Law and Ethics

Quid pro quo

"Something for something"; a term generally used in sexual harassment claims, suggesting that career-advancing favors would be exchanged for something sexual

Five components required for a contract to be legal and binding

1. An offer must be made 2. The offer must be accepted 3. Am exchange of something of value between the parties much occur; this exchange is often referred to as consideration 4. All parties must be legally capable of accepting the terms; this capability is often referred to as capacity 5. The intent must be legal

Patient's have the right to (patient bill of rights)

1. receive considerate and respectful care 2. consult the physician of his choosing 3. expect confidentiality and privacy 4. receive information regarding his condition, diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis 5. receive all necessary information to make an educated decision regarding the course of his care 6. make his own decision if competent 7. refuel treatment 8. participate or not participate in research 9. receive continuity of care 10. obtain all lawful copies of his medical records

Law refers to the: A. Recognized rule of conduct enforced by a legal authority B. Policy used to charge people fees C. Patient's bill of rights D. Established standards of care

A A is the definition of law. Charging a fee, the patient's bill of rights, and standards of care are not law.

A physician who accepts payment from another physician for the referral of a patient is guilty of: A. Fee splitting B. Bundling C. Battery D. Abandonment

A A physician who accepts money form another physician for referral of a patient is guilty of fee splitting. The physician paying for the referral is also guilty.

Which of the following is considered an ethical issue? A. Allocation of resources B. Childbirth C. Electrical engineering D. Appendectomies E. Long waits for patients in physician offices

A Allocation of resources refers to the distribution of funds (money), organs for transplants, needed medical procedures, or other resources, which are ethical issues. Childbirth is a medical or natural process; appendectomies are surgeries. Electrical engineering is a profession.

The patient puts out his or her arm to allow the physician to cleanse an abrasion. This type of consent is: A. Implied B. Expressed C. Contracted D. Emergency E. Positive

A Consent is implied by the patient holding out his or her arm. Expressed consent is verbal or written. The only emergency consent is one that is "life or limb" threatening. The terms "positive" and "contracted" do not apply to consent.

Ethics deal with A. Morals B. Respondent superior C. Assault D. Customs E. Religion

A Ethics are morals and values. Respondent superior means the physician is responsible for his or her employees; assault is an attack or threat to a person; customs are traditions; religion is the worship of a deity.

Medical examiner cases involve: A. Deaths B. Births C. Communicable diseases D. Professional misconduct E. Respondent superior

A Medical examiner cases involve death caused by a criminal act or by violence, death without prior medical care, and death from an undetermined cause.

Failure to act in a manner that a prudent and reasonable person would under similar circumstaces is: A. Negligence B. Implied consent C. Breach of contract D. Fraud E. Abuse

A Negligence is an omission or commission of an act that a prudent and reasonable person would or would not do in similar circumstances.

A patient outcome resulting from the quality improvement process may be preventing: A. Illness B. An increase in insurance rates C. Financial loss D. Incident reports

A Preventing illness is directly related to the patient and quality of care; preventing an increase in insurance rates, preventing financial loss, and preventing incident reports are components of risk management.

All of the following are governmental agencies setting standards and regulations that must be followed by medical offices EXCEPT: A. The Joint Commission B. DEA C. IRS D. AARP E. FDA

A The Joint commission is the only nongovernmental voluntary agency in this list. The DEA, IRS, and FDA are all governmental agencies with regulations affecting the medical office.

An expressed contract is: A. Written B. Implied C. Reportable D. Sent via FedEx E. Illegal

A The definition of an expressed contract is one that is written or verbal and describes what each contractual party will do. A contract is implied when it is deduced by the parties' actions. Contracts are generally not reportable.How contracts are delivered is the decision of the consenting parties. An expressed contract is not illegal.

A medical assistant publicly criticizes a physician's diagnostic skills. This is an example of: A. Slander B. Veracity C. Breach of confidentiality D. Malpractice

A The definition of slander is a false or malicious statement against another. Veracity means truth; breach of confidentiality refers to releasing protected information without consent; malpractice has to do with specific damages to a patient. Battery is touching a person without consent.

What prohibits job discrimination for race, color,religion, sex, or national origin? A. EEOC B. FMLA C. ADA D. Equal pay act E. HIPAA

A The equal employment opportunity commission is the agency that prohibits job discrimination for race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. The FMLA involves family leave; the ADA prohibits discrimination against people with disabilites; the equal pay act requires equal pay for equal work; and HIPAA involves confidentiality in health care.

Examples of ethical cases affected by the law are cases involving: A. The right to die B. The use of synthetic drugs C. Endoscopy D. Licensure

A The right to die is an ethical issue addressed by the law in cases such as assisted suicide or euthanasia. The use of synthetic drugs and endoscopy are common practices. Licensure is required by states and comes under administrative law.

Written consent for medical care must be: A. Voluntary B. Uninformed C. Given for all procedures D. Done on a word processor

A Consent for medical care is voluntary permission by the appropriate party. Consent should never be uninformed, and written consent is not given for all procedures; for noninvasive procedures with low risk, implied consent is sufficient. Written consent may be in many forms and can even be handwritten.

The physician's office shares a patient's medical information with an insurance company. The physician's office did not have the patient's written consent. The office is guilty of: A. Breach of confidentiality B. Slander C. Abuse D. Breach of respect

A Providing a patient's medical information to an outside party without the patient's written consent is a breach of confidentiality.

A form of malpractice is nonfeasance, which means: A. Failure to act when duty is indicated, resulting in or causing harm B. Improper performance of an act, resulting in or causing harm C. Performance of an improper act, resulting in or causing harm D. Not charging a fee

A The definition of nonfeasance is the failure to act when duty is indicated, resulting in or causing harm. B is misfeasance; C is malfeasance; D and E have nothing to do with malpractice.

In cases of public safety: A. The laws protecting the general population usually take precedence over an individual's rights B. The AMA is often consulted C. A person cannot go in public with a communicable disease D. The government must uphold all patient's bills of rights

A The laws protecting the public safety take precedence. In instances such as contamination and quarantine, the rights of patients are secondary to the public safety. The AMA is not generally consulted in these cases, and very few communicable diseases mandate quarantine. The government is not obligated to uphold nongovernmental agencies' patient's bills of rights.

Subpoena

A court order requiring an individual to appear in court on a given date and at a specific time

Subpoena duces tecum

A court order requiring medication records to be brought to the court on or by a certain date and time

Release of Medical Records

A form signed by a patient or his or her legal representative allowing a health care provider to give medical information to a person or agency

Statue of limitations

A legal time limit in which a person may file suit or authorizes may file charges for a violation

Endorsement

A method of licensure through acceptance of a national exam score

Direct cause

A negative outcome resumed directly from the professional's actions or failure to act

Informed Consent

A patient's permission for procedure, given after receiving all the information necessary to make an educated decision

Registration

A process similar to certification in which an individual, after meeting the criteria of an organization, is listed on a state or national registry

Risk management

A process to routinely assess, identify, correct, and monitor any potential hazards or risks to prevent harm and loss

Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA)

Allows employees up to 12 job-protected weeks of leave without pay for family or medical needs

Fraud

An act of deceiving or misrepresenting

Nonmalfeasance

An action that avoids harm

Beneficence

An action that creates benefit

Upcoding

An illegal practice of billing more than indicated for a procedure by selecting a higher than appropriate code

Advance directives include a: A. Living memorial B. Medical power of attorney C. Notarized will D. Driver's license E. Medical examination

B A medical power of attorney gives a designated person the legal authority to make medical decisions for the patient. This is done by the patient while he or she is still competent to make his or her own decisions.

A tort is: A. A type of criminal law B. A type of civil law C. Exempt from the Good Samaritan Act D. A standard of care

B A tort is a type of civil law the deals with accidental or intentional harm to a person or property resulting from the wrongdoing of another. It is not criminal law or exempt from the Good Samaritan Act if malpractice is committed. A standard of care may be addressed in a tort but is not a tort itself.

A living will: A. Names the beneficiaries of the estate B. Is an advance directive stating the patient's decisions for medical care before an incapacitating event C. Must be drawn up by an attorney D. Is subject to estate taxes E. Allows a person to give away his or her belongings while still alive

B An advance directive is a set of instructions given while a person is fully capacitated. One type of advance directive is the living will, which states the health care desires of a patient. Advance directives have nothing to do with estate or estate taxes and do not have to be drawn up by an attorney. No will is needed for selection E.

A patient's implied consent usually covers a(n): A. Organ donation B. Electrocardiogram C. Blood transfusion D. Appendectomy E. Release of medical information

B An electrocardiogram is considered a common procedure in a medical practice and is generally understood to have little risk. Implied consent is sufficient for such procedures. The other procedures usually require expressed consent.

All of the following are examples of risk management EXCEPT: A. Ensuring the coffee pot is turned off at the end of the day B. Giving the patient an injection ordered by the physician C. Checking the emergency cart D. Reporting a frayed lamp wire E. Repairing a tear in the carpet to prevent tripping

B Ensuring the coffee pot is turned off and reporting a frayed wire are intended to prevent fire (loss); checking the emergency cart is intended to provide an appropriate standard of care if an emergency occurs (prevent harm and loss). However, giving the patient an injection is part of the prescribed patient's treatment. it is not considered risk management.

Which of the following conditions must be reported? A. Hypertension B. Hep B C. Hemiplegia D. Hemorrhage E. Anemia

B Hep B is a communicable disease that must be reported to the local or state health departments. The other choices are medical conditions that do not require reporting.

A patient is treated for a minor gunshot wound that he states was sustained during a hunting accident. The physician is obligated to report this as part of: A. Implied consent B. Public duty C. Mandatory counseling D. Standard of care E. Respondent superior

B It is the physician's public duty to report all gunshot wounds.

The strongest mandatory credential regulated by a state to practice a profession is a(n): A. Declaration B. Licensure C. Matriculation D. Acceptance E. Warranty

B Licensure is the strongest mandatory credential. The remaining items are voluntary and usually not issued by a governmental agency.

Medical assistants may be: A. Licensed B. Certified C. Accredited D. Reciprocated

B Medical assistants may be certified. They are not licensed by any state; therefore, reciprocity does not apply. Organizations, not individuals, are accredited.

Respondent superior refers to: A. A subpoena to come to court B. A physician's responsibility for the actions of his or her staff C. "Something for something" D. "Respond to your superiors"

B Respondent superior means "Let the master answer" and refers to the physician's responsibility for the actions of his or her staff

The Good Samaritan Act does not cover a health care provider who: A. Renders first aid at the scene of an accident B. volunteers to provide first aid at a charitable "fun run" C. Helps a person who has fainted at a sporting even D. Provides care to a person having a seizure in a restaurant E. Provides first aid to a person who has a heart attack in the health care provider's home

B The Good Samaritan Act only covers acts outside of the health care profession. If you volunteer as a professional, this is considered to be within the formal practice of your profession, and the Good Samaritan Act does not apply.

A valid contract must: A. Be paid in full at the beginning of the period covered B. Be entered into by competent parties C. Always be in writing D. Always cover the patient's family E. Always have a witness

B One of the five components of a valid contract is that all parties must be legally capable of accepting the terms to be competent. The other four requirements are: 1. An offer must be made 2. The offer must be accepted 3. An exchange of value between the parties must occur 4. The intent must be legal

Ethical issues are addressed in: A. Insurance codes B. Professional codes C. Billing codes D. Safety codes E. Tort law

B Professional codes, dating back to 2500 BCE, address moral behavior and ethics. The other codes listed involve medical office procedures.

Norm

Behavior or conduct that is valued and usually expected

A physician casts a fracture of the ulna incorrectly. This results in malformation of the arm. The physician could be charged with: A. Misadventure B. Malunion C. Tort D. Torticollis E. Battery

C A tort is accidental or intentional harm to a person or property resulting from the wrongdoing of another. The other choices do not deal with medical wrongdoings.

A typical patient's bill of rights includes the right to: A. Request free treatment B. Report patient dissatisfaction with the doctor to the medical asssitant C. Refuse treatment D. Sue the doctor for breach of contract

C All patient's bills of rights include the right to refuse treatment. A and Bb are not included in any patient's bills of rights, and D involves tort law.

Malfeasance is one form of: A. Misfeasance B. Nonfeasance C. Malpractice D. Malnutrition E. Malformation

C Malfeasance is performance of an improper act that results in or causes harm. Malpractice is failure to act or an improper act that results in or causes harm. Malfeasance is a specific type of malpractice. Misfeasance and nonfeasance are different from malfeasance but are also forms of malpractice. Malnutrition and malformation are medical pathology.

A communicable disease to be reported to the county health department is: A. Gastroenteritis B. Streptococcus C. Rubella D. Tinnitus

C Rubella, or German measles, is a reportable communicable disease. Gastroenteritis, infectin of the stomach and small intestine; streptococcus, a bacterial infection; and tinnitus, ringing in the ears, are not required to be reported.

The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to: A. Reward health care providers for stoppping at the scence of an accident B. Ensure physicians know first aid C. Protect health care workers from liability when rendering emergency care D. Avoid having to pay for first aid E. Encourage more people to go into health care professions

C The Good Samaritan Act was designed to encourage health care workers to stop at the scene of emergencies by protecting them from liability for civically damages.

The purpose of the Red Flags Rule is to: A. Have national holidays off B. Watch for Medicare fraud C. Guard for medical identity theft D. Check references before hiring

C The Red Flags Rule was enacted by the Federal Trade Commission August 2009 for the purpose of legislating certain businesses to implement a program to prevent, detect and mitigate medical identity theft.

A medical assistant could be held liable for the actions of: A. A patient B. The insurance company C. A coworker D. The court E. The hospital

C A medical assistant who knowingly withholds information involving illegal and, in some cases, immoral actions of a coworker could bee held liable. He or she is not responsible for the actions fo the patient, insurance company, or court.

A court order instruction the physician to report to court at a certain time and date is: A. Quid pro quo B. A contract C. A subpoena D. Consent

C A subpoena is a document that mandates a person to appear in court at a given time and date. Quid pro quo means "something for something," a favor. A contract is an agreement between parties; consent is permission to perform or do something.

Mandatory reporting is required in all of the following cases EXCEPT: A. Child abuse B. Unknown cause of death C. Alcohol abuse D. Elder abuse E. Communicable disease

C Alchol abuse is not considered reportable, whereas child abuse, death from an unknown cause, and elder abuse must be reported.

The physician performs an elective surgical procedure without written consent. The physician is guilty of: A. A bioethicist offense B. Breach of confidentiality C. Battery D. Endorsement

C Battery is touching someone without his or her consent. There is no indication that bioethics are involved or that the patient's confidentiality has been breached. Endorsement is one method for a physician to obtain a license to practice medicine.

Unbundling

Collecting higher reimbursement by billing separately for individual components of a procedure rather than for the procedure as a whole

Duties

Commitment or obligations to act in a certain moral manner

Two main areas of law

Criminal and civil

The "Four D's" are used to determine malpractice; the following are the "D's" EXCEPT: A. Direct cause B. Duty C. Derelict D. Defendant

D A defendant is the person charged with an offense, not an element for determining malpractice. The "Four D's" are duty, derelict, direct cause, and damage.

A patient calls to make an appointment and states the symptoms for the office visit. The scheduler says, "That sounds like the flu." The health care worker violated the: A. Code of ethics B. Patient's bill of rights C. HIPAA E. Scope of practice

D A person scheduling appointments has not been trained to diagnose. A diagnosis can only be made by a physician or mid-level provider such as a physician's assistant or nurse practitioner.

Consent for a person's own medical treatment may be given by a: A. 17-year-old university student whose parents are paying for school B. 16-year-old who has a baby but is not married and lives at home C. 21-year-old who has taken a narcotic pain medication D. 17-year-old who is in the Navy

D A person serving in the armed forces, even if a minor, is legally able to consent to his or her own medical treatment. In most states, a person 16 or 17 years old is considered a non emancipated minor if still dependent on parents. Someone taking narcotic medication is not considered competent because of the narcotic's effects.

A physician may obtain his or her license by any of the following EXCEPT: A. Endorsement B. Examination C. Reciprocity D. Registration

D A physician may obtain a license through endorsement, examination, or reciprocity. Registration is not a process for obtaining a license to practice medicine.

The AMA Principles of Medical Ethics require a physician to: A. Belong to the AMA B. Treat patient on Medicare C. Contribute to political actio campaigns (PAC) D. Report other physicians deficient in character or competence

D Article II of the AMA principles of medical ethics states: "A phycian shall uphold the standards of professionalism, be honest in all professional interactions, and strive to report physicians deficient in character or competence, or engaging in fraud or deception, to appropriate entities." The other answers may be implied but do not specifically deal with ethics.

The law requires a physician to report to the appropriate authorities: A. A person who has received a narcotic drug B. A physician who participates in genetic research C. A physician who conducts an abortion D. A person suspected of elderly abuse E. A person with cancer

D Elderly abuse is against the law and must be reported to the proper authority. Under normal circumstances, it is not required to report the activities listed in A, B, C, or E

A situation in which the very nature of the injury implicates malpractice is called: A. Slander B. Assault C. Defamation D. Res Pisa loquitur

D Res Pisa loquitour means "the thing speaks for itself" and is used in cases in which the malpractice is obvious.

The patient's bill of rights includes the right to: A. Choose one's own housing B. Respect from employers C. A fair wage D. Confidentiality E. An education

D The patient's bill of rights includes the right to confidentiality. A, B, C, and E do not address health care.

The purpose of law is to: A. Legalize cardiopulmonary training B. Provide jobs C. Benefit special interest groups D. Remedy wrongs

D The purposes of law are to regulate conduct, to punish offenders, to remedy wrongs, and to benefit society

Dr. Smith is no longer willing to take care of Mr. Watson. If Dr. Smith does not give Mr. Watson proper notification and appropriate time to find a new physician, Dr. Smith is guilty of: A. Violation of standard care B. Privacy C. Failure to act D. Abandonment

D When a physician withdraws from the care of a patient without reasonably notice or provision for another equally or better qualified provider to assume care, the patient/physician contract is breached and the physcian is guilty of abandonment.

The first medical code of ethics was written by: A. Hippocrates B. Socrates C. The AMA D. Hammurabi

D The Code of Hammurai was written in 2500 BCE. Hippocrates, Socrates, and the American Medical Association (AMA) wrote medical codes of ethics later.

Implied contracts

Deduced by the actions of the contracting parties

The "four d's" (used to determine sheathed a situation is malpractice)

Duty, dereliction, direct cause, and damages

A minor may consent for all of the following EXCEPT: A. Treatment of syphilis B. Abortion C. Birth control D. Treatment of gonorrhea E. Sterilization

E A minor cannot consent for his or her sterilization. A minor 12 years of age and older, in most states, may consent for treatment of sexually transmitted diseases, birth control, and abortion.

Informed consent requires that the: A. Patient have a family member present when the consent form is signed B. Medical assistant inform the patient of all possible side effects of the procedure C. Attorney witness the signature D. Physician treat the patient if it is an emergency E. Information provided is enough for the patient to make an educated decision

E E is the definition of informed consent. A family member or attorney is not required to be present. The medical assistant may inform the patient of side effects, but side effects are only a portion of informed consent and not enough to make an educated decision

Employment law is generally considered: A. Criminal law B. Tort law C. Bioethics D. Contract law E. Administrative law

E Employment law concerns administrative regulations for the workplace. Criminal law and tort law are not limited to a specific venue. Contract law concerns an agreement between two parties, and bioethics are not laws.

Which of the following actions is governed by criminal law? A. Giving an incorrect medication B. Discounting C. Not reporting suspected measles D. Telling a family member the patient's diagnosis E. Purposefully overcharging on a Medicare claim

E Purposefully overcharging on a Medicare claim is considered fraud and is therefore covered under criminal law; the other choices are usually considered civically offenses if charges are made.

A wheelchair patient could not use the medical office restroom because it was too small for the wheelchair. This office is in violation of: A. CLIA B. FDA C. OSHA D. CDC E. ADA

E The Americans with Disabilites Actt (ADA) mandates that certain workplaces, including medical offices, must provide accommodations for persons with special needs. CLIA is the clinical lab improvement amendments, FDA is the food and drug administration, and CDC is the centers for diseases control and prevention.

The medical office must comply with the regulations and standards of: A. AFL B. AAMA C. GOP D. AARP E. OSHA

E The occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) is a regulatory governmental agency; its mandates must be followed or legal actions may be imposed. The American federation of labor (AFL), the American association of medical assistants (AAMA), and the Republican Party (GOP) are voluntary special interest organizations.

Red Flags Rule

Enacted August 1, 2009 by the Federal Trade Commission to compact medical identity theft

Justice

Equitable distribution of benefits and burdens

Reportable incidents

Events or conditions that, by law, must be reported to a designated authority

Malpractice

Failure to act or improper performance of an act or performance of an improper act by a professional al

Nonfeasance

Failure to act when duty is indicated, resulting in or causing harm

Negligence

Failure to exercise the standard of care that is reasonable, comparably trained person would exercise in similar circumstances

Slander

False or malicious verbal statement made against another

Libel

False or malicious writing against a person's character or reputation

Vulnerable populations

Group of people who may be physically or mentally at risk for harm or exploitation (infants and children, the elderly, and the disabled)

HIPAA

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Misfeasance

Improper performance of an act, resulting in or causing harm

Defamation

Injury to a person's character or reputation by false or malicious statements

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)

Issues laboratory testing standards for facilities performing specified tests

Tort law

Laws dealing with accidental or intentional harm to a person or property resulting from the wrongdoing of others

Contract law

Laws dealing with be rights and obligations of enforceable promises

Administrative laws

Laws dealing with requirements and standards of governmental agencies

Medical practice acts

Laws established by each state to define medical practice, establish educational requirements for physicians, describe licensing and renewal procedures for revoking or suspending licenses, and prohibit non qualified individuals with or without a license from practicing medicine

Civil laws

Laws that govern crimes or wrongs committed against an individual or property; charges are brought forth by the individual or his representatives; compensation is sought

Criminal law

Laws that govern crimes or wrongs committed against society, an individual, or property in violation of an ordinance; charges are brought forth by the government; a fine or imprisonment can occur. Ex: Medicare fraud

Quality improvement (QI)

Measuring, improving, and remeasurig patient outcomes based on established criteria or indicators; formerly called quality assurance

Bioethics

Moral issues dealing with biologic studies, research, procedures, policies, and decisions

Ethics

Moral principles, values, and duties

Four forms of negligence

Nonfeasance, misfeasance, malfeasance, and malpractice

Non compos mentis

Not of sound mind

Contract

Obligation resulting from an agreement between two or more parties

Malfeasance

Performance of an improper act, resulting in harm

malfeasance

Performance of an improper act, resulting in or causing harm

Scope of practice

Performance of duties and procedures allowed by law, standards, and education preparation

Competent adult

Person who has reached the age of majority and is considered of sound mind and not under the influence of drugs or other mind-altering substances

fidelity

Practice if meting patient's right to receive competent care and respect, adherence to laws and agreements

Equal employment opportunity act (EEOA)

Prohibits employment discrimination because of age, color, national origin, race, religion, or sex

Internal Revenue Service (IRS)

Regulates federal payroll taxes

Administrative law

Regulations established and enforced by government agencies

Invasion of privacy

Releasing patient information to unauthorized parties without the consent of the patient

Law

Set of rules governing conduct and action that are enforced by a recognized authority

Advance directives

Special documents signed by the patient, witnessed, and usually notarized that state the patient's' wishes for medical decisions should the patient become incapable of making the decisions for himself or herself

Code of ethics

Statement, usually from a professional group, listing the expected behaviors of its members

Reciprocity

The acceptance by one state of a license that is issued by another state

Damages

The patient sustained harm from the negligent act

Duty

The patient/physician relationship was established

Dereliction

The professional neglected a professional obligation to act or acted improperly

Three types of civil law

Tort law, contract law, and administrative law

Standard of care

Uniform criterion established by an authority to determine quality or measure of health care or that is recognized as acceptable by usage

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964

Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitutes sexual harassment when submission to or rejection of this conduct explicitly or implicitly affects an individual's employment, unreasonably interferes with an individual's work performance or creates an intimidating hostile or offensive work environment

Consent

Voluntary permission given by a competent adult or legal agent of the patient

Medical identity theft

When a person seeking healthcare uses another person's name or insurance

Expressed contract

Written or verbal and describing what each contractual party will do

Tort

Wrongful civil act committed against an individual for which compensation is sought

Incident report

a form that is usually required when an event occurs in a health care facility that has potential to result in

Fee splitting

a fraudulent practice in which a physician receives money from another physician solely for referring patient to him or her

Covered account

a patient account that allows multiple payments or transactions

Implied consent

a patient's permission in which his or her actions indirectly indicate approval

Age of majority

age at which a person is considered an adult; this is state-dependent, but usually is 18 or 21 years old

respondeat superior

let the master answer

American with disability act (ADA)

prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in employment, transportation, public accommodation, communications, and governmental activities

Age discrimination in employment act

prohibits job discrimination for people age 40 years or older

Equal pay act

prohibits sex-based pay discrimination for men and women performing the same jobs

res ipsa loquitur

the thing speaks for itself

Battery

touching a person without his or her consent

veracity

truthfulness

Expressed Consent

verbal or written approval

Breach

violation of a trust

Abuse

wrong or improper use