Lab CE chem exam part 2
Which risk marker has both positive and negative cardiovascular risk integrated into its measurement? LpPLA2 Oxidized LDL Apo B-100/Apo A-1 hs-CRP
Apo B-100/Apo A-1
Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) are used to treat insomnia, depression, extreme apathy, and loss of libido. All of the following are TCAs, EXCEPT? Imipramine Doxepin Clozapine Amitriptyline
Clozapine
Which dye-binding method uses an increase of absorbance at 595 nm to determine the total protein concentration of the specimen? Bromophenol blue Coomassie brilliant blue 250 Amido black 10B Ponceau S
Coomassie brilliant blue 250
An increased serum level of which of the following analytes is MOST commonly associated with decreased glomerular filtration? Creatinine Uric acid Urea Ammonia
Creatinine
Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation? Creatinine Ionized Calcium Folate Bicarbonate
Creatinine K, ALT, AST will also be falsely increased Others listed will be falsely decreased
Which of the following tests would be useful in the assessment of glomerular filtration: 24 hour urine protein Creatinine clearance PSP test Urea clearance
Creatinine clearance
If CSF tubes numbered #1, #2 and #3 CANNOT be analyzed within one hour, the correct procedure for the microbiology sample tube is to: Refrigerate it Freeze it Leave it at room temperature Incubate in a 56-degree water bath
Leave it at room temperature Tube #1 (chem) can be stored frozen Tube # 2 (micro) remain at room temp Tube #3 (heme) should be refrigerated
Which of the following is most likely to interfere with the measurement of hemoglobin? Leukocytopenia EDTA Heparin Lipemia
Lipemia
GGT (gamma-glutamyltransferase) is an enzyme found in many body tissues including the kidney, prostate, brain, pancreas, and liver, however, its clinical applications is confined to the evaluation of what system? Pancreas Liver Kidney Brain
Liver
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by: Increased pCO2 Hypoventilation Low pH High pH
Low pH
What are the two polypeptide chains that comprise the LD molecule? M and B L and D H and B M and H
M and H
Isoenzymes of CK include all of the following EXCEPT: MB MM MBM BB
MBM
An important metallic activator of alkaline phosphatase and creatine kinase is: Iron Zinc Potassium Magnesium
Magnesium
Lipase is predominately produced in what organ/tissue? Lungs Skeletal muscle Pancreas Liver
Pancreas
Glucuronic acid is used in the liver for conjugating what compound from hemoglobin degradation? Unconjugated bilirubin Conjugated bilirubin Urobilinogen Urobilin
Unconjugated bilirubin
The substance produced by the pancreas and released in the bloodstream to help glucose absorption by the tissues is called? Iodine Insulin Diabetes Ethanol
Insulin
Pernicious anemia refers to cobalamin deficiency that results from a lack of which of the following? Vitamin B12 Intrinsic Factor Folate Vitamin C
Intrinsic Factor
Which of the following cardiovascular risk markers is a more sensitive version of a test that is used to assess inflammation? Oxidized-LDL hs-CRP ApoB/ApoA1 LpPLA2
hs-CRP
A routine laboratory workup is ordered for an outpatient. The patient's lipid results are as follows: Total cholesterol = 295 mg/dL HDL = 30 mg/dL Triglycerides = 200 mg/dL What is the LDL cholesterol level for this patient? 225 mg/dL 65 mg/dL 365 mg/dL 255 mg/dL
225 mg/dL Total cholesterol - (HDL + Trig/5)
How long does it take for plasma concentrations to reach steady state when a patient's dose is given at intervals of the drug's half-life? One half-hour Two-half lives 5-7 half-lives 10-12 half-lives
5-7 half-lives
When performing a point-of-care test for glucose, what is the reference range for glucose? 30-70 mg/dL 74-100 mg/dL 100-150 mg/dL 50-200 mg/dL
74-100 mg/dL
The De Ritis ratio is the calculation of AST/ALT and is used for evaluating liver disease. What should the ratio be when ethanol-related liver disease is expected? <1.0 1.0 -2.0 >2.0 The De Ritis ratio is not used for liver disease
>2.0
What type of chemical is lithium? An anionic metal A synthetic salt A cationic metal A naturally-occurring salt
A cationic metal
What are the expected results of the laboratory markers in iron deficiency anemia? A. Decreased serum iron, increased transferrin, decreased ferritin, decreased percent saturation, and increased total iron-binding capacity. B. Decreased serum iron, decreased transferrin, decreased ferritin, variable percent saturation, and decreased total iron-binding capacity. C. Decreased serum iron, decreased transferrin, increased ferritin, decreased percent saturation, and decreased total iron-binding capacity. D. Decreased serum iron, normal or decreased transferrin, normal or increased ferritin, decreased percent saturation, and normal or decreased total iron-binding capacity.
A. Decreased serum iron, increased transferrin, decreased ferritin, decreased percent saturation, and increased total iron-binding capacity.
Which of the following would you find in a primary hyperparathyroidism case? A. Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus B. Elevated serum calcium and elevated serum phosphorus C. Decreased serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus D. Decreased serum calcium and increased serum phosphorus
A. Elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus
Which one of the following statements about thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is true? A. It is decreased in hyperthyroidism. B. It is decreased in hypothyroidism. C. A sensitive TSH assay is not a good screening test for thyroid function. D. Diffuse toxic goiter is associated with elevated TSH levels.
A. It is decreased in hyperthyroidism.
Which of the following describes gastrin's role in digestion? A. Stimulates gastric acid-HCl secretion B. Stimulates secretion of a base to lower the stomach's pH C. Is secreted when the gastric fluid pH is low to buffer fluid D. Inhibits the secretion of intrinsic factor
A. Stimulates gastric acid-HCl secretion
Serum TSH levels five times the upper limit of normal in the presence of a low T4 and low T3 uptake could mean which of the following? A. The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism. B. The thyroid is ruled out as the cause of hypothyroidism. C. The pituitary has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism. D. The diagnosis is consistent with secondary hyperthyroidism.
A. The thyroid has been established as the cause of hypothyroidism.
A 17-year old African-American male had the following laboratory results: Sickle cell screen = positive Hemoglobin Electrophoresis: Hb S = 40% Hb A = 58% HbA2 = 2% Which of the following is the PROBABLE hemoglobin genotype? SS AS SC AC
AS
The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? Accurately identifies the presence of disease Accurately identifies the absence of disease Has many false-positives Has few false-negatives
Accurately identifies the absence of disease
ß-hydroxybutyric acid is formed as the result of an accumulation of which of the following? Acetyl-CoA Oxaloacetic acid Acetoacetic acid Sodium nitroprusside
Acetyl-CoA
What is the term used to describe cardiac tissue death due to lack of oxygen caused by obstruction of circulation? Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) Angina Congestive heart failure (CHF) Myocardial ischemia
Acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
Which adipokine is decreased in obesity, is anti-inflammatory, and increases insulin sensitivity? Leptin Resistin TNF-a Adiponectin
Adiponectin
Which one of the following usually shows a decrease during an acute phase response? Albumin Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Fibrinogen Ceruloplasmin
Albumin Is a "negative" acute phase protein along with transferrin and transthyretin All the others listed are "positive"
What is the effect of aging on the hormones of the endocrine system? Aldosterone decreases and norepinephrine increases Aldosterone increases and norepinephrine increases Aldosterone decreases and norepinephrine decreases Aldosterone increases and norepinephrine decreases
Aldosterone decreases and norepinephrine increases
All of the following laboratory tests are used to determine kidney function, EXCEPT? Creatinine Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Amylase Phosphorus
Amylase Renal panel includes all listed and more, except amylase = pancreatitis
Which of the following statements is true concerning apolipoproteins? A. All lipoprotein particles contain the same apolipoproteins. B. Apolipoproteins are essential for lipid metabolism. C. Apolipoproteins are the reason lipoproteins are atherogenic. D. Apolipoproteins are a type of cholesterol.
B. Apolipoproteins are essential for lipid metabolism.
The properties of enzymes are CORRECTLY described by which of the following statements? A. Enzyme activity is not altered by heat denaturation. B. Enzymes are protein catalysts of biological origin. C. Enzymes are stable proteins and unaffected by pH changes. D. Enzymes affect the rate of a chemical reaction by raising the activation energy needed.
B. Enzymes are protein catalysts of biological origin.
The results which would be MOST consistent with macroamylasemia are? A. Normal serum amylase and elevated urine amylase values B. Increased serum amylase and normal to low urine amylase values C. Increased serum and increased urine amylase values D. Normal serum and normal urine amylase values
B. Increased serum amylase and normal to low urine amylase values
A characteristic of a good cardiac biomarker is that: A. It can be detected only if it is present in a HIGH concentration in the peripheral blood. B. It can be detected even if it is present in a LOW concentration in the peripheral blood. C. It can be detected only if it is present in a HIGH concentration in urine. D. It can be detected even if it is present in a LOW concentration in urine.
B. It can be detected even if it is present in a LOW concentration in the peripheral blood.
You are collecting a blood specimen to be used for forensic (legal) alcohol testing. Which of the following must be done before you can start the specimen collection process? A. Label the tubes in the presence of the patient. B. Must inform the patient that the blood about to be collected is for alcohol testing. C. Seal the collection tubes in front of the patient. D. Collect the specimen, the patient does not need to be informed what the blood is collected for.
B. Must inform the patient that the blood about to be collected is for alcohol testing.
Which of the following factors would least affect an orally administered drug's absorption and/or distribution in the body? A. Regional blood flow B. The position of the patient when the drug is taken (sitting vs. standing) C. The integrity of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract D. The patient's age
B. The position of the patient when the drug is taken (sitting vs. standing)
Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) activity is derived from all of the following organs EXCEPT: Bone Intestine Placenta Brain
Brain
Estrogen (ERs) and progesterone (PRs) receptors used as tumor markers are most commonly employed to provide prognostic information about: Breast cancer Uterine cancer Menopause Cervical cancer
Breast cancer
Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiovascular disease and adipose tissue? A. Obesity in metabolic syndrome contributes to the development of cardiovascular disease by increased synthesis and secretion of adiponectin B. Increased synthesis and secretion of PAI-1 in metabolic syndrome contributes to cardiovascular disease by increasing blood pressure C. A state of abnormal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease D. Obesity in metabolic syndrome contributes to the development of cardiovascular disease by increased synthesis and secretion of immunoglobulins
C. A state of abnormal lipids and lipid levels found in metabolic syndrome contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease
Cyclosporine and tacrolimus (both immunosuppressive drugs) have multiple therapeutic ranges, why? A. There is no therapeutic range established for either. B. Because of the slow uptake of the medications by tissues. C. Because both drugs have ranges dependent on the organ transplanted and the time after transplantation. D. Because of the short half-lives of the drugs.
C. Because both drugs have ranges dependent on the organ transplanted and the time after transplantation.
The measurement of sodium and chloride in the sweat is the most useful test for the diagnosis of what condition/disease? A. Steatorrhea B. Direct determination of the exocrine secretory capacity of the pancreas. C. Cystic fibrosis D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
C. Cystic fibrosis
What is the role of albuminuria testing? A. Monitor diabetic patient carbohydrate management. B. Detect serum albumin levels in early renal disease. C. Detect small urinary concentrations of albumin before there is irreparable renal damage. D. Diagnose renal failure in a type 1 diabetic patient.
C. Detect small urinary concentrations of albumin before there is irreparable renal damage.
All of the following statements about fluorometry are true, EXCEPT: A. Fluorometry is more sensitive than spectrophotometry. B. Both excitation and emission spectra are characteristics of the analyte. C. Fluorescence is indirectly proportional to the analyte being measured. D. Fluorometers typically utilize monochromators or optical filters.
C. Fluorescence is indirectly proportional to the analyte being measured.
Which one of the following statements about urea is false? A. It accounts for 75% of nonprotein nitrogen excreted B. It is elevated in a variety of glomerular, tubular, interstitial, and vascular renal diseases C. It is decreased in dehydration D. The serum reference range for normal individuals is 6 to 20 mg/dL when expressed as blood urea nitrogen
C. It is decreased in dehydration It is increased in dehydration
What is the purpose of the BNP test? A. Determines the amount of urea in blood. B. Evaluates abnormalities in the extrinsic coagulation pathway and monitors coumarin therapy. C. Rules out acute heart failure in the emergency setting. D. Evaluates abnormalities in the intrinsic coagulation pathway and monitors heparin therapy.
C. Rules out acute heart failure in the emergency setting.
Which one of the following is the correct definition of isoelectric point (pI)? A. Buffer formation of a positively charged ionic cloud that can affect the migration of the negative ionic cloud of the sample B. The ability of a molecule to have both negatively and positively charged groups C. The pH where a molecule has a net charge of zero D. The movement of charged particles in an electrical field
C. The pH where a molecule has a net charge of zero
The following BEST describes serum hCG levels during pregnancy: A. Rise in levels throughout pregnancy B. Highest levels found at end of pregnancy C. The rapid rise in levels during the first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout the remainder of the pregnancy D. The slow rise in levels during the first trimester; rapid rise during the second trimester; slow decline during the third trimester
C. The rapid rise in levels during the first trimester; slow decline and possible level-off throughout the remainder of the pregnancy
A serum specimen for potassium testing is collected in a red top tube without a gel separator barrier. If testing is delayed by a few hours, how should the specimen be handled? A. Discard the specimen and recollect right before testing is available again. B. Discard the specimen and recollect in a gel separator tube. C. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as it clotted and serum should be transferred to another tube. D. There is no special handling procedure for this specimen.
C. The specimen should be centrifuged as soon as it clotted and serum should be transferred to another tube.
A patient suffering from Celiac disease and Crohn's disease (both inflammatory conditions of the GI tract) is given a new oral medication that has a narrow therapeutic window. Which of the following would be true? A. Oral medication is never effective for a patient that has these diseases. The drug must be given through IV. B. Toxicity in this patient is not likely since most of the drug won't be absorbed. C. Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed. D. Serum drug levels obtained 15 minutes after the oral dose should confirm the drug was absorbed.
C. Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) would be helpful to see how much drug has been absorbed.
While serum elevations are NOT generally seen in early stages, which of the following tumor markers are elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer? CEA and AFP AFP and CA 125 PSA and CA 15-3 CA 15-3 and CA 549
CA 15-3 and CA 549
Which of the following is true of C-reactive protein (CRP) when being used to assess the risk of cardiovascular disease? CRP levels are high in cardiovascular disease. CRP levels are not affected by cardiovascular disease. CRP levels are low in cardiovascular disease. CRP has little clinical utility for assessing cardiovascular disease.
CRP levels are high in cardiovascular disease.
Which three genetic variations in enzymes are most often linked to differences in drug metabolism? CYP2D6, CYP2C9 & CYP3A4 CYP6D2, CYP9C2 & CYP4A3 PYC2D6, PYC2C9 & PYC3A4 PYC6D2, PYC9C2 & PYC4A3
CYP2D6, CYP2C9 & CYP3A4
Which substance is used in the Jendrassik-Grof method to accelerate the reaction of unconjugated bilirubin with the diazo reagent? NADH N-butanol Caffeine-benzoate Acetic acid
Caffeine-benzoate
A patient with truncal obesity, hypertension, a ruddy/striated complexion, and mood swings has multiple elevated glucose values. A fasting ACTH sample is also elevated. The physician orders a dexamethasone test, which shows an elevated cortisol level (no suppression). What is the most likely cause for the patient's values and symptoms? Addison's Disease Cushing Syndrome Cushing Disease Diabetes
Cushing Syndrome
A 64-year old man lost 15 pounds, became weaker, and his face became fuller with a ruddy complexion. His laboratory tests revealed: Serum cortisol8 AM: 880 nmol/L, 138-635 nmol/L (reference range)4 PM: 828 nmol/L, 83-414 nmol/L (reference range) After these results, an overnight dexamethasone suppression test gave a cortisol level of 773 nmol/L. The MOST probable diagnosis for this patient is: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia Addison's disease Cushing's Syndrome Conn's Syndrome
Cushing's Syndrome
Iontophoresis is a technique used in the diagnosis of: Phenylketonuria Cystic fibrosis Pernicious anemia Addison's disease
Cystic fibrosis pilocarpine Iontophoresis = sweat test (Cl)
Which nitrogen base would bind with a guanine nucleotide in forming double-stranded DNA? Cytosine Uracil Thymine Adenine
Cytosine
Can you use an alcohol wipe to cleanse the venipuncture site prior to obtaining a sample for ethanol? A. Yes, as long as the site is completely dry before venipuncture B. Yes, you do not need to wait for the site to dry C. Yes, because the wipes use a different alcohol than what is being tested D. No, alcohol wipes must be avoided when testing for ethanol levels
D. No, alcohol wipes must be avoided when testing for ethanol levels
Deviations from Beer's Law are caused by: A. Very low concentration of absorbing material B. Polychromatic light C. Very high concentrations of substance being measured in a colorimetric reaction D. Stray light
D. Stray light
Zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by: Decreased intake and absorption Decreased intake and excretion Increased intake and excretion Increased excretion and decreased absorption
Decreased intake and absorption
When evaluating a patient for a suspected Wilson's Disease diagnosis, decreased concentrations of ceruloplasmin would be expected along with: Decreased urine copper Increased serum copper Normal urine copper Decreased serum copper
Decreased serum copper Wilson disease = decrease serum copper and ceruloplasm. Increase in urine copper
In patients with suspected primary hypothyroidism associated with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, one would expect the following laboratory test results: T4 ___? TSH ___? TRH stimulation ___? Increased, decreased, increased Decreased, increased, increased Increased, decreased, decreased Increased, increased, decreased
Decreased, increased, increased
Which of the following conditions is associated with a positive ketone test on the urine test strip? Renal calculi Diabetes mellitus Hepatitis/cirrhosis Urinary tract infection
Diabetes mellitus
Which condition is caused by deficient secretion of bilirubin into the bile canaliculi? Gilbert's disease Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia Dubin-Johnson syndrome Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
The function of the very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) is to transport: Cholesterol from peripheral cells to the liver Cholesterol and phospholipids to the peripheral cells Exogenous triglycerides Endogenous triglycerides
Endogenous triglycerides
Ninety-nine percent of lead absorbed in the body is taken up by what after absorption? Lungs Gastrointestinal tract Heart Erythrocytes
Erythrocytes
The National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) and American Heart Association (AHA) have created a set of parameters to define the presence of metabolic syndrome. Select the set of laboratory assays that are utilized in the NHLBI and AHA criteria for metabolic syndrome diagnosis. LDL-C, triglycerides, HDL-C, and fasting blood glucose Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, insulin, and VLDL Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C, and VLDL
Fasting blood glucose, triglycerides, HDL-C
Which of the following are terms used to describe storage pool iron? Hemosiderin and myoglobin Ferritin and hemosiderin Hemopectin and hemoglobin Apoferritin and transferrin
Ferritin and hemosiderin
The lecithin to sphingomyelin ratio (L/S) is used to assess: Fetal neurological development Fetal lung maturity Fetal viability Fetal liver development
Fetal lung maturity
Which type of kinetic reactions are reactions in which the enzyme is in excess and the substrate concentration is the limiting factor? Zero order First order Second order Third order
First order
Which of the following methods for long-term diabetic monitoring is recommended for patients with sickle cell anemia? Fructosamine Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) Both methods are acceptable. Neither method is acceptable.
Fructosamine Test of choice for monitoring diabetic control in pts with hemolytic anemias like SC anemia, thalassemia, and autoimmune hemolysis
Which represents peak 1 (closest to the cathode) in this serum protein electrophoresis (SPE) scan? Alpha-1 Alpha-2 Beta Gamma
Gamma
Which of the following conditions is associated with elevated serum uric acid levels: Cushing's syndrome Pancreatitis Hyperthyroidism Gout
Gout
Which compound normally contains the majority of the body's total iron? Hemoglobin Enzymes Myoglobin Cytochromes
Hemoglobin
An increase is total bilirubin with a normal conjugated bilirubin is most likely indicative of: Acute liver disease Hemolytic disease Post-hepatic jaundice Obstruction
Hemolytic disease
A spectrophotometric scan of amniotic fluid may be valuable in the determination of which of the following conditions: Neural tube defects Maternal hypertension Hemolytic disease of the newborn Maternal diabetes
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
A 45-year-old African American female has been diagnosed and treated for type 2 diabetes for the past five years. She maintains good control of her blood glucose with medication but does not exercise and has gained 12 pounds over the past year. At her next appointment, her physician orders hs-CRP along with blood assays to monitor her diabetes. Laboratory Result: hs-CRP 2.8 mg/L At no risk for cardiovascular disease Low risk for cardiovascular disease Moderate risk for cardiovascular disease High risk for cardiovascular disease
Moderate risk for cardiovascular disease hs-CRP <1 mg/L represents a low risk of CVD hs-CRP 1.0-3.0 mg/L represents a moderate risk of CVD hs-CRP >3.0 represents a high risk of CVD
Which of the following conditions is most likely when an oligoclonal band is seen in CSF electrophoresis without a corresponding serum peak? Lymphoproliferative disorder Viral meningitis Multiple sclerosis Traumatic lumbar puncture
Multiple sclerosis Oligoclonal bands are in gamma region on CSF electrophoresis
What is the term used to describe inadequate blood supply that decreases availability of oxygen to the myocardium? Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) Angina Congestive heart failure (CHF) Myocardial ischemia
Myocardial ischemia
A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute chest pain, but which of the following cardiac markers will be elevated FIRST if the patient had a myocardial infarction (MI)? LD CK Myoglobin Troponin
Myoglobin Myoglobin rises typically within 2-4 hours after myocardial infarction and stays elevated for days, with a peak at the 6-9-hour mark post-MI. Troponin is the next fastest to rise following myocardial infarction and can rise within 3-12 hours with a peak around 12-24 hours post-MI. LD (8-12 hours, 24-48 hour peak) and CK (4-6 hours with a peak at 24-36 hours) will also rise after MI, but are not as fast to rise as myoglobin and troponin.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is produced by: Adrenal cortex Adrenal medulla Pituitary Thyroid
Pituitary
A liquid ion-exchange membrane electrode using the antibiotic valinomycin is MOST selective for: Sodium Glucose Chloride Potassium
Potassium
The selectivity of an ion-selective electrode is determined by the: Properties of the membrane used Magnitude of the potential across the membrane The size of the membrane used Neural potential of the membrane
Properties of the membrane used
All of the following conditions would be associated with an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein, EXCEPT? Prostate Cancer Hepatocellular Carcinoma Viral Hepatitis Testicular Tumors
Prostate Cancer All the ones listed and pancreatic cancer are all associated with increased levels of AFP
Select the primary reagent components used in the Jaffe reaction for creatinine. Alkaline copper (II) sulfate Saturated picric acid and sodium hydroxide Sodium nitroprusside and phenol Phosphotungstic acid
Saturated picric acid and sodium hydroxide
Patients with Cushing's disease typically exhibit: Decreased plasma 17-hydroxysteroid concentration Decreased urinary 17-hydroxysteroid excretion Serum cortisol overproduction Decreased cortisol secretion rate
Serum cortisol overproduction
All of the following are quantitative methods for the determination of albumin EXCEPT? Serum protein electrophoresis Nephelometry Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation Colorimetric spectrophotometry
Sulfosalicyclic acid precipitation
Given the following laboratory results, what is the most likely diagnosis? HBsAg: Negative Anti-HBc: Negative Anti-HBs: Negative Acute Hepatitis B infection Susceptible to Hepatitis B infection Immune to Hep B due to past infection Immune to Hep B due to vaccination
Susceptible to Hepatitis B infection
How is the majority of urobilinogen that is produced daily removed from the body? Through urine excretion Through sweat Through saliva Through fecal excretion
Through fecal excretion
Which protein is also known as prealbumin because it migrates before albumin in the customary electrophoresis of serum or plasma proteins? Transferrin Transthyretin Retinol-binding protein Fibronectin
Transthyretin
Chylomicrons are primarily composed of: Cholesterol Triglycerides Phospholipids Proteins
Triglycerides
Lipemia in a fasting serum sample is most likely caused by an increase in serum levels of: Cholesterol Triglycerides Protein Phospholipids
Triglycerides
Which purine base is found in RNA and not in DNA? Thymine Guanine Uracil Cytosine
Uracil
The deficiency in which fat-soluble vitamin is associated with night blindness? Vitamin A Vitamin E Vitamin D Vitamin K
Vitamin A
