Items into a batch, which is called a release. Which of the following statements is true about Release Management? A) It manages the services depending on tangible records of services, service level targets, and the characteristics of the workload. B) It is the focal point for all performance and capacity issues. C) It is used to manage information security effectively among all service providers. D) It is used for delivering, distributing, and tracking one or more changes in a release into the live environment.

D) It is used for delivering, distributing, and tracking one or more changes in a release into the live environment.

Which of the following is the objective of the ISO/IEC 20000 management? A) It is used to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient capacity, so that the current and the future needs of the customer get fulfilled. B) It is used to ensure that agreed service continuity anavailability commitments to customers are met in all the situations. C) It is used to manage information security effectively among all service providers. D) It is used to provide a management system along with policies and a framework, so that there can be effective management and accomplishment of all IT services.

D) It is used to provide a management system along with policies and a framework, so that there can be effective management and accomplishment of all IT services.

Which of the following is the objective of Information Security Management? A) It develops and maintains a good relationship between the service provider and the customer. B) It manages suppliers in order to ensure the provision of seamless, quality services. C) It restores agreed service to the business as early as possible or acts in response to service requests. D) It manages information security effectively within all service providers.

D) It manages information security effectively within all service providers.

Which of the following is a benefit of using an incident model? A) It provides an easy mechanism for finding the root cause of incidents. B) It will make the underlying cause easier to detect. C) Incidents will never recur. D) It provides predefined steps for handling common types of incidents.

D) It provides predefined steps for handling common types of incidents.

An important focus for the service lifecycle is the capture and management of knowledge relating to IT service provision. How does the process of knowledge management work in the service lifecycle? A) Knowledge management is solely concerned with the transfer of knowledge when implementing new or changed services. B) Knowledge management is used across the lifecycle stages of continual service improvement and service operation to ensure that improvements are managed effectively. C) Knowledge management is used solely in the service operation stage of the lifecycle to ensure that operation issues are managed efficiently. D) Knowledge management is used across the whole service lifecycle to ensure that appropriate knowledge is delivered to enable informed decision making.

D) Knowledge management is used across the whole service lifecycle to ensure that appropriate knowledge is delivered to enable informed decision making.

Which of the following conditions is identified by successful diagnosis of the root cause of a problem? A) Data discrepancy B) Invalid data C) Error analysis D) Known error

D) Known error

Which of these statements is not correct? A) MTBSI measures the time from one failure until the next failure. B) MTBF measures uptime. C) MTRS measures downtime. D) MTBSI stands for maximum time before service interruption.

D) MTBSI stands for maximum time before service interruption.

Which of the following activities is not handled by IT Operations Management? A) Output management B) Console management C) Facility management D) Maintenance of a technical infrastructure

D) Maintenance of a technical infrastructure

Which of the following is a reason an organization might want to adopt ITIL best practices? A) Advice on the technical specification of infrastructure B) Advice on business strategy C) Development of programming techniques D) Management of IT services and budgetary controls

D) Management of IT services and budgetary controls

Which of the following should the DML contain? A) Details of all operational services B) The version information of all software C) The organizational structure of the company D) Master copies of all software and license documentation

D) Master copies of all software and license documentation

Which of the following is not a service desk structure described in ITIL? A) Virtual B) Local C) Follow the sun D) Matrix

D) Matrix

Which of the following is not a type of change? A) Standard Change B) Normal Change C) Emergency Change D) Matrix Change

D) Matrix Change

At what point does an Incident turn in to a problem? A) When it is a major Incident B) When it is urgent C) Any time D) Never

D) Never

The Service Level manager requires an agreement that describes the responsibilities of each internal support group towards the other support groups, including the process and time-frame for delivery of their services. Which of the following can be used to meet his requirements? A) Underpinning Contract (UC) B) Configuration Management Database C) Service Level Agreement D) Operational Level Agreement

D) Operational Level Agreement

Which of the following is an internal agreement that supports the IT organization in the delivery of services? A) Sample Service Level Agreement B) Service Level Agreement C) Vendor Service Level Agreement D) Operational Level Agreement

D) Operational Level Agreement

Capacity management considers PBAs. What does PBA stand for? A) Patterns of business availability B) Proactive business assurance C) Proactive business assessment D) Patterns of business activity

D) Patterns of business activity

Which of the following help the IT Service Provider to understand and plan for different levels of business activity? A) Business continuity activities B) Business assets C) Confidentiality services D) Patterns of business activity

D) Patterns of business activity

Service design has four major areas that need to be considered in order to deliver a holistic design. Which of these are the four areas? A) Partners, plans, people, performance B) Process, plan, performance, partners C) Products, plans, performance, process D) People, process, products, partners

D) People, process, products, partners

The Plan-Do-Check-Act methodology is defined as an iterative four-step problem solving process that is used for quality control, such as that provided by the ISO/IEC 20000 standard. Which of the following terms of the Plan-Do-Check-Act methodology describes the objectives and processes required to deliver results according to the customer requirements and the organization's policies? A) Do B) Check C) Act D) Plan

D) Plan

Which of the following is the full form of PDCA? A) Plan-Determine-Check-Act B) Plan-Do-Check-Analyze C) Plan-Decide-Check-Act D) Plan-Do-Check-Act

D) Plan-Do-Check-Act

Which step shows the correct order for the Deming cycle? A) Act-Check-Do-Plan B) Check-Do-Act-Plan C) Do-Check-Plan-Act D) Plan-Do-Check-Act

D) Plan-Do-Check-Act

The configuration management system (CMS) is composed of four separate layers. Which of these is the correct identification of those layers? A) Presentation, information integration, configuration item, data B) Presentation, knowledge processing, configuration item, configuration database C) Presentation, configuration item, configuration database, knowledge model D) Presentation, knowledge processing, information integration, data

D) Presentation, knowledge processing, information integration, data

Which of the following processes is responsible for producing a RFC output? A) Configuration Management B) Incident Management C) Change Management D) Problem Management

D) Problem Management

Which of the following processes is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors? A) Incident Management B) Error Management C) Capacity Management D) Problem Management

D) Problem Management

Which one of these statements best defines access management? A) Process to decide what access should be allowed for each user B) Process to define the security policies and actions C) Process to prevent unauthorized access D) Process of granting authorized users the right to use a service, while preventing access to nonauthorized users

D) Process of granting authorized users the right to use a service, while preventing access to nonauthorized users

You work as a Project Manager for uCertify Inc. You have been requested by the management to show graphical representation of roles and responsibilities of different project team members. Which of the following will you produce? A) Organization chart B) Resource histogram chart C) Pareto chart D) RACI chart

D) RACI chart

Which of the following is created mainly by Availability and IT Service Continuity Management? A) IT Service Continuity Report B) Test Protocol C) IT Service Continuity Strategy D) Recovery Plan

D) Recovery Plan

Which of the following has the responsibility to ensure that the back-out plans are practical? A) Service Management B) Customer Management C) Problem Management D) Release Management

D) Release Management

Which of the following refers to the implementation of a group of related and compatible Configuration Items in to a batch? A) Incident Management B) Capacity Management C) Problem Management D) Release Management

D) Release Management

Which of the following processes makes sure that the group of changes in each release are compatible with each other? A) Service Management process B) Configuration Management process C) Change Management process D) Release Management process

D) Release Management process

Which of the following is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, and low cost changes? A) Demand Management B) Incident Management C) Deployment Management D) Request Fulfillment

D) Request Fulfillment

Which of the following is defined as the major object or the entity that is used to instantiate a change? A) Urgent Change B) Service Request C) Customer Request D) Request for Change

D) Request for Change

Which of the following requests is used to replace something within the IT infrastructure? A) Request for Release B) Service Request C) Replacement request D) Request for change

D) Request for change

Which of the following is the primary objective of error control? A) Recognize and register Known Errors B) Register and manage Known Errors C) Figure out the details for workarounds D) Resolve Known Errors

D) Resolve Known Errors

Which of the following is accountable for recording relationships between service components? A) Incident Management B) Portfolio Management C) Service Level Management D) Service Asset and Configuration Management

D) Service Asset and Configuration Management

In which of the following the key features of all IT services are recorded? A) Service Level Requirements B) Service Level Management Database C) Service Level Agreements D) Service Catalog

D) Service Catalog

Which of the following is mainly concerned with the design of new or changed services? A) Service Strategy B) Change Management C) Service Transition D) Service Design

D) Service Design

What is the key output handed over to Service Transition within Service Design? A) Business Perspective B) ITIL Small-Scale Implementation C) Service Portfolio Management D) Service Design Package

D) Service Design Package

Incident Management (IcM) refers to the activities of an organization to identify, analyze, and correct hazards. Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident? A) Service Level Manager B) Call center C) Problem Management D) Service Desk

D) Service Desk

Which larger entity holds Configuration Management Database and Configuration Management System as its elements? A) Information System Governance B) Information Management C) Known Error Database D) Service Knowledge Management System

D) Service Knowledge Management System

The Business has submitted requirements for a new ERP system. Which authority is responsible for documenting the Service Level Requirements (SLRs) with the Business delegate? A) Service Owner B) Project Management C) Service Level Manager D) Service Level Management

D) Service Level Management

Which of the following processes is used to review OLAs on a regular basis? A) Service Management B) Supplier Management C) Portfolio Management D) Service Level Management

D) Service Level Management

Which of the following provides agreed, reliable, timely, and accurate reports for decision-making and effective communication? A) Information Reporting B) Incident Management C) Configuration Management D) Service Reporting

D) Service Reporting

Which of the following is the CORE of the Service Lifecycle? A) Service Transition B) Service Operation C) Service Design D) Service Strategy

D) Service Strategy

Which stage of the service lifecycle is mainly concerned with defining policies and objectives? A) Service Transition B) Service Operation C) Service Design D) Service Strategy

D) Service Strategy

Which of the following are the TWO main components of ITIL Service Management? A) Service Support and Service Provider B) Service Support and Service Desk C) Service Operation and Service Support D) Service Support and Service Delivery

D) Service Support and Service Delivery

Which of the following defines customer perceptions and business outcomes? A) Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) B) Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) C) Customer Relationship Management D) Service Value

D) Service Value

Which of these statements best represents the objective of service design? A) Service design should design services that deliver the expectations of the service provider in terms of service requirements. B) Service design should design services that cannot be improved. C) Service design should design services that meet the requirements of the service provider. D) Service design should design services that require little improvement, except to meet ongoing business requirements.

D) Service design should design services that require little improvement, except to meet ongoing business requirements.

Which document refers to the steps that must be taken if there is a major gap in the projected delivery quality of a service and the actual delivery? A) Service quality plan B) Service level agreement C) Business service catalog D) Service improvement plan

D) Service improvement plan

Service design is subject to a number of constraints that impact the ability to design the solution. Which one of these is not recognized as a constraint? A) Technology B) Regulatory framework C) Finance D) Service solution

D) Service solution

Which process reviews operational-level agreements on a regular basis? A) Service portfolio management B) Supplier management C) Demand management D) Service-level management

D) Service-level management

What are the names of people who have an interest in an organization, project, IT service, etc? A) Customer care B) User profile C) Process owner D) Stakeholder

D) Stakeholder

A service must provide which of the following to deliver business value? A) The agreed-upon level of security and alignment to the organization's project management methodology B) The agreed-upon level of security C) Sufficient capacity, the agreed-upon level of security, and alignment to the organization's project management methodology D) Sufficient capacity and the agreed-upon level of security

D) Sufficient capacity and the agreed-upon level of security

Which of the following is a relationship process? A) Capacity Management B) Configuration Management C) Change Management D) Supplier Management

D) Supplier Management

Which of the following is used to define the scope of a Release? A) DHS B) RACI C) Service Level Metrics D) The DSL configuration

D) The DSL configuration

The predicted costs and benefits of a proposed new service are documented in which of the following documents? A) The service strategy B) The project plan C) The improvement register D) The business case

D) The business case

What is the best definition of a problem? A) The result of a failed change B) An incident that the service desk does not know how to fix C) A fault that will require a change to resolve D) The cause of one or more incidents

D) The cause of one or more incidents

Which of these is a valid reason for closing a change record? A) The release has been implemented. B) The change has been released. C) The change has been authorized and implemented. D) The change acceptance criteria has been met.

D) The change acceptance criteria has been met.

Which of the following is not one of the five aspects of Service Design? A) The design of technology and management systems. B) The design of Service Portfolio. C) The design of new/changed services. D) The design of market places.

D) The design of market places.

The ITIL Continual Service Improvement publication provides guidance in four main areas. Which of these is not one of the four areas? A) Continual improvement of all aspects of the IT service and the service assets that support them B) Continual alignment of the IT services with the current and future needs of the business C) The maturity and capability of the organization, management, processes, and people utilized by the services D) The development of a strategy that supports business organization improvements

D) The development of a strategy that supports business organization improvements

In the ITIL guidance on incident management, what is one of the key purposes of the incident management process? A) The purpose of incident management is to ensure that the service desk fulfills all requests from users. B) The purpose of incident management is to prevent changes from causing incidents when a change is implemented. C) The purpose of incident management is to prevent incidents from occurring by identifying the root cause. D) The purpose of incident management is to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible.

D) The purpose of incident management is to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible.

Which one of these statements best reflects the purpose of knowledge management? A) The purpose of knowledge management is to deliver information to the right place to make an informed decision. B) The purpose of knowledge management is to ensure the right information is in the right place at the right time. C) The purpose of knowledge management is to ensure that lessons are learned. D) The purpose of knowledge management is to ensure that perspectives, ideas, experience, and information are shared in order to enable informed decision making.

D) The purpose of knowledge management is to ensure that perspectives, ideas, experience, and information are shared in order to enable informed decision making.

The knowledge management process maintains and updates a tool used for knowledge management. What is this system called? A) The knowledge base for service management B) The service management tool C) The service management database D) The service knowledge management system

D) The service knowledge management system

How is the seven-step improvement process in the continual service improvement lifecycle stage used? A) The seven-step improvement process is used to manage improvement initiatives in line with business requirements. B) The seven-step improvement process is used to manage the improvement program across the organization. C) The seven-step improvement process is used to format the improvement reports delivered to the business. D) The seven-step improvement process is used to gather, analyze, and present data to assist in decision making.

D) The seven-step improvement process is used to gather, analyze, and present data to assist in decision making.

Which of these statements is not true? This task contains the radio buttons and checkboxes for options. A) There may be several process managers for each process. B) There may be several process practitioners for each process. C) Every process must have a process manager. D) There may be several process owners for each process.

D) There may be several process owners for each process.

Which of these statements is not an objective of knowledge management? A) To enable efficiency in the service provider and customer, by encouraging the reuse of information B) To maintain a service knowledge management system C) To improve the quality of decision making throughout the service lifecycle D) To capture and maintain information about the assets that make up your services

D) To capture and maintain information about the assets that make up your services

What is the purpose of the service portfolio management process? A) To capture details of live operational services only B) To capture details of retired services only C) To ensure all services are documented according to the requirements of the business D) To ensure you have an appropriate mix of services to meet the requirements of customers

D) To ensure you have an appropriate mix of services to meet the requirements of customers

Which of these statements represents an objective of the continual service improvement lifecycle stage? A) To ensure that the changes to the services deliver the anticipated and required business value B) To set the expectations for the performance and use of the new or modified services C) To identify the services and the customers who use them D) To identify and implement specific activities to improve IT service quality

D) To identify and implement specific activities to improve IT service quality

What is the correct sequence of items for the basic process flow? A) Trigger, input, output, activity, feedback B) Trigger, input, activity, feedback, output C) Input, trigger, activity, output, feedback D) Trigger, input, activity, output, feedback

D) Trigger, input, activity, output, feedback

Which of the following is not a type of service? A) Type 3: External Service Provider B) Type 2: Shared Service Provider C) Type 1: Internal Service Provider D) Type 0: Domain Service Provider

D) Type 0: Domain Service Provider

Which of the following defines targets and responsibilities that are required to meet agreed Service Level targets in an SLA? A) Accreditation Body B) Sample Service Level Agreement C) Vendor Service Level Agreement D) Underpinning Contract

D) Underpinning Contract

Which of the following are the primary elements that create value for customers? A) Customers and Users satisfaction B) Utility and Return on Investment (ROI) C) QoS requirements and Warranty D) Utility and Warranty

D) Utility and Warranty

Which of the following are the primary elements that create value for customers? A) QoS requirements and Warranty B) Utility and Return on Investment (ROI) C) Customers and Users satisfaction D) Utility and Warranty

D) Utility and Warranty

Which of the following is a combination of the effects of utility and warranty? A) Prime factors B) Co-sourcing C) Value networks D) Value creation

D) Value creation

Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management? A) Resilience B) Maintainability C) Security D) Verification E) Reliability

D) Verification

Availability management considers VBFs. What does VBF stand for? A) Visibility, benefits, functionality B) Vital business facilities C) Viable business factors D) Vital business functions

D) Vital business functions

The continual service improvement approach sets out a sequence of steps to follow when instigating and implementing improvements. Which of these represents the correct sequence for the CSI approach? A) Where are we now? What is the vision? Where do we want to be? How do we get there? Did we get there? How do we keep the momentum going? B) What is the vision? Where are we now? Where do we want to be? How do we keep the momentum going? How do we get there? Did we get there? C) Where are we now? Where do we want to be? What is the vision? How do we get there? Did we get there? How do we keep the momentum going? D) What is the vision? Where are we now? Where do we want to be? How do we get there? Did we get there? How do we keep the momentum going?

D) What is the vision? Where are we now? Where do we want to be? How do we get there? Did we get there? How do we keep the momentum going?

At what time a known error can be identified? A) When the problem is resolved B) When the problem is known C) When the problem is sent to Problem Management D) When the cause of the problem is known

D) When the cause of the problem is known

Items of information stored in the CMDB relating to a specific Configuration Item (CI) are called __________. A) components B) methods C) features D) attributes

D) attributes

Identify the correct word to complete the statement: An/A __________ is a change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item. A) problem B) alert C) incident D) event

D) event

Complete the statement about continual service improvement: One of the key concepts for improvement is ensuring that service quality is constantly ___________ so that performance is monitored and enhanced if required. A) designed B) prepared C) delivered D) measured

D) measured

Which word will complete the following statement to provide the best description of how service operation supports the business? Service operation is the stage of the service lifecycle where the business sees the ___________ delivered by services. A) processes B) infrastructure C) cost D) value

D) value

A set of discrete facts about an event, often in raw form, is known as what, as part of knowledge management?

Data

Which of these skills and attributes are not important for service desk staff: telephone communication skills, technical awareness, patience, debating skills, business awareness, or empathy?

Debating skills

The Plan-Do-Check-Act approaches to quality management.

Deming cycle

The process responsible for coordinating all service design activities, processes, and resources.

Design coordination

A service level agreement is categorized under which category for service asset and configuration management?

Document

The extra support given at the end of deployment until the new or changed service is accepted as fully operational. The service is reviewed to ensure that it will be able to meet the service targets.

Early-life support

A change that must be introduced as soon as possible, for example, to resolve a major incident or implement a security patch.

Emergency change

What is the change type for the definition "A change that needs to be implemented more quickly on a business-critical system"?

Emergency change

A subgroup of the change advisory board that makes assessments and decisions about emergency changes.

Emergency change advisory board (ECAB)

A change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service or other configuration item.

Event

A form of virtual service desk, with calls routed according to the time of day.

Follow the sun

Transferring an incident, problem, or change to a technical team with a higher level of expertise or authority.

Functional escalation

Informing or involving more senior levels of management in an incident, problem, or change.

Hierarchic escalation

The function within an IT service provider that performs the daily activities needed to manage IT services and the supporting IT infrastructure. IT operations management includes IT operations control and facilities management.

IT operations management

Initiation, requirements and strategy, implementation, and ongoing operation are stages in which service management process?

IT service continuity management

The process responsible for managing risks that could seriously affect IT services. IT service continuity management supports business continuity management.

IT service continuity management

A service provider that provides IT services to internal or external customers.

IT service provider

An organization providing services to one or more internal or external customers is called what?

IT service provider

A measure of the effect of an incident, problem, or change on business processes. Impact and urgency are used to assign priority.

Impact

An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service.

Incident

What is this definition describing? "An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service."

Incident

The process responsible for managing the lifecycle of all incidents. It focuses on restoring normal service as quickly as possible.

Incident management

A record containing the details of the lifecycle of a single incident.

Incident record

What is the technique called differential charging used for as part of financial management?

Influencing user behavior

Rationalization and/or context applied to a set of discrete facts are known as what, as part of knowledge management?

Informatioin

The process responsible for ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of an organization's assets, information, data, and IT services match the agreed needs of the business.

Information security management (ISM)

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: An event that occurs and requires detection and recording but no specific action is called ___________.

Informational

Which of these are not recognized as functions of the service lifecycle: technical management, operations management, infrastructure management, application management, or service desk?

Infrastructure management

A metric that is used to help manage an IT service, process, plan, project, or other activity. Key performance indicators are used to measure the achievement of critical success factors.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Combining experience, ideas, insights, values, and judgments that are applied to contextual facts are known as what?

Knowledge

The process responsible for sharing perspectives, ideas, experience, and information, as well as for ensuring that these are available in the right place and at the right time.

Knowledge management

What does the acronym KEDB stand for?

Known error database

A database created by problem management containing all known error records and workarounds where available.

Known error database (KEDB)

What type of service desk is described in the following statement? "Each business location/site has its own service desk."

Local service desk

What is this definition describing? "An incident which causes a serious impact to the business and may require an adjusted process flow."

Major incident

A metric for measuring and reporting availability, or uptime. MTBF is the average of the time between when the configuration item starts working until it next fails.

Mean time between failures (MTBF)

A metric used for measuring and reporting reliability. It is the mean time from when a system or IT service fails until it next fails.

Mean time between service incidents (MTBSI)

A metric used for measuring and reporting downtime. MTRS is the average time taken to restore an IT service or other configuration item after a failure. MTRS is measured from when the configuration item fails until it is fully restored and delivering its normal functionality.

Mean time to restore service (MTRS)

What is the change type for the definition "A change that follows the basic flow of assessment and authorization"?

Normal change

An operational state that is defined as where services and configuration items are performing within their agreed service and operational levels.

Normal service operation

An underpinning agreement between IT service providers and another part of the same organization that assists with the provision of services is called what?

OLA

An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization that assists in the provision of services.

Operational-level agreements (OLAs)

This is also known as IT operations management. It is the function within an IT service provider that carries out the daily activities needed to manage IT services and the supporting IT infrastructure. IT operations management includes IT operations control and facilities management.

Operations management

"A rollout is delivered to a part of the whole target audience and rolled out to the rest when the rollout is shown to be successful" is a description of which deployment option?

Phased

The relative importance of an incident, problem, or change. Priority is based on impact and urgency.

Priority

What is this definition describing? "A category used to identify the relative importance of an incident, problem, or change, based on impact and urgency."

Priority

The unknown, underlying cause of one or more incidents.

Problem

The process responsible for managing the lifecycle of all problems. Its purpose is to prevent problems and resultant incidents from occurring.

Problem management

The role responsible for ensuring a process is carried out correctly is known as what?

Process owner

What is the change output described by the definition "A document detailing the effect of planned changes on agreed service availability"?

Projected service outage

A document that identifies the effect of planned changes, maintenance activities, and test plans on agreed service levels.

Projected service outage (PSO)

A plan for actions to be taken to recover after a failed change or release. Remediation may include backout, invocation of service continuity plans, or other actions designed to enable the business process to continue.

Remediation plan

Which deployment option is described here: "A rollout is delivered on-demand or forced to the target recipients"?

Pull/Push

A model which defines roles and responsibilities. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed.

RACI

Which of these items would you expect to find recorded as part of the configuration management system: release records, change records, and business process documentation?

Release and change records

The process responsible for planning, scheduling, and controlling the build, test, and deployment of releases and for delivering new functionality required by the business while protecting the integrity of existing services.

Release and deployment management

Mechanisms for the automation of release build, installation, and release distribution to improve efficiency would be captured in which document associated to the release and deployment management process?

Release policy

A set of criteria used to ensure that an IT service meets its functionality and quality requirements.

Service acceptance criteria (SAC)

The process responsible for ensuring that the assets required to deliver services are properly controlled. It focuses on the management and provision of accurate and reliable information about those assets and ensures that it is available when and where it is needed.

Service asset and configuration management (SACM)

A database or structured document with information about all live IT services, which may include services available for deployment.

Service catalog

The process responsible for providing and maintaining the service catalog and for ensuring that it is available to those who are authorized to access it.

Service catalog management

A phase in the service lifecycle. Service design includes the design of the services, including governing practices, processes, and policies required to realize the service provider's strategy. Its objective is to facilitate the introduction of services into supported environments.

Service design

Document(s) defining all aspects of an IT service and its requirements through each stage of its lifecycle.

Service design package (SDP)

The single point of contact between the service provider and the users.

Service desk

A formal plan to implement improvements to a processor IT service.

Service improvement plan (SIP)

A set of tools and databases that are used to manage knowledge, information, and data.

Service knowledge management system (SKMS)

A phase in the service lifecycle. Service operation coordinates and carries out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers.

Service operation

A written agreement between the IT service provider and customer. A service-level agreement describes the IT service, documents service-level targets, and specifies the responsibilities of the IT service provider and the customer.

Service-level agreement (SLA)

The process responsible for negotiating achievable service level agreements and ensuring that they are met. It manages SLAs and the associated underpinning agreements and contract, and ensures that the targets for service provision are agreed and managed.

Service-level management

Service monitoring, conducting service reviews, and managing customer complaints are all part of the responsibilities of which role?

Service-level manager

A customer requirement for an aspect of an IT service. Service-level requirements are based on business objectives and used to negotiate agreed service-level targets.

Service-level requirements (SLR)

The process responsible for defining and managing the steps needed to identify, define, gather, process, analyze, present, and implement improvements.

Seven-step improvement process

A preauthorized change that is low-risk, is relatively common, and follows a procedure or work instruction.

Standard change

What is the change type for the definition "A change that is preauthorized, as it has a known risk, known impact, and is carried out regularly"?

Standard change

The process responsible for obtaining value for money from suppliers, ensuring that all contracts and agreements with suppliers support the needs of the business, and ensuring that all suppliers meet their contractual commitments.

Supplier management

The function responsible for providing technical skills in support of IT services and management of the IT infrastructure.

Technical management

The process responsible for planning all service transition processes and coordinating the resources they require.

Transition planning and support

"A rollout is delivered through a system or other approach suitable for the demands of the infrastructure and organization" is a description of which deployment option?

True

True or false: A supplier is a third party responsible for supplying goods or services that are required to deliver IT services.

True

True or false: Access management is responsible for verifying the identity of the requestor.

True

True or false: All processes share a common set of characteristics.

True

True or false: An SLA is a documented agreement between the customer and the IT service provider. It must be signed by both parties.

True

True or false: Demand management considers the patterns of business activity to understand demand for services.

True

True or false: Demand management may provide techniques for influencing demand for services.

True

True or false: Known errors capture the status of a problem when the root cause has been identified and there is a workaround. These records are stored in the known error database (KEDB).

True

True or false: Measurement and metrics are part of the five major aspects of service design.

True

True or false: One of the benefits of the configuration management system is that relationships between configuration items can be recorded.

True

True or false: Part of the request fulfillment process may be the provision of a self-help tool.

True

True or false: Service management systems and tools are part of the five key aspects of service design.

True

True or false: Technology is important in the support of all stages of the service lifecycle.

True

True or false: The RACI matrix is used to understand the allocation of roles and responsibilities for an activity.

True

True or false: The main objective of supplier management is to manage the relationship between IT service provider and supplier, while monitoring and managing the required performance.

True

True or false: The service desk staff should be both business and technically aware to provide good service.

True

A contract between an IT service provider and a third party. The third party provides goods or services that support the delivery of an IT service to a customer.

Underpinning contracts (UC)

A measure of how long it will be until an incident, problem, or change has a significant impact on the business.

Urgency

Informed decision-making use of the application of understanding of contextual facts is known as what?

Wisdom

A means of reducing or eliminating the impact of an incident or problem (often by the service desk) for which a full resolution is not yet available.

Workaround

What is this definition describing? "Reducing or eliminating the impact of an incident or problem for which a full resolution is not yet available."

Workaround

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: All business locations/sites utilize a single service desk whose staff may be located at any site. This is called a __________________ service desk structure.

virtual

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: Defining the security and access policies for all services is the responsibility of ____________ management.

information security

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: Eliminating recurring incidents is an objective of the ________________ management process.

problem

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: Identifying and recording workarounds for incidents allowing faster incident resolution is an objective of the __________________ management process.

problem

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: The service desk is responsible for logging all incidents and ______________ at point of contact.

service requests

Complete the sentence by filling in the missing word: CSI supports service ____________ in the review of testing and acceptance criteria to ensure IT services are delivered to meet business needs.

transition