Kyle's Quiz Questions - Study Guide

cnl: Ptosis, diplopia (double vision), and dilated pupil are all signs of a lesion in which cranial nerve CN V CN II CN III CN I

CN III (oculomotor)

Aotb: The midbrain contains nuclei for which cranial nerves? CN II and IV CN IV and V CN III and IV CN II and III

CN III and IV

Nociceptive information from visceral tissues is carried almost exclusively by Somatic sensory afferents Somatic visceral afferents Sympathetic nerves Parasympathetic nerves

Sympathetic nerves

cn&tn: The Vagus Nerve contributes efferent fibers to all of the following except: Striated muscle in the upper half of the esophagus Intrinsic muscles of the tongue Striated constrictor muscles of the pharynx Palatine muscles (except the Tensor Veli Palatine)

Intrinsic muscles of the tongue (the hypoglossal nerve contributes to this)

At resting potential, the membrane potential is -70mV, because the inner cell is closer to which ions equilibrium potential? Ca++ K+ Cl- Na+

K+ (-80mV)

Damage to the ventral rami of C8 and T1 results in ______. Saturday Night Palsy Erb-Duchenne Palsy Klumpke's Palsy Guillain Barre

Klumpke's Palsy (clumps sink, erbs float) erbs = c5 & c6

An unmyelinated, long postganglionic axon is a characteristic of which system? Parasympathetic Enteric Second messenger Sympathetic

Sympathetic

Exposure of neurons to high concentrations of glutamate even for a few minutes can result in cell death. FALSE TRUE

TRUE

Inactivated products of neurotransmitters can be taken up by a process of endocytosis. FALSE TRUE

TRUE

The larger the diameter of an axon, the faster the signal conduction. TRUE FALSE

TRUE

Unlike skeletal muscle, many internal organs cannot function without CNS input. FALSE TRUE

TRUE

Wallerian degeneration is when axonal damage results in degeneration that is distal to the lesion. TRUE FALSE

TRUE

Lesions in the PNS can affect the neuromuscular junction. FALSE TRUE

TRUE can affect nmj, axon, or muscle itself

Neurons that innervate extensor musculature are found ventrally in the ventral horn. TRUE FALSE

TRUE (and neurons that innervate flexor musculature are found dorsally in ventral horn)

cn&tn:Cranial nerve XI and X are the only cranial nerves with significant distribution of innervation outside of the head and neck. TRUE FALSE

TRUE - (vagus and spinal accessory)

The nucleus dorsalis is found in the dorsal medial part of which lamina? VIII VII VI

VII (7) - intermediate zone aka clarks column

Depolarizing postsynaptic potentials tend to excite the postsynaptic cell and are called what? ESPN IPSP CNN EPSP

EPSP

Which sensory fiber type receptor is supplied by skin mechanoreceptors, thermal receptors, and nociceptors? Ay C II III

C (IV) or Adelta (III)

sca: How many denticulate ligaments are found on each side of the body? 22 21 20

21

How many cranial nerves do we usually have? 13 12 24

24

dotns: What weeks of development are most suseptible to teratogenesis? (congenital malformations) 0-2 wks 3-8 wks 9-17 wks

3-8 wks

What kind of response can be observed once ACh binds with an autonomic nicotinic receptor?

EPSP

epon: A membrane potential across the membrane of a neuron is possible because of A balance between a concentration gradient and electrical gradient Equal concentrations of ions on each side of the cell membrane The hydrophobic outer regions of the membrane The hydrophilic core of the membrane

A balance between a concentration gradient and electrical gradient

A disease that attacks the arachnoid trabeculae may cause which of the following? Glial cell proliferation A loss of suspension for the brain and spinal cord Reduction in CSF production Hypertrophy of the ventricles

A loss of suspension for the brain and spinal cord

Radiculopathy would cause Caused by damage of nAchR of the NMJ by antibodies A result of a herniated disc or cervical spondylosis An example of a plexopathy Sensory loss without any weakness to muscles

A result of a herniated disc or cervical spondylosis

Spinal nerves Are motor neurons carrying information from the CNS to the peripheral tissues Are sensory neurons conveying information from receptive endings towards the brain A union of the ventral and dorsal ramus of a single spinal segment within the intervertebral foramen A union of dorsal and ventral roots of a single spinal segment within the intervertebral foramen

A union of dorsal and ventral roots of a single spinal segment within the intervertebral foramen

PNS lesions can occur at all of the following except The neuromuscular junction The muscle itself All of the above The axon

ALL OF THE ABOVE

Which receptor can only be opened when glutamate is bound to the receptor and with membrane depolarization? ACh AMPA GABA-B NMDA

ACh

Inflammation of the meninges due to infection may alter the CSF composition. Which of the following is not likely to be altered due to the infection process? Adipose tissue Proteins Glucose concentration White blood cells

Adipose tissue

All of the following are true about cranial nerves except Cranial nerves are peripheral nerves that connect to the brainstem There are a total of 24 cranial nerves All of the above

All of the above

Aotb: The medulla contains nuclei for which cranial nerves? CN X and XI CN XII All of the above CN IX

All of the above

During an injury to the CNS, which of the following may occur? Microglia begin to phagocytize dead CNS tissue Astrocytes will wall off the injury with astrocytic processes Macrophages from the PNS may enter the CNS to aid in phagocytosis to "help" microglia All of the above

All of the above

If there is a lesion on right side above the medulla at the pons, what symptoms would be displayed? Loss of Axial muscles on the contralateral side Limb muscles on the contralateral side Pain, Temperature, & crude touch on the contralateral side All of the above

All of the above

The 3 divisions of the visceral pathways are described as motor because they control what structures? All of the above Cardiac muscle Smooth muscle Glandular secretory cells

All of the above

What types of ion channels are found in the membranes of neurons? Voltage-gated channels Ligand-gated channels All of the above Passive channels

All of the above

cn&tn:Where is CN III located? Interpeduncular fossa Above the pons All of the above Midbrain

All of the above

st:All of the following are functions of gap junctions in the nervous tissue except: Allow for chemical synapse connections Ensure cells that are coupled develop synchronously Couple neurons Control of capillary beds

Allow for chemical synapse connections

Which of the following is true regarding spatial summation of postsynaptic potentials? The convergence of a depolarizing and hyperpolarizing graded potential can double the effect Relies on the frequency of incoming action potentials Allows for EPSPs or IPSPs to be combined to produce a greater depolarization or hyperpolarization It occurs at a single synapse

Allows for EPSPs or IPSPs to be combined to produce a greater depolarization or hyperpolarization

Which muscle spindles respond to brief stretch or vibration? Annulospiral afferents Flower Spray endings Nuclear chain fibers

Annulospiral afferents

Sct&l: Which sensory spinal tract is responsible for crude touch, pain, and temperature? Corticospinal tract Anterolateral System Spinocerebellar tract Dorsal column-medial lemniscal system

Anterolateral System

Ventral roots leave from which surface feature of the spinal cord? Anterior Median Fissure Posterior Median Fissure Anterolateral sulcus

Anterolateral sulcus

sca; Which surface feature of the spinal cord is the location where ventral roots exit? Anterior median fissure Anterolateral fissure Anterolateral sulcus Posterolateral sulcus

Anterolateral sulcus

What happens during myasthenia gravis? Antibodies attack the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, causing acetylcholine to be unable to attach to the receptors and is instead broken down. There is a lesion in the ventral root of the spinal nerve disrupting motor innervation of the muscles. The bouton of the neuron does not release enough acetylcholine, causing less muscle contraction. The acetylcholinesterase in the motor end plate is inhibited, resulting in excessive amounts of acetylcholine attaching to receptors and muscle contraction to persist (spasticity).

Antibodies attack the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, causing acetylcholine to be unable to attach to the receptors and is instead broken down.

Which of the following structures allows for CSF to return to the heart? Anterior clinoid process Subarachnoid cisterns Sella turcica Arachnoid granulation

Arachnoid granulation

From the subarachnoid space, CSF drains into the dural venous sinuses via what structure? Cerebral aqueduct Arachnoid granulations 3rd Ventricle Arachnoid trabeculae

Arachnoid granulations

Through what structure do the venous sinuses provide for drainage of CSF? Arachnoid trabeculae Nociceptive afferents Superior sagittal sinus Arachnoid granulations

Arachnoid granulations

cytology: Which two cells are responsible to regulating the extracellular synaptic environment in the central nervous system? Astrocytes and satellite cells Oligodendrocytes and ependymal cells Schwann and satellite cells Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

ans: Pain can be intensified or lessened by presynaptic facilitation or inhibition, respectively. Which of the following synaptic inputs is responsible for this? Axoaxonic Synaptic cleft Axodendritic Axosomatic

Axoaxonic

The averaging of graded potentials occurs in which area of the neuron? Initial Segment Dendrites Terminal end Axon Hillock

Axon Hillock

Which of the following is a trigger zone on a neuron? Dendrite Soma Axon Hillock Terminal Bouton

Axon Hillock

What can you assume from an axon that is not myelinated The action potential will now "jump" across the axon Axon conduction velocity will be slower Axon conduction velocity will be faster Nothing, conduction will be the same

Axon conduction velocity will be slower

Where in the receptor zone of the neuron is all received electrical input averaged together to potentially produce an action potential? Cell nucleus Soma Initial segment Axon hillock

Axon hillock

A 16 year-old woman was injured 2 days ago when a load of lumber fell from a shelf, pinner her left forearm. The following signs and symptoms are noted on her left side: She does not feel pinprick, touch, temperature differences, or vibration on the medial hand, little finger, and medial half of the ring finger Sweating is absent in the same distribution as the sensory loss Radial wrist extension and flexion and finger extension are normal strength on manual muscle test She is unable to flex the middle and distal phalanges of the 4th and 5th digits, abduct or adduct her fingers, or adduct the hand Where is the location of the lesion? Axonopathy of the ulnar nerve Axonopathy of the median nerve Axonopathy of the radial nerve Plexopathy of the brachial plexus

Axonopathy of the ulnar nerve

Specialized receptors in parasympathetic axons that are responsive to changes in arterial blood pressure are Baroreceptors Chemoreceptors Thermal receptors Osmoreceptors

Baroreceptors

cn&tn:Sensory axons of the glossopharyngeal nerves carry all of the following types of information from the ganglia of IX to nucleus solitarius except: Blood pressure Blood Oxygen Levels Balance and motion Taste

Balance and motion (this is CN VIII - vestibulocochlear nerve)

Differentiation of the neural tube into the basal plate eventually gives rise to all of the following except which? Motor neurons Basal nuclei Hypothalamus Retina

Basal nuclei

Aotb: Cortically derived axons such as corticobulbar, corticospinal, and corticopontine axons largely make up which feature of the brainstem? Cuneate tubercle Basilar pons Pontine tegmentum Midbrain tegmentum

Basilar pons

Olfactory epithelial cells are an example of what type of neuron? Pseudounipolar Bipolar Unipolar Multipolar

Bipolar

During the pre-embryonic period (0-2 wks) which structure attaches to the uterine wall? Epiblast Embryoblast Hypoblast Blastocyst

Blastocyst

Parasympathetic fibers are never found in the __________, while sympathetic fibers are never found in __________. Head; Limbs Genitalia; Cartilage Body cavities; Head Body wall; Nails

Body wall; Nails

Aotb: The medulla contains primary nuclei for autonomic control of: Blood pressure Neither Both Respiration and heart rate

Both

All of the following are true about GSE and GVE fibers except They both convey motor information GSE is a single neuron pathway while GVE is a two neuron pathway Both GSE and GVE terminate in autonomic ganglia GSE and GVE transmits information from motor neurons in spinal cord to the body musculature

Both GSE and GVE terminate in autonomic ganglia ONLY GVE TERMINATES IN AUTONOMIC GANGLIA

A patients CSF sample comes back indicating blood breakdown due to bleeding into the CSF. Which of the following is not an indicator of this condition? Brown colored CSF Yellow colored CSF Orange colored CSF Pink colored CSF

Brown colored CSF (bc brown = meningiomelanomatosis) so blood breakdown is indicated by yellow, orange, or pink CSF

What syndrome involves one half of the spinal cord damage? Brown-Sequard Syndrome Muscular Dystrophy Guillain Barre Syndrome Mutiple Sclerosis

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

What is the order of motor fiber types from slowest to fastest? B, C, Aα, Ay C, B, Ay, Aα Aα, Ay, B, C C, Aα, B, Ay

C, B, Ay, Aα

cnl: Deficits in this cranial nerve results in anosmia (smell blindness) CN XII CN I CN IX CN II

CN I (olfactory)

What spinal nerve goes in between C3 and C4? C4 C3 C5

C4

If I touched your thumb, what dermatome would that sensation correspond to? C7 C6 C8

C6

What range of vertebrae is the nucleus dorsalis (clark's column) found? C8-L3 C7-L1 C8-L2

C8-L2

Aotb: Which cranial nerve is the only nerve to exit the brainstem dorsally? CN III CN VI CN IV CN V

CN IV

cn&tn:What is the only CN of the pons? CN VI CN IV CN V

CN V

Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of mastication? CN VII CN VIII CN V

CN V (trigeminal)

Aotb: The pons contains which cranial nerves: CN V, VI, VII, VIII CN III, IV, V CN V, VI, VII, VIII, IX CN VII, VIII, IX

CN V, VI, VII, VIII

cn&tn:Which CN innervates the lacrimal and salivary glands? CN VII CN III CN V

CN VII (7 - facial nerves) remember saliva = face

cn&tn:Which two CNs are mostly responsible for taste sensation on the tongue? CN VII and CN V CN VII and CN IX CN IX and CN IV

CN VII and CN IX (facial (anterior 2/3rd)) and (glossopharyngeal (posterior 1/3rd))

cn&tn:Which CN allows for the detection of balance and motion? CN X CN XI CN VIII

CN VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve)

Preganglionic parasympathetic innervation of the viscera in the body cavities may be affected if what cranial nerve (CN) is damaged?

CN X - Vagus Nerve

cn&tn:Which CN exits as a series of rootlets dorsal to the denticulate ligaments? CN X CN IX CN XI

CN XI (Spinal accessory nerve)

cn&tn:Which cranial nerve would be affected if you couldn't shrug your shoulders? CN XI CN X CN XII

CN XI spinal accessory

Aotb: Which cranial nerve emerges from the preolivary sulcus of the medulla? CN X CN XI CN XII CN IX

CN XII

cn&tn:Which CN exits in front of the medullary olivary complex? CN XI CN XII CN VII

CN XII (Hypoglossal nerve)

cn&tn:Which of the following are considered "true" cranial nerves? CN- III-XII CN II-XI CN II- XI

CN- III-XII

cn&tn:Bella's eye is medially adducted and she is unable to abduct her eye. Where is the lesion? CN6 CN4 CN2 CN3

CN6 (Abducens nerve - responsible for ABDUCTION of eye

cn&tn:Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and hard and soft palates? CN9 CN3 CN7 CN5

CN7 (FACIAL = ANT 2/3RDS; CN9 GLOSSOPHARNGEAL = POST 1/3RD)

Blockage of which voltage gated channel will prevent the release of vesicles in the presynaptic terminal? Acetylcholine O+ Cl- Ca++

Ca++

pns&l:When commands are carried from the CNS to the peripheral tissue this is known as: Centripetally Centrifugally Alarplate innervation Sensory integration

Centrifugally

In what regions are the two enlargements on the spinal cord that correspond with limb innervation? Cervical and Thoracic Cervical and Lumbosacral Thoracic and Lumbosacral Cervical and Sacral

Cervical and Lumbosacral

What are the two enlargements called in the spinal cord? Cranial and Lumbosacral Cervical and Thoracic Cervical and Lumbosacral

Cervical and Lumbosacral

Myelin sheath, primarily in the PNS, may be affected by which hereditary disease that leads to demyelination, slowing of conduction velocity, and muscle weakness? Hydrocephaly Arnold Chiari malformation Lack of arachnoid granulations Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

v&csf: CSF is actively secreted by which of the following structures? Parenchyma Hypothalamus Blood plasma Choroid plexus

Choroid plexus

Which cells are innervated directly by sympathetic preganglionic axons and cause a generalized sympathetic response? Hepatic cells Renal cells Chromaffin cells Cardiac cells

Chromaffin cells (adrenal medulla directly from preganglionic autonomic neurons)

During an inhibitory postsynaptic potential which of the following ions hyperpolarize the cell by entering and leaving the cell, respectively? Cl-, K+ K+, Ca+ Na+, K+ Cl-, Na+

Cl-, K+

A child born without arachnoid villi will likely have which of the following conditions? Normal pressure hydrocephalus Noncommunicating hydrocephalus Papiledema Communicating hydrocephalus

Communicating hydrocephalus

Sct&l: Which of the following is the correct descending order of the lateral corticospinal tract? Corona radiate -- Internal capsule -- Crus Cerebri -- Basis Pontis -- Pyramids Lateral Funiculus -- Basis Pontis -- Pyramids -- Crus Cerebri -- Corona radiate Internal capsule -- crus cerebri -- Corona radiate -- Pyramids -- Lateral Funiculus Internal capsule -- Basis Pontis -- Crus Cerebri -- Corona Radiate -- Lateral Funiculus

Corona radiate -- Internal capsule -- Crus Cerebri -- Basis Pontis -- Pyramids

Aotb: The long tract of the spinal cord that is responsible for relaying motor information is Dorsal column-medial lemniscal system Anterolateral system Corticospinal tract Gracilis-cuneate system

Corticospinal tract

Which structure, located in the anterior cranial fossa, provides a point of attachment for the falx cerebri? Sphenoid limbus Orbital plate Crista galli Ethmoid bone

Crista galli

Aotb: Which of the following is a major efferent pathway from the cerebral cortex to the brainstem and spinal cord and is located in the basilar area of the midbrain? Corpora quadrigemina Crus cerebri Superior colliculus Inferior colliculus

Crus cerebri

Aotb: The brainstem receives its blood supply form the vertebrobasilar system. FALSE TRUE

True

What tract would be working properly if you could distinguish the touch of an ant on your hand? Anterolateral system DCML tract Lateral corticospinal tract

DCML tract (discriminatory touch)

Which of the following is NOT an effect of sympathetic activity? Decrease sweating Decrease blood to abdominal viscera Increase heart rate Increase blood glucose levels

Decrease sweating

Arnold-Chiari malformation can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT which? May yield syringomyelia May yield hydrocephaly Defect that involves the posterior neuropore Cerebellar vermis herniation

Defect that involves the posterior neuropore (thats spina bifida)

Select the structure that is located between the spinal roots, is triangular in shape, and is responsible for piercing the arachnoid mater adding stabilization to the spinal cord. Denticular ligaments Lumbar cistern Arachnoid trabeculae Filum terminale externum

Denticular ligaments

Which dural reflection forms the roof of the hypophyseal fossa and surrounds the pituitary stalk? Falx cerebri Tentorium cerebelli Diaphragm sellae Falx cerebelli

Diaphragm sellae

m&cv: Which of the following dural reflections forms the roof of the hypophyseal fossa and surrounds the pituitary stalk? Periosteal layer Falx Cerebelli Falx Cerebri Diaphragma Sellae

Diaphragma Sellae

cn&tn:First order neurons synapsing in the spinal nucleus are conveying all of the following information except: Light touch Discriminative touch Temperature Pain

Discriminative touch (medial lemniscus pathway - sensory - this pathway synapses in internal acruate/ medial lemniscus) the rest is spinothalamic tract/anterolateral system (crude touch, pain, temp) and deccusate in spinal cord/spinal nuclei)

Which of the following is not an accurate statement about the tentorium cerebelli? Divides the supratentorial compartment Separates the cranial cavity Is a dural reflection Located in the transverse fissure

Divides the supratentorial compartment

Which of the following is not a characteristic of metabotropic synapses? Does not lead to the opening of ion channels Use of second messengers Slow synapses Activate enzymatic process

Does not lead to the opening of ion channels

All of the following are neurotransmitters secreted by the autonomic nervous system except which? Dopamine Epinephrine Norepinephrine ACh

Dopamine

Which spinal roots are typically sensory axons entering the spinal cord? Dorsal roots Dorsal Nerve Ventral roots

Dorsal roots dorsal = senosry ventral = motor

Which meningeal layer will determine how the brain is displaced with increased intracranial pressure? Pia Dura Dark Arachnoid

Dura

A patient complains of pain located at the back of the neck and head. An infection in which of the following areas can be a source of this pain? Inflammation of the Diaphragma Sellae Inflammation of the falx cerebri Dura mater of the infratentorial compartment Dura mater of the supertentorial compartment

Dura mater of the infratentorial compartment

Graded potentials that are depolarizing postsynaptic potentials are IPSPs Inhibitory in nature Caused by the opening of potassium or chloride channels EPSPs

EPSPs

Damage to what trilaminar germ disc layers or part may result in CNS and/or PNS malformation? Mesoderm Ectoderm Endoderm Epiderm

Ectoderm

cn&tn: Which nucleus is responsible for parasympathetic axons that innervate the sphinceter pupillae and ciliary muscles (control focus of lens)? Trochlear nucleus Abducens nucleus Oculomotor nucleus Edinger-Westphal nucleus

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

In sensory neurons the region closest to the receptor with a high density of Na+ channels is called what? Refractory period End zone Axon hillock Receptor zone

End zone

Parenchyma of the liver, epithelial lining of the urinary bladder, and epithelial lining of the tympanic cavity are all formed from which of the following structures? Notochord Ectoderm Endoderm Mesoderm

Endoderm

Which of the following connective tissue surrounds just individual axons? Epineurium Endoneurium Perineurium

Endoneurium

Which neurotransmitter is involved in the transmission and regulation of pain? Glutamate Enkephalin Adenosine Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

Enkephalin (NEUROPEPTIDE)

Of the following, which is not a benefit of ependymal cells lining the ventricles? Metabolites that pass through the ependymal cells into the ventricles can be used diagnostically Extracellular fluid from brain tissue into the ventricles allows for renewal of some metabolites and neurotransmitters Fluid from brain tissue through the ependymal cells is similar to lymphatic drainage Ependymal cells allows for communication between the ventricles and pia mater

Ependymal cells allows for communication between the ventricles and pia mater false, they don't

Which of the following cells is responsible for the formation of the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm? Hypoblast Hyperblast Epiblast Epithelial

Epiblast

Sclerotomes is the part of the somite that gives rise to all of the following except which? Tendons Epidermis Bone Cartilage

Epidermis

Which of the following connective tissue surrounds bundles of axons along with blood vessels supplying a nerve? Epineurium Endoneurium Perineurium

Epineurium

Which of the following is NOT part of the basal ganglia? Epithalamus Globus pallidus Substantia nigra Putamen

Epithalamus

Intrafusal muscle fibers may detect which of the following modalities? Extrafusal Muscle Stretch Muscle Pain Muscle Pressure Intrafusal Muscle Temperature

Extrafusal Muscle Stretch

Aotb: The superior colliculus has which of the following functions? Coordinate reflexes to auditory stimuli Eye movement Production of CSF Modulates contraction of extraocular muscles

Eye movement

All cranial nerves have typical dorsal and ventral roots. FALSE TRUE

FALSE

All spinal nerves that contribute to a peripheral nerve all have equal role in the innervation of the myotome. FALSE TRUE

FALSE

Aotb: The cerebral aqueduct is one of several paths of communication between the 3rd and 4th ventricle. TRUE FALSE

FALSE

Binding of neurotransmitters to receptors on a postsynaptic cell opens ligand-gated ion channels, locally changing the resting membrane potential of the cell and always resulting in depolarization of the postsynaptic cell. FALSE TRUE

FALSE

Graded potentials usually travel the entire length of long axons FALSE TRUE

FALSE

Preganglionic sympathetic axons that innervate pelvic organs synapse in paravertebral ganglia before innervating the organs. TRUE FALSE

FALSE synapse in autonomic ganglia

Small neurotransmitters, such as ACh, are degraded after use and not recycled? FALSE TRUE

FALSE (acetylcholinerserase recycles)

Neurons decussate at the Anterior White Commissure in the DCML tract. TRUE FALSE

FALSE (at the internal arcuate/medial lemniscus)

Lamina IX contains small alpha motor neurons and large gamma motor neurons. TRUE FALSE

FALSE - lamina 9 contains LARGE ALPHA MOTOR NEURONS and small gamma motor neurons

Aotb: Each part of the brainstem is supplied by individual vessels that underlie it. FALSE TRUE

FALSE, vertebrobasilar innervates all brainstem activity

Cranial nerves typically have dorsal and ventral roots FALSE TRUE

FALSE; spinal nerves do

Synaptic vesicles are found in which of the following types of axonal transport? Quick Fast Intermediate Slow

Fast

A continuation of the pia mater that pierces through the thecal sac and extends caudally to the coccyx enclosed in dura is the Filum terminale externum Filum terminale internum Denticulate ligament Conus medullaris

Filum terminale externum

cn&tn:What is the function of the Ciliary muscles? Focuses the lens Lifts the eyelid Constricts the pupil

Focuses the lens

Which of the following may help prevent dysraphic (incomplete fusion) effects? Increase protein intake Folic Acid Vitamin C Lactic Acid

Folic Acid

CSF flows from the 4th ventricle laterally into which structure? Foramen of Megendie Interventricular foramen Foramen of Luschka Foramen of Monro

Foramen of Luschka

Which of the following ventricles is most likely to be malformed and cause a blockage of CSF? Fourth Third Fifth Lateral

Fourth

Low levels of which fast acting neurotransmitter can lead to neural over activity? GABA Ach Aspartate Glutamate

GABA

GSA differ from GVA in that GSA is a single-neuron pathway GVA transmits information from the skin, muscle, tendons, and joints GSA neurons are located in the dorsal root ganglia GVA fibers convey sensory information

GSA neurons are located in the dorsal root ganglia

Which of the following nerve fibers are from mechanoreceptors and nociceptors of body organs and have cell bodies found within the dorsal root ganglia? gva gsa

GVA

These nerve fibers are from the mechanoreceptors and nociceptors within the viscera (autonomic afferents). Cell bodies of these neurons are found within the DRG, as well. GSE GSA GVA GVE

GVA mechanoreceptors/nociceptors are always gonna be VISCERAL; AND WE KNOW it is incoming system from wording (so A, afferent)

How are astrocytes connected to one another? Desmosomes Gap junctions Adherens junctions Tight junctions

Gap junctions

The most common type of electrical synapses are what? Gap junctions Connections Ephaptic connections Electrotonic synapses

Gap junctions

Which of the following is a gliotransmitter that can be considered excitatory? K+ ATP Glutamate GABA

Glutamate (primary excitatory NT)

The prevalent excitatory transmitter in the central nervous system is ________ and the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain is __________? Glutamate; Acetylcholine Glutamate; GABA Glycine, GABA GABA; glutamate

Glutamate; GABA

Rexed laminae are found within what structure? Ventral horn White matter Gray Matter

Gray matter

Which neurotransmitter is associated with sleep/wake cycles and the maintenance of a conscious state? Substance P GABA Glutamate Histamine

Histamine = sleep/wake cycles (biogenic amine) GABA = EXCITATORY T GABA = INHIBIOTRY NT SUBSTANCE P = TRANSMITS PAIN (NEUROPEPTIDE)

Which of the following is the primary "brain" center for autonomic nervous system regulation? Epithalamus Caudate nucleus Thalamus Hypothalamus

Hypothalamus

cnl: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of an upper motor neuron syndrome? Hypotonia Spasticity Hyperreflexia Babinski sign

Hypotonia (LOW TONE = LOWER MOTOR NEURON INJURY) hypertonia, hyperreflexia; babinski sign; spatisicity = UPPER MOTOR NEURON INJURY)

Which Rexed laminae are found in the dorsal horn? I-IV I-VII I-VI

I-VI (1-6); 7 is intermediate zone; 8-9 is ventral horn; 10 is central canal

cn&tn:What is the primary functional component of the 4th cranial nerve? Extorsion and elevation of the eye To excite the levator palpebrae muscles Abduction of the eye Intorsion and depression of the eye

Intorsion and depression of the eye

cn&tn:What are the cranial nerves of the medulla? IX-XI IX-XII VIII-XI

IX-XII (9-12) (12 is only cn of medulla to exit anterior to olive; 9,10,11 exit posterior)

What is function of the dystrophin protein? Important for K+ transport Important for afferent action potentials Important for muscular structure

Important for muscular structure

Where are the cell bodies of postganglionic neurons in the autonomic peripheral nervous system pathways? In the dorsal motor vagal nucleus Just outside of the autonomic ganglia In the autonomic ganglia In the basal ganglia

In the autonomic ganglia

An autoimmune disease that causes demyelination may yield all of the following EXCEPT which? Decline in the control of ionic environment of the axon Decreased in conduction velocity Inhibition of saltatory conduction Inability to fire an action potential

Inability to fire an action potential

Which of the following is least likely to occur with a rapid decrease in CSF? Arachnoid trabeculae damage due to decreased buoyancy Increased waste removal Decreased nutrient delivery Decreased ability for the dural venous sinuses to compensate for increased arterial pressure

Increased waste removal

Aotb: The major nucleus of the midbrain that forms a relay station of the auditory pathways from the cochlea to the cerebral cortex is the Inferior colliculus Superior colliculus Crus cerebri Corpora quadrigemina

Inferior colliculus

An action potential from which of the following sites are unidirectional? Axon terminal Terminal bouton Axon hillock Initial segment

Initial segment

itcns: An action potential starts and ends at what two structures located on an axon? Initial segment to Terminal bouton Initial segment to Nodes of Ranvier Presynaptic cell to Postsynaptic cell Axon terminal to Terminal bouton

Initial segment to Terminal bouton

cn&tn:Which is not a function of CN X: Vagus? Provides visceral motor to trachea, bronchi, heart, and digestive system Receives visceral info from baroreceptors in aortic arch Innervates the striated tensor veli palatine muscle Innervates the muscles of pharynx, larynx, and vocalis

Innervates the striated tensor veli palatine muscle (s.t.v.p.m. is innervated by the trigeminal nerve - CN V)

cn&tn:Which is not a function of the CN IX: Glossopharyngeal? Innervates the submandibular gland Receives taste sensation on posterior 1/3 of tongue Innervates the Sylopharyngeus muscle Receives afferent info from carotid body and carotid sinus

Innervates the submandibular gland (facial nerve innervates submandibular gland)

Sct&l:In which part of the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system pathway do the neurons crossover to the contralateral side of the spinal cord? Posterior Limb of Internal Capsule Ventral Posterolateral Nucleus Internal Arcuate Medial Lemniscus

Internal Arcuate (UPON

Which white matter structure serves as the major pathway between the cerebral hemispheres and more caudal structures such as the spinal cord? Pyramidal decussation Corpus collosum Diencephalon Internal capsule

Internal capsule

Which area of the intermediate zone is found in spinal segments T1-L2 in the small lateral horn and contains neurons that give rise to preganglionic sympathetic efferent fibers? Sacral autonomic nuclei Phrenic nucleus Interomediolateral cell column Clarke's column

Interomediolateral cell column

What is the main advantage of second messengers in the transduction system? It does not require energy It can stimulate multiple events in the cell simultaneously. It can produce postsynaptic effects that other receptors cannot It is a much faster process

It can stimulate multiple events in the cell simultaneously.

Aotb: Which of the following statements regarding the brainstem is false? It extends primarily from the hypothalamus to the spinal cord It controls heart rate and respiration It contains nuclei for most of the cranial nerves and controls heart rate It extends primarily from the thalamus to the spinal cord

It extends primarily from the hypothalamus to the spinal cord

Sct&l:Tommy has a lesion beginning at the central canal, all of the following may occur except: Segmental loss of pain and temperature bilaterally Blockage of the neurons that cross in the anterior white commissure Encroachment upon second order projection neurons It is a posterior cord syndrome

It is a posterior cord syndrome

The spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to which intervertebral level? C6-C7 L1-L2 T11-T12 S1-S2

L1-L2

Where is the caudal end of the spinal cord located in a newborn? L1 L3 L2

L3 (vs. conus medullaris in adults terminating at l1-l2 IV disc)

The dorsal horn of the spinal gray matter is composed of Lamina VII Laminae I-VI Laminae VIII-IX Lamina X

Laminae I-VI (lamina 1-6)

Carpal Tunnel is an example of _________. Symmetrical Polyneuropathies Localized mononeuropathies Symmetrical Monopolyneuropathies

Localized mononeuropathies

cn&tn:The optic tracts connect to what structure in the thalamus? Lateral Geniculate nucleus Medial Geniculate nucleus Ventral Posterolateral nucleus

Lateral Geniculate nucleus (part of thalamus; connect to optic tracts)

cn&tn:Which muscle is not innervated by CN III? Medial rectus Lateral rectus Inferior oblique

Lateral Rectus (innervated by abducens nerve)

Which Long tract has a motor function? Lateral corticospinal tract DCML tract Anterolateral system

Lateral corticospinal tract

Aotb: Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted primarily in which ventricle(s)? Lateral ventricles 4th ventricle 3rd ventricle 3rd and 4th ventricles

Lateral ventricles

Aotb: Which of the following describes the flow of CSF after it is secreted by the choroid plexus? Fourth ventricle--third ventricle--cerebral aqueduct--lateral ventricles Lateral ventricles--third ventricle--subarachnoid space--fourth ventricle Lateral ventricles--cerebral aqueduct--third ventricle--fourth ventricle Lateral ventricles--third ventricle--cerebral aqueduct--fourth ventricle

Lateral ventricles--third ventricle--cerebral aqueduct--fourth ventricle

cnl: Motor deficits to only the muscles of the lower face is a result of Lesion to ipsilateral CN VII Lesion to contralateral CN V Lesion to the contralateral facial nerve motor nucleus Lesion to the contralateral CN VII

Lesion to the contralateral facial nerve motor nucleus

Smooth muscles are regulated by what kind of ACh receptor? Cholinergic Muscarinic Adrenergic Nicotinic

Muscarinic

st: When comparing chemical neurotransmission to electrical neurotransmission, chemical is all of the following except: Less subject to toxins Less reliable Slower Allows for more complex information processing

Less subject to toxins so, chemical neurotransmission is LESS RELIABLE, SLOWER, AND ALLOWS MORE COMPLEX INFO PROCESSING than electrical neurotransmission

v&csf Which of the following is not a function of ependymal cells? Filters extracellular fluid entering ventricles Allows for ionic control Link between 3rd and 4th ventricles Production of cerebral spinal fluid

Link between 3rd and 4th ventricles

cnl: Lesions of an epicritic system produces Ipsilateral loss of temperature Contralateral loss of crude touch Contralateral loss of pain Loss of 2-point discrimination, ability to feel vibration, and ability to tell the position of a body part in space

Loss of 2-point discrimination, ability to feel vibration, and ability to tell the position of a body part in space (associated with dorsal column, medial lemniscus pathway)

cnl: Which is not a symptom of a CN V lesion Loss of general sensation in skin of forehead/scalp Loss of sensory limb of blink reflex Loss of general sensation in skin over mandible, mandibular teeth, and tongue Loss of sense of taste

Loss of sense of taste (present in lesion to CN 7 or 9)

A spinal tap to sample CSF is typically done in which of the following areas? Superior sagittal sinus Cervical cistern Inferior sagittal sinus Lumbar cistern

Lumbar cistern

Peripheral nerves are Sensory neurons within a single spinal nerve that innervate a muscle mass Composed of axons, connective tissue, and blood vessels Made up of 43 pairs of motor and sensory nerves Somatic motor fibers that innervate a specific area of skin called a dermatome

Made up of 43 pairs of motor and sensory nerves

For most neurons, which ion does NOT contribute to the resting membrane potential? Magnesium Calcium Potassium Sodium

Magnesium

Cranial nerves IX, X, XI, & XII can be found in which of the following structures? Pons Cerebellum Medulla Brainstem

Medulla

What part of the brain is the primary center for autonomic control of respiration, heart rate, blood pressure, and reticular formation connected with the spinal cord? Pyramids Olivary eminence (Olive) Medulla Oblongata Pons

Medulla Oblongata

After performing a spinal tap you recognize the patient's CSF is brown. What is this an indication of? CSF protein ≥ 150 mg/dl Hyperbilirubinemia Meningeal melanomatosis High carotenoid ingestion

Meningeal melanomatosis

A patient presenting with a form of spina bifida cystica that affects the meninges, spinal cord, and CSF would have which of the following conditions? Meningomyelocele Arnold-Chiari Malformation Meningocele (only meninges and csf) Occulta

Meningomyelocele

What are two examples of slow adapting mechanoreceptors? Meissner Corpuscles and Pacinian Corpuscles Merkel's discs and Ruffini's endings Meisnner Corpuscles and Ruffini's endings

Merkel's discs and Ruffini's endings

A toxin that acts as a neurotransmitter receptor antagonist affecting the second messenger system would likely interrupt which of the following synapses? Nicotinic Metabotropic Ionotropic Hypertropic

Metabotropic

Aotb: The cerebral aqueduct is associated with which division of the brainstem? Pons Medulla Midbrain Thalamus

Midbrain

Which blood vessel is a branch of the maxillary artery that supplies the cranial dura mater? Anterior ethmoidal artery Brachial artery Opthalamic artery Middle meningeal artery

Middle meningeal artery

The resting membrane potential of -70mV is kept by all of the following except which? Leak channels Modality gated channels High concentrations of anions inside the cell Na+/K+ pump

Modality gated channels

The neurotransmitter serotonin is broken down by what? Acetylcholinesterase Serotonin is not broken down since it is not recycled back into the presynaptic terminal Catechol-O-methyl transferase Monoamine oxidase

Monoamine oxidase

What is the area called when the boutons synapses connect with a muscle fiber? Motor Endplate Junctional folds Muscarinic receptor

Motor Endplate

What is the name of the specialized area where a nerve synapses with a muscle fiber? Bouton Junction fold Motor receptor Motor endplate

Motor endplate

cn&tn:What is the action of the superior oblique muscle? Moves the eye superiorly and medially Moves the eye inferiorly and medially Moves the eye superiorly and laterally

Moves the eye inferiorly and medially (depresses eye and intorts it)

Sct&l: Which of the following is true regarding myotatic reflexes? Opposing muscle groups contract in the same time, causing the muscle spindle organ to initiate a quick relaxation of the antagonist muscle group. Stretch in a muscle causes a reflex contraction of the opposing muscle group Muscle spindle output causes a reflex contraction of the same muscle that is lengthened. Nociceptive input results in a quick withdrawal from the stimulus.

Muscle spindle output causes a reflex contraction of the same muscle that is lengthened.

The two types of specialized stretch receptors in the muscle are None of the above Muscle spindles and baroreceptors Muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs Baroreceptors and gogli tendon organs

Muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs

Which of the following helps return the axon to resting potential (after hyperpolarization) by actively transporting of ions out of the cell? Ca++ leak channels Na+/K+ Pump Na+/Cl- Pump Voltage gated K+ channels

Na+/K+ Pump

Which receptors are targeted in a Myasthenia Gravis Dopaminergic Nicotinic Muscarinic

Nicotinic

Which type of receptor can be found embedded within the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle at the motor endplate? Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors (mAchR) Nociceptors Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAchR) Mechanoreceptors

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAchR)

Sensory information traveling in the sympathetic nerves can be classified as which stimuli? Touch Temperature Stretch Nociceptive

Nociceptive

Peripheral nerve damage causing the loss of appropriate response to damage or threatened tissue indicates damage to which type of sensory receptor? Mechanoreceptors Proprioceptors Nociceptors Thermal receptors

Nociceptors

Blockage of the cerebral aqueduct by a tumor may lead to which of the following conditions? Communicating hydrocephalus Noncommunicating hydrocephalus Normal pressure hydrocephalus Ventricular atrophy

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus

A reduction in catechol-O-methyl transferase could lead to a decrease in the recycling of which neurotransmitter on the post synaptic membrane? Serotonin Histamine Norepinephrine GABA

Norepinephrine

Which structure, formed in week 3 of the embryonic period, serves as the basis for the axial skeleton and eventually becomes the nucleus propulsus? Notochord Primitive node Primitive pit Trilaminar disc

Notochord

cn&tn: The somatic motor neurons of the Glossopharyngeal nerve originate in which nucleus? Inferior Salivatory Nucleus Spinal Nucleus Accessory Nucleus Nucleus Ambiguus

Nucleus Ambiguus

Proprioceptive input from muscles is sent to __________ and then relayed ipsilaterally to the cerebellum as the spinocerebellar tract. Substantia gelatinosa Intermediolateral cell column Nucleus proprius Nucleus dorsalis

Nucleus dorsalis/CLARKS COLUMN/ INTERMEDIATE ZONE INVOLVED IN SPINOCEREBELLAR TRACT

The nuclear group associated with laminae III and IV that receives non-noxious input via myelinated, large diameter afferents is Nucleus proprius Nucleus dorsalis Posteromarginal nucleus Substantia gelatinosa

Nucleus proprius

Aotb: The site of closure of the fourth ventricle and the beginning of the central canal of the spinal cord is marked by the Median sulcus Obex Rhomboid fossa Foramen of Magendie

Obex

cytology: Which neuroglial cells myelinate axons in the CNS? Oliodendrocytes Ependymal cells Astrocytes Schwann cells

Oliodendrocytes

Which of the following connective tissue surrounds bundles of axons? Epinneurium Endoneurium Perineurium

Perineurium

Increased vagus nerve activity that causes bradycardia of the heart occurs because of which system? Limbic Spinothalamic Sympathetic Parasympathetic

Parasympathetic

Postganglionic parasympathetic axons that innervate the head via cranial nerves are found in all these ganglia EXCEPT Otic ganglion Pterygopalatine ganglion Paravertebral ganglia Ciliary ganglion

Paravertebral ganglia

Sympathetic neurons that innervate the body wall and thoracic viscera can be found in which of the following sympathetic divisions? Dorsal root ganglia Celiac ganglion Paravertebral ganglia Prevertebral ganglia (associated with abdominal aorta)

Paravertebral ganglia

Over activity of neurons located in the substantia nigra may result in what disorder? Panic disorder Schizophrenia Parkinsons Depression

Parkinsons

m&cv: Which meningeal layer is adhered to the bony walls of the cranium? Periosteal layer of the dura Subarachnoid space Pia mater Meningeal layer of the dura

Periosteal layer of the dura

Cranial dura mater is divided into ____________ and ____________? Transverse sinus, Superior Sagittal sinus Falx Cerebelli, Diaphragma Sellae Tentorium Cerebelli, Falx Cerebri Periosteal layer, Meningeal layer

Periosteal layer, Meningeal layer

What type of cell moves between the peripheral nervous system and central nervous system to assist in injury or infection? Microglial cells Peripheral macrophages Satellite cells Astrocytes

Peripheral macrophages

Astrocytes can perform all of the following functions except which? Help form blood brain barrier Regulates ionic environment around neurons Phagocytize dead Scavenge K+ in the extracellular environment

Phagocytize dead (microglial cells do this)

The denticulate ligaments and filum terminale are specializations of what? Dura mater Arachnoid mater Pia mater

Pia mater

Modulation of brainstem control is done by all of the following structures except which? Pons Thalamus Hypothalamus D. Limbic system

Pons thalamus = sensory relay hypothalamus = control of body temp and hunger and thirst

Aotb: The ___________ contains part of the reticular formation and pontine CN nuclei V. Pontine Tegmentum Pontomeduallary Junction

Pontine Tegmentum

All of the following may remove or reuptake neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft EXCEPT which? Transporter proteins Post synaptic receptors Astrocytes Vesicles via endocytosis

Post synaptic receptors

Damage to which cranial fossa is most likely to cause damage to the foramen magnum? Superior Anterior Middle Posterior

Posterior

Sct&l:What section of the spinal cord contains ascending axons that send afferent neurons from cutaneous mechanoreceptors and proprioceptors? Lateral Funiculus Ventral horn Intermediolateral cell column Posterior Funiculus

Posterior Funiculus - sends info from mechanoreceptors and proprioceptors

Which of the following partially divides the dorsal columns? Posterior Intermediate Sulcus Posterior Median Sulcus Anterior Median Fissure Posteriorlateral Sulcus

Posterior Intermediate Sulcus

A practitioner wants to test the sensory innervation of the S2 dermatome of Ricky's lower extremity. What area would the practitioner test? Medial aspect of the leg Posterior aspect of the thigh/crotch Top of the pinky toe Medial aspect of the thigh

Posterior aspect of the thigh/crotch

Myeloschisis involves the inadequate closure of what structure? Anterior neuropore Cerebellar vermis herniation Posterior neuropore Arachnoid villi

Posterior neuropore (ALSO INVOLVED IN SPINA BIFIDA)

The Dorsal root entry zone is found at which surface feature of the spinal cord? Posterior intermediate sulcus Posterolateral sulcus Posterior Median Sulcus

Posterolateral sulcus

What kinds of receptors supply C motor fiber types?

Postganglionic Autonomic Fibers

Sct&l:Which of the following is not true of vestibulospinal tracts? Act to maintain upright body posture and orientation in space Arise in the brainstem Neurons are connected to the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear Primarily excitatory to flexor musculature of the extremities.

Primarily excitatory to flexor musculature of the extremities. vestibulospinal and reticulospinal tracts are actually primarily excitatory to EXTENSOR musculature; (correct answer would be rubrospinal tract)

Sensory neurons that bring information from the body into the spinal cord are commonly what type or neuron? Multipolar Bipolar Unipolar Pseudounipolar

Pseudounipolar

Aotb: The corticospinal tract crosses the midline at the: Pyramidal decussation (on medulla) Anterior (ventral) median fissure Pyramidal tract Posterior (dorsal) median fissure

Pyramidal decussation

Which of the following structures is stimulated by sympathetic axons? Sweat glands secretion Lens of the eye Cartilage Nails

Sweat glands secretion

A lesion on a spinal nerve is called? Mononeuropathy Plexopathy Radiculopathy Peripheral neuropathy

Radiculopathy

Adenylyl cyclase binding to a postsynaptic cell can produce all of the following effects EXCEPT which? Receptor deactivation Rapid receptor response Decrease number of membrane receptors Increase number of membrane receptors

Rapid receptor response

Cell growth, cell death, and cell movement may become dysfunctional if which of the following second-messenger system receptors becomes inhibited? Ach G-protein Receptor tyrosine kinase Nitric oxide

Receptor tyrosine kinase

itcns: Which of the following is NOT a function of the brainstem? Conveys information from the spinal cord to the cerebrum Responsible for coordinating movement Regulates vital functions Integrates information

Responsible for coordinating movement

Sct&l: All of the following are true about Brown-Sequard Syndrome except: Involves damage to one half of the spinal cord Results in paralysis and loss of proprioception on the opposite side of the lesion Results in loss of pain and temperature on the opposite side of the lesion Results in the loss of two-point discrimination on the ipsilateral side

Results in paralysis and loss of proprioception on the opposite side of the lesion (b/c this actually happens on same side of injury)

Damage to the basal plate as it develops may lead to issues with which of the following structures? Basal Nuclei Thalamus Cerebral Cortex Retina

Retina (remember - basal plate is motor based)

Aotb: The pons and medulla are derived from Rhombencephalon Telencephalon Diencephalon Mesencephalon

Rhombencephalon

The superior saggital sinus drains into what sinus?

Right Transverse Sinus

Which tracts mainly affect primary flexor muscles? Reticulospinal tract DCML tract Rubrospinal tract

Rubrospinal tract

Sct&l:The ___________ tract is primarily responsible for flexor activity in the arms and forearms while the _________________ and _____________ tracts primarily control extensor muscles. Reticulospinal; spinothalamic; rubrospinal Rubrospinal; reticulospinal; vestibulospinal Reticulospinal; vestibulospinal; rubrospinal Anterior Corticospinal; rubrospinal; reticulospinal

Rubrospinal; reticulospinal; vestibulospinal

An action potential propagates down an axon and appears to quickly jump from node (of Ranview) to node, and this is known as what? Saltatrory conduction Generated conduction Threshold stimulus intensity Propagation

Saltatrory conduction

Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes? Inactivate neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft Supply nutrients to neurons from circulation Help form the blood brain barrier Scavenge for Na+ in the extracellular environment

Scavenge for Na+ in the extracellular environment

An A-beta II sensory axon fiber supplies what type of receptors? Nociceptors Secondary muscle spindles Primary muscle spindles

Secondary muscle spindles

Acetylcholine is the major conveyor of information in the PNS, but which of the following is a function of ACh in the CNS? Affects mood Elicits learning Changes pain perception Selection of objects of attention

Selection of objects of attention

The confluence of sinuses channels venous blood out of the cranium, but which of the following does not drain into the confluence of sinuses? Sigmoid sinus Superior sagittal sinus Transverse sinus Straight sinus

Sigmoid sinus

Which of the following statements is true regarding somatic motor fibers? Terminates in autonomic ganglia Neurons located in dorsal root ganglia Single neuron pathway from spinal cord Fibers are autonomic afferents

Single neuron pathway from spinal cord

Fibers responsible for conveying information from the ventral horn of the spinal cord to the gastrocnemius are the Somatic motor fibers Visceral sensory fibers Somatic sensory fibers Visceral motor fibers

Somatic motor fibers (GSE) - innervate body musculature involved in motor activity.

dotns: Failure of the posterior neuropore to close may result in which condition? Neurulation Tethered cord Spina bifida Arnold-Chiari malformation

Spina bifida

Which of the following structures is not considered part of the brain? Cerebellum Cerebrum Spinal cord Brainstem

Spinal cord

What structures does the Dorsal ramus innervate? Lower extremities Structures of the back Anterolateral body wall

Structures of the back

Which of the following neurotransmitters, produced by the golgi apparatus, is least likely to be recycled? Purines Biogenic amines Substance P Acetylcholine

Substance P (neuropeptide) neuropeptides are the least likely to be recycled and are produced by the golgi apparatus

This nuclear group is the site of first order sensory processing and receives input from nociceptive afferents and collaterals from large diameter afferents Posteromarginal nucleus Nucleus dorsalis Nucleus proprius Substantia gelatinosa

Substantia gelatinosa

Aotb: The tectum of the midbrain consists of two pairs of bumps called the: Superior colliculi and inferior colliculi Colliculi maximum and colliculi minimum Ventral colliculi and dorsal colliculi Medial colliculi and lateral colliculi

Superior colliculi and inferior colliculi

Referred pain in this compartment is often felt in the face. Infratentorial Transverse Supratentorial Superior sagittal

Supratentorial

What is the correct sequence of chemical neurotransmission? None of the above Synthesis of vesicles to Depolarization to Opening of Ca++ channels to release of neurotransmitter Depolarization to opening of Ca++ channels to synthesis of vesicles to release of neurotransmitter Synthesis of vesicles to Opening of Ca++ channels to Depolarization to release of neurotransmitter

Synthesis of vesicles to Depolarization to Opening of Ca++ channels to release of neurotransmitter

Epicritic system = DCML pathway. T or F?

T

Lateral corticospinal = motor of limbs anterior corticospinal motor of axial skeleton (trunk movement, head movement) t or f?

T

T or F? Gap jcts are found in olfactory bulb, phrenic nuclei, and hypothalamus

T

choroid plexus produces 70% of CSF t or f

T

The spinal nerve exiting between vertebrae T2 and T3 is named T4 T2 T1 T3

T2 Until Cv6, nerve exiting between Cv6 and Cv7 is Cn7 (cervical nerve, not cranial nerve) (NERVE ABOVE VERTEBRAE) At Cv7, nerve exiting in between Cv7 and Tv1 is Cn8 (CERVICAL NERVE, NOT CRANIAL NERVE) (EXTRA NERVE to account for at Cv7) Starting at Tv1, nerve exiting IN between Tv1 and Tv2 is Tn1 (NERVE BELOW VERTEBRAE)

What dermatome is at the level of the nipple? T5 T4 T3

T4

An increase in the strength or duration of an excitatory stimulus to the presynaptic cell results in the release of greater quantities of neurotransmitter TRUE FALSE

TRUE

Which of the following is NOT true of the meninges covering the spinal cord? The pia mater invests the surface of the spinal cord, following its contours The dura mater is attached to the bone of the vertebral canal via the periosteal layer The epidural space contains fat, loose connective tissue and an internal venous plexus The arachnoid mater is an avascular membrane that forms a barrier preventing fluid and substances from crossing the membrane

The dura mater is attached to the bone of the vertebral canal via the periosteal layer (there is space in between)

ans: Which of the following is NOT true regarding the humoral mechanism of autonomic control (homeostasis)? It uses the circulatory system to respond Hormones are the mode of response Responses are slow to develop The effects don't last very long

The effects don't last very long HUMORAL MECHANISMS = slow and long lasting; neural mechanisms = fast and short lasting

epon: The amount of electrical force needed to balance the diffusion force is The equilibrium potential The diffusion potential The concentration gradient Described by the Goldman Hodgkin Katz equation

The equilibrium potential

Aotb: The colliculus that coordinates reflexes to auditory stimuli, such as attention to loud sounds, is: The inferior colliculus The medial colliculus The superior colliculus The colliculus minimum

The inferior colliculus

Which of the following is true of neurotransmission in the autonomic nervous system? The neurotransmitter used by preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division is acetylcholine Most postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division use acetylcholine Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons use acetylcholine, while postganglionic parasympathetic neurons use norepinephrine Both preganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons use norepinephrine

The neurotransmitter used by preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division is acetylcholine

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the one reason for papilledema? The optic nerve is easily compressed against the anterior cranial fossa The oculomotor nerve is susceptible to infections The oculomotor nerve exits the midbrain at a place susceptible to stenosis The optic nerve is surrounded by extensions of dura, arachnoid, and pia mater, and is susceptible to injury due to increased intracranial pressure

The optic nerve is surrounded by extensions of dura, arachnoid, and pia mater, and is susceptible to injury due to increased intracranial pressure

cnl: Which of the following is true regarding the gag reflex? The sensory limb is controlled by CN VII The sensory limb is controlled by CN IX The sensory limb and motor limb are controlled by CN X The motor limb is controlled by CN IX

The sensory limb is controlled by CN IX (glossopharyngeal)

Which of the following is NOT true regarding refractory periods? They allow a signal to be antidromic if stimulated in the middle of an axon They help to insure that action potentials are primarily unidirectional They are created because voltage gated sodium channels are still open A second stimulus can generate another action potential during the relative refractory period, if the stimulus is large enough

They allow a signal to be antidromic if stimulated in the middle of an axon

What finger on the hand corresponds with dermatome C6? Thumb 4th Digit 2nd Digit 5th Digit

Thumb

All of the following is true of nodes of Ranvier except: They are areas of depolarization They are myelinated They are separated in regular intervals on the axon. They have many ion channels involved in action potential conduction

They are myelinated nodes of ranvier are actually UNMYELINATED

Which of the following is not true of the perikaryon? They have a small amount of rough endoplasmic reticulum Can have direct synaptic connections with other neurons Can be stained with dyes that bind nucleic acids Contain the cell nucleus

They have a small amount of rough endoplasmic reticulum

All of the following are examples of astrocyte functions except: They help return potassium to the extracellular environment Assist in the migration of neurons to their appropriate locations during development Assist in neurotransmitter recycling Contribute to the blood brain barrier

They help return potassium to the extracellular environment

Why are neuropeptides not usually recycled back into the presynaptic terminal? They are too big to fit through the recycling receptors They need to be synthesized in the cell body regardless Their polarity is too high compared to the terminal so they are pushed away This is false, neuropeptides are indeed recycled.

They need to be synthesized in the cell body regardless

cnl: A lesion to the right hypoglossal nerve results in Tongue deviation toward the left side Dysphagia Tongue cannot be protruded Tongue deviation toward the right side

Tongue deviation toward the right side (same side/ipsilateral side)

Action potentials could spread up and down the axon if there was no refractory period. True False

True

cn&tn:What is the only CN that exits dorsally from the brainstem? Trigeminal Trochlear Facial

Trochlear

The Cuneatus Fasciculus and Cuneatus Nucleus are paired with ______ of the body. Left Side Lower Limbs Upper Limbs Right Side

Upper Limbs

Aotb: The ______________ is the open portion of the medulla containing the caudal half of the 4th ventricle, while the ________________ is the closed portion of the medulla containing the central canal (close to spinal cord) Pyramidal decussation; lower medulla Upper medulla; lower medulla Upper medulla; pyramidal decussation Lower medulla; upper medulla

Upper medulla; lower medulla

cnl: All of the following are symptoms of a CN X lesion EXCEPT Problems swallowing liquids Dysphonia Uvula points away from affected nerve

Uvula points away from affected nerve (SIGN OF CNXII lesion)

cn&tn:Which cranial nerves are found in the pontomedullary junction? IV-VII V-VIII VI-VIII

VI-VIII (6-8)

In the ventral horn, the neurons that innervate extensor musculature are located Dorsally Ventrally Medially Laterally

Ventrally (in ventral horn, neurons that innervate flexor muscles are located dorsally)

Fibers responsible for conveying information traveling from the spinal cord to smooth muscles of the gastrointestinal tract are the Visceral motor fibers Visceral sensory fibers Somatic sensory fibers Somatic motor fibers

Visceral motor fibers

Which channels, found on the terminal end of the neuron, cause vesicles to release their neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft? Voltage gated Ca++ Voltage gated Cl- Voltage gated Na+ Voltage gated K+

Voltage gated Ca++

The primary source of depolarization in an action potential is provided by Voltage gated sodium channels Na+/K+ ATPase pump Passive leakage potassium channels Voltage gated potassium channels

Voltage gated sodium channels

cnl: Which of the following is NOT true regarding the hypoglossal nerve? The hypoglossal nerve has only motor functions A lesion in the hypoglossal nucleus will have contralateral effects A lesion in the nerve itself will have ipsilateral effects Weakness of the tongue to the side contralateral to the lesion will NOT recover over time

Weakness of the tongue to the side contralateral to the lesion will NOT recover over time (it CAN recover over time)

What is the name of the branch that connects the preganglionic sympathetic nerve from the spinal nerve to the paravertebral ganglia? White ramus communicans Gray ramus communicans White mater decussation Ventral horn

White ramus communicans

Which of the following is not a result of plexopathy? Autonomic disturbances occur Widespread, bilateral motor involvement affects the limbs Loss of reflexes Sensory disturbances occurs in multiple dermatomes

Widespread, bilateral motor involvement affects the limbs

Which Rexed lamina is found in the central canal? VIII IX X

X

Dorsal ramus of the spinal nerve innervates the: Vental ramus of the spinal nerve innervates the:

structures of the back anterolateral body wall and extremities

pns&l:Diabetic Neuropathy is an example of..... Symmetrical polyneuropathy - involves multiple nerves affecting distal extremities Localized mononeuropathy - damage to a single peripheral nerve; ex) carpal tunnel = median nerve damage

symmetrical polyneuropathy

330-380 ML = CSF FLOW PER DAY t or f?

t

Lateral spinothalmic pathway = pain and temperature anterior spinothalmic pathway = crude touch t or f?

t

Where is the intermediolateral cell column found? T1-L1 T2-L2 T1-L2

t1-l2 clarks column/nucleus dorsalis = C8-L2

Sct&l:An upper motor neuron lesion may result in the Babinski Sign. TRUE FALSE

true (UMN = Babinski) (curl of toes)

The binding of norepinephrine to which receptor will cause vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle arterioles, and possibly prevent syncope when a person assumes an upright position?

α - adrenergic