LS1 Quiz 1 NURSING MANAGEMENT OF THE CANCER PATIENT
is a growth on the lining of the colon or rectum. Polyps of the colon & rectum are usually benign. This means they are not cancerous & do not spread. You may have one or many polyps.
Colon Polyps
Common polyp types include: • Adenomatous polyps - which may develop into colon cancer over time. • Hyperplastic polyp - which usually do not develop into colon cancer.
Common polyp types include: • Adenomatous polyps - Hyperplastic polyp -
Exams & Tests for colon polyps -
A large polyp may be felt during a rectal exam. Most polyps are found with the following tests: • Barium enema • Colonoscopy • Sigmoidoscopy • Stool test for occult blood • Virtual colonoscopy
The nurse understands that the American Cancer Society classifies all of the following as warning signs of cancer except: A. unintentional weight loss. B. a sore that does not heal. C. unusual bleeding or discharge. D. nagging cough or hoarseness.
A); The seven warning signs of cancer acknowledged by the American Cancer Society are change in bowel or bladder habits; a sore that does not heal; unusual bleeding or discharge; thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere; indigestion or difficulty in swallowing; obvious change in wart or mole; and nagging cough or hoarseness
Polyps may also be linked to some inherited disorders, including:
Familial adenomatous polyposis • Gardner syndrome • Juvenile polyposis • Lynch syndrome (HNPCC) • Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
overgrowths of fibrous tissue in the area of the ducts forming small cysts that develop & disappear quickly. Common between ages of 30-50. Cysts have no malignant potential however breasts that have cysts are more prone to develop cancer.
Fibrocystic disease of the breast
Uterine fibroids tx
Treatment is observation, blood transfusion or hysterectomy
in the uterine corpus that may appear on the broad ligament or cervix. They may be related to levels of estrogen & HGH. Signs
Uterine fibroids
Name Benign cell tumors
Uterine fibroids Fibrocystic disease of the breast Colon polyps Benign skin growths
Wilms' tumor (nephroblastoma) is a tumor that originates in the kidney. Is a malignant tumor of the kidney(s) with a peak age of onset is 2-3 years of age
Wilms' tumor (nephroblastoma)
Fibrocystic disease of the breast tx
aspiration of fluid, medication (Danocrine), analgesics for pain.
How are Uterine fibroids dx
by blood tests, palpation of the tumor, laparoscopy or D & C.
S/S of Uterine fibroids
hypermenorrhea, pain, backache, constipation, urinary frequency or urgency or intestinal obstruction.
Colon polyps Risk factors include: •
• Age • Family history of colon cancer or polyps
The nurse is caring for a patient who was informed by a physician following surgery that a malignant neoplasm in the colon has invaded nearby tissues. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates understanding of this information? A. "I have cancer of the colon that has begun to spread." B. "I have growths in my bowel that can be easily treated." C. "I have growths in my bowel that will have to be watched." D. "The doctor said there is really nothing to worry about."
(A); The patient should understand that "malignant neoplasm that has invaded nearby tissues" means that cancer of the colon has begun to spread.
7. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had chemotherapy and now is experiencing myelosuppression. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate during the care of this patient? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. Perform hand hygiene before and after patient care. B. Monitor and record vital signs. C. Encourage ample family visiting. D. Offer frequent turning and repositioning
(A, B); Myelosuppression is bone marrow depression related to chemotherapy. Neutropenia (_ neutrophils), thrombocytopenia (_ platelets), and anemia (_ Hgb and _ Hct) are limiting factors for chemotherapy. Within 7-10 days after a treatment, the patient is extremely susceptible to infection. Therefore, the nurse must perform hand hygiene before and after patient care (to prevent spread of infection) and monitor and record vital signs (temperature elevation and _ heart rate may indicate infection).
The nurse knows that which of the following types of cancer typically demonstrate a familial tendency? A. brain B. lung C. lymph D. bladder
(B); Cancers that typically demonstrate familial tendency include breast, colon, lung, ovarian, and prostate.
. The nurse is caring for a patient who asks about the current recommendations for monthly breast self-examination. The best response by the nurse is that: A. "Women older than age 30 should perform monthly breast self-examination." B. "Women aged 20-39 years should perform monthly breast self-examination." C. "Women older than 40 years of age should have a yearly mammogram." D. "Women older than 50 years of age should have a yearly mammogram."
(C); Women should begin performing monthly breast self-exam at age 20 years. From age 20 to 39 years, women should have a breast examination by a healthcare provider every three years. Women older than age 40 years should have annual breast examinations by a healthcare provider and an annual mammogram.
The nurse is caring for a patient who was seen by a dermatologist for a lump at the base of the skull. Following examination of the lump, the physician described it as a benign neoplasm. Based on this information, the nurse expects what type of follow-up? A. The patient will be scheduled for admission to the hospital. B. The patient will be scheduled for removal by inpatient surgery. C. The patient will be scheduled for removal by outpatient surgery. D. The patient will have the lump removed in the office.
(D); Benign neoplasms, by definition, are slow-growing, localized growths that are not malignant. They are usually easily removed—often in the physician's office with local anesthetic applied to the area. There is usually no tissue damage or other complications associated with these growths.
3. You understand that patients > 65 years are at higher risk for cancer because of: A. enhanced resistance. B. declining free radicals. C. living in warm environments. D. altered immune responses.
(D); People older than age 65 years are at higher risk for cancer due to hormonal changes, altered immune responses, and accumulation of free radicals. Additionally, age has been cited as a factor related to development of cancer.
11. The nurse is caring for a patient with breast cancer who asks about sites of metastasis for this cancer. The best reply by the nurse is: A. "Breast cancer does not normally metastasize." B. "Breast cancer normally metastasizes to the kidneys." C. "Breast cancer normally metastasizes to the bowel." D. "Breast cancer normally metastasizes to the bone."
(D); The nurse should tell the patient that breast cancer commonly metastasizes to the bone. If that occurs, the patient may suffer pathological fractures.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has esophageal cancer with metastasis. The nurse understands that metastasis implies which of the following? A. The patient will not survive more than one week. B. The patient will have to receive radiation therapy. C. The patient will probably die from the disease. D. The patient must agree to a regimen of chemotherapy.
12. (C); Metastasis implies a worsened prognosis with increased mortality. The patient with esophageal cancer with metastasis is likely to die from the disease.
3. A 45-year-old female received news that mammography has identified a mass in the right breast. The patient asks the nurse what this means. The best response by the nurse is: A. "The doctor will have to talk to you about the results." B. "The doctor will come to discuss chemotherapy with you." C. "The results of this test are very specific for breast cancer." D. "More testing must be done to determine what the mass is."
13. (D); Mammography is a cancer screening tool. A positive screening test does not imply a definitive diagnosis of cancer. The nurse should provide objective information, such as "more tests are required."
15. The nurse understands that a patient with colon or rectal cancer is likely to have which of the following clinical manifestations? A. hematuria B. flatulence C. weight gain D. vomiting
15. (B); Patients with colon or rectal cancer are likely to have changes in bowel habits, occult blood in the stool, flatulence, indigestion, weight loss, and fatigue.
The nurse is teaching a patient about external radiation for cancer. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates understanding about the frequency of this form of treatment? A. "External radiation is like an X-ray focused on the cancer in my body." B. "It is likely that I will have a treatment every day for about 4 months." C. "It is likely that I will have treatments 5 days a week for several weeks." D. "It is likely that I will have treatments 7 days a week for several weeks."
16. (C); The patient expresses understanding of the usual frequency of treatments by stating that treatments will be administered 5 days a week for about 5 minutes each day.
The patient is having preoperative external radiation. When the patient asks why this will happen before surgery, the best response by the nurse is: A. "The radiation will help to shrink the size of your tumor." B. "Radiation before surgery is the preferred method of your doctor." C. "Radiation may kill the cancer, and then surgery won't be needed." D. "You will need to ask your doctor about his treatment goals."
17. (A); Preoperative radiation may decrease the size of the tumor, which should increase the chances of successful surgical removal. It can also kill tumor cells beyond the surgical site.
The nurse is assigned to care for a client who will receive brachytherapy. The nurse understands this means that: A. the patient will receive chemotherapy via venous access device. B. the patient will receive intensive chemotherapy as an inpatient. C. low-dose radiation and chemotherapy will be administered jointly D. radioactive implants will be inserted into tissue adjacent to the tumor.
19. (D); Brachytherapy or internal radiation therapy utilizes sealed radioactive sources (implants) inserted into or near a tumor. This directed therapy allows a relatively high dose of radiation to be administered over a relatively short period of time. With this type of therapy, a high dose of radiation is directed at the tumor, and surrounding tissues receive minimal radiation and consequently suffer less damage as a result of the radiation.
The nurse is providing care for a patient receiving brachytherapy. In planning care for this patient, the nurse must: A. plan to spend extra time with the patient to provide emotional support. B. ensure that chemotherapy drugs do not extravasate into the patient's tissues. C. organize care so that patient contact is limited to one-half hour per shift. D. encourage visitation from family and friends to support the patient.
20. (C); In planning care for the patient undergoing brachytherapy, the nurse should organize care so that a maximum of 30 minutes per shift is spent in the patient's room. At all times during care, the nurse must keep in mind principles of minimizing radiation exposure: time, distance, and shielding. Exposure is directly related to time spent in close proximity to the source. Current recommendations are that nurses should spend no more than 30 minutes per shift in the patient's room. All staff caring for the patient must wear radiation badges, and nursing staff should be rotated to keep individual radiation exposure as low as possible. Distance is also important in reducing exposure to radiation. The nurse should encourage patient self-care activities as much as possible and should perform duties as far away from the patient as possible. The final principle for minimizing radiation exposure is shielding. If necessary, a shield can be placed at the patient's bedside, and most nursing care should be done from behind the shield. Lead aprons are not recommended
The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing extreme fatigue related to radiotherapy. When planning this patient's care, the nurse should do which of the following to aid in conservation of energy for the patient? A. Avoid entering the room unless absolutely necessary. B. Cluster patient care activities to allow for long rest periods. C. Ask the patient to ring the bell if he or she needs anything. D. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours for comfort.
21. (B); The nurse should cluster patient care activities to allow for long rest periods. This is the most effective means to help conserve the patient's energy. The nurse must be attentive to the patient's needs but should not constantly enter the patient's room because it would be exhausting for the patient.
The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with leukopenia. Which of the following is the most important nursing intervention for this patient? A. Wash hands before and after each patient contact. B. Encourage the patient to use an electric razor. C. Monitor blood pressure and pulse every 4 hours. D. Allow ample visitation to keep the patient's spirits up.
22. (A); The patient with leucopenia may be at risk for infection. Therefore, it is critically important for nurses to wash their hands before and after each patient contact.
23. The nurse is caring for a patient who will undergo bone marrow harvesting. The nurse informs the patient that the harvest will occur: A. under local anesthetic at the bedside. B. under conscious sedation at the bedside. C. under local anesthetic in same-day surgery. D. in the operating room under general anesthesia.
23. (D); Bone marrow harvesting occurs in the operating room under general anesthesia. It generally involves multiple punctures into the anterior or posterior iliac crest to obtain 500 to 700 mL of marrow.
The nurse understands that patient consequences related to graft rejection following bone marrow transplant include which of the following? A. The patient will die without another transplant. B. The patient will have relapse of cancer symptoms. C. The patient must remain in the hospital. D. The patient must receive continuous chemotherapy.
24. (A); If a patient suffers graft rejection following bone marrow transplant, another transplant must be done or the patient will die.
25. The nurse is caring for a cachexia cancer patient near the end of life. As a patient advocate, it is most important for the nurse to: A. discuss plans for enteral nutrition with the physician. B. encourage the patient and family to consider a PEG tube. C. ask about the patient's personal goals for end-of-life care. D. provide adequate amounts of artificial nutrition and fluids
25. (C); As a patient advocate, the nurse's most important job in caring for one who is near end of life is to ascertain the patient's goals for end-of-life care. This is important because the patient may or may not wish to have artificial nutrition or hydration. It is the patient's right to choose.
You recalls that some of the common early signs of leukemia are which of the following? A. pallor, joint pain, fever C. fatigue, alopecia, hemorrhage B. lethargy, petechia, splenomegaly D. jaundice, mouth lesions, hepatomegaly
26. (A); Early signs of leukemia include pallor, joint pain, fever, and anorexia.
27. The nurse understands that myelosuppression associated with chemotherapy can cause bleeding tendencies as a result of which of the following alterations? A. leukocytopenia B. lymphocytosis C. vitamin C deficiency D. thrombocytopenia
27. (D); Bleeding tendency occurs as a result of thrombocytopenia (_ platelets).
28. The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who is receiving brachytherapy. Which of the following system assessments, if performed consistently, can help to decrease patient suffering? A. gastrointestinal B. renal C. skin D. lymphatic
28. (C); It is critically important for the nurse to consistently assess the patient's skin for signs of reaction to the radiotherapy. These might include redness, erythema, and desquamation. The nurse should pay particular attention to areas with skin folds (axilla and groin) and should notify the physician of any signs of skin breakdown as early as possible. Prompt recognition and treatment will help to decrease patient suffering.
The nurse who is caring for a patient undergoing chemotherapy must be particularly attentive to monitoring for which of the following signs and symptoms of toxicity? A. crackles C. increased capillary refill B. increased urine output D. bradycardia
29. (A); The nurse who is caring for a patient undergoing chemotherapy must monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of heart failure and signs of decreased cardiac output. These might include crackles in the lungs, cough, decreased urine output, restlessness, delayed capillary refill, etc. Patients who have undergone long-term chemotherapy experience decreased pulmonary function as a lifelong effect associated with treatment.
You understand that a vital component of post-bone-marrow transplantation care involves: A. administration of analgesics for postprocedural pain. B. astute monitoring for signs of infection and bleeding. C. emotional support of the patient during recovery. D. continual marrow surveillance for signs of acceptance
30. (B); Following a bone marrow transplant, the nurse must be especially vigilant about monitoring for signs and symptoms of infection and bleeding.
31. You are caring for a patient who has developed stomatitis during chemotherapy. Which of the following clinical manifestations should you anticipate finding upon physical examination? A. an inflamed erythematous stoma on the anterior abdomen B. burning pain with swallowing and open lesions on the lips C. erythematous mucous membranes across the entire body D. inflammation and purulent drainage from the stoma
31. (B); The patient who has developed stomatitis is likely to have burning in the mouth, pain with swallowing, and open lesions on the lips.
32. The nurse is monitoring lab results for a patient who will receive chemotherapy. The nurse determines that the WBC is normal if it is: A. less than 3500 mm3. B. 4000 to 9000 mm3. C. 7000 to 11,000 mm3. D. greater than 11,500 mm3
32. (B); The WBC is normal if it is 4000 to 9000 mm3.
33. The nurse is reviewing results of tests done on a patient with multiple myeloma. Which of the following results is diagnostic for this type of cancer? A. impaired cognitive functioning B. peripheral neuropathy C. excessive melanocytes in the bone marrow D. excessive Bence Jones proteins by serum electrophoresis
33. (D); Serum electrophoresis reveals excessive Bence Jones proteins.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing chemotherapy. The nurse understands that the patient's risk of infection is related to results from which of the following laboratory tests? A. CEA B. PSA C. ANC D. RBC
34. (C); For the patient undergoing chemotherapy, the nurse must assess the risk of infection in relation to the ANC (absolute neutrophil count). An ANC of less than 500 is considered an indicator of serious risk for infection. The ANC is calculated by multiplying the WBC by the total percentage of neutrophils (polys and bands).
Ondansetron (Zofran) is administered to the patient receiving chemotherapy to: A. prevent nausea and vomiting. C. increase effectiveness of therapy. B. promote a feeling of well-being. D. improve renal function.
35. (A); Ondansetron (Zofran) is an antiemetic medication used in conjunction with chemotherapy to prevent nausea and vomiting.
The nurse is caring for a patient who will receive external radiation therapy. The patient asks the nurse why the ugly ink marks and tattoos over the area to be radiated are necessary. The best response by the nurse is: A. "The markings indicate where the technician should focus treatments." B. "The markings let you know the exact location of your cancer." C. "Exact markings are critical to limit damage to healthy tissues." D. "Exact markings indicate potentially salvageable tissue."
36. (C); The nurse understands that external radiation provides targeted treatment to the area of the body affected by cancer. Exact markings are critical to limit damage to healthy tissues during treatment.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving interleukins for treatment of renal cell carcinoma. For which of the following conditions must the nurse monitor the patient during treatment? A. capillary leak syndrome C. hypertension B. acute respiratory distress syndrome D. decreased cardiac output
37. (A); The nurse must monitor the patient for capillary leak syndrome related to interleukin therapy for cancer. Capillary leak syndrome is manifested by generalized edema, decreased urine output, and hypotension.
The nurse is caring for a patient who receives filgrastim (Neupogen) following a bone marrow transplant. Throughout treatment, the nurse should monitor: A. red blood cell count and transfuse as necessary. B. hemoglobin and hematocrit and signs of dehydration. C. for bone pain and administer analgesics as needed. D. bleeding time and avoid the use of sharp objects
38. (C); Patients will experience skeletal pain as the drug works to stimulate the bone marrow to produce white blood cells.
The nurse is caring for a patient who receives interferon alfa-2a for treatment of hairy cell leukemia. Throughout treatment, the nurse must closely monitor the patient for: A. depression. B. weight gain. C. elevated WBCs. D. elevated RBCs.
39. (A); Interferon may cause fatal or life-threatening neuropsychiatric disorders. The patient must be closely monitored for depression. If depression occurs, the drug should be stopped. Usually depression resolves when the drug is discontinued.
A 25-year-old male patient will soon be starting chemotherapy. Pretreatment counseling for this patient should include discussion about: A. mutation of sperm cells during chemotherapy. B. the possibility of temporary impotence following treatment. C. banking sperm in case permanent sterility results. D. possible development of breast enlargement during treatment.
39. (A); Interferon may cause fatal or life-threatening neuropsychiatric disorders. The patient must be closely monitored for depression. If depression occurs, the drug should be stopped. Usually depression resolves when the drug is discontinued. 40. (C); It is very likely that males will experience either temporary or permanent sterility following chemotherapy. These patients should be aware of that prior to treatment and should be offered the opportunity to bank sperm for future use.
4. When the nurse teaches a group of youths about the dangerous effects of tobacco use, the nurse is practicing what level of cancer prevention? A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary
4. (A); The nurse who teaches youths about the dangers of tobacco use is practicing primary prevention of cancer by trying to reduce the risk of occurrence of cancer.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing chemotherapy. Administration of which of the following drugs will help to reduce the duration of anemia related to therapy? A. filgrastim (Neupogen) C. interleukin-2 B. erythropoietin (Procrit) D. cetuximab (Erbitux)
41. (B). Administration of erythropoietin (Procrit) helps to reduce anemia-associated symptoms of chemotherapy by stimulating red blood cell production. Filgrastim (Neupogen) stimulates white blood cell production to decrease risk of infection. Interleukins stimulate the production of T lymphocytes as part of cancer treatment. Cetuximab (Erbitux) is a monoclonal antibody that can be useful in treatment of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, metastatic breast cancer, leukemia, and metastatic colorectal cancer
Which nursing intervention is most important when administering the chemotherapeutic drug Platinol (cisplatin)? A. Administration of an IV bolus of fluid before and after the drug is given B. Performing deep tendon reflex assessment every 2 hours after the infusion C. Assessing the client's food intake D. Auscultating breath sounds every 4 hours
42. (A); Fluid administration is important to flush the drug through the renal system to prevent damage. Cisplatin can cause renal damage. Answers B, C, and D would not be important interventions with the drug administration, so they are incorrect.
A client diagnosed with metastatic cancer of the bone is exhibiting mental confusion and a BP of 160/100. Which laboratory value would correlate with the client's symptoms reflecting a common complication with this diagnosis? A. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L C. Inorganic phosphorus 1.7 mEq/L B. Calcium 13 mg/dl D. Sodium 138 mEq/L
43. (B); Hypercalcemia is a common occurrence with cancer of the bone. The potassium level is elevated but does not relate to the diagnosis, so answer A is incorrect. Answers C and D are both normal levels, so they are incorrect.
A client with cancer has been placed on TPN. The nurse notes air entering the client via the central line. Which initial action is most appropriate? A. Notify the physician. B. Elevate the head of the bed. C. Place the client in the left lateral decubitus position. D. Stop the TPN and hang D51/2 NS
44. (C); The client is exhibiting symptoms of air embolism. Placing the client in this position displaces air away from the right ventricle. Answers B and D would not help, so they are incorrect, and answer A would not be done first, so it's incorrect
The nurse is preparing a client for cervical uterine radiation implant insertion. Which will be included in the teaching plan? A. TV or telephone use will not be allowed while the implant is in place. B. A Foley catheter is usually inserted. C. A high fiber diet is recommended. D. Excretions will be considered radioactive.
45. (B); A catheter allows urine elimination without possible disruption of the implant. There is usually no restriction on TV or phone use, so answer A is incorrect. The client is placed on a low residue diet, so answer C is incorrect. The client's radiation is not internal; therefore, there are no special precautions with excretions, making answer D incorrect.
The nurse is caring for a client with leukemia who is receiving the drug doxorubicin (Adriamycin). Which, if occurred, would be reported to the physician immediately due to the toxic effects of this drug? A. Rales and distended neck veins B. Red discoloration of the urine and an output of 75ml the previous hour C. Nausea and vomiting D. Elevated BUN and dry, flaky skin
46. (A); This drug can cause cardiotoxicity exhibited by changes in the ECG and congestive heart failure. Rales and distended neck veins are clinical manifestations of congestive heart failure, so answer A is correct. A reddish discoloration to the urine is a harmless side effect, so answer B is incorrect. An elevated BUN and dry, flaky skin are not specific to this drug, so answers C and D are incorrect.
A client with cancer received platelet infusions 24 hours ago. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate the most therapeutic effect from the transfusions? A. A Hgb level increase from 8.9 to 10.6 B. A temperature reading of 99.4 C. A white blood cell count of 11,000 D. A decrease in oozing of blood from the IV site
47. (D); Platelets deal with the clotting of blood. Lack of platelets can cause bleeding. Answers A, B, and C do not directly relate to platelets, so they are incorrect.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy who is experiencing neutropenia. Which intervention would be most appropriate to include in the client's plan of care? A. Assess the client's temperature every 4 hours due to risk of hypothermia. B. Instruct the client to avoid large crowds and people who are sick. C. Instruct the client in the use of a soft toothbrush. D. Assess the client for hematuria.
48. (B); With neutropenia, the client is at risk for infection; therefore, he would need to avoid crowds and people who are ill. Answer A would not be appropriate. Answers C and D would correlate with a risk for bleeding, so they are incorrect.
A client with cancer becomes emaciated, requiring TPN to provide adequate nutrition. The nurse finds the TPN bag empty. Which fluid would the nurse select to hang until another bag is prepared in the pharmacy? A. Lactated Ringer's B. Normal saline C. D10W D. Normosol R
49. (C); D10W is the preferred solution to prevent complications from a sudden lack of glucose. Answers A, B, and D do not have glucose, so they are incorrect.
The nurse is caring for a client with possible cervical cancer. What clinical data would the nurse most expect to find in the client's history? A. Postcoital vaginal bleeding C. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge B. Nausea and vomiting D. Hyperthermia
50. (A); Vaginal bleeding or spotting is a common symptom of cervical cancer. Nausea and vomiting and foul-smelling discharge are not specific or common to cervical cancer, so B & C are incorrect. Hyperthermia does not relate to the diagnosis, so answer D is incorrect.
A client is scheduled to undergo a bone marrow aspiration. Which position would the nurse assist the client into for this procedure? A. Dorsal recumbent B. Supine C. High Fowler's D. Lithotomy
51. (C); This procedure is usually done by the physician with specimens obtained from the sternum or the iliac crest. The high Fowler's position would be the best position of the ones listed to obtain a specimen from the client's sternum. Answers A, B, and D would be inappropriate positions for getting a biopsy from the sites indicated.
The nurse is caring for a patient with leukemia who is being prepared for bone marrow transplant. The nurse understands that this patient will: A. receive both chemotherapy and external radiation therapy. B. receive total body irradiation C.receive chemotherapy only. D. receive targeted external radiation only
8. (B); The patient with leukemia will receive total body irradiation during preparation for bone marrow transplantation to ensure treatment to all areas that might be harboring leukemic cells.
The nurse understands that the process known as angiogenesis is problematic for patients who have cancer because: A. it serves no real purpose in treatment of cancer. B. new vessels supply the tumor with nutrients and oxygen. C. it delivers tumor necrosis factor to the nucleus of the tumor. D. it facilitates development of the tumor nucleus.
B); Angiogenesis is problematic in relation to metastasis because new vessels supply the tumor with nutrients and oxygen.
5. The nurse is caring for a female patient who is concerned that she may be at higher than normal risk of breast cancer. Which of the following factors identified by the patient place her at higher than normal risk? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. A. 60 years of age B. works night shift C. breastfed two children D. used birth control pills for 25 years E. drinks a few Manhattans each evening
B, D, E); Hormonal risks for development of breast cancer include use of birth control pills or hormone replacement therapy, early menarche (before 12 years of age), late menopause (after 55 years of age), and first pregnancy after 30 years of age. Nonhormonal risk factors include family history, lack of regular exercise, postmenopausal obesity, increased use of alcohol, working the night shift, older than 65 years of age, no full-term pregnancies, never breastfed, higher socioeconomic status, Jewish heritage, and two or more first-degree relatives with breast cancer at an early age.
Which of the following are non-modifiable risk factors for breast cancer? A. hormone replacement therapy C. age at menarche B. alcohol consumption D. sedentary lifestyle
C); Age at menarche is a non-modifiable risk factor for breast cancer. A woman makes choices about hormone replacement therapy, consumption of alcohol, and type of lifestyle.
Colon Polyps symptoms.
Polyps usually do not have symptoms. When present, symptoms may include: • Blood in the stools • Diarrhea (rare)
Quiz 1 NURSING MANAGEMENT OF THE CANCER PATIENT
Quiz 1 NURSING MANAGEMENT OF THE CANCER PATIENT