Mat. test 3
Where are the other sites besides fallopian tube for ectopic pregnancy?
ovary cervix abdomen
Which type of abortion can be done up to 16 weeks? A - Medical Abortion B- Vacuum Aspiration C-Dilation and Evacuation D-Induction
B
A nurse is monitoring her patient diagnosed with HELLP syndrome. She administered magnesium sulfate an hour ago . The nurse reports that the patient's respirations are 11/min and measures 20 mL of urine output in the last hour. What intervention best describes what the nurse should do next? A. Notify the doctor and prepare to administer Calcium Gluconate B. Notify the doctor and administer Potassium Chloride C. No action is needed, those vitals are expected with Magnesium Sulfate D. Place the patient in semi-fowlers position and administer low-flow oxygen
A Calcium Gluconate is the antidote to magnesium sulfate. Urinary output of less than 30 mL, a respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths/minute, and a diminished level of consciousness would indicate magnesium toxicity.
2. In the 12th week of gestation a client completely expels the products of conception. Because the client is Rh-, the nurse must: A: administer RhoGAM within 72 hours B: Make certain she receives RhoGAM on her first clinic visit C: Not give RhoGAM since it is not used with birth of stillborn D: Make certain that client does not receive RhoGAM, since the gestation lasted only 12 weeks
A In order to avoid the mother being sensitized, RhoGAM has to be administered within 72 hours
The nurse notices that her patient who has just given birth is keeping constant pressure on her abdominal area and is feeling excessive pain. Which of the following should the nurse do first? A. Palpate the abdomen. B. administer an anesthetic for pain. C. Call the physician. D. Start an IV.
A In the absence of the uterus, the patient will feel the need to put constant pressure on the abdominal cavity to alleviate some of the pain. The nurse needs to palpate the abdomen to verify that the uterus is still present in the abdominal cavity.
2) Can Zika be spread from mother to fetus?
A fetus can become infected when a woman is infected during pregnancy and the virus can cause damage of brain development resulting in microencephaly to the fetus.
Question #2: Primary Care Provider diagnose shoulder dystocia, what is your next step? Put them in order. __ a. Patient should be positioned with her buttocks flush with the edge of the bed to provide optimal access for executing maneuvers to affect delivery. __ b. Nursing, anesthesia, obstetric, and pediatric staff should be called to the labor room. __ c. Empty bladder. __ d. The mother should be told not to push while preparations are made and maneuvers are undertaken to reposition the fetus. __ e. Provide support and encouragement to reduce mother's anxiety.
A is 2 B is 1 C is 5 D is 3 E is 4
Who is at risk of getting molar pregnancy? Select all that applies. A. Race-Asian women are at a higher risk. Philippines have a higher rate than in the United States. B. Women who had a prior molar pregnancy C. Women who have lack of folate, beta-carotene or protein D. Women with history of miscarriage
A,B,C,D (ALL OF THE ABOVE)
2. A neonate is in the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby is 28 weeks' gestation and weighs 1000 grams. Which of the following is correct in relation to this baby's growth? a. Weight is appropriate-for-gestational age. b. Weight is below average for gestational age. c. Baby experienced intrauterine growth restriction. d. Baby experienced congenital growth hypertrophy
A. The baby's weight is appropriatefor-gestational age. The baby's weight of 1000 grams falls between the upper and lower curves for 28 weeks' gestation.
How many sets of maternal/paternal chromosomes are there in a partial molar pregnancy A: 1 set of maternal chromosomes and 2 sets of paternal chromosomes B: 2 set of maternal chromosomes and 2 sets of paternal chromosomes C:1 set of maternal chromosomes and 1 sets of paternal chromosomes D: 2 set of maternal chromosomes and 1 sets of paternal chromosomes
A. 1 set of maternal chromosomes and 2 sets of paternal chromosomes
A baby with hemolytic jaundice is being treated with fluorescent phototherapy. To provide safe newborn care, which of the following actions should the nurse perform? A. Cover the baby's eyes with eye pads. B. Turn the lights on for ten minutes every hour. C. Clothe the baby in a shirt and diaper only. D. Tightly swaddle the baby in a baby blanket
A: cover the baby's eyes with eye pads
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa. The signs of NEC are nonspecific. Some generalized signs include: A) hypertonia, tachycardia, and metabolic alkalosis. B) abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools. C) hypertension, absence of apnea, and ruddy skin color. D) scaphoid abdomen, no residual with feedings, and increased urinary output.
B) abdominal distention, temperature instability, and grossly bloody stools. Rationale: Some generalized signs of NEC include decreased activity, hypotonia, pallor, recurrent apnea and bradycardia, decreased oxygen saturation values, respiratory distress, metabolic acidosis, oliguria, hypotension, decreased perfusion, temperature instability, cyanosis, abdominal distention, residual gastric aspirates, vomiting, grossly bloody stools, abdominal tenderness, and erythema of the abdominal wall.
A patient came in for her usual check up in the OB/GYN clinic. As you're interviewing her, she tells you about this severe itching she's had a while after starting her third trimester. She also tells you that the itching gets worse at night and you noticed she's a little jaundiced. After doing a biochemical marker for what you suspect may be ICP, what is one of the values are you looking for to confirm your diagnosis? A:Total bile acids: 6𝜇mol/L B:Asparate aminotranferase: 64 U/L C:Alanine aminotransferase: 35 U/L
B. Asparate aminotranferase: 64 U/L The normal value of asparate aminotransferase is 0-30 U/L. So, it would be one of the confirmations for the ICP diagnosis.
2. Oral glucose tolerance test is a gestational diabetes test that measures? A) How insulin is processed in the mother's body B) How a mother's body processes sugar C) Baby's glucose levels D) Hormone levels in the placenta
B: The oral glucose tolerance test, glucose is administered to the mother, and blood sugar levels are measured at regular intervals. This test is done after overnight fasting. It measure how the body processes the sugar administered orally.
While changing the diaper of an 8 hr. old infant, the Mom notices blood in the stool and notifies the nurse. Upon assessment, the nurse notices mild abdominal distention, lethargy, and that the baby's temperature is 95.1F. Which of the following complications does the nurse suspect? A) High levels of phenylalanine B) Necrotizing enterocolitis C) Fetal drug withdrawal D) Hyperbilirubinemia
B: Necrotizing enterocolitis Other s/s include feeding intolerance, bile-colored vomiting
A nurse is caring for a 30 year old pregnant patient who is diagnosed with HELLP syndrome. Based on the nurse's knowledge of this the H stands for? A. Hypotension B. Hepatic Hematoma C. Hemolysis D. Hypomagnesemia
C
Bonus: what if newborn tests postive for HIV A:Newborn screening B:Follow up C:Not all babies who are exposed develop HIV D: Follow up checkup, 3 weeks, 2 months, 4 months...
C
Up to how many weeks can placenta move to resolve "placenta previa"? a. 15 b. 25 c. 20 d. 12
C
What is the likely diagnosis? A: Related to: Driving under the influence and pregnancy stress; including swollen feet B:Neurogenic shock due to complications with MVC C:Rare childbirth emergency in which amniotic fluid enters the blood stream D:Patient does not qualify for amniocentesis at this point in gestation E:Patient has an "incompatible" blood type due her genetic predisposition
C
between how many weeks is baby considered preterm? A: 25-30 weeks B: 21-34 weeks C: 20-37 weeks
C
what group of infections can rupture amniotic sac? A: E.Coli, Staph B B: Strep B, Herpes C: E. Coli, Strep B
C
1. A 1-day-old neonate, 32 weeks' gestation, is in an overhead warmer. The nurse assesses the morning axillary temperature as 96.9ºF. Which of the following could explain this assessment finding? a. This is a normal temperature for a preterm neonate. b. Axillary temperatures are not valid for preterm babies. c. The supply of brown adipose tissue is incomplete. d. Conduction heat loss is pronounced in the baby.
C. Preterm babies are born with an insufficient supply of brown adipose tissue that is needed for thermogenesis, or heat generation
WHAT MEDICATION IS MOST PRIMARILY USED TO PREVENT ECLAMPSIA DURING CONVULSIONS? A: FOLIC ACID B: CALCIUM CARBONATE C: MAGNESIUM SULFATE D: HEPARIN
C: Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia
WHEN DOES A MOTHER GO FROM SHOWING S/SX OF PREECLAMPSIA TO ECLAMPSIA? A: Blood pressure that exceeds 140/90 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) B: DURING PRESENCE OF A SIEZURE C: HELLP syndrome D: Insufficient blood flow to the uterus
C: Eclampsia follows a condition called preeclampsia. is the new onset of seizures or coma in a pregnant woman with preeclampsia.
Question #1: A client in labor experiences shoulder dystocia of the newborn during delivery. Which of the following actions by the nurse is considered a priority of care? A: Apply a firm fundal pressure B: Prepare for a cesarean birth C: Administer O2 via nasal cannula D: Implement a maternal position change
Correct Answer: D A client experiencing shoulder dystocia during delivery would receive immediate interventions to promote delivery of the arrested shoulder. Measures would include position changes such as McRoberts maneuver, hands-and-knees position, squatting position, or lateral recumbent position, and application of suprapubic pressure.
1. A 29-year-old female patient is experiencing Purple Uterus, Contractions, Abdominal Pain. What should the nurse include in her Plan care? a) Prepare the delivery room for an expected delivery. b) Administer meperidine (Demerol) to ease the patient's pain. c) Suggest to the patient to walk so the pain can go away. d) Patient & Fetus will me monitor regularly.
D
What test is the most often used to help diagnose placenta previa? a. MRI b. CT c. X-RAY d. Ultrasound
D
1.With regard to hemolytic diseases of the newborn, nurses should be aware of: A. Rh incompatibility matters only when Rh- offspring is born to Rh+ mother B. ABO incompatibility is more likely than Rh incompatibility to precipitate significant anemia C.Exchange transfusions frequently are required in the treatment of hemolytic disorders D. The indirect Coomb's test is performed on the mother before birth, the direct Coomb's test is performed on the cord blood after birth
D Rationale: Indirect Coomb's test may be performed on the mother a few times during pregnancy
1) The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy? a. Painless vaginal bleeding b. Abdominal cramping c. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant d. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant
D The signs of an ectopic pregnancy are vague until the fallopian tube ruptures. The client will complain of sudden, stabbing pain in theradiates lower quadrant that down the leg or up into the chest
What is the main way to prevent an inverted uterus? A. Perform a fundal massage after the placenta has been delivered. B. to pull on the umbilical cord when trying to deliver the placenta. C. Tell the patient not to bear down when delivering the placenta. D. only pull on the umbilical cord once the placenta is detached from the uterus.
D The umbilical cord should only be pulled (if necessary) once it has been confirmed that the placenta is free/ detached from the uterus.
A newborn admitted to the nursery has a positive direct Coombs' test. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse? A. Monitor the baby for jitters. B. Assess the blood glucose level. C. Assess the rectal temperature. D. Monitor the baby for jaundice.
D. Monitor for jaundice When the neonatal bloodstream contains antibodies, hemolysis of the red blood cells occurs and jaundice develops
2. Premature Separation of Placenta usually occurs during: Select all that apply. a) In the first trimester. b) During birth. c) In the second trimester. d) After birth. e) In the third trimester. f) After the 20th week of pregnancy.
E, F
Can mothers with HIV breastfeed Yes or no
No they should not
What are the Two types of medical abortion medication that can be taken in the fist 9 weeks of pregnancy?
Oral mifepristone and vaginal buccal or sublingual misoprostol
1) How long is the incubation period of Zika virus infection?
The time from infection until the first symptoms develop (incubation period) is usually 3 to 12 days after the bite of an infected mosquito.
True or False 1. high blood sugars in mother can affect the fetus sugars?
True High blood sugar level in the mother can cause high sugar levels in fetus' blood. This can cause various problems in pregnancy. Also, once the baby is born, the blood sugar levels can drop.
What is not a cause of miscarriage? A Lupus B Hyperthyroidism C Cervical Insufficiency D Varicella Infection
What is not a cause of miscarriage? Hyperthyroidism (Hypothyroidism can cause a miscarriage)
What percentage of clinical pregnancies end in miscarriage? A 25% B 15% C 20% D 8%
What percentage of clinical pregnancies end in miscarriage? 15% (more than 1 in 10)
True or false Amino acids introduced to a patient who is primigravida intravenously can cause amniotic fecal emboli to spontaneously appear in the microcirculation
false