MCAT

spermatogonia stages

meiosis I is homologous chromosomes meiosis II is sister chromatids

trp operon

tryptophan binds to the repressor protein and enables it to repress gene transcription.

spreading activation theory

the theory that the presentation of a stimulus triggers activation of closely related nodes

pico

10^-12

Horn

CNS-cord Grey matter

Synthesis of Carboxylic Acids derivative

SOCl2=PBR3

displacement for horizontal motion

X=VoxT

Momentum

mass x velocity

genus

species name

What approximate volume of reaction solution was used in the experiments described in the passage if 0.5 mg of MgCl2 were added to the reaction mixture?(10mM molarity) A. 500 μL B. 750 μL C. 2 mL D. 50 mL

(1L/(10*10^-3 Moles)*(1mole/(100g)(5*10^-4g)=5*10^-4=500μL

+E cell -E cell

+E cell= spontaneous reaction -E cell= nonspontaneous reaction

Trimesters of pregnancy

- 1st trimester: week 1-13: Fertilization, morula, blastocyte, fetus - 2nd trimester: week 14-26 - 3rd trimester: week 27-40

-E= +E=

-E= strong reducing agents,oxidized reaction +E=strong oxidizing agent, reduction reaction

Autophagy

A process in which lysosomes decompose damaged organelles to reuse their organic monomers degrading nonfunctional cellular components

How to find focal point?

1/F=1/I+1/O object distance is always + image distance is +/- focal length is +/-

amino-acyl tRNA syntheses

2 ATP is required

visible light spectrum

400-700 nm

Maxiumum horizontal displacement angle

45° always allows maximum horizontal displacement

DNA Polymerization occur in

5' to 3' direction Requires a template Requires a primer

A partial DNA sequence of the coding strand of a gene is shown. 5'-GACATGGACTCGCTA-3' Which sequence corresponds to the mRNA for this DNA sequence? A) 5'-GACAUGGACUCGCUA-3' B) 5'-CUGUACCUGAGCGUA-3' C) 5'-UAGCGAGUCCAUGUC-3' D) 5'-AUCGCUCAGGUACAG-3'

5'-GACAUGGACUCGCUA-3'

cell membrane

A cell structure that controls which substances can enter or leave the cell. The cell membrane consists primarily of nonpolar lipid carbon chains; in order to be soluble in the cell membrane

primary structure of protein

sequence of amino acids using peptide bonds

percentage of A-T and G-C

A + T = 46% and G + C = 54%;

glomerulus

A ball of capillaries surrounded by Bowman's capsule in the nephron and serving as the site of filtration in the vertebrate kidney.

Population Pyramid

A bar graph representing the distribution of population by age and sex.

Which sociological concept is suggested by the passage's discussion of the knowledge, skills, and education required for practicing medicine are associated with high social status in the United States. A. The social capital of physicians B. The hidden curriculum of medicine C. The cultural capital of physicians D. The ascribed status of medicine

A) social capital - social networks and norms of reciprocity (friends, family) B) Hidden curriculum- is the hidden curriculum taught to doctors C) cultural capital - skills, knowldege, education that have MERIT D) ascribed status - born with it

Bronsted-Lowry acid and base

Acid: loss hydrogen Base: gain hydrogen

Acidosis and Alkalosis

Acidosis shift right Alkalosis shift left

Biotinylation

Addition of biotin

The principles of perceptual organization are most closely related to which psychological theory? A. Behaviorist B. Gestalt C. Humanistic D. Cognitive

B.Gestaly

experience-expectant

Brain functions that require certain basic common experiences (which an infant can be expected to have) in order to develop normally.

Which two amino acid side chains are shown in Figure 1? A. Phe and Ser B. Gly and Trp C. Ser and Tyr D. Phe and Ala

C

Under what condition would the level of calcitonin tend to increase? A. When there is a dietary deficiency of calcium B. When there is a dietary deficiency of vitamin D C. When the level of calcium in the plasma is high D. When the level of parathyroid hormone is too low

Calcitonin reduces bone resorption. Bone resorption occurs when the level of calcium in the blood plasma is low, but resorption is not needed when the level of calcium is high. Therefore, resorption would be reduced by calcitonin under conditions in which the level of calcium in the plasma is high. Thus, C is the best answer.

cap-dependent translation

Cap is important for the translation to occur usually 5" end

Which of the following recombinant processes depends on the F factor plasmid? A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Conjugation D. Translocation

Conjugation

Work done by electric field

Wef=-ΔPEelec

Scrotum

External sac that contains the testes. The function of the scrotum is to cool of testes and to surround the testes with testosterone

The pH of the solution that results after mixing 10mL of 1M HCL and 10mL of 1M NH3 is the as the PH

HCl + NH3→ NH4CL NH4Cl=.5M mix 2 solutions of equal volume will saturate the mixture causing a decrease of morality because of a increase of volume.

Mixed-type inhibition

Inhibitor can bind to either enzyme or enzyme-substrate complex, so Km can go up or down depends on if it bends to enzyme(Km: no change) or if it bends to enzyme substarte complex(Km: Decreases) Vmax will go down always because it's allosteric

Peristalsis

Involuntary waves of muscle contraction that keep food moving along in one direction through the digestive system.

Which reaction is catalyzed by LipA? A.ATP hydrolysis B.Peptide bond cleavage C.Hydrolysis of triacylglycerides D.Transfer of carboxyl groups

LipA=Lipase which only hydrolyzes triacylglycerides

vas deferens

Long, narrow tube carrying sperm from epididymis to ejaculatory duct -a muscular smooth muscle duct that contracts during ejaculation -crosses inside to body cavity

Nucleolus

Makes ribosome subunits

Meiosis phases

Meiosis only occurs in gonads Paired homologous chromosomes are found in meiosis but not mitosis Prophase I : crossing over(recombination) and synapse occur metaphase:align center anaphase: homologous chromosome are separated and cytokinesis begins telophase: Reverse mitotic prophase and cytokinesis is complete

Bohr model of the atom

Model of the atom with a positive nucleus and electrons orbiting in energy levels The energy needed to jump energy level En=(-2.178*10^-18J)/(n^2) But it fails to explain what if there are no electrons on an orbital or if there is too many which is where the quantum model comes

exponential decay equation

N=N0(1/2)^T/t(1/2) N=N0e^-kt

sarcoplasmic reticulum

Organelle of the muscle fiber that stores calcium. the smooth ER of muscle

ambivalent attachment

Pattern in which an infant becomes anxious before the primary caregiver leaves, is extremely upset during his or her absence, and both seeks and resists contact on his or her return.

Replication of Animal Viruses (productive viral cycles)

Same basic replication pathway as bacteriophages the only difference is that it never kills host cell and instead instead it just exit the cell by budding through cell membrane have envelope

instinctual drift

The tendency for learned behavior to drift toward instinctual behavior over time.

World Systems Theory

The theory developed by Immanuel Wallerstein that explains the emergence of a core, periphery, and semi-periphery

Stroke Volume (SV)

The volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction. may be affected by change volume of blood, change posture,change activity

Although many patients wait up to six weeks for an appointment at a busy clinic, an acquaintance of one of the clinic's physicians is regularly seen with less than a week's notice. This scenario best illustrates the use of: A.social status. B.social capital. C.cultural capital. D.charismatic authority.

Using one's social networks for gain is an example of social capital; thus, B is the correct answer. The other options are not applicable to the question scenario. Social status (option A) is related to prestige among social groups. Cultural capital (option C) is class-based cultural practices. Finally, charismatic authority (option D) refers to a form of power that rests in the legitimacy of an individual.

Charles' Law

V1/T1=V2/T2 (Proportional) Temperature and volume is proportional.(T↓,V↓)

When does attitude predict behavior?

When social influence is minimized

Sphingolipids

backbone is sphinogosin instead of glycerol

Aponenzyme

becomes active by binding of coenzyme or cofactors to enzyme

types of stressors

catastrophes, ambient

Types of Mirrors and Lenses

concave(+F) mirror is real images(upright) but concave lens (-F) is virtual image(inverted) convex (+F) mirror is virtual image (inverted) but convex(-F) lens is real(upright) image or virtual

Pons

controls certain autonomic functions, such as breathing and swallowing

6 universal emotions

happiness, sadness, fear, disgust, anger, surprise

types of capsids (viruses)

helical( spiral rod shapped) and icosahedral (polyhederal geometric shaped)

brush border enzymes(Small Intestines)

hydrolyze tiny little building blocks to break down every little bit

Hydrolases

hydrolyzes chemical bonds

Interposition

if one object partially blocks our view of another, we perceive it as closer

renal pelvis (of kidney)

inner collecting tube

Galton's idea of hereditary genius

intelligence is hereditary

Arrhenius equation (rate constant equation)

larges k ,faster reaction

2 types of connective tissue

loose(areolor) and dense(large amount fibers especially collagen)

Oxidation

loss of electrons, agin oxygen, loss of hydrogen

mutagens and carcinogens

mutagen: agents causing mutation carcinogens: when those mutation can cause cancer

osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts

osteoclast: break bone Osteoblast: build bone Osteocytes: maintain bone they communicate through gab junction

alveolar macrophages

phagocytose small particles in alveoli

Based on the passage, unpleasant healthcare experiences act as: A. positive reinforcement. B. negative reinforcement. C. positive punishment. D. negative punishment.

positive: add stimulus Negative : remove stimulus Punishment: decrease behavior Reinforcement: increase behavior So a unpleasant healthcare is a stimulus that would reduce the likelihood to go to healthcare

Mullerian ducts

precursors to female internal structures. in male the Y chromosome inhibits the mullerian duct using Mullerian inhibiting Factor

Na/K+ ATPase

pumps sodium out of the cell

increasing temperature in a system( thermodynamics calorimeter)

q=mc∆t

Erythrocytes

red blood cells

Ovary

site of oogenesis (egg production)

neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

synapse between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the section of the membrane of a muscle fiber with receptors for the acetylcholine released by the terminal

Cornea

the transparent layer forming the front of the eye.

cerebral hemispheres

the two sections of the cortex on the left and right sides of the brain

nose/nasal cavity function

warms air humidifies air filters air

Gibbs free energy equation

ΔG(Free energy) = ΔH(enthalpy) - TΔS(Entropy) ΔH=ΔE+PΔV bond formation cause ▲H and ▲S to be negative because of a release in energy and a decrease in spontaneity Bond Breaking causes ▲H and ▲S to be postive

electric potential (Voltage)

Θ=k(Q/r)

molecules that activate transcription factors

As transcription factors are found in the nucleus, β-catenin must enter the nucleus. Proteins that are translocated into the nucleus usually contain a nuclear localization sequence.

A protein contains four disulfide bonds. In order to break these bonds researchers added a minimum of: A.2 moles of NADH for each mole of protein. B.4 moles of NADH for each mole of protein. C.2 moles of NAD+ for each mole of protein. D.4 moles of NAD+ for each mole of protein

NADH breaks bonds and usually 1 per sulfide bond therefore it will be B

Phenomenology

The study of individuals' own unique, first-person, conscious experience. introspection can provide insight into behaviors and occurrences that are difficult to measure lack validity lacks objectivity due to results coming from self difficult to generalize to an ideology

Enterokinase(small intestines)

activates trypsinogen to trypsin

the human genome

46 chromosomes (23 pairs from each parent), 22 pairs autosomes, 1 pair of sex chromosomes, one locus per gene 4RNA bases, 64 codons and 1 amino acid per codon

Blood composition

54% plasma, 45% formed elements, 1% Leukocytes

current

A flow of electric charge. opposite of electrical charge ▲PE=q▲Φ

Agent of socialization

A person or institution that shapes an individual's social development.

types of flagella

A: monotrichous B: lophotrichous C: amphitrichous D:peritrichous

large intestine

Absorbs water and forms feces

Acetal Formation

An acetal can be prepared from the reaction of a ketone and an alcohol

Deuterium

An isotope of hydrogen with one proton and one neutron in the nucleus having an atomic weight of 2.014 has a pure S orbital

What is the net charge of the peptide Arg-Ala-Phe-Leu at pH 8? A.-1 B.0 C.+1 D.+2

Arg=+1 basic amino acid Ala=0 nonpolar Phe=0 nonpolar Leu=0 nonpolar Answer is +1

Bipolar I vs Bipolar II

Bipolar I: Person experiences one manic/depressive Bipolar II: Person experiences mania and hypomania

afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole

Blood arrives at the glomerulus by the --- and departs in the ---

According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, a person giving which reason for moral behavior is at the highest level? A. To gain acceptance B. To follow rules C. To promote social welfare D. To avoid disapproval

C

Nucleus

CNS-Deep brain grey matter

horizontal social mobility

Changing jobs at the same class level

Which of the following species is the oxidizing agent in the following redox reaction? Zn + Cu2+ →Zn2+ + Cu

Cu2+ The oxidizing and reducing agents are always reactants, not products, in a redox reaction.

Photon energy equation

E=hf=hc/λ (Planck's constant) h=6.63*10^-34 J*s

Cytochrome C is part of what cellular process A. Proton pumping B. Heme biosynthesis C. Calcium signaling D. Electron transport

Electron transport Cytochrome C transfers FADH2 from Coenzyme Q→ Complex IV

muscle structure

Fascicles→ myofibers→myofibrils→sarcomeres

Flow cytometry

Flow cytometry looks at individual cells florescent molecules bound to an individual cell, as they are passed in a liquid stream through a laser.

Newton's Third Law

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction If object 1 exerts force on object 2 then object 2 will exert an equal and opposite force.

mouth

Function: Chew Food/ Madtication, moisten food/Bolus creation, and Saccharide absorption Structure: Teeth and salivary glands Exocrine: Saliva( lysozyme and amylase)

myopia

In myopia, the image is formed in front of the retina, generally due to the shape of the eye being too long.

Which of the following changes to an equilibrated system is most likely to change the proportion of reactants and products at equilibrium?

Increasing product stability

Power to j

J = W × s

What is the value of Km (in µM) for the WT enzyme? A.0.67 B.1.31 C.1.73 D.3.04

Km is substrate concentration at half of maximum velocity therefore the answer is B

Gestalt Psychology

Law of Connectedness:states that we will tend to perceive things as connected, uniform, and linked;

Bone is composed of:

Mature bone is made rigid by the inclusion of hydroxyapatite, a calcium-phosphate crystalline solid , and cartilage

facilitated diffusion

Movement of specific molecules across cell membranes through protein channels

pharynx: naso,oro,laryngo

Naso: close to nose Oro: close to mouth Laryngo: close to throat

Prokaryote Translation

No nuclear membrane for mRNA to travel through. No Primer needed just start in middle No editing is used but it does use a stop site in which usually in the A site uses shine delgarno to help start

Humanistic Theory

People continually seek experiences that make them better, more fulfilled individuals.

Which concept CANNOT explain the ability of the participants in both studies to visually process the faces they were shown? A.Parallel processing B. Interposition C. Accommodation D. Place theory

Place theory is auditory which is why the correct answer is D

platelets,RBC and endothelial cells at least two of the three have which characteristic? A. They have nuclei. B. They are cell fragments. C. They are bone marrow-derived. D. They are connected by tight junctions.

Platelets and erythrocytes are derived from progenitors in the bone marrow.

Rh factor

Refers to the presence or absence of the Rh antigen on red blood cells.

lac operon regulation

Repressor binds to operator locus - stop cAMP-CAP binds upstream of promoter - go

fetal hemoglobin

Strong form of hemoglobin found in embryos; takes oxygen from mother's hemoglobin.

Km

Substrate concentration at 1/2 Vmax Km correlates with the affinity (the likelihood for enzyme and substrate to interact) if affinity decreases then Km decreases

multitasking depends of these factors

Task Similarity Task Difficulty Task Practice

Antibody components

The antibody component which does NOT contribute to its antigen specificity is its disulfide bonds.

dual coding hypothesis

The dual coding hypothesis suggests that it is easier to remember words with associated images than either words or images alone

Prophase II

The first phase of meiosis II. Prophase II is identical to mitotic prophase, except that the number of chromosomes was reduced by half(Haploid) during meiosis I

order of magnitude

The power of 10 nearest the quantity

Enzyme-substrate specificity

The selectivity of an enzyme; enzyme can only bond to certain substrates.

incomplete dominance

The situation in which one allele is not completely dominant over another allele

What is the KM of Compound 1 with respect to lactase? A.0.05 mM B.0.10 mM C.5 mM D.20 mM

This is a lineweaver-burk plot so Km is half of Vmax but becuase its lineweaver-burk plot it will be 1/Km 1/Km=.05mM→Km=20mM

Activation of which enzyme would support the metabolism of newborn infants during the first 12 hours? A. Glycogen phosphatase B. Glycogen phosphorylase C. Glycogen hydrolase D. Glycogen kinase

To help babies jump-start their glycogenolysis( convert glycogen into glucose) we must give them the first rate-limiting step in the process which is Glycogen Phosphatase

Protazoa

Unicellular, heterotrophic eukaryotes that include the familiar amoeba and paramecium. reproduces sexually

AB positive

Universal blood recpient (I^A, I^B)

reaction coupling

Very favorable reaction is used to drive an unfavorable one (positive G) example ATP hydrolysis which is why atp is the best energy source adn atp has a low Delta G

viroids replication

Viroids can alter the RNA polymerase and transcriptional machinery of certain host cells to replicate their genetic material.

When is the reaction quotient equal to the equilibrium constant?

When ΔG = 0

Caste System

a social structure in which classes are determined by heredity

tact

behavior under functional control of a non-verbal stimulus

Chemotrypsin

cleaves only Phe, Trp, Tyr

Ethnogenesis

creation of a new culture

temporal information

data about when or for how long events occur

mortality

death rate

steroid hormones

enter the target cells and have a direct effect on the DNA of the nucleus Receptor is intracellular modulate transcription Slow Long effects

Ligase

forms a chemical bond

Deposition

gas to solid

Repression

in psychoanalytic theory, the basic defense mechanism that banishes from consciousness anxiety-arousing thoughts, feelings, and memories

derivatives of the inner cell mass vs outer cell mass of a blastocytes

inner cell mass: embryo, amnion, yolk sac and allantois Outer cell mass: Trophoblast( develops first into the chorion and ultimately into the placenta)

NaBH4 (hydride) reduction

it deosn't work with carboxylic acid

pleural cavity

lungs

Pleiotropism

one gene with more than one phenotypic effect

Type I error

rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true; finding a statistically significant effect when no true effect exists False postive

types of attachment

secure, avoidant, resistant, disorganized(caused by abuse)

skeletal system functions

support,protection,movement storage, synthesize the formed elements of the blood( red,white,and platelets) called hematopiesis

how to name D and L

we look at the 2nd carbon at CH2OH can be an aldose or a ketose

Addition-Elimination

- occurs when two reactants join together (addition) and in the process, a small molecule such as H2O, HCl or NH3 is lost (elimination) - the reaction occurs between a functional group in each reactant - also called condensation reaction

Blastula

-In the blastula, the inner cell mass develops into the embryo and the trophoblast develops into the placenta. -The blastula consists of an outer layer of cells called the trophoblast, a mostly-hollow core called the blastocoel, and an inner clump of cells called the inner cell mass. - The blastula is the structure that implants in the wall of the uterus, with the inner cell mass developing into the embryo, and the trophoblast cells ultimately becoming the placenta. Full formation of the placenta takes approximately three months and is complete at the end of the first trimester. Only the inner cell mass undergoes differentiation into the primary germ layers, and the estrogen and progesterone in birth control pills prevent ovulation, not blastulation.

passive transport vs active transport

-Passive transport : does not require energy, High to low -Active transport : requires ATP; against gradient

normal vs buffer solution

. One of the fundamental differences between a normal solution and a buffered solution is that the pH of a buffer is not affected by dilutions

dietary fat( diglyceride)

2 fatty acids and monoglyceride

The above diagram represents the neural pathway that causes an individual to retract a stubbed toe. If one were to modify this diagram to represent the pathway involved in feeling pain in the stubbed toe, where could additional neurons be placed? At II and III At II and IV At III and IV At I and IV

4 is a motor neuron because its connected to the muscle so we would need more neurons at 2 and 3 because it takes a long time to feel pain so we need elongated interneurons and more neurons at the area of stimulus would make it more painful so 2 and 3 would be the most logical place to put more neurons

What is the pH of a .001 M NaOH solution? A. .001 B. 3 C. 7 D.11

A .001 M NaOH solution has a pOH (-log [OH-]) of 3. The pH of the solution is therefore 14 - 3 = 11. Thus, D is the best answer.

binary fission

A form of asexual reproduction in single-celled bacteria organisms by which one cell divides into two cells of the same size

spliceosome

A large complex made up of proteins and RNA molecules that splices RNA by interacting with the ends of an RNA intron, releasing the intron and joining the two adjacent exons.

Cerebellum

A large structure of the hindbrain that controls fine motor skills. which are involved in implicit memory

Hill coefficient

A measure of cooperative interaction between protein subunits

Albert Bandura

Albert Bandura's famous bobo doll experiments demonstrated that children who observed adult behavior (an adult model hitting and punching a bobo doll) tend to model that behavior, even if neither the child nor the adult receives reinforcement for that behavior

Pepsin and trypsin

An enzyme present in gastric juice that begins the hydrolysis of proteins

2 major aspects of health care delivery

Availability Accessibility

Veins

Blood vessels that carry blood back to the heart Pressure is low blood moves by nonpressure has no mascular wall has no elastic wall

2 models of social support

Buffering hypothesis: the presence of a social support system helps buffer, or shield, an individual from the negative impact of stressful events. Direct effect hypothesis: people with high social support are in better health than people with low social support, regardless of stress

The initial source of energy replacement in the liver of newborn infants is formed by glycosidic bonds between glucose molecules through: A. α(1→4) linkage linearly and β(1→6) linkage at branch points. B. β(1→6) linkage linearly and α(1→4) linkage at branch points. C. α(1→4) linkage linearly and α(1→6) linkage at branch points. D. α(1→6) linkage linearly and α(1→4) linkage at branch points.

C

Researchers conducted an experiment to study Weber's Law. Going from 10- to 12-pound weights created the just noticeable difference for one participant. For this participant, how many pounds need to be added to a 20-pound weight to create the just noticeable difference? A. 1 pound B. 2 pounds C. 4 pounds D. 8 pounds

C is correct. Weber's Law states that just noticeable difference is a ratio of the existing stimulus intensity. Two pounds are 1/5 of 10 pounds and they create the just noticeable difference for 10 pounds. To create the just noticeable difference for 20 pounds, 4 pounds (1/5 of 20 pounds) are needed.

C-terminus and N-terminus

C terminus is Carbon ending while N terminus is Nitrogen ending Are in peptide has a N-C-C pattern

As an ideal fluid flows through a tube of progressively decreasing diameter, the fluid speed: A. decreases. B. decreases and then increases. C. increases. D. remains constant.

C. If the volume flow rate remains constant, then the product Av remains constant. This implies that as the cross-sectional area A of the tube decreases (due to a decreasing tube diameter), the flow speed v must increase proportionally.

Which of the following best describes the transmission of an action potential through a skeletal muscle cell based on stimulation from the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)? A. ACh released at the neuromuscular junction triggers an end plate potential, threshold is reached, sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized, action potential travels along transverse tubules B. NE released at the neuromuscular junction triggers an end plate potential, threshold is reached, sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized, action potential travels along transverse tubules C. ACh released at the neuromuscular junction triggers an end plate potential, threshold is reached, action potential travels along transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized D. NE released at the neuromuscular junction triggers an end plate potential, threshold is reached, action potential travels along transverse tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized

C. The release of acetylcholine (ACh) into the NMJ must first depolarize the cell to create an end plate potential (EPP, choices B and D are wrong). The EPP must be sufficient to reach the threshold of the cell, causing an action potential to fire. The action potential then travels along the plasma membrane of the muscle cell, and into the interior of the cell via the transverse (T) tubules where it depolarizes the sarcoplasmic reticulum (choice A is wrong and choice C is correct). Depolarization of the SR allows the release of calcium into the cytoplasm so that contraction can occur.

solubility equilibria example

Ca3(PO4)2=3Ca+2PO4 Ksp=[Ca]^3[PO4]^2 Ksp=[3S]^3[2S]^2=(27S^3)(4s^2)=108S^5

Experiment 1 was repeated with 0.40 g of calcium, and the gas that evolved was collected. The identity of the gas, and its approximate volume at 1.0 atm and 27°C were: (Note: R = 0.0821 L•atm/mol•K) A. H2, 250 mL. B. H2, 500 mL. C. O2, 250 mL. D. O2, 500 mL.

Calcium undergoes the following reaction with water: Ca(s) + 2H2O(l)→ Ca2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) + H2(g). The gas produced was H2. If 0.40 g calcium reacted, then the number of moles of calcium reacted was equal to (0.40 g)/(40.1 g/mol) = 0.01 mol. The amount of H2 formed was also 0.01 mol. At 1.0 atm and 27°C, the volume of 0.01 mol H2 = [(0.01 mol)(0.0821 L×atm/mol×K)(300 K)]/1.0 atm = 0.246 L = 246 mL. Thus, A is the best answer.

Lyse

Cell bursting/death can be caused by osimitic pressure enter the cell becuase of cell wall damage

T cells

Cells are produced in the bone marrow and mature in the thymus hunt down and destroy foreign cells Do not reproduce

B cells

Cells manufactured in the bone marrow that create antibodies and secrete it into blood/lymph(humoral immunity) that is for isolating and destroying invading bacteria and viruses. Each B-cells has a unique receptor on surface that will make antibodies similar to the receptors

transcription factors

Collection of proteins that mediate the binding of RNA polymerase and the initiation of transcription. eukaryotic transcription factor is increase the encounter rate of DNA with RNA polymerase.

structure of flagella

Composed of filament, hook, and basal body Basal body anchors the filament and hook to cell wall

DNA gyrase

Condenses DNA NOT required for eukaryotic DNA replication

What is the conjugate base of chlorobenzoic acid? HC7H4ClO2 A. OH- B. H2O C. C7H4ClO- D. C7H4ClO2-

Conjugate acids and bases differ only by the presence or absence of a proton (H+). The conjugate base of an acid is formed from the acid by the loss of a proton (H+). Table 1 gives the formula of chlorobenzoic acid as HC7H4ClO2, and the loss of H+ gives C7H4ClO2-. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

Epithalamus

Contains pineal body. Involved in olfactory senses and sleep/wake cycle

Find Distance When given acceleration and time but missing velocity

D=V0T+((1/2)aT^2)

Monoanime hypothesis

Depression is caused by depletion of serotonin, norepinephrine and/or dopamine Treatment: selective serotonin uptake inhibitors

Desomosomes

Desmosomes are a type of anchoring junction which connect adjacent cells and extend through the cell membrane to associate with components of the cytoskeleton made of Cadherins

Osmosis

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

small intestine

Digestive organ where most chemical digestion and absorption of food takes place

Stimulants

Drugs (such as caffeine, nicotine, and the more powerful amphetamines, cocaine, and Ecstasy) that excite neural activity and speed up body functions.

Functions of Religion

Durheim: Establishing social cohesion, Providing meaning and purpose Marx: Promoting social control

What is the magnitude of the electric field used in the MALDI-MS imaging device described in the passage? Knowing that V=4.5 and d=.5m A. 1 kV/m B. 3 kV/m C. 6 kV/m D. 9 kV/m

E = V/d = 4.5 kV/(0.5 m) = 9 kV/m

The patient's ruptured appendix required treatment with antibiotics because he had a bacterial infection caused by: A. M. tuberculosis. B. E. coli entering the colon from the appendix. C. E. coli entering the abdominal cavity from the appendix. D. E. coli entering the appendix from the colon.

E. coli will enter the appendix and into the abdominal cavity. causing infection to other areas of the body

Electric Force equation(charge)

E=kqq/(rsquared) F=qE=ma

Because it dissolves carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to make mild carbonic acid, natural rain has a pH of around 5.5. However, due to pollutants such as sulfates from coal-fired power plants and nitrates from car exhausts, the pH of rain can drop to as low as 2. This decrease in pH represents a change in H+ concentration by approximately what factor?

Each change by 1 in the pH value corresponds to a change by a factor of 10 in [H+] since pH is a logarithmic scale. Since 5.5 - 2 = 3.5, the factor change in [H+] must be greater than 103 = 1000. More precisely, the change in [H+] is 103.5 = 103 × 100.5 ≈ 1000 × 3 = 3000.

wave-particle duality

Electromagnetic radiation travels like a wave but interacts with matter like pattern/photon

inductive effect

Electron donation or withdrawal through the sigma bonds of a molecule.

formal charge equation

FC = V - (0.5)B - L Where FC = Formal Charge V = # of valence electrons B = # of bonding electrons L = # of lone pair electrons Example:BH4 3 - (0.5)(8) - 0 = -1.

centripetal force diagram

Fc=mv^2/r=mac

fluid intelligence

Fluid intelligence is the ability to think on ones feet (critical thinker, quick!), solve problems using deductive/inductive reasoning.

Newton's Second Law

Force equals mass times acceleration (F=ma) Force is not correlated with velocity Force direction= acceleration direction

stomach

Function: Stores and churns food, some immune function, some protein digestion starts here

compact bone structure

Haversian canal: a network in bone and contain blood vessels. lamellae: a thin layer, membrane, or plate of tissue, especially in bone canaliculi: a small channel in the bone Osteons are cylindrical structures that contain a mineral matrix and living osteocytes connected by canaliculi, which transport blood.

lipophilic

Having an affinity for or an attraction to fat and oils (oil-loving). mimics a membrane symport. (A symporter is an integral membrane protein that is involved in the transport of many differing types of molecules across the cell membrane.)

public education weaknesses

Hidden curriculum(teaching stereotypes) educational segregation( poor goes to poor schools while rich goes to rich schools) teacher expectancy theory(teacher expect more from students with a rich background therefore thee student will try to live up to the expectations) educational stratification ( sorted or categorized creating inequalities and unequal opportunities.)

Which methods separate proteins based on their charge? I.SDS-PAGE II.Isoelectric focusing III.Ion-exchange chromatography IV.Affinity chromatography A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I, II, and III only D. II, III, and IV only

I. is wrong becuase it separates the proteins based on size. It also test if there dimers in the proteins II. Is correct becuase it separtes the protein based on the Ph of the isoeletric point and PH can be used to test charge III. Is correct becuase ions determine charge IV. incorrect based on Affiniity

Why can imines only be synthesized using primary amines?

Imine formation can only occur using primary amines or ammonia, as they contain two or more N-hydrogens that can be deprotonated. Only one N-hydrogen is found on secondary amines, and none on tertiary amines.

Increasing reactant concentration increasing temperature

Increasing the probability of a collision increases the average kinetic energy and Increasing the probability of reaction upon collision

law of proximity Law of continuity Law of similarity

Law of proximity: The Gestalt principle that we tend to group objects together when they are near each other. Law of continuity: The Gestalt principle that we prefer perceptions of connected and continuous figures to disconnected and disjointed ones. Law of similarity: states that we tend to group similar things together

Competive inhibitor

Look like a substrate, binds to the active site and stops a real substrate from binding. Vmax: No Change Km: increase Binds: Active site

mRNA surveillance

Mechanisms for the detection and elimination of mRNAs that contain errors that may create problems in the course of translation.

implicit memory

Memories we don't deliberately remember or reflect on consciously like learned motor functions

In an electrolytic cell containing molten MgCl2(l):

Mg2+ is reduced at the cathode, and Cl- is oxidized at the anode Mg2+ ions move to the negative electrode where they PICK UP OR GAIN ELECTRONS. This is reduction. The Cl- ions move to the positive electrode where they LOSE ELECTRONS. This is oxidation.

racial formation perspective

Michael Omi and Howard Winat Race is seen as a complex and fluid social construct, enforced through both micro- and macro-level social processes (race is not genetic)

Microarray analysis

Microarrays are a way to determine transcript levels that are being expressed by a population of cells

conservation of momentum

Momentum of a system remains constant when there are no net external forces acting on it.

NADPH vs NADH

NADPH: Pentose Phosphate Pathway and Fatty acid synthesis elongation NADH: Citric acid cycle.glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain

Which would cause perciptation with AgNO3 NaCl Mg(ClO4)2 Hg(NO3)2 NaHC3COO

NaCl because it will make AgCl which is not dissolve While ClO4 (perchlorate ),NO3 (nitrate), CH3OOH (acetate) all are soluble

Which of the following changes in state functions occurred during the dissolution shown in Equation 1? NaOH(s) + H2O(ℓ) → NaOH(aq) (Exothermic) I. ΔH < 0 II. ΔG > 0 III. ΔS > 0 A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only

NaOH(s) + H2O(ℓ) → NaOH(aq) delta S increase because of changing solid into liquid Delta H decrease because the reaction is exothermic

palindromic sequence

Nucleic acid sequence: read the same 5'-3' as complementary 5'-3' 4 to 6 base pairs long

short-term memory capacity and duration

Our short-term memory stores are estimated to have a roughly 5-9 item capacity (roughly 7 items plus or minus 2) with an approximately 15-30 second duration.

Eye Layers

Outer layer: collagen fibers Middle Layer: Blood Vessels Inner Layer: Bipolar and photo receptors

Ideal Gas Law

PV=nRT R is constant no matter what pressure or temperature Pressure at STP is 1 atm, 101.3 KPA,760mmHg Temperture at STP is 273K

During protein fingerprinting, what reaction occurs to prepare the sample for analysis? Knowing that peptide cleavage occurs in fingerprinting A. Oxidation B. Reduction C. Hydrolysis D. Isomerization

Peptide cleavage is hydrolysis

Ferementation

Process by which oxygen lacking cells and some one-celled organisms release small amounts of energy from glucose molecules and produce wastes such as alcohol, carbon dixode, and lactic acid. NAD+ is not regenerated in this processe compared to glycolysis

Saponification

Process of soap formation; as related to decomposition, the conversion of fatty tissues of the body into a soapy waxy substance called adipocere or grave wax.

Colors of the visible spectrum

ROYGBIV (red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet)

DNA polymerase I

Removes RNA nucleotides Ozaki fragments( the more primers the more/shorter Ozaki fragments) of primer from 5' end and replaces them with DNA nucleotides produces a strand of DNA in the 5' to 3

AV node

(atrioventricular node) region of the heart between the right atrium and right ventricle from which electrical impulses spread to the ventricles during a heartbeat

SN1 reaction

*unimolecular nucleophilic substitution reactions: 2 steps 1. Leaving group leaves forming a positively charged carbocation (rate limiting step) *The rate of rxn depends only on the concentration of the substrate rate = k [R-L] R-L is the alkyl group containing the leaving group Carbocation intermediate *Anything that accelerates the formation of the carbocation increase the rate of rxn 2. Nucleophile attacks the carbocation (unstable) *results in substitution product will result in a racemic mixture occurs for tertiary, sometime for secondary structure an

fractional vs. simple distillation?

Simple distillation condenses the liquid once, so the boiling points of the two liquids must be far apart to make it efficient while fractional condenses more than once, therefore, must have a smaller boiling point differences

Solubility relation to temperature and pressure

Solubility is inversely proprtional to the temperature (S↓=T↑) Solubility is proportional to the pressure (S↑=P↑)

Mindguarding

Some members of the group prevent dissenting opinions from permeating the group by filtering out information and facts that go against the beliefs of the group

what properties differ between light and sound waves?

Sound: longitudinal, no polarization,needs a medium,faster through water than air, speed determined only be medium Light: transverse, can be polarized, deos not need a medium, faster through air than water, can be dispersed

Two neighboring lizard populations would be considered separate species if: A. one population inhabited the forest and the other lived in a field. B. one population had a UV-reflective dewlap and the other did not. C. they did not communicate with each other. D. they did not interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

Species are identified if they are able to interbreed if two organisms cant breed that means they must be 2 different species

Which of the following hormones is(are) directly required for spermatogenesis? I: Luteinizing hormone (LH) II: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) III: Inhibin IV: Testosterone A. IV only B. I and IV only C. II and IV only D. I, II, and III only

Spermatogenesis would not occur without Sertoli cells. The two hormones that directly stimulate Sertoli cells are FSH and testosterone.

Semen consists of

Spermatozoa,mucus,water,alkaline secretions and nutrients from the seminal vesicles

which protien transport gas I.Globulins II.Hemoglobin III.Myoglobin A. I only B. II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

Table 1 shows the function of Protein E to be gas transport. While both hemoglobin in blood and myoglobin in muscle can bind oxygen, only hemoglobin actually transports O2. Myoglobin simply stores O2 to be used by the muscle cell (Statement II is true and III is false). γ-Globulins are just antibodies and are involved in immune function (Statement I is false).

Shadowing

Technique where a participant is asked to repeat a word or phrase immediately after its heard

Anaphase I (Meiosis)

Tetrads split up and head to opposite poles

Based on the data in Figure 3, what is the melting temperature Tm of wild-type M1 mRNA in a solution containing 100 mM KCl? A. 45°C B. 53°C C. 64°C D. 80°C

The answer is B because the Tm is the temperature at which 50% of the molecules are denatured or the fraction folded is 0.5. This occurs at approximately 53°C in 100 mM KCl.

Which event is NOT a likely outcome of glucagon binding to its receptor? Increase in: Its receptor is G protein-coupled receptors A. GDP binding to Gα subunit of the G protein B. adenylate cyclase activity C. protein kinase A activity D. cAMP generation

The answer to this question is A because following glucagon binding to its receptor and activation of its coupled G protein, activities of the adenylate cyclase and the protein kinase A, and level of cAMP are all increased. In contrast activation of the G protein promotes the dissociation of bound GDP and its exchange for GTP on the α subunit.

What is the work done by the patient during a 3-minute exercise on the bicycle? 30 W. A.5400 J B.90 J C.6 J D.0.16 J

The answer to this question is A because power P is work W done in a time t interval: P = W/t. Solving for W yields: W = Pt. Using the values given in the text, load P = 30 W and time t = 3 min, leads to W = 5400 J.

A particular genome is composed of 23% adenine. What percentage of the genome is guanine? A.11% B.23% C.27% D.46%

The answer to this question is C because A + T = 46% and G + C = 54%; if A:T=1:1 therefore G:C=1:1 so 54/2=27 so G=27 and C=27 making the ratio 1:1. Answer is C

Assume that S. typhi immediately enters the bloodstream from the small intestine. Of the following, which would be the first major organ that bloodborne S. typhi would encounter? A.Stomach B.Pancreas C.Large intestine D.Liver

The answer to this question is D because blood from the small intestine is transported first to the liver, which regulates nutrient distribution and removes toxins from the blood.

A separate group of scientists repeated the amino acid transport experiments described in the passage. All protocols were performed as outlined in the initial study with one major exception: D-alanine was used as the primary amino acid substrate. What effect will this change have on the synthesis of new proteins in the animals studied? Protein synthesis will: A.increase two-fold. B.not change. C.decrease by one-half. D.be inhibited.

The answer to this question is D because only L isomers are used to form proteins during ribosomal protein synthesis.

The energy of activation for the reaction described in the passage is given by the energy of: A.the reactants minus the energy of the products. B.the products minus the energy of the reactants. C.the activated complex minus the energy of the products. D.the activated complex minus the energy of the reactants.

The answer to this question is D because the activation energy for a reaction represents the minimum energy barrier necessary to be overcome by the reactants on the path to products.

The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds can be inferred from which of the following types of experimental data? A.Boiling points B.UV-visible absorption spectra C.Mass spectroscopic fragmentation patterns D.Heats of combustion

The answer to this question is D because the relative thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted; less heat, greater stability.

Which type of enzyme is responsible for activating subunit A? subunit A is part of a polypeptide chain that is subject to hydrolytic cleavage. A.Endonuclease B.Exonuclease C.Ribonuclease D.Protease

The answer to this question is D because the subunit A is part of a polypeptide chain that is subject to hydrolytic cleavage.This reaction is most likely catalyzed by a protease.

That the electric field is uniform between the electrodes means that the electric field lines: A.are more closely spaced at the positive electrode than at the negative one. B.intersect halfway between the electrodes. C.are more closely spaced at the negative electrode than at the positive one. D.are equally spaced at both electrodes and between them.

The answer to this question is D because, by definition, electric field lines are equally spaced in a uniform field.

If a leak develops in the vacuum distillation apparatus, the boiling points of the two components of caraway seed oil will: A. both increase. B. both decrease. C. both remain the same. D. become more similar.

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the surface pressure. The normal boiling point is measured at 1 atm pressure. The vapor pressure of a liquid increases with increasing temperature. Hence, the boiling point of a liquid decreases as the pressure on the surface of the liquid is decreased. If a leak develops in the apparatus, the surface pressure will increase, as will the boiling points of both liquids. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

The tendency of doctors to use a physician-centered communication style more often with Black patients is an example of: A. prejudice. B. stereotyping. C. discrimination. D. ethnocentrism.

The communication style assumed by the doctors is an example of discrimination because it suggests that the doctors are behaving differently based on the patients' racial background.

Acetylcholine is simulator to which of the following? I. Skeletal muscle II. Post ganglion Neurons III. Cardiac Muscles

The item I and II are true both Acetylcholine is used as a stimulator for skeletal muscles and post ganglions neurons. Item III is False Cardiac muscles when activated with Acetylcholine will cause inhibition

Delayed ovulation, as a cause of tubal pregnancy, would most likely be associated with delayed secretion of which of the following hormones? A.Progesterone B.Estrogen C.HCG D.Luteinizing hormone

The question requires the examinee to identify that luteinizing hormone (D) is the hormone responsible for triggering ovulation. While the sex hormones progesterone (A) and estrogen (B) are either secreted in response to the luteinizing hormone surge or actually trigger the luteinizing hormone surge, respectively, they are not directly involved in triggering ovulation.

absorption spectrum

The range of a pigment's ability to absorb various wavelengths of light.

Which protein has the highest electrophoretic mobility in SDS-PAGE under non-reducing conditions? (Note: There are no disulfide interactions unless stated in the table.) A.Protein 1 B.Protein 2 C.Protein 3 D.Protein 4

The smallest will have the highest mobility and monomers will move indiviual unless it has a disulfide link. Protein1=32kda Protein 2= 19*2=40 Protein3=25 Protein 4=38 Answer is C

fetilization process

The spermatozoa swim through the vagina, cervix, uterus, and one fallopian tube

Bohr effect

The tendency of certain factors to stablize the hemoglobin in the tense conformation, thus reducing its affinity for oxygen and enhancing the relase of oxygen to the tissues. The factors include increased PCO2, increased metabolic rate, increase temperature, increased bisphosphoglycerate (BPG), and decreased pH. Note that the Bohr effect shifts the oxy-hemolobin saturation curve to the right.

van't Hoff factor equation

The van 't Hoff factor i is a measure of the effect of a solute upon colligative properties such as osmotic pressure, relative lowering in vapor pressure, boiling-point elevation and freezing-point depression. examples Nacl: 2 van't hoff factor 2 ionic compounds NH3:1 ionic compound Ca3(PO4)2-> 3Ca + 2PO4 makes a van hoff factor of 5

An individual reports experiencing chronic stress because she cannot afford clothes suitable for job interviews. What does this individual lack as a result of her economic situation? A. Social capital B. Social reproduction C. Symbolic capital D. Cultural capital

This individual lacks a cultural asset that would increase her likelihood of attaining employment; cultural capital refers to certain non-financial assets that promote or allow upward mobility in society, such as education, social graces, proper speech, specialized attire, etc. (choice D is correct)

tertiary structure of proteins

Three-dimensional structure of peptide results from hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions between residues far apart on the chain. Disulfide bonds and hydrogen bonds can also add to the tertiary structure of the protein. these interactions include: van der Waals forces between polar and nonpolar, covalent bonds, disulfide bonds and electrostatic interactions quaternary are similar the only difference is that disulfide bonds form between chains instead of being linked with peptide bonds

Most viral proteins are produced directly by: A. translation of host nucleic acid. B. translation of viral nucleic acid. C. transcription of host nucleic acid. D. transcription of viral nucleic acid.

Transcription is copying; translation is changing the language. In cellular metabolism transcription refers to taking DNA and making an RNA copy; translation refers to taking the RNA, a series of nucleotides, and putting it into protein language, a series of amino acids. Some viruses have a genome consisting of RNA and this can be directly translated by the ribosome. Others use DNA as the genetic material and require transcription as well. Both, however, ultimately make proteins by translating their specific RNAs into protein, so the answer is B.

Prokaryote Transcription

Transcrpition and translation happens at the same time no mRNA processing Polycistranic (multipele gees are transcribed) T RNA polymerase require template occur in cytoplasm

types of noncoding RNA

Transfer RNA: translating code Ribosomal RNA: essential for protein synthesis small nuclear RNA: associate with proteins to form snRNA complex microRNA and small interfering RNA:a form of post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression PIWI-interacting RNA: work with PIWI proteins to prevent transposons form mobilizing long ncRNA: longer than 200 nucleotides, Help control the basal transcription complex assembly on promoters. they also control splicing and translation

Blastocyte structure

Trophoblast: secretes HCG to maintain forms the placenta(HcG levels are low) which will take over and make the hormones instead of corpus luteum

urination process

Ureter, bladder, involuntary urinary sphincter, voluntary urinary sphincter

Find Velocity when given displacement and acceleration but missing time

V^2=V0^2+2ad

According to the data in Table 1, what is one of the values of the electromagnetic energy delivered during one pulse by the ionizing radiation? W=1.5mW And Pukse duration =5 ms A.2.0 µJ B.3.5 µJ C.7.5 µJ D. 8.0 µJ

W=E/T→ E=W*T=(1.5mW)(5ms)=7.5 µJ

Work equation work for gravity

W=Fdcos(theta) Work for gravity: Wg=mgh

types of capitalism

Welfare capitalism is a system in which most of the economy is private with the exception of extensive social welfare programs to serve certain needs within society State capitalism is a system in which companies are privately run, but work closely with the government in forming laws and regulations

induction

When one type of cell is transplanted and then becomes more like its surrounding cells, that process is called induction. This typically must happen early enough in development so that specific genes are not yet turned on.

ventricular contraction

When the ventricles contract, the blood from the left ventricle is forced through the aortic semilunar valve and into the aorta, and the blood from the right ventricle is forced through the pulmonary semilunar valve and into the pulmonary vasculature. the valve between the left ventricle and the aorta

white matter

Whitish nervous tissue of the CNS consisting of neurons and their myelin sheaths. cell-to-cell communication useful for Decreasing the surface area to be depolarized

Zn→Zn2+ +2e- E=.76 Cu2+ +2e-→Cu E=.34 Whats final reaction

Zn+Cu2+→Zn2+ +Cu E=1V Coefficient do not affect value

Bile

a bitter greenish-brown alkaline fluid that aids digestion and is secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. Bile has Amphipathic structure allowing to break down fat.

heterogenous catalyst

a catalyst whose phase is different from the reactants'

ternary compound

a compound containing three different elements

sick role theory

a term associated with the functionalist Talcott Parsons to describe the patterns of behavior that a sick person adopts in order to minimize the disruptive impact of his illness on others 2 rights: exempt from normal social roles, and not responsible for condition 2 obligation: try to get well and seek treatment

looking-glass self

a term coined by Charles Horton Cooley to refer to the process by which our self develops through internalizing others' reactions to us

Free Recall vs. Cued Recall

a testing condition in which a person is asked to remember information without explicit retrieval cues Cued Recall is with retrieval cues

van der Waals constants

a: reflects how strong the molecules attract each other (IM forces); b: reflects the size of the molecule --- van der Waals equation extends beyond the ideal gas law to take into account attractive and repulsive forces

Active expiration is produced by contraction of

abdominal muscles and internal intercostals

cations exchange

cations stick to sides

Trypsin cleaves

cleaves only lysine or arginine

Discrimination

in classical conditioning, the learned ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus

The atomic mass of boron is 10.8. Boron comes in two naturally occurring isotopes, 10B and 11B. What is the naturally occurring ratio of 10B:11B?

ince the weight on the periodic table is an averaged mass, we can write the following equation to solve the question: 10.8 = 11(x) + 10(1 - x). x is equal to the fraction of 11B, and, therefore 1 - x is the fraction of 10B. The equation simplifies to 10.8 - 10 = 11x - 10x, or x = 0.8. Therefore the ratio 10B:11B is 0.2:0.8, or 1:4.

source monitoring error

occurs when a memory derived from one source is misattributed to another source

the serial position effect

our tendency to recall best the last and first items in a list

Capilleries

small vessals that carry blood from arteries to your veins responsible for releasing osmotic pressure and other waste

ciliary muscle

smooth muscle portion of the ciliary body, which contracts to assist in near vision regulates the curvature of the lens

Based on the data in Table 1, the highest catalytic efficiency results from which enzyme-substrate combination? A. Wild-type with respect to galactose B. Wild-type with respect to ATP C. D45A with respect to galactose D. D45A with respect to ATP

the catalytic efficiency is measured by the kcat/KM, which is the highest for the wild-type in for ATP. The kcat is the highest for wild-type and the smallest KM for wild-type occurs with ATP. B=8.7/34=2.6 × 105 mol-1s-1 Correct answer is B

How many molecules of reduced electron carrier are generated during conversion of α-ketoglutarate to oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

the citric acid makes 4 reduced electron carriers(FADH2, NADH). It makes one from isocitrate to α-ketoglutarate(NADH) Then from α-ketoglutarate to succinyl COA(NADH) Then Succinate to Furmate (FADH2) Then malate to oxaloacetate(NADH) So from α-ketoglutarate to oxaloacetate only 3 have been made answer is C

anatomical dead space

the conducting zone; airways that fill with air but cannot perform gas exchange this includes the trachea, bronchi, nose, pharynx,larynx,bronchioles and terminal bronchioles Respiratory zone includes respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli

Intersectionality

the interconnected nature of social categorizations such as race, class, and gender as they apply to a given individual or group, regarded as creating overlapping and interdependent systems of discrimination or disadvantage.

corpus callosum

the large band of neural fibers connecting the two brain hemispheres and carrying messages between them

The leading and the lagging strands differ in that

the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction resulting in Okazaki fragments

Salience

the level of familiarity with an interest group's goals among the general population

frameshift mutation

the mutation that shifts the "reading" frame of the genetic message by inserting or deleting a nucleotide Thus, any insertions or deletions of multiples of (three nucleotides) will not result in a frameshift mutation and would cause a false negative test for mutagenicity

Senescence

the natural physical decline brought about by aging caused by smaller telomerase

self-serving bias

the tendency for people to take personal credit for success but blame failure on external factors

A not B error

the tendency to reach for a hidden object where it was last found rather than in the new location where it was last hidden

O negative

universal donor (ii)

proto-ocogenes

A normal gene which, when altered by mutation, becomes an oncogene that can contribute to cancer.

Pemphigus vulgaris results from autoantibodies directed against a protein found between keratinocytes (skin cells). Which skin layer would you expect to be involved in the blisters seen in these patients? A. Epidermis B. Dermis C. Hypodermis D. Subcutaneous tissue

A. The outermost layer of the skin is the epidermis, made up primarily of cells called keratinocytes (choice A is correct). The dermis is beneath the epidermis and contains collagen and elastic fibers which help support the skin (choice B is wrong). The hypodermis, also known as the subcutaneous tissue, is primarily fat (choices C and D are wrong).

revascularization

Reestablishment of blood supply to a part of the body.

DNA replication occurs

S phase in semiconservative(1/2 of DNA is affected by replication)

primary follicle

The primary follicle includes a primary oocyte and, moving outward from the egg surface, a zona pellucida, granulosa cells, and thecal cells

Esterification

The reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid to produce an ester and water.

amino acids can act as a base or acid or amphoteric

amphoteric

Holoenzyme

apoenzyme + cofactor

transmembrane proteins

are proteins that mainly hydrophobic so that it may interact with cell membrane

Kinetic Molecular Theory

based on the idea that particles of matter are always in motion

three factors that we use to determine whether we attribute behavior to internal or external causes

distinctiveness, consensus and consistency

three main stages of memory

encoding, storage, retrieval

Histamine

inflammatory chemical released from damaged cells that causes vasodilation of capillaries

antibotic

medications that are capable of inhibiting growth, or killing pathogenic bacterial microorganisms so it only affect prokaryotic not EukaryotasN

gap junctions

provide cytoplasmic channels between adjacent animal cells made of connexion

electron affinity

the energy needed to remove or add an electron from a negative ion to form a neutral atom or molecule left to right, down to up

SA node (sinoatrial node)

-pacemaker of the heart -sets the heartbeat rate -located in the right atrium -causes atria to contract

Globalization

Actions or processes that involve the entire world and result in making something worldwide in scope.

Einsteins equation for mass energy equivalence

E = (delta m)c^2 Delta m=(total mass of separate nucleons)- mass of nucleus E in(eV) =(Delta m) *(931.5 MeV)

Which amino acid in the substrate binding pocket is most likely to interact with the substrate through its backbone as opposed to its side chain? A.Arg36 B.Glu42 C.Asp45 D. Gly180

Glycine Has Hydrogen as a side chain compared to the NH3 in arginie, Oh in aspartic and glutamine. Glycine is the least reactive therefore the answer is D

Which type of psychoactive drug has the lowest risk of dependence?

Hallucinogens

Hemizygosity

Haploid expression in a diploid organism

spermatheca

In many insects, a sac in the female reproductive system where sperm are stored.

In the Bohr model of the atom, radiation is emitted whenever electrons: A. change orbits. B. undergo acceleration. C. move to orbits of lower energy. D. move to orbits of larger radius.

In the Bohr model of an atom, energy is emitted only when an electron falls from a higher to a lower energy level. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

catalytic efficiency

Kcat/Km

Pedigree: Autosomal Recessive

Person needs 2 copies of gene/allele to express phenotype Male & Female equally likely to express trait Generally SKIPS generations Trait appear in offspring of unaffected parents Trait often clustered around siblings

Pedigree:Autosomal Dominant

Person needs only 1 copy of gene/allele to express phenotype male & female equally likely to have trait - - Affected Offspring Must Have an Affected Parent - - ** There IS male-to-male transmission of a trait ** trait generally does NOT skip generations---

Pneumocytes Type I and II

Pneumocytes are cells lining the alveoli in the lung. Type I comprises 90-95% of the cells and they are important for structure and gas exchange. Pneumocytes type II are a small group of cells that secrete surfactants to reduce surface tension in the alveoli

All of the following brain areas are associated with experence of emotion except: A. Temporal Lobe B.Amygdala C.Hypothalmus D.Pons

Pons

phase change equation

Q=mL Example:A cook picked up a pan on the stove and, realizing it was too hot, quickly threw it into a nearby pot on the counter filled with water (at 99.9°C). After treating his hand for the burn, he found approximately one liter of water had vanished. Assuming no heat exchange with the surroundings, approximately how much energy did the pan lose in the vaporization of the water? [Note: ΔHvap(water) = 40.6 kJ/mol] A:2200KJ=(1000g/18g/mole)(40.6KJ/mol)

renin-angiotensin system

System that helps to regulate fluid balance and blood pressure through actions in the kidney. Systemic Vasoconstriction: Increase blood Pressure Angiotensin II can either cause System Vasoconstriction or increase aldosterone↑ release ( Increase Na+ retention↑ and secrete↑ K+) which →increase blood osmolarity causing →ADH → saves water →increases blood volume → increase BP Renin: Kidney converts low Blood Pressure to increase Blood Pressure Ace inhibtors increase blood pressure The juxtaglomerular cells in the afferent arteriole are baroreceptors that sense low pressure, renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, and ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

The average human body contains approximately 5 liters of blood. If the blood has a density of 1060 kg/m3, what is the total mass of blood in the average human? (Note: 1 L = 1000 cm3.) A.0.212 kg B.0.530 kg C.5.30 kg D.10.6 kg

The answer to this question is C because m = ρV = 1060 kg/m3 × 5 L × 1000 cm3/L × 1 m3/106 cm3 = 5.30 kg

Ubiquitination

The attachment of ubiquitin to a molecule, in this case to mark it for degradation

the degree of cooperativity of hemoglobin

The greater the degree of cooperativity of hemoglobin, the more concerted the oxygen binding and release from hemoglobin.

grey matter

The portions of the central nervous system that are abundant in cell bodies of neurons rather than axons. Unmyelinated. cell body and dendrities

Kinetics vs. Thermodynamics

Thermodynamics= IF a reaction will occur Kinetics= HOW a reaction will occur (fast/slow)

electric field

a field of force surrounding a charged particle

Parasomnia

abnormal behavior that occurs during sleep including night terrors or somnambulism(Sleep walking)

capases

an enzyme within a cell that cuts up DNA and produces cell death(apoptosis)

arg- leu- lac-

arg-: cant live without arginine leu-: cant live without leucine lac-: cant digest lactose

types of status

ascribed status: status assigned at birth achieved status: status achieved through hard work master status: most important characteristic that defines you

base and conjugate acid

conjugate acid : more H+ Conjugate base : Less H+

(Eye) Pathway of light

cornea →anterior chamber (aqueous humor)→pupil→posterior chamber→lens→retina

culture capital

cultural capital - skills, knowledge, education that have MERIT

thremodynamics is directly controlled by

entropy

Amylase

enzyme that breaks down starch/carbohydrates

novel information

ex. Effortful processing of new information

If sounds produced by the human vocal cords are approximated as waves on a string fixed at both ends, and the average length of a vocal cord is 15 mm, what is the fundamental frequency of the sound? (Note: Use 3 m/s for the speed of sound through the vocal cord.) A. 10 Hz B. 100 Hz C. 1000 Hz D. 10,000 Hz

f=1/s=(3m/s)(1/15*10^3m)=100Hz

mitosis At what juncture point is mitosis most heavily regulated?

for cell division Paired homologous chromosomes are found in meiosis but not mitosis Between G1 and S phases

Grignard reagent

forms race mic mixture

tropic hormones

hormones that stimulate other glands to release their hormones

buffering capacity is at maximum when

is when conjugate base=conjugate acid

gastic glands

produce hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen

proximal convoluted tubule

reabsorption/ of Water, ions, glucose, amino acids

parietal cells of stomach

secrete HCl and intrinsic factor

position vs time graph

slope = velocity

reaction rate factors

temperature, surface area(the orientation of the colliding molecules), concentration, stirring(how frequent the molecules collide), and catalysts( energy needed)

normal force

the force perpendicular to a surface that prevents an object from falling through the surface

transversion vs transition adenine to cytosine cytosine to thymine thymine to guanine guanine to adenine adenine to thymine adenine to guanine

transVERSION changes for a different VERSION (purine to pyrimidine, vice versa) transition just changes PURE TO PURE or PY to PY

Leukocytes

white blood cells, fight infection and they gravitate toward an inflammation

social desirability bias

A tendency to give socially approved answers to questions about oneself.

psychoanalytic theory

A theory developed by Freud that attempts to explain personality, motivation, and mental disorders by focusing on unconscious determinants of behavior

The idea that enzymes undergo conformational changes upon substrate binding in order to bring specific functional groups into the correct catalytic orientation is described as the: A. transitionstate model. B. active-site model. C. lock-and-key model. D. induced-fit model

A. is the change of transition states during a reaction B. active site is the region of an enzyme where substrate molecules bind and undergo a chemical reaction C.lock and key model the enzyme-substrate interaction suggests that the enzyme and the substrate possess specific complementary geometric shapes that fit exactly into one another. D. induced- fit model is that the enzyme will undergo conformational changes upon substrate binding

Which of the four DNA bases contains the largest number of hydrogen bond acceptors when involved in a Watson-Crick base pair? A.A B.C C.G D. T

Adenine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor thymine contains 1 donor and 1 acceptor, guanine contains 2 donors and 1 acceptor, cytosine contains 1 donor and 2 acceptors.

Mitochondria

An organelle found in large numbers in most cells, in which the biochemical processes of respiration and energy production occur. mitochondria have a single, distinct chromosome in cristae, ribosomes, electron transport chain All humans receive their mitochondrial genome from their mother's egg, so mitochondrial traits are passed from mothers to all offspring

reciprocal exchange

An unincorporated group of individuals who mutually insure one another, each separately assuming a share of each risk.

memory cells

B lymphocytes that do not become plasma cells but remain dormant until reactivated by the same antigen.

At what stage of embryonic development are all three germ layers established? A. Blastula B. Gastrula C. Embryo D. Zygote

Gastrula

fast twitch fibers type II A and B

Generate large amounts of force. Fatigue quickly. White in color, not highly vascularized. Low aerobic capacity. Well equipped to produce ATP anaerobically. Used in activities such as sprinting, jumping, and weightlifting.

secondary structure of protein

Hydrogen bonds form spirals(α helix) or pleats(β pleated sheets) Hormones are usually found in spirals because of all the polar NH and CO groups Proline never in spiral always in pleats

In humans, cholesterol is a precursor to: A. insulin. B. glycogen. C. testosterone. D. DNA.

In humans, cholesterol is a precursor to testosterone. Cholesterol and testosterone are only two of several steroid-based natural molecules. The body makes uses of the steroid backbone of cholesterol to produce the hormone testosterone.

equilibrium equation

K eq = equlibrium constant (unitless) K eq = Products/Reactants Value of K eq indicates position of a reaction at equilibrium. K eq = greater than 1 indicates products are favored - arrow points to right (products) K eq = less than 1 indicates reactants are favored - arrow points to left (reactants)

Ka, pKa, and acid strength

Ka↑,Pka↓,acid↑,base↓ Kb↑,Pkb↓,base↑,acid↓

Diffraction

Occurs when an object causes a wave to change direction and bend around it

dielectric breakdown

Occurs when high voltage breaks down insulating material such as when the material in sterile gloves is unable to withstand the leakage of current generated by the electrosurgical unit. E = φ/r. →φmax = Emax × R

Lens power equation

P=1/f

The standard version of a dichotic listening task involves: A.presenting two different auditory messages, one to each ear. B.presenting two different auditory stimuli to the same ear. C.requiring participants to identify two subthreshold sounds. D.requiring participants to dichotomize sounds into distinct categories.

The answer to this question is A because it provides the operational definition of dichotic listening. Each distractor mentions something about presenting two auditory stimuli, but none specifies that the two different stimuli are presented to different ears.

Every time a volunteer in a sleep study begins to exhibit rapid eye movements (REM), the experimenter wakes the person up. On the following night, when his or her sleep is uninterrupted, the person will most likely: A.have difficulty falling asleep. B.have more REM sleep than usual. C.have less REM sleep than usual. D.have the same sleep pattern as before the study

The answer to this question is B because after being REM-deprived the night before, the volunteer is going to exhibit "REM rebound."

What thermodynamic and chemical changes (if any) occur during aspartate transamination? knowing that Keq=1 Since ΔG < 0, ATP is produced. Since ΔG = 0, no ATP is required or produced. Since ΔG > 0, ATP is required. Since ΔG > 0, ATP is produced.

The free energy of the reaction as written in either direction is the same since Keq = 1, and ΔG = -RTln(Keq) and therefore ΔG = 0. When a reaction is thermoneutral ATP is neither produced, nor required for the reaction to proceed.

hydrostatic pressure

The hydrostatic pressure differential causes fluid to move out of the capillaries at the arterial end

signal sequence

The sequence within a protein that directs the protein to a particular organelle. are found in proteins that are secreted or transmembrance bound and lysosomal proteins but not for cytosolic proteins

The reacting substrate carbon atom in the mechanism described in the passage undergoes which of the following hybridization state changes during the reaction? (Note: the middle hybridization state refers to an intermediate.)As described in the passage, deprotonation of water is the preliminary step in the reaction sequence. Asp2 → sp3 → sp2 sp3 → sp2 → sp2 sp3 → sp2 → sp3 sp3 → sp3 → sp3

This knowledge and knowledge of the reaction pathways that lead to amide hydrolysis are enough to conclude that the sequence of events involves nucleophilic attack of coordinated hydroxide on the sp2-hybridized carbonyl carbon atom to generate an sp3-hybridized and tetrahedral intermediate which subsequently eliminates an amine (after proton transfer) to generate an sp2-hybridized carbon atom.

troponin-tropomyosin complex

Tropomyosin: is a long fibrous protein that winds around the actin polymer blocking all the myosin-binding site Troponin: is a globular protein bound to the tropomyosin that can bind Ca2+ activating the troponin-tropomyosin complex allowing tropomyosin to move and allow myosin to bind to actin

Socialeconomic status (SES)

a measure of an individual's or family's economic and social position based on education (prestige), income (Income) , and occupation (Property)

EMG (electromyography)

a measurement technique that records the electrical activity of a muscle or group of muscles. It indicates muscle activity

Dielectric What if Battery detached and inserted dielectric insert dielectric while battery connected

a medium or substance that transmits electric force without conduction; an insulator. conduction is not made because of the dipoles Battery Detached= Q constant Battery not Detached= Voltage constant

Meritocracy

a system in which promotion is based on individual ability or achievement

AC circuit

an electric circuit with current that reverses direction at regular intervals.

Triglycerides

an energy-rich compound made up of a single molecule of glycerol and three molecules of fatty acid.

Polymerase

an enzyme that brings about the formation of a particular polymer, especially DNA or RNA.

Kinase

an enzyme that catalyzes the reaction of transferase of a phosphate group from ATP to a specified molecule.

anterograde amnesia

an inability to form new memories

somatic cells

any cell of a living organism other than the reproductive cells.

phosphatides

any of a class of compounds that are fatty acid esters of glycerol phosphate with a nitrogen base linked to the phosphate group.

frontal lobe

associated with reasoning, planning, parts of speech, movement, emotions, and problem solving

Vagina

birth canal and has a low pH as a part of innate immunity

Capacitors in series and parallel

capacitors in series: 1/c total = 1/c1 + 1/c2 + 1/c3... capacitors in parallel: Ctotal = c1 + c2 +c3

Insoluble compounds

carbonates, phosphates, chromates, sulfides, and hydroxides

cellular specialization

cells became specialized to perform certain functions. highly specialized cells do not divide.

lub

closing of AV valves begin systole

3 components of emotion

cognitive, physiological, behavioral

Fatty acid synthesis elongation

constantly adding malonyl to actyl coa until 16 carbon is formed Occurs in cytoplasm Linked to acyl carrier protein Coenzyme NADPH(NADPH is a reducing agent) Energy Required

Topoisomerase

corrects "overwinding" ahead of replication forks by breaking, swiveling, and rejoining DNA strands

As the concentration of solutes increases with a solvent, its freezing point

decreases

Zymogens

digestive enzymes secreted as inactive proteins

Depressants

drugs (such as alcohol, barbiturates, and opiates) that reduce neural activity and slow body functions

Adrenergic Drugs

drugs that stimulate the sympathetic nervous system

Cultrual competence

effective interactions between people from different cultures

inductive effects on acidity

electronegative elements near acidic protons increase acid strength because they weaken the bond by drawing electrons

3 types of anaerobic

facultative anaerobes: will use oxygen if available but does not need oxygen for metabolism Tolerant anaerobes: can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen but do not use it in their metabolism Obligate anaerobes: oxygen is poisonous

protooncogenes

genes whose normal protein products activate the cell cycle so if protein wasn't there is will stop cell cycle

How many stereoisomers of Compound 1 exist? A.8 B.16 C.32 D.64

he answer to this question is C. There are 5 chirality centers in Compound 1. By application of the 2^n rule, there are 32 possible stereoisomers.

state-dependent learning

learning that becomes associated with the conditions under which it occurred, so that it is best remembered under the same conditions

A+B→C + energy C mass must be

less than A and B combined

radioimmunoassay (RIA)

method of determining the concentration of protein-bound hormones in the blood plasma

gram equivalent weight

molar mass/mol

vasoconstriction

narrowing of blood vessels

quasi-experiment

no control group or random assignment

Which conclusion about the data shown in Figure 1 is valid? A.Changes in the MMP likely affect cell viability. B.Changes in cell viability likely affect the MMP. C.MMP is unrelated to cell viability. D.Cell viability can be restored by decreasing MMP.

notice how mmp changed first which then affected cell viability And if mitochondrial membrane potential decreased it will cause cell death therefore the answer is A

Oligonucleotides vs polynucleotide

oligonucleotides: segments of nucleic acid that are 50 nucleotides or less in length Polynucleotides: more than 50 nucleotides

crystallized intelligence

one's accumulated knowledge and verbal skills; tends to increase with age

types of reproductive barriers

prezygotic(before zygote forms) and postzygotic(after zygote forms)

Excocytosis

process of exporting proteins from a cell by a vesicle fusing with the cell membrane

Hallucinogens

psychedelic ("mind-manifesting") drugs, such as LSD, that distort perceptions and evoke sensory images in the absence of sensory input

somatic symptom disorder

psychological disorder in which the symptoms take a somatic (bodily) form without apparent physical cause this may include pain, nausea, dizziness, and fainting

neurocognitive disorders

psychopathologies due to various forms of damage to the nervous system not arising until adulthood includes Alzheimers: abnormal amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles affects memory Parkinsons: abnormal low dopamine levels abnormal aggregates of proteins of lew bodies damage to the substantia nigra In 50% to 80% of PD cases, dementia is also a symptom of progressive disease

Temperature and bacterial growth

psychrophiles (cold), mesophiles (medium), thermophiles (Hot)

Rate of reaction equation

rR→pP -(1/r)(▲R/▲T)=+(1/p)(▲P/▲t) -=reactant +=Product r= number of moles

Race vs. Ethnicity

race related to a person's appearance and ethnicity refers to nationality, culture, and ancestry.

Isomerase

rearranges bonds within a molecule to form an isomer

cross-cultural research

research conducted with members of different cultures, to see whether the psychological processes of interest are present in both cultures or whether they are specific to the culture in which people were raised

cross-sectional design

research design that examines people of different ages at a single point in time

longitudinal study

research in which the same people are restudied and retested over a long period used to test how traits change over time logistically demanding and expansive high attrition rate(Likely to drop out of study)

Ovaries

responsible for menstruation and first trimester of pregency

Oxidoreductases

runs redox reactions(oxidase,reductase,dehydrogenase)

Acessory Organs

salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, pancreas

jejunum

second part of the small intestine

Neuron types

sensory, motor, interneurons

shielding/ atomic radius periodic trend

shielding increase with an atomic radius so increases as it goes down and from right to left higher the energy state the stronger the shielding denser nucleus=stronger shielding

Muscle origin and insertion

skeletal muscles begin and end at distinct anatomical locations The insertion point is brought closer to the origin when contracting

Which of the following compounds is NOT a gluconeogenic precursor or substrate? Lactate Glycerol Oxaloacetate Phosphogluconate

succinyl-CoA,lactate, pyruvate, glycerol,oxaloacetate, fumarate, and α-ketoglutarate-all good starting materials for gluconeogenesis Phophogluconate is in the pentose phosphate pathway Answer is D

diathesis-stress model

suggests that a person may be predisposed for a mental disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress

how to determine the best buffer

the best buffer has PKA close to the target PH Example target PH is 7.4, therefore, a PKA of 7.21 would be the best Buffer like H2PO4 the good buffer needs a weak base with its conjugate acid Example: H*CN+ Na*CN both have CN, therefore, great buffers

moral identity

the degree to which a person self-identifies as a moral person

Deindividuation

the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in large group situations that foster arousal and physical anonymity

Increased vasoconstriction has an important role in which of the following situations? A. Causing the decrease in blood pressure associated with fainting B. Increasing blood flow to muscle during exercise C. Increasing blood flow to skin during blushing D. Maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage

vasoconstriction increases blood pressure by decreasing blood flow and shrinking the arteries wall. Leaving D to be the correct answer

Theories of Language Development

(Skinner)behaviorist,(Chomsky) nativist, interactionist(Lev Vygotsky)

third order reaction

- Where the overall reaction order in the late law is three. - The rate is 3rd order as a single reactant, or 2nd order in one and 1st oder in the other, or 1st order in each of three reactants. - for examples rate is proportional to [A]^3 or rate is proportional to [A]^2[B] or rate is proportional to [A][B][C]

Types of chromatography

- column chromatography/paper chromatography/liquid column chromatography:polarity of molecules - ion-exchange chromatography: ionic charge of the molecules - size-exclusion chromatography: the size of molecules - affinity chromatography: binding affinity of the analyte molecule to the molecule immobilized on the stationary phase (enzymes). Uses magnetic Beads as the solid phase in Affinity Chromatography -Gas chromatography: boiling point of the molecules -High Performances Liquid Chromatography: uses the different affinity between molecules

What is the ratio of hydronium ion concentrations in solution at the pH that results in the highest MP activity to that which results in the lowest MP activity? A.0.01 B.0.1 C.10 D. 100

1 (highest)/ 100 (lowest)= .01 2 PH change

3 processes to produce urine

1. Filtration- moving a substance (Blood Plasma) across a membrane (capillary wall) using pressure (Blood pressure) ( Filter blood not directly looking for substance) 2. Reabsorption-move a substance(Glucose,nutrients,water) from the filtrate to the blood 3. Secretion: directly move a substance(Drugs, toxins, creations) from the blood to the filtrate (Directly looking for a specific substance)

Electric charge of an electron proton vs electron weight

1.6*10^-19 Proton>>>>>>>>Electron

relative bond strengths

1.Ionic 2.Covalent 3.Metallic 4. Ion Dipole 5.Hydrogen Bond 6.Dipole-Dipole 7.Induced Dipole 8. London Forces

mega

10^6

What is the ploidy of the fertilized egg?

3n

What mass of NaCl (MM = 58.5 g/mol) was present in 100 µL of the PBS solution? .1mM Nacl is molarity A.585 ng B.5.85 µg C.585 µg D.5.85 mg

58.5 g/mol × 0.1 × 10-3 mol/L × 100 × 10-6 L = 5.85 × 10-7 g = 585 × 10-9 g = 585 ng

3 Na+(inside) + 2 K+(outside) + ATP4− + H2O → 3 Na+(outside) + 2 K+(inside) + ADP3− + Pi 2− + H+ Based on Reaction A, if all the energy produced from glycolysis were used to remove Na+ from a cell, how many molecules of Na+ would be removed per molecule of glucose?

6 Na becuase each ATP makes 3 and glycolysis makes 2 atp making 6 Na in total

Which technique was most likely used to measure increased neural activation of specific brain regions? A. MRI B. fMRI C. CT D. PET

A and C is structure of the brain B and D is Functinal of the brain the only difference between fMRI and Pet scans are that fMRI(blood activity) changes in real time. while Pet(glucose takes a longer time to change) scans cant. Pet scans are usually used for cancer fMRIs aka functional MRIs, are used to see where and how the brain activates in real time to different tasks or stimuli. For example, doctors will perform fMRIs on stroke patients where they have them talk or grab something to see how their recovery is going in rebuilding those neural networks to regain those functions. The way I remember it is that fMRIs tell you what the function of a brain region is or if a brain region is functioning properly.

Types of Blotting techniques

A blot, in molecular biology and genetics, is a method of transferring proteins, DNA or RNA, onto a carrier. Northern: detect RNA( Uses nucleic acid to detect proteins) Southern: detect DNA ( Uses nucleic acid to detect proteins) Western: detect Protein( uses antibodies to detect proteins) ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay): detect either, antigens and antibodies. Its configurated by putting antibodies(must put primary first then test for secondary) into well then put the sample the antigens should stick to the antibodies FISH:The FISH technique is used to search and find a specific DNA sequence on chromosomes. Fluorescent probes that bind to only those parts of the chromosome with which they show a high degree of sequence similarity are used to tag sequences of DNA

cDNA

A complementary strand of DNA synthesized from an RNA template by the enzyme reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase, and DNA ligase

agonist drug

A drug that binds to a receptor and triggers a response in the cell, which mimics or enhances a neurotransmitter's effect.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the solubility properties of fatty acid salts? A. They are soluble in polar media only. B. They are soluble in nonpolar media only. C. They can partially dissolve in both polar and nonpolar media. D. They are completely insoluble in both polar and nonpolar media.

A fatty acid salt contains a long hydrocarbon chain, which is soluble in nonpolar solvents. The salt also contains the charged group -CO2-Na+, which is soluble in polar solvents. Thus, C is the best answer.

Which change to the sequence of wild-type M1 mRNA is most likely to increase its stability? A. Changing position 132 to a G and position 151 to a T B. Changing position 134 to an A and position 149 to a U C. Changing position 129 to an A and position 154 to a U D. Changing position 133 to a G and position 150 to a C

A is wrong because this is RNA and therefore RNA has no Thymine B and C is incorrect because GC is a stronger bond than UC so changing GC into UC will just decrease the stability D is correct because changing UC (double bond) into GC (triple bond) will increase stability

Michaelis-Menten Kinetics

A kinetic pattern in which the initial rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction exhibits a hyperbolic dependence on substrate concentration.

Amygdala

A limbic system structure involved in memory and emotion, particularly fear and aggression.

Bohr shift

A lowering of the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen, caused by a drop in pH and increase of CO2; facilitates the release of oxygen from hemoglobin in the vicinity of active tissues.

motor unit recruitment

A mechanism for increasing tension (contractile length) in a muscle by activating more motor units. fine precsion: need many small units of motor unit Gross Precsion: mostly used for power, need few large units of motor units

Pentose Phosphate Pathway

A metabolic process that produces 2 NADPH(NADPH is a reducing agent) and ribose 5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis.

Gabriel (Malonic-Ester) Synthesis

A method of synthesizing amino acids that uses potassium phthalimide and diethyl bromomalonate followed by an alkyl halide; two substitution reactions are followed by hydrolysis and decarboxylation. Steroselective

racemic mixture

A mixture that contains equal amounts of the (+) and (-) enantiomers. Racemic mixtures are not optically active.

method of loci

A mnemonic technique that involves associating items on a list with a sequence of familiar physical locations

Hippocampus

A neural center located in the limbic system that helps process explicit/emotional memories for storage.

lysogenic cycle

A phage replication cycle in which the viral genome becomes incorporated into the bacterial host chromosome as a prophage and does not kill the host. instead it causes the host reproduce and copy the virus gene along with host gene. A virus can then use lytic cycle if it needs to move to a new host called excision A small piece of host DNA may be incorporated into virus genome in a process called transduction This is represented by a clear lawn of bacteria with small clear patches

Loudness

A physical response to the intensity of sound, modified by physical factors bigger amplitude=louder sound

Gentrification

A process of converting an urban neighborhood from a predominantly low-income renter-occupied area to a predominantly middle-class owner-occupied area.

Distillation

A process that separates the substances in a solution based on their boiling points and therefor mass is effective factor

Alzheimer's disease

A progressive disease that destroys memory and other important mental functions.

Inhibin

A protein hormone secreted by sertoli cells of the testes that acts to inhibit the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary.

Positions 129-154 of segment 7 of the M1 mRNA contain a total of how many purines and pyrimidines? A.17 purines and 9 pyrimidines B.9 purines and 17 pyrimidines C.14 purines and 12 pyrimidines D.12 purines and 14 pyrimidines

A purine (Adenine and guanine) or pyrimidine (Cytosine, thymine and uracil) Answer is A

occipital lobe

A region of the cerebral cortex that processes visual information

parietal lobe

A region of the cerebral cortex whose functions include processing information about touch, temperature, pressure, vibration, and gustation(taste)

bond polarization

A result of shared electrons being attracted to the more electronegative atom and the least electronegative atom forming the greatest differences between cahrges

collecting duct

A segment of the nephron that returns water form the filtrate to the bloodstream. ADH make the collecting duct permeable H2O

Midbrain

A small part of the brain above the pons that integrates sensory information and relays it upward.

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A technique for amplifying DNA in vitro by incubating with special primers, DNA polymerase molecules( usually uses thermophilic bacteria DNA polymerase which is why it only works when heated) ,template of the DNA, and nucleotides.

fMRI (functional MRI)

A technique for revealing blood flow and, therefore, brain activity by comparing successive MRI scans. fMRI scans show brain function. Alzheimer patients usually have enlarged gyri and a shrunken vesicles

incentive theory

A theory that states that people are motivated by external rewards.

Endospore

A thick-walled protective spore that forms inside a bacterial cell and resists harsh conditions.

Reflection

A transformation that "flips" a figure over a mirror or reflection line. angle of reflection is equal

Fixed Ratio vs Variable Ratio vs Fixed Interval vs Variable Interval

A variable-interval reinforcement is based on time not a specific response behavior, this schedule produces a slow, steady behavior response rate, because the amount of time it will take to get the reinforcement is unknown

Which of the following is an incorrect matching of developmental phase and characteristics? A. Blastulation - development of the blastocyst, including the trophoblast and the outer cell mass B. Differentiation - the ectoderm develops into neural tissue, while the endoderm develops into epithelial tissue C. Cleavage - cell divisions without an increase in cell volume, resulting in the morula D. Gastrulation - development of the three primary germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm)

A. The ectoderm differentiates to form all nervous system tissue, and most epithelial components are derived from the endoderm (choice B is a correct match and can be eliminated). Cleavage is the development of the morula from the zygote (choice C is a correct match and can be eliminated). Gastrulation is germ layer development (choice D is a correct match and can be eliminated). However, blastulation is the development of the blastocyst, which is composed of the trophoblast and an inner cell mass (choice A is an incorrect match and the correct answer choice).

what is the function of liver A. store bile. B. secrete glucagon. C. produce hydrochloric acid. D. detoxify drugs.

A. is incorrect because it produce bile, gallbladder stores bile B. is incorrect because it stores glycogen pancreas secrete glucagon and insulin C. is incorrect the stomach produces HCL D. is correct produces bile, detoxify drugs,stores glycogen, and synthesis of blood protein

Salt Solubility Rules

All group I(Li,Na,K,Rb,Cs) and ammonium(NH4) salts soluble all nitrate(NO3-), perchlorate(ClO4-), and acetate(C2H3O2-) salts soluble all silver(Ag), lead(Pb), and mercury(Hg) salts insoluble unless it's attached to a nitrate, perchlorate, and acetate

In a laboratory population of Drosophila, all the males are XsY. Among the females, 15% are XiXi, 50% are XiXs, and 35% are XsXs. Assuming random mating, what proportion of male flies in the next generation will be XiY?

All the males in the next generation will acquire a Y chromosome from their male parent, so the contribution of the male can be ignored in solving this problem. All the XiXi females will have XiY sons, so 15% of the XiY flies in the next generation will come from this type of female. Half of the sons the XiXs females produce will be XiY. Since XiXs females make up 50% of the population, 25% of the males in the next generation will come from this type of female. None of the sons of XsXs females will be XiY. The total number of male flies that are XiY is 40%;

principle of aggregation

An attitude affects a person's average behavior, but not necessarily each isolated act

creatine phosphate

An energy storage molecule used by muscle tissue. The phosphate from creatine phosphate can be removed and attached to an ADP to generate ATP quickly.

Esterase

An enzyme that breaks down excess neurotransmitter

Primase

An enzyme that joins RNA nucleotides to make the primer using the parental DNA strand as a template.

Helicase

An enzyme that untwists the double helix at the replication forks, separating the two parental strands and making them available as template strands.

Type II error

An error that occurs when a researcher concludes that the independent variable had no effect on the dependent variable, when in truth it did; a "false negative" (Source: CHH, 2 Ed).

adaptive radiation

An evolutionary pattern in which many species evolve from a single ancestral species

Infrared Spectroscopy C=O: O-H: C=C : C(triple Bond)C: C(Triple Bond)N: C-H:

An instrumentation method of analysis that infrared waves to the atom causing the atom to start vibrating and have a wavenumber. used to determine functional groups V=(1/Wavelenght)=(1/speed of light)*(velocity) C=O:1700 O-H:3300 C=C :1650 C(triple Bond)C:2100-2250 C(Triple Bond)N:2200-2250 C-H:2850-2975

the emotions on the faces presented to the infants to those found to be universally expressed emotions; therefore, they did NOT present faces expressing: fear. surprise. pain. disgust.

Anger. Fear. Disgust. Happiness. Sadness. Surprise Answer is pain

Which statement best illustrates the concept of anomie? A.A group promotes polarized thinking among its members. B.An individual feels disconnected from the larger community. C.A group overemphasizes consensus among its members. D.An individual feels too influenced by the larger community.

Anomie refers to a lack of social norms, which leads to a breakdown in the connection between an individual and their community. Thus, option B is correct.

What is the geometry of the hexafluoroaluminate ion (AlF63-)? A. Octahedral B. Tetrahedral C. Trigonal bipyramidal D. Hexagonal

Answer A because there is coordination number of 6 warning there is no such thing as a hexagonal geometry that's a trap

arousal orgasm resolution

Arousal: parasympathetic control,includes erection(dilating erectile arteries causes erection for penis in men and clitoris in women) and lubrication(activating the bulbourethral glands in men and vestibular glands in women) Orgasm:sympathetic control, includes emission (mix sperm and semen in the urethra) Ejaculation (release of semen caused by contraction of the accessory glands and the vas deferens and pelvic floor muscle) Resolution: sympathetic control

saturation kinetics

As substrate concentration increases, the reaction rate does as well until a maximum value is reached

plasma cells

B cell produce antibodies

How many stereocenters does bryostatin contain? A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 13

B. A stereocenter is a tetrahedral atom bonded to four different substituents. Bryostatin contains 11 stereocenters, as shown below. Note that while the carbon atoms labeled A and B are depicted as tetrahedral, they are not stereocenters since they each bear two methyl substituents.

Which of the following is a FALSE statement about the birthing process? A. Cervical dilation is the first stage of labor. B. Uterine and abdominal smooth muscle contractions help push the baby through the birth canal. C. The placenta is delivered after the baby, in the third stage of labor. D. Uterine contractions minimize bleeding and prolactin promotes milk production after the baby is born.

B. Choices A, C and D are accurate statements and can be eliminated. Smooth muscle contractions of the uterus and abdominal skeletal muscle contractions help push the baby out (choice B is false and the correct answer choice).

Osteoclasts are inhibited as part of bone remodeling by which hormone? A. Calcitriol B. Parathyroid hormone C. Cortisol D. Calcitonin

D. Parathyroid hormone and calcitriol are involved in stimulating the osteoclasts to phagocytically destroy bone, thus freeing up calcium to be transported by the bloodstream to other parts of the body, and also promoting the absorption of calcium from the gut (choices A and B are wrong). Cortisol is a stress hormone and can actually increase osteoclast function (choice C is wrong). Calcitonin inhibits osteoclasts resulting in net bone production during remodeling (choice D is correct).

The twenty different amino acids differ in each of the following EXCEPT: A. chirality at the alpha carbon. B. R-group size and chemistry. C. charge at physiological pH. D. resonance stabilization of the deprotonated carboxyl group.

D. The best answer to this question will be something that all 20 amino acids have in common. Glycine is achiral (choice A describes a difference between amino acids and so is not the answer). The 20 different R-groups have different sizes, charges and polarity (choice B is not the answer). Net charge at physiological pH (7.4) depends on the number and type of acid/base groups in the amino acid (choice C is not the answer). All amino acids can perform resonance at the -CO2- group, due to the lone pairs on the negative oxygen delocalizing into the carbonyl (choice D applies to all amino acids and is the answer).

Which route describes how filtrate moves through the nephron? A. Loop of Henle, PCT, glomerulus, DCT B. Glomerulus, PCT, DCT, loop of Henle C. Loop of Henle, glomerulus, PCT, DCT D. Glomerulus, PCT, loop of Henle, DCT

D. The filtrate is first formed in Bowman's capsule, as components of blood pass from the glomerular capillaries through the glomerular basement membrane (choices A and C are wrong). The filtrate then enters the renal tubule, the first portion of which is the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). From the PCT, the filtrate moves through the loop of Henle, and finally the distal convoluted tubule (DCT, choice B is wrong and choice D is correct).

Most bacterial cells and human cells are alike in: A. the ability to produce ATP via ATP synthase. B. the chemical composition of their ribosomes. C. their enclosure within cell walls. D. the shape of the self-replicating structures that carry their DNA.

Bacteria cells have cell wall, 70 subunits in there ribosomes and carry replication through theta replication. Animal cell have no cell wall, have 80 subunits in there ribosomes and carry replication through different locations of the dna at the same time. Leaving the answer to A

Nucleosome

Bead-like structure in eukaryotic chromatin, composed of a short length of DNA wrapped around a core of histone proteins

Positron Emission Spectroscopy (PET) imaging involves injecting a patient with a positron (anti-electron) emitting isotope. The emission of positrons occurs during: A. alpha decay. B. alpha absorption. C. gamma absorption. D. beta decay.

Beta-decay is the decay in which a beta particle (electron or positron) is emitted from a heavy-atom nucleus.

distal convoluted tubule

Between the loop of Henle and the collecting duct; Selective reabsorption and secretion occur here, most notably to regulate reabsorption of water and sodium Secretion occur

halo-effect bias

Bias that occurs when an interviewer bases a positive assessment on a single characteristic and allows it to overshadow other, negative characteristics.

All of the following are expected to increase the activity of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC) EXCEPT high: A. [NAD+]. B. [CoA]. C. [AMP]. D. [ATP].

D. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, with the ultimate goal of increasing ATP production. Therefore, high levels of ATP negatively feedback on the activity of this enzyme (choice D would not increase the activity of the PDC and is the correct answer choice). NAD+, CoA, and AMP would stimulate the activity of the PDC since their levels are higher when ATP levels are low (choices A, B, and C would increase the activity of PDC and can be eliminated).

resistors in series and parallel

Devices that apply resistance to a circuit to manage current

operant extinction

Disappearance of a behavior through removal of reinforcers (ex. if a dog learns to sit down in order to receive a treat, and treats are no longer given, the "sit down" behavior will eventually disappear)

endocrine signaling paracrine signaling Autocrine signaling Neurotransmitter signaling

Endocrine signaling involves transit of a hormone through the circulation Autocrine effects occur when a cell produces something that signals to itself; the prefix "auto" is a clue that self-stimulation should be occurring. A neurotransmitter is released from a presynaptic neuron and diffuses across a synapse to bind to receptors on its post-synaptic target Paracrine action occurs when secretions from one cell affect a nearby cell.

Enzymes catalyze chemical reactions by stabilizing: A. the substrate. B. the product. C. the transition state. D. the equilibrium.

Enzymes work by stabilizing the transition state of a chemical reaction, which lowers the activation energy.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the distinction between the exocrine and endocrine portions of the testis? A. The exocrine portion secretes only peptides; the endocrine portion secretes only steroids. B. The exocrine portion releases its products into ducts; the endocrine portion releases its products into the blood. C. The exocrine portion secretes only cellular elements; the endocrine portion secretes only chemical substances. D. The exocrine portion is the target tissue for the products of the endocrine portion.

Exocrine glands secrete their products through ducts; endocrine glands release their products into the bloodstream. Thus, B is the best answer.

electrostatic force formula

F = electrostatic force k = coulombs constant 9*10^9 q = test charge Q = source charge r = distance between center of masses

The brain imaging technique using functional magnetic resonance imaging. A. measures increased levels of glucose. B. records increases in electrical activity. C. reveals areas of increased blood flow. D. measures increases in neurotransmitter levels.

FMRI reveals areas of increased blood flow

voltaic cell is run for one hour at 2 A and 1.4 grams of solid iron are formed. Assuming a one-to-one mole ratio of solid iron to its oxidized form, iron in which oxidation state served as the reactant? (Faraday's constant = 96,500 C/mol e-)

Fe3+

Embryogenesis process

Fertilization→blastulation→gastrulation(is the formation of the three germ layers)→neurulation

If a person's gallbladder is removed, the person should restrict the consumption of: A. proteins. B. polysaccharides. C. triglycerides. D. lactose.

Gallbladder helps digest fats which includes triglcyerides

linked genes

Genes located on the same chromosome that tend to be inherited together in genetic crosses.

imprinted genes

Genes whose expression is determined by the parent that contributed them

What is the most accurate description of the natural substrate of GalK? (galactokinase) A. It is a five-carbon aldose. B. It is a five-carbon ketose. C. It is a six-carbon aldose. D. It is a six-carbon ketose.

Glactose is an aldose( carbohydate) not lactose ( fatty acid) Glactose is 6 carbons Answer: C

Which amino acid residues were incorporated into Compound 1 to promote the adhesion of cells on the scaffold surfaces? needs to form peptide bonds A.Arg and Gly B.Cys and Gly C.Cys and Asp D.Asp and Arg

Glycine is nonpolar H bond Cystsine is nonpolar SH bond Aspartic and Arginine both have amino groups which is necessary for peptide bonds so the answer is D

blood pressure regulation

High blood Pressure → Atria of the heart streatch→ Right atrium releases ANP→ Inhibits aldosterone release, Inhibits renin release, and Vasodilator

estrogen and progesterone negative feed back loop

High levels of estrogen (as well as progesterone and testosterone, which are regulated through similar loops) then inhibit the production of GnRH. This causes the pituitary to make less FSH and LH, which in turn causes ovaries to make less estrogen. Therefore during pregancy the LH and FSH is lower than normal

Why are women who wish to breastfeed counseled against taking birth control pills that combine estrogen and progestins as the means to block ovulation?

High levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit prolactin as well as ovulation Remember Prolactin produce milk while oxytocin release it

hormonal stimuli

Hormones stimulate other endocrine organs to release their hormones

Which control experiments should be included in the design of Experiment 2 to validate the results shown in Figure 2? I.Evaluating the protein levels of FASN and mtKAS following siRNA treatment II.Evaluating the siRNAs specificity for FASN and mtKAS by assessing the cellular levels of unrelated proteins III.Evaluating the siRNAs specificity by showing that a non-specific siRNA has no effects on the protein levels of FASN and mtKAS

II: Do the siRNAs impact any thing we don't want it to? y/n? III: Does any siRNA interfere with the expression of the proteins? y/n? I: Do the siRNAs knockdown the protein levels? y/n? All are good control groups

Types of transposons

IS element: simplest type with transposase gene Complex transposon: contains transposase as well as additional genes Composite transposon: Multiple IS elements with the central region Effects of Transposons The same direction then it will cause deletion or chromosomal rearrangement The opposite direction can cause inversion and chromosome rearrangements

Considering that the molar volumes of water and mercury are about the same, if water was used instead of mercury in a manometer, then each millimeter of fluid would represent:

If the molar volumes of water and mercury are about the same, this means that each milliliter of liquid has about the same number of molecules. Yet because the molecular mass of mercury is so much greater than water (200 g/mol vs. 18 g/mol), every mm Hg in the manometer weighs more and exerts more pressure upon the gas in the flask. Therefore, one would expect each mm H2O in the manometer to represent less than each mm Hg. Since 1.0 mm Hg = 1.0 torr, each mm H2O is less than 1.0 torr.

practice effects

Improvements in performance resulting from opportunities to perform a behavior repeatedly so that baseline measures can be obtained.

Which of the compounds shown below can form hydrogen bonds with water? CH3-CH2-CH3 Compound 1 CH3-CH2-NH2 Compound 2 A. Compound 1 only B. Compound 2 only C. Both compounds D. Neither compound

In Compound 2, which is an amine, two hydrogen atoms are covalently bonded to the nitrogen atom, and nitrogen is an electronegative element. Compound 1, an alkane, does not contain any hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to an atom of an electronegative element. Thus, B is the best answer.

2 Ag(s) + H2S(aq) → Ag2S(s) + H2(g) What species is the reducing agent in Equation 2? A. S2- B. H2S C. H+ D. Ag

In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the reducing agent donates electrons and is thus oxidized. In equation 2, metallic silver (Ag0) is oxidized to the +1 state in Ag2S. Silver is oxidized in the reaction, so it is the reducing agent. Answer choice D is the correct answer.

DNA polymerase III

In charge of synthesizing nucleotides onto the leading end in the classic 5' to 3' direction.

acquisition

In classical conditioning, the initial stage, when one links a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus begins triggering the conditioned response. In operant conditioning, the strengthening of a reinforced response.

the relationship between the degree of unsaturation of a fat, Δ, and its viscosity, η

In general, fats with more unsaturation experience weaker intermolecular forces. Since viscosity depends directly on intermolecular force strength, viscosity should decrease with increasing unsaturation

A resident of a famine area who appears undernourished and extremely emaciated has eaten only starches for the past 3 months. A urine analysis shows that a large amount of nitrogen is being excreted. This is most likely evidence of: A. an abnormally high rate of glycogen breakdown in the liver. B.breakdown of the body's own structural proteins to provide energy. C.utilization of the last remaining fat reserves to provide energy. D.incomplete reabsorption of nitrogenous products due to kidney failure.

In starvation, the body uses up its stores of carbohydrate and lipids, and then begins to break down body proteins for metabolic energy. A byproduct of the metabolism of the amino acids from protein is nitrogen. The correct answer is therefore answer choice B:

Procarcinogens

Indirect acting carcinogens that only become activated after metabolic conversion.

spatial information

Information having to do with a place on the earth. This can be a map feature such as a property line or information about a map feature such as the name of a property owner.

menders laws

Law of segregation: each gamete gets only one copy of each gene Law of independent assortment: How 1 pair of alleles separate is independent of how other pair separate

left lung vs right lung lobes

Left Lung: 3 lobes Right Long: 2 Lobes

Hyperthyroidism symptoms

Nervousness, weight loss despite increased appetite, excessive sweating and heat intolerance, palpitations, frequent bowel movements, muscular weakness of the proximal type and tremor

A student postulated that the sodium pump directly causes action potentials along neurons. Is this hypothesis reasonable? A. No; action potentials result in an increased permeability of the plasma membrane to sodium. B. No; the myelin sheaths of neurons prevent movement of ions across the plasma membranes of the neurons. C. Yes; sodium is transported out of neurons during action potentials. D. Yes; action potentials are accompanied by the hydrolysis of ATP.

No; action potentials result in an increased permeability of the plasma membrane to sodium

Nondisjunction

Nondisjunction during meiosis I leads to two cells with too many chromosomes (n + 1) and two cells with too few (n - 1).

What type of learning is taking place in Study 1? Knowing that Study 1, a group of rats were trained to press a lever for the self-administration of heroin. Afterwards, half of the rats were ABA-induced. The researchers found that ABA-induced rats reduced their heroin intake. A.Operant conditioning B.Classical conditioning C.Social learning D.Observational learning

Operant conditioning is a method of learning that occurs through rewards and punishments for behavior A classical conditions learning process that occurs when two stimuli are repeatedly paired: a response which is at first elicited by the second stimulus is eventually elicited by the first stimulus alone. Meaning A is the answer

The following population pyramid best supports which projected demographic outcome? A. The overall size of the population is likely to decrease. B. The mortality rate of the population is unlikely to change. C. The median age of the population is unlikely to change. D. The birth rate of the population is likely to increase.

Option A is the correct answer. Population pyramids illustrate the age and sex distribution of a population. The population pyramid in the question shows an aging population, as the size of the population increases with age (until the age groups at the top of the figure, where mortality rates are highest). Because of the "inverse" pyramid shape represented in the figure, with the older age groups being larger than the younger age groups, the overall size of the population is likely to decrease over time.

The backbone of DNA is composed of

Phosphodister bond

The liver synthesizes factors that act cooperatively with platelets to facilitate which physiological process? A. Cholesterol synthesis B. Glucose metabolism C. Blood clotting D. Fat digestion

Platelets main function is for blood clotting and therfore if there was blood clotting needed the liver would need to make more.

Swan-Ganz tracing

RA: Right Atrium RV: Right Ventricle PA: Pulmonary Artery PCW: Pulmonary Artery Wedge

What would be the result of complete removal of the parathyroid glands? A. Severe neural and muscular problems due to deficiency of calcium in the plasma B. An increase in calcitonin production to compensate for calcium deficiency in the plasma C. A drastic change in the ratio of mineral to matrix tissue in bones D. Calcification of some organs due to accumulation of calcium in the plasma

Removal of the parathyroid gland would lead to hypocalcemia, a condition of low blood calcium, resulting from the lack of parathyroid hormone. This would cause increased neuromuscular excitability because of the change in membrane potential, which under normal physiological conditions, is partially kept in balance with extracellular calcium. Typically, the person would eventually die from severe respiratory muscle spasms. Thus, A is the best answer.

Follicular development is stimulated by a rise in FSH and normally leads to a subsequent rise in estrogen. The failure of a developing follicle to produce estrogen would cause which of the following events?

Rising estrogen levels during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle cause the endometrial lining of the uterus to thicken; a lack of estrogen would prevent the development of the endometrium Also, the rising levels of estrogen have a positive feedback effect on LH, causing the LH surge that triggers ovulation. Without estrogen there would be no surge and no ovulation

which of the following conditions most likely contributed to the boy's weight loss? A.A decrease in the ability of the villi to propel food into the large intestine for the completion of digestion B.An increase in enzyme secretion by the mucosal epithelium into the intestinal lumen, leading to excess digestion of nutrients C.A decrease in the surface area of the small intestine, leading to a decrease in nutrient absorption D.A decrease in enzyme secretion by the mucosal epithelium into the intestinal lumen, leading to incomplete digestion of nutrients

The answer to this question is C because the passage states that gluten, the factor that contributed to the boy's weight loss, causes intestinal villi atrophy. Villi atrophy results in a decrease in the surface area of the small intestine, leading to a decrease in nutrient absorption.

A tall tube is evacuated, and its stopcock closed. The open end of the tube is immersed into a container of water (density 103 kg/m3) that is open to the atmosphere (pressure 105 N/m2). When the stopcock is opened, how far up the tube will the water rise? A.1 m B.5 m C.10 m D.20 m

The answer to this question is C because the water will rise to a height such that the weight (mass multiplied by gravitational acceleration) of the water column equals the atmospheric pressure multiplied by the tube cross-sectional area A. Because mass is density times volume, it follows that 103 kg/m3 × h × A × 10 m/s2 = 105 N/m2 × A, where h is the height sought. Solving for h yields h = 105 N/m2/(104 N/m3) = 10 m.

Self-Efficacy and Locus of Control

Self-efficacy is how much confidence they have in performing a particular task Locus of Control is the amount of control people believe they have.(Internal=you are in control) (External= no control)

Which statement is NOT compatible with the hypothesis that the self-serving bias can account for participants' explanations of their body weights? A. Obese participants view their unhealthy weight as a result of having too many fast food restaurants near home. B. Non-obese participants view their healthy weight as a result of having strong willpower. C. Obese participants view their unhealthy weight as a result of not having time to exercise regularly. D. Non-obese participants view their healthy weight as a result of not having any fast food restaurants near their home.

Self-serving bias suggests that when explaining their own behavior, individuals attribute positive behaviors to internal, stable sources, but attribute negative behaviors to external sources. So the answer is D

basal nuclei (basal ganglia)

Specific gray matter areas located deep within the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres. They include several functional subdivisions, but broadly function involuntary motor control and procedural learning related to habits.

totipotent stem cells

Stem cells that can differentiate into any type of specialised cells found in organisms of that species. Has no restrictions

partial report technique

Study by Sterling found that iconic memory has a large capacity after asking participants to recall 3 rows of 4 letters based on a different tone for each line.

A partial sequence of the reactions in the citric acid cycle is shown. Which compound is the intermediate X? Succinate Fumarate Malate Oxaloacetate

Succinate→fumarate→malate

temporal summation

Summation by a postsynaptic cell of input (EPSPs or IPSPs) from a single source over time. Temporal summation is the repeated activation of a given synapse resulting in a response of greater magnitude. In order to accomplish this, the rate of excitation must outpace the rate of recovery or else the postsynaptic neuron will have returned to its resting state before the second stimulation arrives

In Reaction 1, what is a possible structure for either R1 or R2 of the reactant? A. CH3 B. NH2 C. (CH2)15CH3 D. (CH2O)10CH3

TNBS is made of phosopholipds so they must have a long carbon chain

tears

Tears contain lysozyme, which attacks bacteria cell walls

operational span testing

Test to see the general capacity of working memory tasks, patients are asked to read and verify a simple math problem (is 4/2 -1 = 1?) then read a word after such as SNOW, after doing a series of problems and words they are asked to recall the word that followed each operation. -Predicts verbal abilities and reading comprehension even though the subject is solving a math problem. Argues that it implies a general pool of resources that is used in every type of working memory situation

A sparingly soluble metal hydroxide, M(OH)2 has a molar solubility of S mol/L at 25°C. Its Ksp value is: A. S2. B. 2S2. C. 2S3. D. 4S3.

The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals [A]a[B]b. The Ksp for M(OH)2 = [M][OH-]2. If the solubility of M(OH)2 is S mol/L, then [M] = S mol/L and [OH-] = 2S mol/L. The Ksp = S(2S)2 = S(4S2) = 4S3. Thus, D is the best answer. Ksp = [M]^1[OH]^2 S mol/L = (M)(2OH)^2 =(x)(2x^2) =(x)(4(x^2)) =4x^3

How many ppm is 1%? A.100 B. 1,000 C. 10,000 D. 100,000

The abbreviation ppm stands for parts per million (parts). Since 1% is one part in 100 parts, the question becomes 1 is to 100 as × is to 1,000,000, where × is the unknown. For the equality 1/100 = ×/106, × = 104 or 10,000. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer. Alternate solution: The fraction 1/100 can be scaled up to ×/1,000,000 by multiplying both the numerator and denominator by 10 the number of times necessary to increase the denominator to 1,000,000. The multiplication of a fraction by 10/10 = 1 does not change the value of the fraction. The following equalities show the scale-up process: 1/100 = 10/1,000 = 100/10,000 = 1,000/100,000 = 10,000/1,000,000. Thus, 1% = 10,000 ppm, answer choice C.

Certain viruses contain RNA as their genetic material. One of the ways these RNA viruses replicate themselves is to: A.code for or carry a transcriptase that copies viral RNA. B.infect microorganisms possessing RNA as their genetic material. C.alter the host cell's polymerase in order to synthesize progeny viral RNA from the viral RNA template. D.stimulate the transcription of specific sequences of the host's DNA, which, in turn, direct the assembly of viral particles.

The answer to this question is A because RNA viruses require a type of transcriptase (reverse transcriptase) to replicate themselves.

A single point mutation in a gene results in a nonfunctional protein. Individuals heterozygous for this mutation were identified using a Southern blot. Which pair of wild-type (WT) and mutant alleles most likely contains the mutation? A. WT: 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3 Mt: 5-TAGTCGATGCTTAGGCATCT-3 B. WT: 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3 Mt: 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3 C.WT: 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3 MT: 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3 D.WT: 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3 MT: 5-TAGTCCAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3

The answer to this question is A because a Southern blot uses a restriction digest to differentiate between mutant and wild-type alleles. In order for a Southern blot to be useful, the mutation should either create or eliminate a restriction site, most of which are palindromes and 4 to 6 base pairs long. The mutation shown in this option is the only one that disrupts a palindromic sequence, AAGCTT.

Which of the following most likely explains why the bacterial colony did NOT grow immediately after the polysaccharide was added? A.The bacteria that were unable to digest the polysaccharide died. B.The digestive enzymes for the polysaccharide had to be transcribed and translated. C.The hydrolysis of fatty acids is a slow process. D.The polysaccharide directly inhibited bacterial fission.

The answer to this question is B because the regulation of gene expression is one method by which bacteria respond to changes in their environment, in this case the addition of a new metabolite (polysaccharide). When polysaccharide is absent, the enzymes necessary to digest it are not expressed. However, upon addition of polysaccharide, in order for it to be used as an energy source, expression of the enzymes becomes necessary. Thus, the lag in colony growth represents the period in which the expression of the enzymes is occurring.

A 60-Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 20-Ω resistor. What is the equivalent resistance of the combination?

The answer to this question is C because the equivalent resistance is given by the expression (1/(60) + 1/(20))^-1 = 15 .

In response to stress, what part of the brain initiates signals to the endocrine system? A.Hippocampus B.Medulla oblongata C.Hypothalamus D.Pons

The answer to this question is C because the hypothalamus is the brain structure that controls the pituitary gland, initiating the stress response.

Which event is directly mediated by a ligand-gated ion channel? A. Release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber to initiate muscle contraction B. The influx of Na+ across the axon membrane of a somatic neuron during action potential propagation C. Influx of Na+ across the motor end plate resulting in the depolarization of the muscle fiber membrane D. Re-entry of Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber to end muscle contraction

The answer to this question is C because the influx of Na+ across the motor end plate occurs when Na+ ion channels bind the ligand acetylcholine.

Research on cognitive aging has demonstrated that, in general, aging does NOT diminish a person's: A.capacity for acquiring new declarative information. B.capacity for controlling his or her memory processes. C.ability to cope with Alzheimer's Disease. D.ability to retrieve general information.

The answer to this question is D because the capacity for retrieving general information (i.e., semantic memory, crystallized intelligence) is unaffected by aging.

What is the concentration of Cl- ions in a 0.1 M solution of calcium chloride? A.0.02 M B.0.05 M C.0.10 M D.0.20 M

The answer to this question is D because the formula for calcium chloride is CaCl2 and it produces twice as many Cl- ions as Ca2+ ions in solution when it dissolves.

Which statement best identifies the fundamental attribution error in a teacher's assessment of students in a classroom? A teacher assumes that any emotional and behavioral problems are due to: A.social learning, while the teacher overlooks patterns of reinforcement. B.cognitive dissonance, while the teacher overlooks emotional maturity. C.psychological disorders, while the teacher overlooks behavioral training. D.dysfunctional personalities, while the teacher overlooks situational variables.

The answer to this question is D because the fundamental attribution error occurs when a person's explanation of someone else's behavior emphasizes personality or dispositional traits, minimizing the possible influence of situational contingencies. Thus, a teacher who overlooks the influence of the classroom situation on the observed behavior, and instead attributes any problems to the student's personality, is committing the fundamental attribution error.

A glass rod is rubbed with a silk scarf producing a charge of +3.2 × 10-9 C on the rod. (Recall that the magnitude of the proton and electron charges is 1.6 × 10-19 C.) The glass rod has: A.5.1 × 1011 protons added to it. B.5.1 × 1011 electrons removed from it. C.2.0 × 1010 protons added to it. D.2.0 × 1010 electrons removed from it.

The answer to this question is D because the number of charges in excess can be computed as +3.2 × 10 -9 C/1.6 × 10 -19 C = +2.0 × 10 10. This means that the rod has an excess of positive charge, created by removing a number of +2.0 × 10 10 electrons from the material, as it is not possible to add protons in a manner described in this question.

What information about an axon is required to calculate the current associated with an NCV pulse? A.Conductivity, resistivity, and length B.Potential, conductivity, and radius C.Potential, resistivity, and radius D.Potential, resistance per unit length, and length

The answer to this question is D. This is a question about Ohm's Law, I = V/R. To determine R, the resistance per unit length, the length, and the potential V are needed.

optimism bias

The belief that bad things happen to other people but not to us

In [Cu(NH3)4]2+, the subscript 4 indicates which of the following? A.The oxidation number of Cu only B.The coordination number of Cu2+ only C.Both the oxidation number of Cu and the coordination number of Cu2+ D.Neither the oxidation number of Cu nor the coordination number of Cu2+

The coordination number of Cu2+ only Because ammonia is neutral, the number 4 reflects only the number of ammonia molecules that bind to the central Cu2+ cation and does not indicate anything about its oxidation number.

Watson-Crick model of DNA

The discovery that the amount of Thymine equals that of Adenine, and the amount of Guanine equals that of Cytosine in a given cell provides supporting evidence that. They also discovered the shapes of DNA is a Double Helix. an antiparallel and complementary structure AT bond: 2 Hydrogen bond GC bond 3 Hydrogen bond DNA is stabilized using Van der Waals forces and hydrophobic interaction

A double-stranded DNA molecule contains bases with a ratio of (A + T)/(G + C) = 3:1. This molecule is replicated with DNA polymerase in the presence of the four deoxynucleoside triphosphates with a molar ratio of (A + T)/(G + C) = 1:1. What is the expected ratio of (A + T)/(G + C) in the double-stranded daughter DNA molecule? A. 1:3 B. 1:1 C. 2:1 D. 3:1

The double stranded daughter DNA molecule would be an exact duplicate of the parent molecule. It would have the same (A + T)/(G + C) ratio. The correct answer is therefore 3:1, choice D.

The sequence of events in the human menstrual cycle involves close interaction among which organs? A. Hypothalamus-thyroid-ovary B. Hypothalamus-pituitary-ovary C. Pituitary-thyroid-ovary D. Pituitary-adrenal glands-ovary

The hypothalamus exerts control over the pituitary hormones involved in menstruation by secreting hormone-releasing factors into the pituitary portal circulation. The gonadotropic hormones FSH and LH produced by the pituitary and the ovarian hormones estrogen and progesterone all have a role in regulating the human menstrual cycle. Therefore, close interaction among the hypothalamus, the pituitary, and the ovary is necessary for the human menstrual cycle. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

Damage to which component of the ear would be most likely to alter a person's perception of pitch?

The location along the basilar membrane that experiences maximal vibration determines a person's perception of pitch.

Ba2+(aq) is an ion that is very toxic to mammals when taken internally. Which of the following compounds, mixed in water, would be the safest if accidentally swallowed? A. BaSO4, Ksp = 1.1 × 10-10 B. BaCO3, Ksp = 8.1 × 10-9 C. BaSO3, Ksp = 8.0 × 10-7 D. BaF2, Ksp = 1.7 × 10-6

The lower the value of Ksp is, the lower the concentrations of the cation and anion in an aqueous solution and the lower the solubility of the compound in water. If mixed with water and accidentally swallowed, the Ba salt with the lowest value of Ksp would be the safest. Thus, A is the best answer.

zaitsev rule

The major product in beta elimination has the more substituted double bond.

criteria for an ideal gas are

The molecules do not liquefy at low temperature. The molecules do not experience intermolecular forces. The molecules have negligible volume.

receptor-mediated endocytosis

The movement of specific molecules into a cell by the inward budding of membranous vesicles containing proteins with receptor sites specific to the molecules being taken in; enables a cell to acquire bulk quantities of specific substances.

Electrophoresis

The movement of suspended particles through a fluid or gel under the action of an electromotive force applied to electrodes in contact with the suspension. proteins travel in denaturated status in gel

Hyperpolarization

The movement of the membrane potential of a cell away from rest potential in a more negative direction. Chlorine In, Potassium out

What type or class of chemical messenger traveling in the blood would most probably link the brain with the digestive tract and fat cells in the control of body weight? A. Neurotransmitters B. Digestive enzymes C. Protein receptors D. Hormones

The only messenger that can travel in the blood is hormones

What is the oxidation number of aluminum in Na[Al(OH)4](aq)? A. +1 B. +2 C. +3 D. +4

The oxidation number of Na is +1, and the charge on a hydroxide ion is -1. For the compound to be neutral, aluminum would have to have an oxidation number of +3. Thus, C is the best answer.

What is the pH of a buffer solution that is 0.2 M in HCO3- and 2 M in H2CO3? (Note: The first pKa of carbonic acid is 6.37.)

The pH of the solution can be calculated using the Henderson-Hasselbach equation: pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid]). Plugging in the values provided in the question gives pH = 6.37 + log(0.2/2) = 5.37.

Golgi complex trafficking pathway

The portion of the Golgi complex closest to the endoplasmic reticulum is its (1)cis stack so this is the first step in trafficking. From there, proteins travel to the (2)medial stack and finally the (3)trans stack, the Golgi component farthest from the endoplasmic reticulum, then the protein may be released via (4) exocytosis or anchored to the cell membrane depending on the function of the protein

steric hindrance

The prevention of a reaction at a particular location in a molecule by substituent groups around the reactive site. a kinetics question because steric hinderance affects reaction

Depolarization

The process during the action potential when sodium is rushing into the cell causing the interior to become more positive and causing potassium to be rush out of the cell Sodium conductance is responsible for the rapid depolarization observed during the action potential. This is due to the fast opening of voltage-gated sodium channels which allow the flow of sodium across the membrane.

Transesterification

The process that transforms one ester to another when an alcohol acts as a nucleophile and displaces the alkoxy group on an ester.

Prions

infectious proteins when contact with other normal proteins Can spread through digestion, and inheritance usually, attack neural networks so the loss of consciousness is a symptom resistant to chemical or heat because of their quaternary and tertiary structure makes them extremely stable making them impossible to denature characterized by their very long incubation period too many infectious proteins can cause cellular death caused by protein-protein interactions this includes hydrophobic interactions, hydrogen bonding, and salt bridges

factors that influence motivation

instincts, arousal, drives, and needs

intermediate filament

intermediate filaments are composed of a variety of proteins that are expressed in different types of cells. The function is structural roles

introjected regulation

internalizations that take the form of "shoulds" and "oughts"--voice's in the head that come from the outside and issue orders

viscarious learning

involves an individual learning by observing another individual

Durkheim promotes that social integration

is part of our collective conscience and therefore is part of what binds us together as a society

V vs [S] curve

is similar to a logistic growth graph in the beginning, there is high affinity(1) then as more substrates are added it causes less affinity(2) to the point where no matter how much substrate is added there is no affinity(3)

lumen of intestine

is the inside space of a tubular structure, such as an artery or intestine

Kd

is the likely hood the chemical will dissociate which is why it is called the equilibrium dissociation constant. So a high Kd means the chemicals don't like each other and will have a lower chance of binding and a low Kd will mean that the chemical will love each other and will have a higher chance of binding. ( Kd↓,↑ binding affinity)

secondary active transport

movement of material that is due to the electrochemical gradient established by primary active transport example include Na+-glucose cotransporter

covalent bond form between

nonmetal + nonmetals

Commensalism

one organism benefits and the other doesn't feel harm or benefit

Paratism

one organism lives on or in another and harms it

The osmotic concentration of plasma proteins in the venous side of capillaries helps reduce the amount of interstitial fluid in tissues by inducing: A. passive H2O diffusion along a concentration gradient. B. passive ion diffusion along an electrochemical gradient. C.facilitated ion transport along an electrochemical gradient. D.active H2O transport mediated by an ATP-dependent pump.

osmotic concentration is caused by the passive diffusion of H20

renal cortex (of kidney)

outer layer of the kidney

Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

pH = pKa + log [A-]/[HA] pH< pKa: protonated PH>pKa: deprotonated

Hardy-Weinberg equation and condtions

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 How many generations are required to restore Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium when it is disrupted? 1 generation 1.A large breeding population 2.Random mating 3.No change in allelic frequency due to mutation 4.No immigration or emigration 5.No natural selection

Pedigree: Mitochondrial

passes from mother to all offspring

Orthophosphate 2 orthophosphate form using what type if bond

phosphate forms pyrophosphate using what type anhydride linkage

PDE

phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP and is used in nucleic acid digestion and eye activation

According to Piaget's theory, in what stage of cognitive development are the children 2-6 A. Formal operational B. Sensorimotor C. Preoperational D. Concrete operational

preoperational

osmotic pressure

pressure that must be applied to prevent osmotic movement across a selectively permeable membrane

illeocecal valve

prevents food from moving back into the small intestine once it has entered the large intestine

Health Care Levels

primary(preventative care ), secondary (acute care, emergency department), tertiary (specialty care)

Pinocytosis

process by which a cell takes in liquid from the surrounding environment. Its nonspecific

Microvilli

projections that increase the cell's surface area in the small intestines folds within the villa

covalent modification of enzymes

proteins that attach to the enzyme to control the enzyme this may include regulation of activity, lifespan, and cellular location most common example is phosphorylases ( a phosphoryl group added to a kinase protein, the function of the phosphorylase may change depending on the residues attached to it like serine, threonine, or tyrosine)

To determine a protein's thermodynamic stability, chemical denaturation studies can be performed. Assuming that only the native and unfolded states can be observed under experimentally available conditions, what is the most likely shape of the curve for the dependence of the fraction of folded protein upon denaturant concentration? A. Hyperbolic B. Linear C. Sigmoidal D. Exponential

proteins will ressit denature for while and then it will denature all at once So there will be resistance then a sudden surge until no more proteins are there Therefore it will be sigmoidal

slow twitch muscle fibers

red muscle fibers that are fatigue resistant but have a slow contraction speed and a lower capacity for tension; usually recruited for endurance activities like running

phosphatase, kinase

removes a phosphate group from a molecule

The amino acid precursor of serotonin is best described as having which type of R group? A. Nonpolar, aliphatic B. Polar, uncharged C. Aromatic D. Negatively charged

serotonin is a precursor to tryptophan and the both have an aromatic group

Ribosomes

site of protein synthesis They are made of polypeptides and rRNA chains held together in a massive Quaternary structure 70S ribosome and 23S rRNA: Prokaryotic 80S ribosome and 28S rRNA: Eukaryotas S(Svedberg):how quickly something will sink in a gradient in centrifuge A Site: New tRNA delivers its amino acid P Site:growing polypeptide chain still attached to tRNA E Site:empty tRNA sits prior to its release from ribosome A->P->E

enhanced activity of which of the following basic muscle types would be most likely to cause hypertension? A. Striated B. Smooth C. Cardiac D. Multinucleate

smooth muscles are in blood vessels while cardiac is only in the heart

A constructionist understanding of gender asserts that categories of gender are: A.biologically determined and immutable. B.binary and the product of ingrained socialization processes. C.fluid and subject to social processes of meaning-making. D.binary, yet interchangeable depending on context.

social constructionism is not binary but society places definations for what a gender is. And becuase A,B, and D are particle the same thing and therefor the answer is C

Diastereomers

stereoisomers that do not mirror images of each other

Gallbladder

stores and concentrates bile

dependent stressor

stress that happens to you that was caused or worsened by your own behavior, feelings, thoughts, attitudes, etc. e.g. you hang out with the wrong crowd

Cardic Output (CO) (Volume pump/min)

stroke volume(vol pump/beat) * Heart Rate(beat/min)

pulmonary surfactant

surface active agent: secreted fluid by the alveolar cells: reduces surface tension of pulmonary fluids: contributes to the elasticity of the lung: prevents lung fillage H2O (infants)

Wolffian ducts

the Wolffian duct develops into male internal genitalia, and spermatogonia regenerate via mitosis throughout adult life. ITs stimulated by testosterone

Thalamus

the brain's sensory switchboard, located on top of the brainstem; it directs messages to the sensory receiving areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla( attention)

How would the James-Lange theory of emotion explain the aggressive emotions experienced by the participants in the experimental condition? Participants experience physiological arousal from watching violent programs and: A.this arousal is followed by aggressive emotions. B.they simultaneously experience aggressive emotions. C.they interpret their arousal, which results in aggressive emotions. D.this leads to fight-or-flight responses that are perceived as aggressive emotions.

the correct answer is A. James-Lange theory of emotion suggests that physiological arousal precedes the experiencing of emotions. B describes the Canon-Bard theory, which holds that physiological arousal and emotions are experienced simultaneously. C describes the two-factor theory that brings in the cognitive appraisal. D is not a particular theory of emotion.

uncompetitive inhibition

the inhibitor binds only to the enzyme-substrate complex locks substrate in enzyme preventing its release (increasing affinity b/w enzyme and substrate so it lowers Km) Lower Km and Vmax binds to the allosteric site

ileum

third part of the small intestine

B- blood type

type B antigen, anti-A antibodies, and will make anti-Rh antibodies if exposed to Rh positive blood

tRNA (transfer RNA)

type of RNA molecule that transfers amino acids to ribosomes during protein synthesis

Based on the data in Table 1, what is the purification yield from the culture supernatant after the final ion-exchange chromatography step? A. 0.1% B. 20% C. 40% D. 60%

we start with 3000mg*.1units/mg =300 units of protein and we end with 3mg*20units/mg=60 units of protien 60units/300units=20% yield from the orginal remember we need to find how many proteins stayed not the mass

tract

white matter in the CNS to brain or spinal cord

Gibbs free energy equation with equilibrium constant

ΔG° = -RT ln K If Keq < 1, then ΔG° will be greater than zero (non-spontaneous in the forward direction) If Keq>1 then ▲G0 will be less than 0

Assume the hydrolysis of ATP proceeds with ΔG′° = -30 kJ/mol. ATP + H2O → ADP + Pi Which expression gives the ratio of ADP to ATP at equilibrium, if the [Pi] = 1.0 M? (Note: Use RT = 2.5 kJ/mol.) A. e2 B. e3 C. e6 D. e12

ΔG′° = -RTln(Keq) Keq=(ADP)(Pi)/ATP(ignore Pi becuase it 1) ln(ADP/ATP)=▲G/RT e^(30/2.5)=e^12

glycogen uses what linkage?

α-1,4-glycosidic bonds

The above plot shows how the volume of a 1.0-g sample of Compound 1 in the gaseous state varies with temperature at constant pressure. Where on the graphic would a similar plot of a 1.0-g sample of Compound 2 appear? Compound 1 H2BPH2 and compound 2 HBPH A. Below the plot for Compound 1 B. Above the plot for Compound 1 C. Precisely on top of the plot for Compound 1 D. Intersecting the plot for Compound 1 at its midpoint with an opposite slope.

The volume of a gas depends only on the number of moles of the gas present and not on the identity of the gas. The ideal gas law in the form V = (nR/P) T shows that, at constant pressure, the volume will increase with temperature. Thus, a plot of V vs. T will always have positive slope. The value of the slope depends on the number of moles of gas. Because Compound 2 has a higher molecular weight than does Compound 1, a one-gram sample will contain fewer moles. Thus, a plot of the volume of Compound 2 as a function of temperature will have a smaller slope than that of Compound 1 and will lie below it on a graph, intersecting only at absolute zero. This situation is described by answer choice A.

Thermoreceptors mechanoreceptors chemoreceptors nociceptors Photoreceptors

Thermoreceptors are sensory neurons that respond to changes in temperature. like skin Mechanoreceptors are sensory receptors that respond to pressure like hearing Chemoreceptors detect chemicals in either gaseous or aqueous form; these receptors are vital to the human senses of taste and smell like olfactory/smell Nociceptors are pain receptors. like skin Photoreceptors detect light like the eyes

Which mechanism restricts the expression of leptin to adipocytes? Only adipocytes contain: A. the ob gene. B. a promoter for the expression of the ob gene. C. enhancers for the expression of the ob gene. D. nuclear factors for the expression of the ob gene.

This is more of a content question. It's pretty much asking, what is the reason why cells differentiate gene expression. Nuclear factors are special transcription factors that are cell-specific and are responsible for activating/deactivating gene expression. The same DNA is present in all somatic cells, that means they all have the same gene and promoter/enhancer regions.

hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)

This stimulates the corpus luteum to produce estrogen & progesterone causing a prevention of menstruation so if the hCG was failed to be made it will cause constant menstruation. hCG acts like LH hormone hCG is secreted by the trophoblast

Transverse tubules (T-tubules)

Transmit action potential through cell Allow entire muscle fiber to contract simultaneously Have same properties as sarcolemma

What is the mechanical work done by the cantilever when the extension increases from 10 nm to 15 nm? Knowing that the force produced was 100pN

W=Fx/2 F=100*10^-12 x=5 *10^-9 W=((100*10^-12)(5*10^-9))/2= 2.5*10^-19

What is the electron configuration of the metal ion produced when Ca reacted with water in Experiment 1? A. 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,4s2 B. 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,4s1 C. 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6 D. 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,4s2,3d2

When Ca is added to water, the following reaction takes place: Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) + H2(g), producing a basic solution. The metal ion produced is Ca2+. Ca has the atomic number 20 and therefore has 20 electrons. Two electrons are removed to form Ca2+, so Ca2+ has 18 electrons. The electron configuration for Ca2+ is 1s22s22p63s23p6. Thus, C is the best answer.

A low level of calcium in the plasma will trigger an increase of: I. osteoclast activity. II. parathyroid hormone. III. vitamin C.

When the level of calcium in the blood plasma is low, the body responds by mobilizing stores of calcium from the bones via the activity of parathyroid hormone. Parathyroid hormone will increase the number of osteoclasts, which break down bone cells. Therefore, one would expect an increase in both parathyroid hormone and osteoclast activity in order to increase the level of calcium in the blood plasma (options I and II). However, vitamin C (option III) promotes bone formation, a process that would further lower the calcium level in the plasma.

double replacement reaction single replacement reaction

a chemical change that involves an exchange of positive ions between two compounds a chemical change in which one element replaces a second element in a compound

physical drug dependence

a compulsive pattern of drug use in which the user develops a drug tolerance coupled with unpleasant withdrawal symptoms when the drug use is discontinued and Alteration in brain neurochemistry after prolonged drug us

nearsightedness (myopia)

a condition in which nearby objects are seen more clearly than distant objects because distant objects focus in front of the retina to fix this A concave lens causing the light to diverge slightly before entering the eye and then landing on the retina instead of in front of the retina

batteries

a container consisting of one or more cells, in which chemical energy is converted into electricity and used as a source of power. Source of voltage

synaptic pruning

a process whereby the synaptic connections in the brain that are used are preserved, and those that are not used are lost

psychological dependence

a psychological need to use a drug, such as to relieve negative emotions

first order reaction

a reaction in which the reaction rate is proportional to the concentration of only one reactant

nonspontaneous reaction

a reaction that requires external energy; it will not happen on its own endergonic, ΔG is positive, endothermic,▲H positive

gamma decay

a release of gamma energy that usually transforms the excited state into a stable state usually occurs because it gained energy through other decay processes or other processes no change in atomic mass or number

refractory period

a resting period after orgasm, during which a man cannot achieve another orgasm The relative refractory period results from the hyperpolarization of the membrane due to the slow deactivation of voltage-gated potassium channels. To extend the relative refractory period, we would need to decrease the rate of deactivation of these channels (i.e., make them deactivate even more slowly). This would result in an extended period of hyperpolarization where a greater stimulus would be required in order to fire an action potential

Iris

a ring of muscle tissue that forms the colored portion of the eye around the pupil and controls the size of the pupil opening

activation-synthesis theory

a theory of dreaming; this theory proposes that the brain tries to make sense of random brain activity that occurs during sleep by synthesizing the activity with stored memories

Lipase

breaks down lipids/triglycerides

nonsense codons (stop codons)

codons that tell the RNA enzyme to stop translating Codons have no ambiguity each codon codes something specific Stop codons: UAA, UGA, UAG

juxtaglomerular apparatus Distal Tubule

contact point between afferent artery and distal convoluted tubule. which affects kidney function Distal Tubule: function Chemoreceptor to detect if Stimulates Renin and the dilation of afferent artery is needed atrium releases Agh

Considering the stage that the participants are in according to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what changes to the study design are most likely to result in decreased aggression? A.Lengthening the videos the participants viewed to one hour, with a 10-minute play break in between each 6-minute segment B.The addition of a segment to the violent video that portrays the actors being put in prison for their illegal violent behaviors C.The addition of a segment to the violent video that portrays the negative impact of violence on the victims D.Having the participants work on an interactive task with other children before and after watching the video

content category. The correct answer is B. The participants are in Kohlberg's preconventional stage of moral development (since they are pre-adolescents). In this stage, morality is determined by what is punished or rewarded. A and D are not related to Kohlberg's theory. C describes a situation that is more likely to be relevant in later stages of moral development.

internal/external anal sphincter

controls the flow of waste through the anus Internal (smooth muscle) External (Skeletal muscle)

theories of population change

demographic transition- industrialization causes lower death rates first, then lower birth rates Malthusian theory- population growth will exceed resource growth, causing a Malthusian catastrophe where population is reduced by famine (Neo-Malthusianism) positive checks- raise death rate, disease, war, hunger preventative checks- lower birth rate, abstinence, birth control, same-sex relationships

The stereochemical designators α and β distinguish between: A. enantiomers at an epimeric carbon atom. B. enantiomers at an anomeric carbon atom. C. epimers at an anomeric carbon atom. D. epimers at a non-anomeric carbon atom.

he answer to this item is C since the α versus β designation distinguishes between molecules with multiple chiral centers, but differ only in the configuration of the site known as the anomeric carbon atom.

The middle region, as opposed to either end, of each of the seven α-helical transmembrane domains of Frizzled is most likely to contain a high proportion of which type of amino acid residue? A.Nonpolar B.Polar uncharged C.Positively charged D.Negatively charged

he answer to this question is A because according to the passage, the seven α-helical domains are transmembrane domains and, thus, cross the phospholipid bilayer. As a result, these domains are most likely to have a high proportion of hydrophobic residues. Hydrophobic residues are nonpolar.

When a striated muscle cell metabolizes glucose in the complete absence of O2, which of the following substances is NOT produced in a significant amount? A.Pyruvic acid B.Glucose-6-phosphate C.Lactic acid D.Acetyl-CoA

he answer to this question is D because in the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted to lactate in the cytoplasm and is not transported to the mitochondria to be converted to acetyl-CoA.

A finding that emerged from the recall task was that the participants without memory impairments retrieved words that were related to the words on the list, but had not actually appeared.The finding in the last paragraph regarding the retrieval of related words supports: A.spreading activation. B.depth of processing. C.the serial position effect. D.the existence of visuospatial sketchpad.

he correct answer is option A. False memories of words that are semantically or associatively related to studied words is consistent with spreading activation, which suggests that when a concept is activated, the activation spreads to related concepts.

A compound was analyzed and found to contain 12.0 g carbon, 2.0 g hydrogen, and 16.0 g oxygen. What is the empirical formula for this compound? A. CH2O B. C6HO8 C. C6H12O6 D. C12H2O16

he empirical formula shows the lowest whole number ratio of moles of each element in a mole of the compound, or the corresponding number of atoms per molecule. The number of moles of each element is found by dividing its mass in grams by its atomic weight. From the periodic table, the atomic weights of C, H, and O are 12.0, 1.0, and 16.0, respectively. The number of moles of carbon in 12.0 g C is 12/12 = 1; of hydrogen in 2 g H = 2/1 = 2; and of oxygen in 16 g O = 16/16 = 1. Therefore, the compound contains a 1:2:1 molar ratio of C:H:O, giving the formula C1H2O1, or simply CH2O. This formula is the empirical formula because the subscripts cannot be further reduced by a division by two. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

Which organ is involved in regulation of all of the following: acid-base balance, blood pressure, water balance, and removal of nitrogen wastes? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidney D. Large intestine

he question asks the examinee to identify the organ involved in the regulation of acid-base balance, blood pressure, water balance, and the removal of nitrogenous wastes. The only organ involved in all of these processes is the kidney (C). Within the nephron, the reabsorption of protons and bicarbonate from the filtrate contributes to acid-base balance within the body; secretion of renin from the juxtaglomerular cells helps regulate the secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex (which plays a role in regulating blood pressure, through its effects on Na+ reabsorption in the nephron); Na+ and urea reabsorption in the nephron creates osmotic pressure within the medullary interstitium of the kidney and draws water from the filtrate into surrounding tissues; and excretion of nitrogenous wastes takes place due to the urea transporter, which removes urea from the interstitium and transports it back into the ascending loop of Henle. Thus, C is the best answer.

Binet's idea of mental age

how a child at a specific age performs intellectually compared to average intellectual performance for that physical age in years

Assimilation

Cultural assimilation is the process in which a minority group or culture comes to resemble a dominant group

-RNA virus +RNA virus Retroviruses

A (+) sense RNA genome is like an mRNA: it has a sequence that could be directly translated to make proteins. Single strand RNA is kept together with self-complementarity processes and have a poly-A tail A (-) sense RNA genome can't be directly used for translation. Instead, it is the reverse complement (backwards version) of the sequence that encodes the viral proteins. (-)RNA must carry RNA-dependent RNA polymerase while (+) deosnt need to carry RNA-dependent RNA polymerase The steps necessary to replicate a (-)RNA virus are to create a (+)RNA copy of the genome using RNA-dependent RNA polymerase then replicate (-)RNA copies from that template using the same enzyme. Retroviruses: the RNA must be converted into double-stranded DNA by an enzyme called reverse transcriptas .The double-stranded DNA enters the nucleus of the host cell and is inserted into the host genome by an enzyme called integrase. mRNA can then be made by transcription of the viral DNA, which, as a permanent part of the host cell's genome, is called a provirus. The mRNA is read to produce viral proteins and may also serve as a genome for new viral particles that assemble and bud from the cell.

replication fork

A Y-shaped region on a replicating DNA molecule where new strands are growing. Grow away from the origin in both direction Each has a leading and lagging strand

Skeletal muscle is attached to bone by: A. cartilage. B. ligaments. C. tendons. D. basement membrane.

C. Tendons are the bands of collagen-based connective tissue which link skeletal muscle to bone (choice C is correct). Cartilage is part of joints (covers the ends of bones) as well as a filler tissue in places like the nose, but it is not involved in the attachment of skeletal muscle to bone (choice A is wrong). Ligaments link bone to bone (choice B is wrong) and basement membranes support layers of epithelial cells, such as the intestinal lining or skin (choice D is wrong).

types of personality disorders

CLUSTER A( ODD OR ECCENTRIC) Paranoid › Characterized by distrust and suspiciousness toward others based on unfounded beliefs that others want to harm, exploit, or deceive the person schizoid › Characterized by emotional detachment, disinterest in close relationships, and indifference to praise or criticism; often uncooperative schizotypal › Characterized by odd beliefs leading to interpersonal difficulties, an eccentric appearance, and magical thinking or perceptual distortions that are not clear delusions or hallucinations CLUSTER B (DRAMATIC,EMOTIONAL,IRRATIONAL) antisocial › Characterized by disregard for others with exploitation, repeated unlawful actions, deceit, and failure to accept personal responsibility borderline › Characterized by instability of affect, identity, and relationships, as well as splitting behaviors, manipulation, impulsiveness, and fear of abandonment; often tries self-injury and may be suicidal Histrionic › Characterized by emotional attention-seeking behavior, in which the person needs to be the center of attention; often seductive and flirtatious Narcissistic › Characterized by arrogance, grandiose views of self-importance, the need for consistent admiration, and a lack of empathy for others that strains most relationships; often sensitive to criticism CLUSTER C (ANXIOUS,FEARFUL,INSECURITY) avoidant › Characterized by social inhibition and avoidance of all situations that require interpersonal contact, despite wanting close relationships, due to extreme fear of rejection; often very anxious in social situations dependent › Characterized by extreme dependency in a close relationship with an urgent search to find a replacement when one relationship ends obsessive compulsive › Characterized by perfectionism with a focus on orderliness and control to the extent that the individual may not be able to accomplish a given task

blood gas transport equation pH regulations

CO2 +H20↔ H2CO3↔H+ +HCO3- Oxygen carries hemoglobin and carbon dioxide travels with hemoglobin in a tense state if there is no oxygen then the PH will decrease Renal regulated blood PH

Spearman's Idea of General Intelligence (G Factor)

Charles Spearman was one of the researchers who helped develop a statistical technique known as factor analysis. Factor analysis allows researchers to a number of different test items that can measure common abilities. For example, researchers might find that people who score well on questions that measure vocabulary also perform better on questions related to reading comprehension. Spearman believed that general intelligence represented an intelligence factor underlying specific mental abilities. All tasks on intelligence tests, whether they related to verbal or mathematical abilities, were influenced by this underlying g-factor. Many modern intelligence tests, including the Stanford-Binet, measure some of the cognitive factors that are thought to make up general intelligence. These include visual-spatial processing, quantitative reasoning, knowledge, fluid reasoning, and working memory. Visual-spatial processing involves such abilities as putting together puzzles and copying complex shapes. Quantitative reasoning involves the capacity to solve problems that involve numbers. Knowledge involves a person's understanding of a wide range of topics. Fluid reasoning involves the ability to think flexibly and solve problems. Working memory involves the use of short-term memory such as being able to repeat a list of items.

Types of nutrition bacteria

Chemoautotrophs: use chemical energy, uses CO2 as a carbon source as a carbon source Chemoheterotrophic: use chemical energy rely on organic nutrients Photoautotrophs: relay on energy from the sun uses CO2 as a carbon source Photoheterotrophic: relay on energy from the sun uses organic nutrients as a carbon source Auxotrophs:a mutant organism (especially a bacterium or fungus) that requires a particular additional nutrient like agar, glucose, arginine, and leucine which the normal strain does not. Prototrophs: the parent of auxotrophs

lymphatic system

Composed of a network of vessels, ducts, nodes, and organs. Provides defense against infection, Recover excess tissue fluid(white blood cell and proteins not red blood cells) and return it to the circulatory system, Absorb and transport fats from the intestines, Filter fluid to remove antigens and other potentially harmful substances

Which steps involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle require binding and/or hydrolysis of ATP? I. Dissociation of myosin head from actin filament II. Attachment of myosin head to actin filament III. Conformational change that moves actin and myosin filaments relative to one another IV. Binding of troponin to actin filament V. Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum VI. Reuptake of calcium into the sarcoplasm A. I, II, and III only B. II, III, and IV only C. I, III, and VI only D. III, IV, and VI only

Dissociation of the myosin head from the actin filament requires the binding of ATP (I). Attachment of the myosin head to the actin filament requires calcium and a troponin/tropomyosin shift (II). The conformational changes that move actin and myosin relative to one another require that ATP be hydrolyzed, for these changes occur upon release of the products of hydrolysis (ADP and Pi) by the myosin head (III). Binding of troponin to actin does not require the hydrolysis of ATP (IV). Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum also does not require ATP hydrolysis. This release occurs when calcium ions move via voltage-gated ion channels down their concentration gradient (V). The reuptake of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum occurs via an ATP-hydrolyzing pump that moves calcium against its concentration gradient (VI). Thus, C is the correct response.

disulfide bonds

Disulfide bond formation is an example of an oxidation reaction in order to store molecules with disulfide bond it needs to be in a reduction environment

Conservation Errors

Do not understand that changing the appearance of an object does not change the object's nature

circular polarization

Due to the interaction of light with certain pigment or highly specialized filters; constant amplitude but changing direction; helical orientation

An affective disorder involving a pattern of comparatively mild depression that lasts for at least two years is known as: A. cyclothymic disorder. B. dysthymic disorder. C. seasonal affective disorder. D. bipolar disorder.

Dysthymic disorder, a less severe pattern of depression, is characterized by the sad mood, lack of interest, and loss of pleasure associated with major depression. These symptoms are milder but longer lasting. To qualify as a dysthymic disorder, the symptoms must last for at least two years in adults and one year in children (choice B is correct). Cyclothymic disorder is a milder form of bipolar disorder and is characterized by an alternating pattern of mood swings (choice A is wrong). Seasonal affective disorder is a calendar-linked pattern of depressive episodes, with depressive symptoms most prominent during months of shorter daylight (choice C is wrong). Bipolar disorder is an affective disorder characterized by alternating extremes of mood, from depression to mania and back again (choice D is wrong).

5 forms of religious organization

Ecclesial: religion that are interogated into the political institution usually perceived as a state religion like Iran (Islam), or Sweden (Lutheranism) Church: religion is intergeated into society but not into law Sect: religion is separate from societal norms Cult/ New religious movement: a religious organization that is far outside society norms

It takes 35 mL of a 0.093 M solution of potassium permanganate to react completely with 10 mL of an aqueous solution of iron(II) in a redox titration, according to the reaction above. Which of the following represents the molarity of the iron(II) solution?

It takes 35 mL of a 0.093 M solution of potassium permanganate to react completely with 10 mL of an aqueous solution of iron(II) in a redox titration, according to the reaction above. Therefore, (5)(35)(0.093)/(10) represents the molarity of the iron(II) solution. The mathematical relationship at the equivalence point is nFeMFeVFe = nMnMMnVMn,

Based on the data presented in Table 1, which amino acid residues of PRR are involved in binding to prorenin? I. Residue 109 II. Residue 140 III. Residue 201 IV. Residue 269 A. I and II only B. I, II, and III only C. II and III only D. II, III, and IV only

It's asking which will change Kd so the answer is D because 109 does not change Kd. It's just asking for involvement which could be bad or good involvement

Which other cellular components are likely to be located near the lacY6xbs transcript in the cell membrane? A. Proteins and glycolipids B. Glycolipids and sterols C. Sterols and phospholipids D. Phospholipids and proteins

Its asking what are in cell membranes and the cell membrane are made of phospholipids and antigens/channels which are made of proteins

The modified nucleotide ms2t6A is a derivative of which amino acid? A.Tyrosine B.Threonine C.Lysine D.Tryptophan

The answer to this question is B because the structure of ms2t6A shown in Figure 1 includes the amino acid threonine and the purine adenine.

A sequence near the 3' end of bacterial 16S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) base-pairs with a sequence called the Shine-Dalgarno sequence in the ribosome binding sites of prokaryotic mRNAs. Given that the sequence in the 16S rRNA is 3' UCCUCCA 5' what is the mRNA sequence of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence that most strongly binds the ribosome? A. 5' AGGAGGT 3' B. 5' AGGAGGU 3' C. 5' CUUCUUG 3' D. 3' AGGAGGU 5'

The rRNA sequence given in the question runs 3' to 5'. Therefore, using the base-pairing rules of RNA, the perfect complement running 5' to 3' relative to this rRNA sequence will have the sequence 5' AGGAGGU 3'. Thus, B is the best answer.

alkyl halide reactions

always follow second order kinetic reaction

alimentary canal

(Mouth to but) the digestive tract, the GI tract layers: sucrose, Longitudinal Muscle( make tube shorter) ,Circular muscle(shrink diameter), sub mucous, mucous

Terpenes

-metabolic precursors to steroids, vitamin A. cholesterol, earwax, and other lipid signaling molecules -odiferous chemicals -class of lipids built from isoprene - carbons are grouped in multiples of 5 -grouped according to the # of isoprene units present -a single terpene consists of 2 isoprene units

Baby's Changes

1. closes lung bypass 2. close liver bypass 3. close umbilical vessels 4.

natural selection

A process in which individuals that have certain inherited traits tend to survive and reproduce at higher rates than other individuals because of those traits.

electron transport chain

A sequence of electron carrier complexes (membrane proteins) that shuttle electrons during the redox reactions that release energy used to make ATP. Each complex is coupled with each other. so to determine the activity of each complex you must separate them from each other

hypothalamic-pituitary portal system

A set of veins that connect a capillary bed in the hypothalamus (the primary capillary plexus) with a capillary bed in the anterior pituitary gland (the secondary capillary bed). Releasing and inhibiting factors from the hypothalamus travel along the veins to directly affect cells in the anterior pituitary. If damaged it will cause widespread endocrine malfunciton

histone proteins

A simple protein bound to DNA, involved in the coiling of chromosomes. can be identified using the western blott

appendix

A small, fingerlike extension of the vertebrate cecum; contains a mass of white blood cells that contribute to immunity.

RNA interference (RNAi)

A technique used to silence the expression of selected genes. RNAi uses synthetic double-stranded RNA molecules that match the sequence of a particular gene to trigger the breakdown of the gene's messenger RNA.

Finding Strong acid PH using Ka or H+ concentration

H+=6.2*10^-5 , Ka=6.2*10^-5, Pka=6.2*10^-5 PH=5-4

Why is an acidic workup required in a Grignard reaction?

. An acidic workup protonates the intermediate alkoxide and deactivates the Grignard reagent, forming an alkane from the former carbanion. While the carbonyl oxygen is often protonated to activate the carbonyl and make it more electrophilic, this is not necessary in a reaction with such a strong nucleophile like the Grignard reagent

contractile cycle

1) cross-bridge formation( the binding of the myosin head to a myosin-binding site on actin), myosin-ADP, Needs Calcium 2) power stroke(myosin pulls actin toward the center of the sarcomere) myosin to low energy, ADP release 3) binding of ATP to myosin, release of actin 4) ATP hydrolysis, myosin cocked conformation

Capacitors and Capacitance Charge on Capacitor Distance between capacitor affect E (Eds Formula)

have the ability to store and discharge electrical potential energy Capacitance(C)=kε(A/d) k= 1 for vacuum or air k>1 for other insulators Units for Capacitance is farads Charge on capacitor= Q=CV(C for a capacitor is constant) V=Ed

An ultrasound examination could show the motion of a fetus. In order to image this motion, the ultrasound examination devices requires what minimal information? A.The speeds of the sound and of the moving object. B.The speed of the sound, and the frequencies of the sound waves emitted and observed. C.The speeds of the sound and of the moving object, and the frequencies of the sound waves emitted and observed. D.The speeds of the sound and of the moving object, and the frequencies and wavelengths of the sound waves emitted and observed.

he Doppler effect relates the frequency of the ultrasound wave as detected by a moving detector to the frequency of the wave when the source is stationary, the speed of the source, and the speed of the detector. Three of the four quantities involved in the effect are required.

The density of a human body can be calculated from its weight in air, Wair, and its weight while submersed in water, Ww. The density of a human body is proportional to: A.Wair/(Wair - Ww). B.(Wair - Ww)/Wair. C.(Wair - Ww)/Ww. D.Ww/(Wair - Ww).

he answer to this question is A because, according to Archimedes' Principle, the ratio of the density of an object to the density of the fluid it is submersed in is equal to the ratio of the weight of the object in air to the difference of submersed weight and weight in air.

microfilaments

is made of actin. its used for muscle movement(myosin), cytokinesis(the cytoplasmic division of a cell at the end of mitosis or meiosis, bringing about the separation into two daughter cells.), pseudopod(crawl movement) formation, and Actin filaments may also serve as highways inside the cell for the transport of cargoes, including protein-containing vesicles and even organelles.

amitoic division

is the process of cellular division which majorly takes in the lower organisms like bacteria. This type of cellular division is a primitive type of division in which the nucleus of the cell divides unequally causing uneven distribution of chromosomes and unpredictable genome.

Negative priming requires which type of memory process? A.Implicit memory B.Declarative memory C.Iconic memory D.Explicit memory

it requires implicit memory because if you were told to consciously ignore a stimulus and then told to remember the stimulus. meaning the memory was not conscious (Explicit) but rather Implicit(Memory we didn't consciously remember)

steriod hormones

make secondary sex characteristic in pubery. Female (estrogen, Progesterone), Male (testosterone) -hydrophobic -small -made from smooth ER -not stored -stuck to protein carrier when transporting in bloodstream -bind to receptors that alter gene -expression by regulating DNA transcription -Slow and long lasting

Intersitital cells (of Leydig)

makes testosterone are stimulated by LH they are found in between seminiferous tubules in the testes

acid trends

positive charge, ↑ acidity Negative Charge, ↑ baseity Electronegative↑,↑ acidity (Across the row only) Electrongativity↓, basity↑ Larger atom,↑acidity Smaller atom,↑ basicity

Prejudice vs. Discrimination

prejudice is a negative attitude, discrimination is a negative behavior

Transformation

process in which one strain of bacteria is changed by a gene or genes from another strain of bacteria

Testes function

produce sperm and testosterone (androgens)

Apoptosis

programmed cell death Disassemble cytoskeleton, break down nuclear membrane, break down genome, phagocytic digestion

What are the 3 functional classifications of joints?

synarthroses (immovable no synovial fluid), amphiarthroses(slightly movable some synovial fluid), and diarthrosis (fully movable has synovial fluid) Synovial fluid allows movement

transcription translation The central dogma

synthesis of an RNA molecule from a DNA template The process by which mRNA is decoded and a protein is produced DNA to RNA to Protein

In each variant, the substitution that took place changed the side chain at the affected position in which way? Increased hydrophobicity Decreased basicity Increased hydrophilicity Decreased steric constraints

the letters symbolize amino acids so if the wild type was W(Tryotiohan)t(Theronine) and transferred into Alanine which is smaller in size and therefore decreased steric constraints

Retina

the light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the receptor rods and cones plus layers of neurons that begin the processing of visual information

flashblub memory

the memory of emotionally significant events that people oftgen recall with more accuracy and vivid imagery than everyday events

fatty acid oxidation

the metabolic breakdown of fatty acids to acetyl CoA; also called beta-oxidation. Occur in mitochondria matrix Linked to Acetyl CoA Coenzyme: NAD+ FAD Energy is generated by the reaction process

Electrophilicity

the more positive charge

inductive effect stabilization

the more substituted a carbocation is the more stable it is

vertical social mobility

the movement between different class statuses, often called either upward mobility or downward mobility

Principle of Superposition electric

the net force on a charge q due ti collection of other change=sum of individual forces that each q alone exerts on q

Optic disk and optic nerve

the optic nerve leaves the eye to the brain at the optic disk(Blind spot, place on retina where optic nerve form

cultural transmission

the process by which one generation passes culture to the next

Hematocrit

the ratio of the volume of red blood cells to the total volume of blood

Which solution component will have the lowest concentration at the end of the kinetic assay described in the passage? A. Lactate B. ADP C. ATP D. NAD+

the reaction in the passage in glycolysis so it uses pyruvate and ADP and NADH to make NAD+, ATP, and lactate So the answer is B

rotational inertia

the resistance of an object to changes in its rotational motion τ=Iα I=mr^2

peripheral resistance

the resistance of the arteries to blood flow. As the arteries constrict, the resistance↑, flow ↓, increasing blood pressure↑ as they dilate,flow ↑, resistance ↓. causing lower blood pressure↓

optical activity

the rotation of plane-polarized light by a chiral molecule clockwise=deterorotaory (D) counterclockwise=levorotatory (S)

vestibular sense

the sense of body movement and position, including the sense of balance

Codominance

the situation in which both alleles of a gene contribute to the phenotype of the organism

rate determining step

the slowest step in a reaction mechanism

social epidemiology

the study of how health and disease are distributed throughout a society's population

REM rebound

the tendency for REM sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation (created by repeated awakenings during REM sleep)

Generalization

the tendency, once a response has been conditioned, for stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus to elicit similar responses

place theory of hearing

the theory that different areas of the basilar membrane respond to different frequencies

tranesterification

transesterification is the process of exchanging the organic group R″ of an ester with the organic group R′ of an alcohol

Bronchi

two short branches located at the lower end of the trachea that carry air into the lungs.

stem cells

unspecialized/ cells that are able to produce any type of cell usually found in blastocyte (Embroyonic Stem cells) or can be found as a tissue stem cells in the brain,skin,bones,intestines and gonads.

linguistic determinism

the view that all thought is represented verbally and that, as a result, our language defines our thinking

How much work did an 83-year-old female do while stretching the rubber band to the limit of her strength? using the information that her Maximum stretching of an elastic band (cm) is 20 cm k = 200 N/m

the work done is W = k*m=(200N/m)(.02m)=4 N

James-Lange theory of emotion

theory proposing that emotions result from our interpretations of our bodily reactions to stimuli

signal detection theory

theory regarding how stimuli are detected under different conditions

Elboration likelihood model

there is 2 pathway of persuasion centeral(fact) and peripheral(feeling)

fovea centralis

tiny pit or depression in the retina that is the region of clearest visual acuity only cones

Alveoli

tiny sacs of lung tissue specialized for the movement of gases between air and blood

Torque formula

torques=rFsin(angle) Torque=lateral length * Force

Inbreeding can reduce the fitness of a population in the short term because it causes an increase in the: A. genetic diversity of the population. B. levels of aggression in the population. C. rate of spontaneous mutations. D. incidence of expression of deleterious recessive traits.

we have fatal recessive genetic diseases so when we inbred there is a risk of the recessive genetic disease to be exposed Answer is D

homodimer

when 2 identical molecules connect to each other so its usually nonpolar since the 2 identical molecules will have identical charges

Based on the data presented in Table 1, which amino acid residue of prorenin most likely interacts with the residue at position 201 of PRR? D201 A. Alanine B. Glutamate C. Arginine D. Glutamine

Its mostly asking which will interact with aspartic acid which is negatively charge and of the choice the only positive charge is arginine.

Rate constant and equilibrium

Keq=[B]/[A]=kf/kr kf[A]=kr[B]

forgetting curve

Rather, the "forgetting curve" indicates that the longer the retention interval, or the time since the information was learned, the more information will be forgotten, with the most forgetting occurring rapidly in the first few days before leveling off. Forgetting cannot be completely eliminated by review, though repeated review can greatly diminish the impact of forgetting.

reaction quotient

Ratio of the concentrations of the products to the concentrations of the reactants at any point during the reaction aside from equilibrium, where each reactant and product in the expression is raised to the power of its stoichiometric coefficient. Commonly denoted by Q. Q=Products/Reactants

Resolution of Enantiomers

React a racemic mixture with a chiral compound to form diastereomers, which can be separated.

Pedigree: X-linked Recessive

Recessive gene is carried on the X chromosome MORE MALES ARE AFFECTED NO male-to-male transmission of trait F: two copies of gene to express M: one copy of gene to express ** CARRIERS -- Females w/only 1 copy of gene

Venturi effect

Reduction in pressure of a fluid resulting from the speed increase as fluids are forced to flow faster through narrow spaces.

Substituting residues in a peptide with which amino acid will most likely result in a peptide with an increased pI? A. Lys B. Glu C. Gln D. Val

The answer is Lysine because its the only basic amino acid and to increase pI(PH) the amino acid needs to be basic

What is the resistivity of the best-performing PANI described in the passage? he best-performing PANI had a maximum conductivity of 5.0 × 10-3 (Ω∙cm)-1. A.0.002 Ω•cm B.50 Ω•cm C.200 Ω•cm D.500 Ω•cm

The answer to this question is C because resistivity is the inverse of the conductivity, which is 1/5.0 × 10-3 (Ω∙cm)-1 = 200 Ω∙cm.

Potential Energy Capacitor What if Battery detached and inserted dielectric insert dielectric while battery connected

U=PE most useful is PE=(1/2)CV^2 Battery Detached= Q constant Battery not Detached= Voltage constant

Urine vs. Blood

Urine(lots of water) and blood (not a lot of water) Volume and concentration (osmolarity)=opposite Urine ↑=Volume↓

resistence (Ohm Law)

V=IR(Ohms LAW) R=(L/A)resisitivty R=V/I

Velocity for vertical motion

Vy=Voy+-gT Knowing +g is down and -g is up (Acceleration is -g) Voy=(Vo)(Sin(angle))

Fetal stages

Week 12: sex identfied Week 16: mom feels movement week 24: eyelids unfuse week 28: testes descend week 33: surfactant produced week 38: Full-term

Neuron

a specialized cell transmitting nerve impulses; a nerve cell. Do not reproduce

axial skeleton vs appendicular

axial: Skull,Vertebral column, and rib cage Appendicular are every other bone

What kind of image is formed by the lenses of the glasses worn by a 68-year-old male who sees an object 2 m away? note focal length is negative

because the lenses have a negative focal length which means they are diverging lenses. Such lenses form virtual and reduced images of objects situated at distances larger than the focal length.

What is the ratio of the minimum sound intensities heard by a 64-year-old male and a 74-year-old female? using the information that 64 year old man minimun sound intensity is 20 and 74 year old female is 40

because the relative intensities of the two sound waves are 20 dB and 40 dB, respectively. The difference is 20 dB, meaning that the decimal log of the ratio of their intensities is 2, which means that the ratio of their intensities is 100.

Bicarbonate ions in the blood and the dialysate are important for maintaining physiological levels of: A. water. B. chloride. C. hydrogen ions. D. glucose.

bicarbonate excretion is used to increase the PH in the blood when there is too many H+ ions making C the answer

lens

biconvex transparent body situated behind the iris in the eye that focuses light on the retina

Coagulation

blood clotting

Platelets

blood clotting

somatic cells can be found in

bone marrow becuase of hematopoietic

experience-dependent

brain functions that depend on particular, variable experiences and therefore may or may not develop in a particular person

Types of traits

cardinal(traits their know for), central(general traits in everyday scenarios), secondary(trait for a specific scenarios)

Arteries

carry blood away from the heart has high pressure blood moves by pressure has a mascular wall has an elastic wall

process of fertilization

dikaryon→oocyte meiosis II→syngamy→zygote→2-cell stage→morula→bastula→ implantation→

distal stimulus vs proximal stimulus

distal stimulus: is the object Proximal stimulus: is what is registered by the receptor sensory stimulus: light incentive stimulus:

Types of genes

dominant, recessive, cumulative (need multiple genes to determine characteristics

mom's changes after birth

estrogen/progestrone drop Prolactin and Oxycontin increase to help milk production.

Pedigree: Y-linked

father to all sons

source amnesia

faulty memory for how, when, or where information was learned or imagined

ootid

final product of oogenesis; occurs After fertilization, but before the egg and sperm nuclear membranes fuse.

primacy effect and recency effect

first items remembered v. last items remembered

Dodenum

first part of the small intestine

Mores

fixed customs or manners; moral attitudes

2 primary bone shapes

flat( scapul and long

Villi

folds in the plicae in the small intestines

Plicae

folds of the small intestine wall

the ovarian cycle

follicular phase (day 1-13)(build follicle, triggered by FSH and secretes estrogen), ovulation (day14) (release of secondary oocyte and support cells from Graffian follicle and triggered by LH), luteal phase(15-30) (form corpus luteum( corpus luteum needs LH to exist) to support oocyte triggered by LH and secretes estrogen and progesterone)

Ventricle Organization is important

for tissue oxygenation If ventricles were damaged it will cause increased blood pressure in the pulmonary circuit.

Freud's Psychosexual Stages and problems with the theory

1. Oral Stage 2. Anal Stage 3. Phallic Stage 4. Latency Stage 5. Genital Stage Problems with the theory did not consider homosexual

The three key elements to persuasion

1. message characteristics 2. source characteristics 3. target characteristics

Proline

Pro, P creates a secondary α amino group and ring structure

General Adaptation Syndrome

Selye's concept of the body's adaptive response to stress in three phases—alarm, resistance, exhaustion.

self-fulfilling prophecy

an expectation that causes you to act in ways that make that expectation come true.

bicarbonate excretion

bicarbonate takes excess H+ ions and attach it to itself to help excrete it

Lyases

breaks chemical bonds by means other than oxidation or hydrolysis

Symbolic Interactionism

by George herbet mead a micro-level theory in which shared meanings, orientations, and assumptions form the basic motivations behind people's actions 3 stages of symbolic behavior 1. Preparatory Stage (mimicry) 2.Play Stage (learn to play the roles of others) 3.Game Stage (realizing/accepting social norms) "I" is individual self while me is social self MICRO

Wobble hypothesis

explains why multiple codons can code for a single amino acid on the third position Example: I can pair with A,U, or C

social constructionism

explores how individuals and groups make decisions to agree upon a given social reality MICRO or MACRO focus on larger picture

Freud and Psychanalytic theory

personality is shaped largely by unconscious motivation of libido and death instinct

Hans Eysenck

personality theorist; asserted that personality is largely determined by genes

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, self-actualization

Types of Stereotypes

positive stereotypes will lead to stereotypes boost Negative stereotypes will lead to a threat boost

social exchange theory

the theory that human interactions are transactions that aim to maximize one's rewards and minimize one's costs MICRO

The ratio of 238U to 234Th atoms in a rock is determined to satisfy the relationship: log(N0 / N) = 1/5. What is the approximate age of this rock?

log(N/N0)=-.2 log(N/N0)=.3z

length-tension relationship

the relationship of muscle length its ability to generate power. can produce the most power when thick and think filament line up and contract at the same time.

Subsitution reaction

the replacement of one type of atom on an organic compound with another type of atom or group. (replace H with Halogen, or methyl) breaks sigma and replaces sigma bond

photoelectric experiment

(The Dual Nature of Light) 1. Shine a flashlight on electrons: nothing happens 2. Shine a brighter light on the electrons: nothing happens 3. Shine an UV light: electrons jumped off -proof that light acts like a particle -the particles carry their energy in frequency: characteristic of particles -the particles carry their energy in their amplitude: characteristic of waves

Psychophysical discrimination testing

(method of limits) - asses perception of stimuli in relation to true physical properties (difference thresholds) experiments seek to determine whether the subject can detect a stimulus, identify it, differentiate between it and another stimulus, or describe the magnitude or nature of this difference

slope formula

(y₂- y₁) rise/run (x₂- x₁)

Lipids role

- Major component of cell membranes - Energy source - Communication within cells and between cells -building blocks

internal and external Respiration

-Internal: gas exchange between systemic blood vessels and tissues -External: gas exchange between the lungs and the blood

Conflict Theory

-Karl Marx believed that society is a constant fight for resources, causing extreme forms of classes (Capitalist class and working class). -Social order is maintained through hegemony (Acceptance of the value of work determined by capitalist). -Revolution is inevitable -Marx invited extreme socialism called communism -Max Weber: believed that society will not revolt because of the Protestant/Puritan work ethic (A widely held religious belief to give people hope) -modern society use rationalization(to pay people less by having more people then explain your actions with logical reasoning) and bureaucracy( decisions are made by state officials rather than by elected representatives, giving people the illusion of power) MACRO

SN2 reaction

-bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reactions - only 1 step (concerted reaction) -nucleophile attacks the compound at the same time as the leaving group leaves pentacoordinate transition state -Nucleophile actively displaces the leaving group in a backside attack for this to occur, nucleophile must be strong & substrate can't be sterically hindered -concentrations of substrate & nucleophile have role in determining the rate --> rate = k[Nu][R-L] -Position of the substituents around the substrate carbon is inverted increased size of substituents leads to increased energy of the transition state. cant occur for tertiary structure polar aprotic solvent( acetone,DMF,DMSO)

causes of aggression

-biological factors (biochemical,genetics, and neural) -frustration effects(Enviromental) -social factors

PAGE vs. SDS PAGE electrophoresis

-both forms of electrophoresis used to separate proteins -PAGE is used for proteins in their native states and tests their mass -SDS PAGE denatures proteins and separates them only by their mass, coating them with negative charge

cardiac muscle action potential

1. Depolarization Phase 0: Na+ channels open Phase 1: Na+ Channels inactive and K+ Channels open 2. Plateau (The plateau phase in the cardiac muscle cell action potential is due to the influx of calcium through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.) Phase 2:Ca2+ channels open, K+ still open 3. Repolarization (voltage-gated K+ channels are responsible for the repolarization) Phase 3: Ca2+ channels close and K+ still open Phase 4: K+ Channels close

Oogensis

1. Prenatal(before birth) stages oogonia→(mitosis)oogonia→Primary oocytes 2. Monthly from Puberty to menopause(5-6 months) primary oocytes→ secondary oocytes (1 is ovulated) + first polar body 3.Fertilized Secondary oocytes (meiosis II)→ ovum + second polar body

volume of lungs ranked

1. Total Lung Capacity ( The maximum Volume of air that the lungs can contain. Total lung capacity is the sum of the vital capacity and the residual volume and is typically about 6000 mL) 2. Vital Capacity ( the maximum amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled from the lungs after filling them to their maximum level, typically about 4500 mL) 3. Inspiratory Capacity (is the amount of air that can be inhaled after the end of a normal expiration) 4. Tidal Volume ( the volume of air inhaled and exhaled automatically, resting breathing, typically about 500 mL)

Conjugation process

1. conjugation occurs between F+ and F- cell 2. one strand of the F factor inside F+ cell is nicked by an endonuclease and moves across conjugation tube into F- cell 3. DNA complement for each single strand is synthesized (in both F+ and F- cell) 4. movement across conjugation tube is completed; DNA synthesis is completed 5. ligase closes DNA circles ; conjugates separate At the end of conjugation, the F- "female", having received the F plasmid, is now an F+ "male". Female (or F-) bacteria can undergo conjugation with both male (F+) and Hfr strains Hfr strains can only mate with female bacteria, not other Hfr strains Conjugation increases the number of F+ cells. However, when bacteria divide by binary fission, plasmid distribution in the two daughter cells is relatively unregulated. This can result in a male parental cell giving both male and female daughter cells

cell theory and extended modern

1. every living organism is made up of one or more cells (basic unit of life) 2. smallest organisms are single cells(monomers) 3. all cells arise from preexisting cells Modern extension 4.DNA source of hereditary programming information 5. organisms activity is determined by the total activity of cells 6.biochemical energy flow occurs within cells

Lungs function

1. gas exchange 2. regulation of blood pH 3. production of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE). ACE facilitates the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor that causes an increase in blood pressure. Angiotensin II also causes an increase in the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. This affects blood pressure by increasing the reabsorption of Na+ and the secretion of K+. The lung is thus indirectly involved in releasing aldosterone

If [E]T was the concentration of lactase in the kinetics trials, what expression gives the concentration of lactase in the commercial preparation of this enzyme? knowing that A stock solution of the enzyme was prepared by diluting 0.100 mL of the commercial preparation to 25.0 mL in the buffer solution. Experiments were initiated by mixing 1.0 mL of each substrate solution with 1.0 mL of the enzyme solution. A. [E]T × 25 B. [E]T × 50 C. [E]T × 200 D. [E]T × 500

25/.1=250 2/1=2 250*2=500 Et*500 Answer is D

At STP, the volume of N2(g) produced by the complete decomposition of 1 mole of nitroglycerin would be closest to which of the following?

4 moles of nitroglycerin produce 6 moles of N2(g). Therefore, 1 mole of nitroglycerin will produce 1.5 moles of N2(g). At STP 1.5 moles of N2(g) will occupy 33.6 L since the molar volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.4 L/mol.

Antibody Heavy Chains

5 classes of heavy chains and correspond to class name of IgG, A, M, E, D. Each chain has a variable and a constant region

The experience that the items in Panel D are arranged in columns is best attributed to which principle of the perceptual organization? A. Similarity B. Proximity C. Closure D. Continuity

A

The kinetic properties of two enzymes are shown in the table. Both enzymes have the same substrate. kcat (s-1) Kd (mM) Hill coefficent Isoelectric point X 1.5 × 106 10.0 2.25 7.9 Y 2.1 × 106 18.0 1.01 3.3 Based on the data, which statement best describes how Enzyme X differs from Enzyme Y? A. The maximal velocity of the reaction catalyzed by Enzyme X is higher than that of the reaction catalyzed by Enzyme Y. B. Enzyme X has a higher molecular weight than Enzyme Y. C. Enzyme X exhibits cooperativity, whereas the activity of Enzyme Y does not. D. Enzyme X has a lower binding affinity for the substrate than Enzyme Y.

A Hill Coefficient>1 means the Enzyme shows Cooperativity, a Hill Coefficient=1 means No Cooperativity (1.01 is ~ the same thing as 1.00), and a Hill Coefficient <1 means Negative Cooperativity. Therefore Enzyme X shows cooperativity and Enzyme Y does not. C

Anxious about a nagging illness, a patient feels ignored by a doctor who is struggling to catch up with patient examinations on a very busy day. The doctor misinterprets the discomfort and agitation of the patient as hostility. Which sociological paradigm can best explain this scenario? Functionalism Conflict Theory Symbolic Interactionism Social Constructionism

A This is incorrect because functionalism is considered a macro-level theory that understands social phenomena in terms of their function for society. B This is incorrect because conflict theory focuses on the differences in material resources among groups in society. C is the correct answer since the scenario concerns the inter-subjective negotiation of symbols or meanings, which is indicative of symbolic interactionist theory. D This is incorrect because social constructionism bridges the micro and macro levels but places more emphasis on how concepts emerge (such as illness), as opposed to understanding social interactions.

Participants who reported personal memories about particular songs were retrieving which type of information? A.Episodic B.Semantic C.Implicit D.Sensory

A because episodic information consists of personal memories

connective tissue

A body tissue that provides support for the body and connects all of its parts this includes adipocytes (Fat), chondrocytes cartilage), collagen(Strong Fibrous protein), Osteocytes(bone). All Connective Tissue is made from Fibroblast

G protein

A cell surface receptor associated with an intracellular protein(Epinephrine or other ligands) that binds and hydrolyzes GTP. Not affected by steroid hormones When GTP is bound, the protein is active, and can regulate the activity of adenylyl cyclase or phosphorylase; this modifies the intracellular levels of second messenger cAMP. cAmp activates cAmp-dependent protein kinases cAMP-dpk phosphorylates enzymes with the end result of mobilizing energy When the GTP is hydrolyzed to GDP, the protein becomes inactive again.

genetic drift

A change in the allele frequency of a population as a result of random events rather than natural selection.

polymorphic

A gene or other part of DNA that exists in more than one form.

tumor suppressor gene

A gene whose protein products inhibit cell division, thereby preventing uncontrolled cell growth (cancer). p53 is a tumor suppressor gene that when active can halt progression through the cell cycle or can trigger apoptosis

pressure-volume loop

A graphical representation of the pressure and volume changes that take place during the cardiac cycle and their relationship to each other.

Prostaglandins

A group of bioactive, hormone-like chemicals derived from fatty acids that have a wide variety of biological effects including roles in inflammation, platelet aggregation, vascular smooth muscle dilation and constriction, cell growth, protection of from acid in the stomach, and many more.

Fungi

A kingdom made up of nongreen, eukaryotic organisms that have no means of movement, reproduce by using spores and get food by breaking down substances in their surroundings and absorbing the nutrients. have a cell wall made of only chiten but no chloroplast Examples include yeast(unicellular eukaryote) and mold (multicellular eukaryoteme)

convergent lens

A lens that is thicker at the center and gathers light; bends the light inward. Convex lens Converging lenses (and mirrors) can produce both inverted real and upright virtual images depending on the distance of the object being viewed. If the object distance is less than the focal length, an upright virtual image is produced. If the object is greater than one focal length away, an inverted real image is produced

Which aspect of equality is considered a requirement in a meritocracy? A. Equality of opportunity B. Equality of talent C. Equality of skill D. Equality of outcome

A meritocracy is when societal rewards, status, and positions are awarded to individuals based on their own ability and work (that is, merit). In order for a meritocracy to operate, everyone within the society would need the same opportunity to succeed, so that rewards are actually based (primarily) on merit.

Counterbalancing

A method of controlling for order effects in a repeated measure design by either including all orders of treatment or by randomly determining the order for each subject

NMR spectroscopy

A method of determining a molecular structure that uses the relative position of carbons and hydrogens determined by the relative shielding and spins of electrons observed when a molecule is exposed to a magnetic field. the number of sets of peals in the spectrum tells one the number of chemically nonequivalent sets of protons in the molecule Spin-spin splitting phenomenon: occurs when nonequivalent hydrogens interact with each other Integration: the calculated area under each peak is proportional to the relative number of protons giving rise to each peak

Strecker synthesis

A method of synthesizing amino acids that uses condensation between an aldehyde and hydrogen cyanide, followed by hydrolysis. non steroselective

Phospholipids

A molecule that is a constituent of the inner bilayer of biological membranes, having a polar, hydrophilic head and a nonpolar, hydrophobic tail. saturated (Full of hydrogen/ bad/high melting point) unsaturated(not full of hydrogen/good/double bond/lower melting point)

Esophagus

A muscular tube that connects the mouth to the stomach. Structure: begins made of skeletal muscle allowing us to control the beginning of esophagus but then has smooth muscle which takes it to the stomach Cardiac Sphincter :entrance to the stomach (may cause heartburn if not closed properly)

Hypothalamus

A neural structure lying below the thalamus; it directs several maintenance/homeostasis activities (eating, drinking, body temperature), helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, and is linked to emotion and reward. controls the pituitary gland The hypothalamus is a key regulator in many different processes, including food intake, blood pressure, and neuroendocrine control, as well as temperature regulation.

alpha decay

A nuclear reaction in which an atom emits an alpha particle consisting of two protons and two neutrons. This decreases the atomic number by 2 and the mass number by 4. N and Z decreases

The use of a "token economy" described in the last paragraph suggests that: A. ADHD is a strictly behavioral phenomenon that can be addressed through reward and punishment. B. children with ADHD respond to token economies better than do children with other psychiatric disorders. C. symptoms of ADHD can be reduced by applying principles of operant conditioning. D. the academic performance of those with ADHD is positively correlated with their socioeconomic status.

A token economy is a simple system of rewards for desirable behavior, which is one type of operant conditioning.

DC circuit

A type of circuit that carries direct current, or current that flows in only one direction. in one voltage

Phagocytosis

A type of endocytosis in which a cell engulfs large particles or whole cells. Its nonspecific

Epistasis

A type of gene interaction in which one gene alters the phenotypic effects of another gene that is independently inherited.

Ultraviolet-Visible Spectroscopy

A type of optical spectroscopy that measures the absorption of light in the visible and ultraviolet regions of the spectrum; the spectra primarily provide structural information about the conjugation of multiple bonds in the compound being analyzed. Also called UV-Vis Spectroscopy. The more aromatic rings the higher the wavelength that appears.

Which of the following is an inaccurate pairing of an internal bond of a biological macromolecule and the molecule's reactivity or structure? A. The ester linkage in lipids can be broken by saponification using a strong acid. B. The peptide bond in proteins is planar due to resonance delocalization of electrons. C. Disulfide bonds between cysteine amino acids are important in tertiary protein structure. D. Covalent glycosidic linkages can lead to branched or unbranched polysaccharides, such as glycogen.

A. All the statements are correct except choice A. Saponification is a base mediated reaction, in which fats are broken down into glycerol and the conjugate bases of free fatty acids via a nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction

Had the participants known that they would be asked to recall the story one week after their initial visit, they could have used which of the following rehearsal processes to keep the information in their long-term memory? A. Elaboration B. Maintenance C. Repetition D. Spreading activation

A. Elaboration, the process of organizing information and associating it with information already in one's long-term memory, best allows new information to enter one's long-term memory (choice A is correct). Maintenance and repetition, both processes of simply repeating information to oneself, allows one to keep the information in short-term memory but often does not cause the information to enter the long-term memory (choices B and C are wrong). Spreading activation is a model that suggests that thinking about ideas allows for the priming of other related ideas and information and is not a process for instilling information in one's long-term memory (choice D is wrong).

All of the following are true statements EXCEPT: A. fraternal twins occur from the fertilization of both oocytes of a double ovulation; one that occurs about midcycle (day 14) and one that occurs about a week later. B. ovulation is triggered by an LH surge that is the result of the positive feedback of estrogen on the anterior pituitary gland. C. LH causes ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum. D. menstruation is triggered by a drop in estrogen and progesterone levels.

A. Fertilization of both oocytes from a double ovulation is in fact what leads to fraternal twins, however the two ovulations must occur within 24 hours of each other, not a week apart (choice A is not true and is the correct answer choice). The LH surge that causes ovulation is the result of the positive feedback effect that estrogen has at high levels (choice B is true and can be eliminated), and the LH surge causes both ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum after ovulation (choice C is true and can be eliminated). The drop in estrogen and progesterone as the corpus luteum degenerates (around day 27-28) is what triggers menstruation (choice D is true and can be eliminated).

mutation leading to a loss of function in which of the following hormones would have the greatest impact on enzyme activation in the stomach? A. Gastrin B. Cholecystokinin C. Erythropoeitin D. Secretin

A. Gastrin is secreted from G cells in the stomach, and stimulates acid and pepsinogen secretion, as well as increases stomach motility. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) cleaves the zymogen pepsinogen to active pepsin; a mutation leading to loss of gastrin function would impair HCl secretion and thus pepsin activation (choice A is correct). CCK (cholecystokinin) triggers release of bile and also works to regulate the flow of chyme through the pyloric sphincter and into the small intestine, but does not impact gastric enzyme activation (choice B is wrong). Erythropoeitin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow and is made by the kidneys, thus it is not relevant to this question (choice C is wrong). Secretin triggers the release of pancreatic exocrine secretions (including digestive enzymes and aqueous bicarbonate) into the small intestine, and is not involved in gastric enzyme activation (choice D is wrong).

Relative Deprivation Theory

Actions of groups that are oppressed/deprived of rights that others in society enjoy. ex. Civil Rights Movements

A high school girl with a naturally high-pitched voice intentionally makes her voice sound creaky and rough because she wants to be more like her close friends who have been using vocal fry lately, and also wants to be more like the famous females celebrities she and her friends admire. In this case, vocal fry is used to demonstrate the girl's affiliation with a(n): A. in-group and comparison to a reference group. B. reference group and distance from an in-group. C. out-group and distance from a secondary group. D. secondary group and comparison to a primary group.

A. In the situation described in the question stem, the girl is purposely trying to sound like her close friends, who are part of her in-group. An in-group is a group with which one identifies; members feel a sense of camaraderie and loyalty as they share similar views or characteristics. Additionally, her and her friends admire female celebrities, and want to be more like them; therefore, the celebrities constitute the reference group. In this scenario, the use of vocal fry can be one of the many factors that permits the girl to feel affiliated with her in-group, while comparing herself to the reference group (choice A is correct). Since a reference group is a group against which one compares him or herself for the purpose of self-evaluation, and this girl is not part of the celebrity set, she is not trying to demonstrate an affiliation with the reference group, nor is there any clear indication that she is attempting to distance herself from some other group by using this speech pattern (choice B is wrong). Similarly, she is not trying to demonstrate an affiliation with an out-group (a group with which she does not identify; choice C is wrong). A secondary group is oftentimes formal and impersonal. Members of such a group do not necessarily feel a bond with one another. As the question stem indicated, the girl is close with her friends, indicating that they are a primary group (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following explains why incompatible fetal blood type does not induce an immune response in a pregnant female, but a HIV-positive woman can pass the disease on to her new baby? A. The placenta is a complex capillary network that allows many maternal blood components to pass into fetal circulation, but only waste products to pass into maternal circulation. B. The fetus receives half its genomic information from each parent, but mitochondrial genetic material is inherited solely from the mother. C. Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube and the embryo can be exposed to maternal factors during migration to the uterus. D. The chorion is specific and limiting in terms of which factors can pass into the maternal or fetal circulatory systems.

A. Many maternal blood components, such as oxygen, nutrients, some antibodies, some drugs and toxins, and some viruses, can pass from the maternal blood supply into the developing fetus. In contrast, few molecules can pass from fetal blood into maternal circulation (choice A is correct). While choice B is an accurate statement, it does not answer the question (choice B can be eliminated). Fertilization does occur in the fallopian tubes, but this does not explain the differential exchange between fetus and mother (choice C can be eliminated). The chorion secretes hCG and other hormones in the first trimester, and ultimately becomes the placenta, but again, this does not explain the fact that more things can pass from mother to baby than from baby to mother (choice D can be eliminated).

What are the end products of oogenesis if fertilization occurs? A. One ovum, two polar bodies B. One secondary oocyte, one polar body C. One primary oocyte, two polar bodies D. Three polar bodies

A. One Ovum, Two polar bodies

What stage(s) of sexual response is/are mediated by the sympathetic nervous system? A. Orgasm and resolution B. Arousal only C. Arousal and orgasm D. Orgasm only

A. Orgasm and resolution

Thermal denaturation experiments can be used to follow the transition of double-stranded DNA into single-stranded DNA. Which of the following parameters affects the Tm of dsDNA in this experiment? I.pH of solution II.Ionic strength of solution III.Length of DNA strands A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

Acid can denature DNA strands so I is correct a stronger bonds can decrease the chance of denature so II is correct The longer the DNA strand the harder it is to denature so III is correct Answer is D

As a first-year medical student, RJ feels pressure to study very hard and do well in his classes, but also feels pressure not to look like he is "trying too hard" to do well. These competing expectations can best be described as: A. role strain. B. role conflict. C. social facilitation. D. stereotype threat.

A. Role strain occurs when there are competing expectations for the same status. In the scenario provided, RJ is dealing with the competing expectations to perform well, but also to not look like he is trying too hard, for the same status—that of first-year medical student (choice A is correct). Role conflict occurs when two statuses have competing expectations; since there is no indication that RJ feels conflict from the competing expectations of more than one status, role conflict is not occurring here (choice B is wrong).

If Hypothesis 2 is correct, what is the correct expression for the acceleration of the object in Figure 1 relative to the surface of the Earth? A. (GM / r2) - (v2 / r) B. GM / r2 C. (GM / r2) + (v2 / r) D. GMm / r2

A. Since Hypothesis 2 explains why the acceleration of an object at the equator is less than that given by Equation 1, the acceleration must be less than GM / r2. This eliminates choices B and C. Choice D cannot be true since it has units of force, not acceleration.

A chemist plans to use a Grignard reagent to convert a ketone into an alcohol. Which of the following functional groups may also be present in the substrate bearing the ketone? A. Alkene B. Anhydride C. Carboxylic acid D. Acid chloride

A. Since the Grignard reagent is a strong base, it will be protonated by acidic functional groups like alcohols and carboxylic acids (eliminate choice C). Since the reagent is also a strong nucleophile, electrophilic groups like acid chlorides and other carbonyl containing groups will compete with the ketone, so should be avoided. Eliminate choices B and D. Alkenes are not acidic and are themselves nucleophiles, so are compatible with the Grignard reagent.

The primary function of fructose and buffers in semen is to help spermatozoa survive the path from the: A. vas deferens to the fallopian tube, by providing nutrients and pH regulation. B. seminiferous tubules to the fallopian tube, by providing nutrients and lubrication. C. epididymis to the fallopian tube, by providing nutrients and temperature control. D. sustenacular cells to the fallopian tube, by providing lubrication and pH regulation.

A. Spermatids are made in the seminiferous tubules of the testes, mature in the epididymis and are stored as spermatozoa in the vas deferens until ejaculation. Fructose in the semen provides nutrients, and alkaline secretions help neutralize the low pH in the male urethra (from urine passing through) and the female vagina (which functions as part of the innate immune system, similar to the low pH in the stomach). Overall, the best answer choice is A. Neither component provides lubrication (choices B and D are wrong) and temperature control is a function of the scrotum (choice C is wrong).

Trier Social Stress Test,the stress induction occurred immediately previous to which memory process? A. Encoding B. Rehearsal C. Retrieval D. Recognition

A. The Trier Social Stress Test, the psychosocial stressor that was used in this study, was administered before the stimuli were presented, therefore, it occurred before the memory encoding process, in which an individual takes in the information which he or she is to remember (choice A is correct). Rehearsal is the management of information once it has been encoded and therefore happens later in the memory process (choice B is wrong). Retrieval is the process of recovering information when prompted, and recognition is identifying something as being the information that was previously encoded. Both of these processes are the relative end-stages of the process of remembering anything (choices C and D are wrong).

Strontium salts are also used in highway safety flares. When an electron from strontium relaxes from its prevalent excited state, a photon with a wavelength of 660 nm is emitted. Approximately how much energy is released upon emission? A. 3.0 × 10-19 J B. 7.2 × 10-19 J C. 1.8 × 10-18 J D. 3.0 × 10-18 J

A. The energy of a photon of frequency f is given by the equation E = hf, or, in terms of the wavelength λ, by the equation E = hc / λ. Upon substitution of the numerical values for these quantities, we find 3*10^-19J E=(6.63*10^-34J*S) (3*10^8)/(660*10^-9)= 3*10^-19

Consider that one of the participants in the study described above did not like the piece of classical music they listened to. According to the familiarity effect, what should this individual report if they heard the piece again? A. Liking the piece more than they did initially Correct Answer B. Liking the piece more than they did initially, but only if they were positively rewarded after the first listening session C. Liking the piece less than they did initially because they would find it too familiar Your Answer D. It is unclear how they would react because this phenomenon has not been tested with artistic works, only politicians

A. The familiarity effect, also known as the mere-exposure principle, is a psychological phenomenon that suggests that the degree to which someone likes a novel object or stimuli increases with additional exposures; therefore, the familiarity effect would predict that even if a participant didn't particularly like the piece of music the first time they heard it, they would report liking it more after hearing it a second time (choice A is correct). The familiarity effect predicts that familiarity (or repeated exposure) breeds liking rather than boredom (choice C is wrong). This phenomenon works even in the absence of positive rewards associated with the music; furthermore, a positive stimulus is not a required element of the familiarity effect (choice B is wrong). This effect has been shown to work with a variety of stimuli, from Chinese characters to music, and should work any time a participant begins the study with a neutral opinion about a novel stimuli (choice D is wrong).

primary active transport

Active transport is used to move molecules against their concentration gradients, hence the need for energy in order to make such movement possible. In primary active transport, that movement is directly linked to the hydrolysis of ATP

dicer enzyme

An enzyme that cuts RNA molecules in miRNA following transcription its helicase with RNase cleanses dsRNA and creates siRNA which is important for activating RISC

The function of the loop of Henle is to: A. create a concentration gradient in the medulla to facilitate the reabsorption of water at the collecting duct. B. reabsorb ions such as sodium and calcium under the control of various hormones. C. reabsorb water under the control of ADH. D. selectively reabsorb potassium and sodium to allow the reabsorption of water and urine concentration.

A. The loop of Henle establishes a concentration gradient in the medulla, so that as the collecting duct passes through it, water can be reabsorbed (thus concentrating the urine; choice A is correct). ADH makes the collecting duct permeable to water, facilitating this reabsorption (choice C is wrong), but if the gradient did not exist, there would be no driving force for the movement of water out of the collecting duct. The selective reabsorption of ions under the control of hormones takes place at the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). For example, this is where aldosterone and parathyroid hormone have their effect (choice B is wrong). Only sodium is selectively reabsorbed by the loop of Henle. Potassium in general is secreted into the urine (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following does NOT describe the esophagus? A. The opening of the esophagus is protected by the epiglottis. B. The upper esophagus is composed of skeletal muscle. C. Peristalsis begins in the esophagus. D. The esophagus is separated from the stomach by the cardiac sphincter.

A. The trachea (not the esophagus) is protected by the epiglottis, as it prevents food or liquids from entering the lungs when swallowing (choice A does not describe the esophagus and is the correct answer choice). The upper portion of the esophagus is made of skeletal muscle so that swallowing can be initiated voluntarily (choice B describes the esophagus and can be eliminated), but this merges quickly into smooth muscle, which provides the peristalsis to move the bolus down to the stomach (choice C describes the esophagus and can be eliminated). The cardiac sphincter separates the esophagus and the stomach (choice D describes the esophagus and can be eliminated).

uppose, at the start of the study, a father in the Portsmouth group began speaking to his infant child in a new language, but the child had difficulty discriminating the speech sounds unique to that language. Which process would most directly account for this phenomenon? A. Synaptic pruning B. Myelination C. Differentiation D. Trauma to the tympanic membrane

A. This question requires an understanding of the developmental implications of the age of the infants in the study. In human development, a critical period is a period in which certain cognitive developments are most optimally supported. The period between birth and six months is considered a critical period for some aspects of language acquisition. During this time, the infant learns to discriminate between the nuanced sounds of the language to which he/she is exposed, while he/she does not learn to discriminate between nuanced sounds of other languages. The process that would best account for this phenomenon is that of synaptic pruning, which refers to the gradual elimination of neuronal synapses, or brain cell connections, that are not relevant to the infant's developing brain. Thus, the synapses that would support processing of sounds that are not part of the infant's native language are not stimulated, and they wither and die. Accordingly, when presented with novel, nuanced sounds, the infant may have difficulty quickly learning to discriminate between those sounds (choice A is correct). Myelination refers to the growth of a fatty sheath around the axons of some neurons, which accelerates the transmission of chemical signals along the neuron. This process would help, not hinder, cognitive processing (choice B is wrong). Differentiation refers to the gradual localization of function to specific neurons. Although this process may serve as a prerequisite to synaptic pruning, it would only play an indirect role in the difficulty described in the question stem (choice C is wrong). While trauma to the tympanic membrane would certainly disrupt auditory functioning, deficits would not be limited to new sounds. Instead, auditory processing of all sounds would be compromised (choice D is wrong).

Researchers purified the wild-type and a variant form of a 140 kDa protein (Protein X). The researchers performed a native gel and an SDS gel electrophoresis under the non-reducing condition and observed the following electrophoretic patterns. Which conclusion is NOT valid? A. Gel B is a native gel. B. Protein X is a tetramer composed of 2 identical heterodimers. C. The variant form contains covalently linked subunits. D. The largest subunit of Protein X is approximately composed of 120 amino acids.

A. is correct because gel B has only one line compared to gel A which has multiple lines meaning it was reduced into separate compounds B. is correct because we see 2 lines when de nature and when we add them we get less than total unless we multiply each line by 2 and add them we get the total.((50*2)+(20*2)=140 kDa) C. the two subunits of the heterodimers in the variant form are covalently linked because gel A (non-reducing SDS-PAGE) shows the two subunits run as a single band at approximately 70 kDa. D.The answer to this question is D because the average molecular weight of an amino acid is 110 Da; therefore a protein with a mass of 50 kDa (the large subunit of Protein X, as shown in gel A) is approximately composed of 455 amino acid residues.

The discussion of which topic in the passage is most consistent with social cognitive theory's emphasis on modeling? A. Smoking prevention by establishing norms against tobacco use B. Understanding the treatment implications of cultural differences C. Obtaining the skills and education required to practice medicine D. Supplementing the biomedical approach with other perspectives

A. modeling is learning through mimicking so if norms against tobacco that's modeling

For the following reaction, if the concentration of the nucleophile is doubled what would happen to the rate? NaBr + (CH3)3CClRight arrowNaCl + (CH3)3Br A. The rate of the reaction remains the same. B. The rate of the reaction doubles. C. The rate of the reaction is divided by two. D. None of the above.

A.The given reaction is an SN1 reaction since the electrophile is tertiary. The nucleophile is not involved in the rate determining step for an SN1 reaction. Therefore, changing the nucleophile concentration will not change the rate of the reaction, making choice A the best answer.

Which ideal solution exhibits the greatest osmotic pressure? A. 0.1 M MgCl2 B. 0.2 M NaCl C. 0.2 M CaCl2 D. 0.5 M Glucose

A:(.1M)(3 ions)=.3 M B:(.2M)(2 ions)=.4 M C(.2M)(3 ions)=.6 M (Correct answer) D(.5M)(1 ions)=.5 M Assuming they are at a similar temperature so T and R is not significant

structure of the ear

A:outer B:middle C:Inner D:Semicircular canals E:Nerve F:Cochlea G:Eustachian Tube H:Incus I:Stapes J:Tympanic Membrane (Ear Drum) K:Malleus L:Auditory Canal M:Pinna

A school-aged boy has demonstrated an understanding of conservation, is focused on living up to the expectations of others, and tries to be a "good boy", but cannot yet reason about abstract moral concepts and does not yet feel a duty to uphold social rules and conventions. He is likely to be in which of the following stages, according to Piaget and Kohlberg, respectively? A. Preoperational thought; Stage 2 (self-interest orientation) B. Concrete operational thought; Stage 2 (self-interest orientation) C. Preoperational thought; Stage 3 (interpersonal accord and conformity) D. Concrete operational thought; Stage 3 (interpersonal accord and conformity)

According to Piaget, a child who has demonstrated a grasp of conservation but cannot yet reason about abstract moral concepts should fall within the concrete operational thought stage; children in the preoperational thought stage have not yet grasped the principle of conservation (choices A and C can be eliminated). According to Kohlberg, a child who tries to live up to the expectations of others and to be a "good boy", but does not yet feel a duty to uphold social rules and conventions, should fall within the third stage of moral reasoning (choice B is wrong and choice D is correct).

Sarah noted that her skin blood vessels were usually constricted to conserve body heat in the cold environment of the mountains. However, her skin blood vessels would occasionally dilate for short periods of time. What would be the most probable physiological purpose for this periodic vasodilation? A. Maintain normal skin tone B. Maintain sufficient oxygenation of cells C. Reduce excessive blood pressure D. Maintain normal muscle tone

According to the item, Sarah noticed that her skin blood vessels were usually constricted to conserve body heat in the cold environment of the Colorado mountains where she went skiing. Occasionally, however, her vessels would dilate for short periods of time to enable a sufficient supply of blood (and oxygen) to her cells. Due to the physical exertion of skiing, her cells had an increased need for oxygen.

Treisman's Attenuation Model

Accounts for cocktail party effect Attenuating filter "turns down" volume of unattended message, but it still enters working memory

The addition of acetylcholine to the medium most likely induced: A. depolarization of the cell membrane that resulted in contraction. B. repolarization of the cell membrane that resulted in relaxation. C. hyperpolarization of the cell membrane that resulted in contraction. D. depolarization of the cell membrane that resulted in relaxation.

Acetylcholine causes contraction by activating depolarization

Acetylcholine

Acetylcholine has inhibitory effects on cardiac pacemaker activity, thus any drug that inhibits acetylcholine (i.e., an antagonist) will increase heart rate and a drug that mimics acetylcholine (i.e. an agonist) would lower heart rate.

adaptive vs maladaptive coping

Adaptive coping strategies generally involve confronting problems directly, making reasonably realistic appraisals of problems, recognizing and changing unhealthy emotional reactions, and trying to prevent adverse effects on the body. Maladaptive coping includes using alcohol or drugs to escape problems.

osteoclasts and osteoblasts

After bones form, __________ and __________ continually remodel them. osteoclast are stimulated by parathyroid hormones and calcitrol

The enthalpy of formation of HCl(g) from H2(g) and Cl2(g) is -92.3 kJ/mol. Which of the following observations is consistent with this?

After one hour the reaction is at equilibrium and will not be generating any net heat, so the temperature should equal room temperature, eliminating C and D. Because the reaction is exothermic, the gas expands initially, causing the pressure reading to peak. As equilibrium is established, the gas cools and contracts, and the final pressure reading at equilibrium will be lower than the initial peak.

Trachea

Allows air to pass to and from lungs. The windpipe

amide hydrolysis

Amide + Water --> Carboxylic Acid + Amine

food desert

An area in a developed country where healthy food is difficult to obtain

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

An endomembrane system covered with ribosomes where many proteins for transport are assembled. this includes membrane bound, Integral, and secreted protiens connected directly to the nuclear envelope

oxygen and hemoglobin graph

An increase in pH increases the O2 affinity of hemoglobin Increased oxygen delivery due to hemoglobin's decreased oxygen affinity Temperature and carbon dioxide can affect hemoglobin affinity increase in hemoglobin affinity also occurs during hyperventilation The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is high in the lungs (where it picks up oxygen) and low in the tissues. (Where it releases oxygen)

Ionic bonds form between

An ionic bond is most likely to form between elements of very high and very low electronegativity. In practice this generally means elements at the far right and far left of the periodic table respectively.

Newton's First Law

An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.

adaptive value of emotion

Ancient emotions such as a fear keep us alive by being cautions of potential dangers; old emotions like pride developed in primates and add to our social well-being, increasing odds of reproduction; new emotions, such as love for our offspring, cause our offspring to survive better has nothing to do with arousal

The muscle subtype represented by Culture C is LEAST likely to be characterized by: Knowing that culture A is white and Culture B is Red. A. a fast rate of muscle contraction. B. the ability to engage in oxidative and anaerobic respiration. C. the presence of medium-sized motor units. D. low densities of mitochondria and capillaries

Answer is D

A hiker becomes lost and has no drinking water for 2 days. At the end of this time, which of the following changes in hormone production would be expected to be significant in this individual? A. Decreased glucocorticoid secretion B. Decreased aldosterone secretion C. Increased insulin secretion D. Increased antidiuretic hormone secretion

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin) secretion would increase to enhance the permeability of the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney to promote water reabsorption and excretion of more concentrated urine. Therefore, response D is the best answer.

atypical antipsychotics

Antipsychotics that do not have significant side effects common to older antipsychotics including negative symptoms

Gabriel Malonic Ester Synthesis of Amino Acids

Attack the amino group carbon and replace it

What allows for a similarity in how cardiac muscle and smooth muscle transmit action potentials from cell to cell? A. Presence of tight junctions B. Presence of gap junctions C. Presence of voltage-gated sodium channels D. Presence of desmosomes

B. Both cardiac and smooth muscle transmit action potentials directly from cell to cell. This can be accomplished because the cells are connected via gap junctions (choice B is correct). Tight junctions would preclude action potential transmission (choice A is wrong) as would desmosomes (choice D is wrong). Voltage-gated sodium channels are important for the rapid depolarization seen in muscle cell action potentials, but does not contribute to the transmission of action potentials between cells (choice C is wrong).

A gifted child is pulled out for a special program in computer science. When his parents tell him he should remain in class with the other students to not feel left out, the student agrees despite wanting to continue the special program. This type of social influence is known as: A. identification. B. compliance. C. internalization. D. internal locus of control.

B. Compliance is adhering to the beliefs or wishes of others while maintaining one's own previously held beliefs. This is the best match for the situation described, in which the student agrees to a situation against his wishes (choice B is correct). Identification is a type of belief change in which the person identifies with some aspect of another person and so changes his belief system accordingly (choice A is wrong). Internalization involves integrating some aspect of another person and using that model to change one's belief or self-concept. The student in the answer stem does not change their self-concept, but merely agrees to something with which he is not in actual agreement (choice C is wrong). External locus of control is the belief that factors other than the self are determining the direction of one's life (choice D is wrong)

Hermann Ebbinghaus is known for his work with memory and for the development of the forgetting curve. Using himself as his primary subject, he performed various memory tests. He concluded that, when people do not consciously attempt to remember what they have learned: A. information is retained for an extended period of time before it deteriorates rapidly. B. information is initially lost rapidly before the rate of forgetting levels off. C. information is lost rapidly, both initially and over time. D. information retention is unpredictable.

B. Ebbinghaus' experiments led to the Ebbinghaus Forgetting Curve. He found that if he did not purposefully try to remember new information, he quickly lost this information during the first few days of learning it. Eventually, however, the rate of forgetting leveled off; that is, the rate of forgetting decreased significantly and continued at a relatively steady rate after the initially steep loss (choice B is correct). Ebbinghaus demonstrated that information is lost, rather than retained, initially (choice A is wrong). He also found that, over time, the rate of forgetting decreases (choice C is wrong). Although forgetting rates may vary from person to person, Ebbinghaus discovered a generally predictable pattern at which this loss occurs (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following is the best description of fibrous cartilage? A. Provides a dynamic balance of support and flexibility B. Provides rigid, strong support Correct Answer C. Provides less support but more flexibility D. Eventually ossifies and becomes bone

B. Fibrous cartilage is the strongest and least flexible type of cartilage and it is found in places like the intervertebral disks as well as the pubic symphysis (choice B is correct). However, it does not eventually ossify; this would create a completely rigid structure whereas the cartilage does provide a little bit of flexibility (imagine if your spine was complete bone, choice D is wrong). Elastic cartilage provides the most flexibility (choice C is wrong) and is found in places like the outer ear and the epiglottis. Hyaline cartilage balances support with flexibility (choice A is wrong) and is found on the ends of bones, at the joints. It is also known as articular cartilage.

a mixture of glycine and lysine was dissolved in a pH = 1.5 solution and separated via gel electrophoresis, which of the following would occur? A. Both amino acids would move towards the positive electrode. B. Both amino acids would move towards the negative electrode. C. Glycine would move towards the positive electrode while lysine would migrate towards the negative electrode. D. Lysine would move towards the positive electrode while glycine would migrate towards the negative electrode.

B. Glycine contains a carboxyl group (pKa ~2) that acts like an acid, and an amino group (ammonium pKa ~9) that acts like a base. The pH of the solution is below both these pKa values, so both groups will likely be protonated (-NH3+ and -CO2H), leading to a net charge of +1 for glycine at this pH. Glycine will therefore migrate to the negative electrode in gel electrophoresis (choices A and C are incorrect). In addition to the acidic carboxyl group and the basic amino group, lysine has an additional basic group (ammonium pKa ~10) in the R-group. The solution pH is also below this pKa value, so all three groups on lysine will be protonated (-NH3+ and -CO2H in the backbone, and a -(CH2)4NH3+ R-group), leading to a net charge of +2. Lysine will therefore migrate to the negative electrode (choice B is correct and D is incorrect).

Free fatty acids form micelles in aqueous solutions for each of the following reasons EXCEPT: A. the stabilizing effects of hydrophobic interactions outweigh the decrease in entropy. B. the 14-18 carbon fatty acid tails are too long to form a lipid bilayer, due to increased steric hindrance. C. water forms an orderly solvation shell around the fatty acids, favorably interacting with the polar head groups. D. the hydrophobic hydrocarbons favorably associate together, away from water.

B. Hydrophobic interactions are the force that drives fatty acid hydrocarbons to the center of a micelle. The benefits of minimizing water-lipid interactions outweigh the decrease in entropy associated with this process (choice A is a true statement). The micelle allows the hydrophobic fatty acid tails to interact with each other and polar carboxylic acid groups to interact with water (choices C and D are true statements and not the answer). Fatty acids typically contain 14-18 carbons, and this length of fatty acid can occur in a lipid bilayer or a micelle (choice B is false, and the correct answer).

action-reaction pair

a pair of simultaneous equal but opposite forces resulting from the interaction of two objects

Which hormone is most responsible for ovulation? A. Progesterone B. Luteinizing hormone C. Follicle stimulating hormone D. Estrogen

B. LH

Multipotent cells can become A. all cell types in the body, but not the trophoblast. B. some, but not all, cell types in the body. C. all cell types in the body, including the trophoblast. D. one specific cell type in the body.

B. Multipotent cells can become some, but not all cell types in the body. The cells of the three primary germ layers are considered multipotent; for example, some cells in the mesoderm could become muscle, but not skin or bone (choice B is correct). Totipotent cells, like the zygote or morula, can become any cell type in the body (choice A is wrong), including the trophoblast (choice C is wrong). Specialized (determined) cells can only become one cell type in the body (choice D is wrong).

Suppose the experiment described in the passage was repeated, but instead of listening to music, participants had two different streams of auditory information going into each ear, a song in a foreign language played in the right ear and a short story read aloud in the left. Each participant had to attend to the ear that included a short story in order to complete a memory task later. Which of the following is most likely to be true about the results of this new experiment? A. Participants who come from a country that has a collectivistic culture will find dividing their attention easier than those who come from individualistic cultures. B. The story will be harder to attend to and then recalled accurately if the song in the right ear were personalized to the participants and includes their name in the lyrics. C. Because Wernicke's area is on the same side of the brain as the story is being presented, participants will have an easier time on the memory task if they are allowed to write their answers down. Your Answer D. The participants that are allowed to close their eyes, thus limiting the amount of external stimulation coming into the brain, will perform better on the memory task.

B. Individuals do have the ability to selectively attend to a chosen stream of sensory information, and are capable of filtering unwanted information and ignoring it effectively, as described in the cocktail party effect. This is especially true if the information is subjectively important, such as hearing one's own name amidst the noise (choice B is correct because the song in the unattended ear that includes personally relevant information would drag the participant's attention away from the story being played in the left ear, which would make it harder to attend to the story, inhibiting encoding and later retrieval of story details). Collectivistic cultures emphasize a person's place in a group and the importance of group outcomes as more important than individual outcomes. This cultural perspective has been shown to impact self-identity but should not affect a dichotic listening task, described here (choice A is wrong). While there is an acknowledgement of cross-lateralization of the brain in choice C and Wernicke's area has been associated with comprehension of spoken language, memory for the story would not be improved if the responses were written rather than spoke (choice C is wrong). It is possible the closing of a person's eyes in this task would improve performance on the memory task, but it would be due to the improvement of selective attention rather than a limit on taxing the brain (choice D is wrong).

High progesterone levels right after ovulation: A. are the result of high steroid hormone production by the chorion. B. function to fine-tune maturation of the endometrium in preparation for implantation. C. drop after high FSH levels negatively feedback to the brain. D. stimulate high estrogen production in a positive feedback loop.

B. Progesterone helps with endometrium development, in preparation for pregnancy (choice B is correct). It provides negative feedback to the brain, to decrease GnRH, FSH, and LH. Falling LH levels ultimately cause the corpus luteum to disintegrate, progesterone levels to drop, and menstruation to occur (choice C is wrong). Estrogen's positive feedback loop occurs before ovulation and triggers the LH surge that causes ovulation (choice D is wrong). The chorion develops from the trophoblast of a blastocyst (developing embryo), and secretes hCG to maintain the pregnancy (choice A is wrong).

Which of the following is an inaccurate pairing of biological macromolecule and monomer building block? A. Protein - amphoteric amino acids. B. Triglyceride - glycine and up to three fatty acids. C. Polysaccharide - monosaccharides such as galactose or fructose. D. Nucleic Acid - nucleotides such as adenosine triphosphate.

B. Proteins are polypeptide chains made of amino acids. Amino acids are amphoteric in that they contain both acidic and basic function groups (choice A is an accurate pairing and is not the answer). Triglycerides contain a glycerol backbone and up to three fatty acids (choice B is the answer). Glycine is an amino acid. Polysaccharides are composed of monosaccharides such as glucose, galactose or fructose (choice C is accurate and not the answer) and the building block of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are nucleotides (D is accurate and not the answer).

Which of the following is an inaccurate pairing of biological macromolecule and monomer building block? A. Protein - amphoteric amino acids. Your Answer B. Triglyceride - glycine and up to three fatty acids. C. Polysaccharide - monosaccharides such as galactose or fructose. D. Nucleic Acid - nucleotides such as adenosine triphosphate.

B. Proteins are polypeptide chains made of amino acids. Amino acids are amphoteric in that they contain both acidic and basic function groups (choice A is an accurate pairing and is not the answer). Triglycerides contain a glycerol backbone and up to three fatty acids (choice B is the answer). Glycine is an amino acid. Polysaccharides are composed of monosaccharides such as glucose, galactose or fructose (choice C is accurate and not the answer) and the building block of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are nucleotides (D is accurate and not the answer).

Which of the following electron configurations would best represent a neutral strontium atom in an excited state? A. [Kr]5s1 B. [Kr]5s1 4d1 C. [Kr]5s2 4d1 D. [Kr]5s2

B. Since a neutral strontium (Sr) atom contains 38 electrons, choices A and C can be eliminated immediately since they account for 37 and 39 electrons, respectively. Choice D gives the electron configuration for a strontium atom in the ground state, but choice B represents the configuration of an excited strontium atom, in which one of the 5s electrons has been promoted to a higher-energy 4d orbital.

Which of the following lipids is a key component of myelin sheaths? A. Terpenes B. Sphingolipids C. Prostaglandins D. Tocopherols

B. Sphingomyelin, a type of sphingolipid, is an important lipid component in the myelin sheath of nerve cell axons (choice B is correct).

Why are the human testes held outside of the body? A. To accommodate the placement of erectile tissue B. Temperature regulation for proper spermatogenesis C. Temperature regulation for proper testosterone production D. To allow easy access to the vas deferns

B. Temperature regulation for proper spermatogensis

The mechanism of ester formation from an alcohol and carboxylic acid occurs faster in the presence of an acid catalyst because the H+: A. makes the carboxylic acid a better electrophile and the alcohol a better nucleophile. B. makes the carboxylic acid a better electrophile and the OH of the acid a better leaving group. C. shifts the acid/ester equilibrium toward the ester product. D. stabilizes the tetrahedral intermediate, facilitating the dissociation of the leaving group.

B. The acid catalyst protonates the oxygen of the carbonyl in a carboxylic acid, giving it a positive charge and making it a better electrophile. After, nucleophilic attack of the alcohol onto the acid, the OH group is protonated to form water, a much better leaving group. Only deprotonating an alcohol would make it a better nucleophile by increasing its negative charge, so choice A is incorrect. A catalyst will have no effect on the position of equilibrium, so choice C is incorrect. Catalysts also do not affect the thermodynamics (relative stabilities) of a reaction, so choice D is also incorrect.

What role does the macula densa (in the distal tubule) play in regulating blood pressure? A. High filtrate osmolarity triggers the macula densa to stimulate the JG cells and dilate the afferent arterioles. B. Low filtrate osmolarity triggers the macula densa to stimulate the JG cells and dilate the afferent arterioles. C. High filtrate osmolarity triggers the macula densa to stimulate the JG cells and constrict the afferent arterioles. D. Low filtrate osmolarity triggers the macula densa to stimulate the JG cells and constrict the afferent arterioles.

B. The macula densa on the distal convoluted tubule monitors filtrate osmolarity. If the filtrate osmolarity decreases (choices A and C are wrong), this indicates a drop in filtration rate. The macula densa then stimulates the juxtaglomerular cells (in order to activate the renin-angiotensin axis to increase blood pressure), while also causing the afferent arterioles to dilate (choice D is wrong and choice B is correct). The combination of increased systemic blood pressure and increased blood flow to the glomerulus increases filtration rate.

Rank the carboxylic acid derivatives below in order of increasing reactivity. A. Anhydride < amide < ester < acid halide B. Amide < ester < anhydride < acid halide C. Amide < anhydride < acid halide < ester D. Ester < amide < acid halide < anhydride

B. The reactivity of carboxylic acid derivatives increases as their leaving group ability increases. Acid halides are the most reactive since their halide ions are strong leaving groups since they are the conjugate bases of strong acids. Since this is a ranking problem we can eliminate choices C and D. Between the remaining choices, an amide with a poor leaving group, NH2-, is much less reactive than an anhydride with a resonance stabilized carboxylate leaving group, RCO2-. This makes choice B the correct answer. In general, the leaving group ability increases thus: NR2- < RO- < RCO2- < X-.

o physiologically induce stress, experimenters could administer: A. a rigorous math task. B. an injection of cortisol. C. an injection of oxytocin. D. the Trier Social Stress Test.

B. To physiologically induce stress means to use some physical means of creating strain on the body. Cortisol, the "stress hormone," induces activity through a number of pathways in the body to manually create stress to allow laboratory study of the phenomenon (choice B is correct). A rigorous math task would psychologically induce stress and could impact natural cortisol levels but would not be considered a physiological induction (choice A is wrong). Similarly, the Trier Social Stress Test used in this experiment is a psychosocial stressor, not a physiological one (choice D is wrong). Injecting oxytocin would likely calm an individual, not induce stress (choice C is wrong).

How do troponin and tropomyosin work to regulate skeletal muscle contraction? A. Globular troponin binds calcium, a conformational change in protein pulls filamentous tropomyosin, and actin binding sites on myosin are exposed. B. Globular troponin binds calcium, a conformational change in protein pulls filamentous tropomyosin, and myosin binding sites on actin are exposed. C. Filamentous tropomyosin binds calcium, a conformational change in protein pulls globular troponin, and actin binding sites on myosin are exposed. D. Filamentous tropomyosin binds calcium, a conformational change in protein pulls globular troponin, and myosin binding sites on actin are exposed.

B. Troponin is the regulatory protein that binds calcium (choices C and D are wrong). This induces a conformational change in troponin that pulls on tropomyosin in order to expose the myosin binding sites on actin. This allows interaction of actin and myosin, and contraction, to occur (choice A is wrong and choice B is correct).

Urine formation begins with filtration of the blood, after which the filtrate is modified via reabsorption and secretion as it travels along the nephron. Water, ions, and small hydrophilic molecules are all filtered into the nephron. Which of the following provides the best description of the composition of urine in a healthy individual? A. Water, ions, urea, glucose B. Water, ions, urea C. Water, proteins, ions, urea D. Water, urea, proteins, glucose

B. Water, ions, urea, and glucose are all small enough and hydrophilic enough to be filtered into the nephron at the glomerulus. However, glucose is completely reabsorbed into the blood by a healthy individual, so urine does not contain glucose (choice A is wrong). Proteins are too large to be filtered and so never enter the nephron (choices C and D are wrong).

Which of the following cells generates the greatest amount of energy per Coulomb? Zn2+ + 2e- → Zn E˚ = ‒0.76 Al3+ + 3e- → Al E˚ = ‒1.66 Ag+ + e- → Ag E˚ = +0.80 Cu+ + e- → Cu E˚ = +0.52 A. Al|Al3+||Zn2+|Zn B. Cu|Cu+||Ag+|Ag C. Ag|Ag+||Cu+|Cu D. Zn|Zn2+||Cu+|Cu

D +.76+.52=1.28V

3 domains of life Taxonomy

Bacteria(prokaryotes), Archaea(prokaryotes), Eukarya(eukaryotes) Taxonomy: the classification of living orgainsims

Reciprocal Causation Model

Bandura's social learning theory stresses the importance of observational learning, imitation and modeling. His theory integrates a continuous interaction between behaviors, personal factors - including cognition - and the environment

A hot water tail-flick test measures the time it takes rats to remove their tail when it is dipped in hot water. Rats housed with a running wheel exhibit a delayed response in the test. Based on this response, which type of sensory receptors are most likely negatively regulated by exercise? A. Baroreceptors B. Nociceptors C. Mechanoreceptors D. Chemoreceptors

Baroreceptor: pressure Nociceptors: pain Mechanoreceptors: mechanical Chemoreceptors: chemical

Deviance

Behavior that violates significant social norms

Ethnocentrism

Belief in the superiority of one's nation or ethnic group.

Hyperventilation causes

Blood pH increases Blood CO2 levels decrease O2 saturation of hemoglobin increases

Function of boiling chips

Boiling chips allow water to boil faster by providing nucleation sites that give liquid a place to start forming bubbles. This can also be done by scratching the flask. It also prevents super heating

To be an effective therapy, an antisense gene that is incorporated into a genome that contains the target gene must be: A. on the same chromosome as the target gene but not necessarily be physically adjacent. B. on the same chromosome as the target gene and must be physically adjacent. C. regulated in a similar manner as the target gene. D. coded on the same strand of DNA as the target gene.

C becuase if its not regulated in a similar manner as the target gene it may cause antisense gene to detached from the genome and destroyed. causing antisense gene to lose its purpose

In operant conditioning studies, the subject's motivational state is most typically operationally defined by: A. observing the subject's behavior over a long period of time. B. using a type of reinforcement that the experimenter knows the subject usually likes. C. depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus item for a period of time. D. using a novel stimulus that the subject is sure to like.

C) yes, when deprive a subject of stimulus --> can gauage subject's motivation ALSO Skinner would deprive his animals

A toddler aspirates a toy car and is rushed to the emergency room to have it removed. What are the most likely blood gas findings? A. Increased O2, increased CO2 B. Increased O2, decreased CO2 C. Decreased O2, increased CO2 D. Decreased O2, decreased CO2

C. After aspirating the toy car, a portion of the lung (or the entire lung) being supplied by that bronchus will no longer participate in gas exchange. This results in a smaller quantity of oxygen being absorbed (decreasing blood oxygen levels, choices A and B can be eliminated) and an increased quantity of carbon dioxide accumulating (choice D can be eliminated and choice C is correct).

Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning eukaryotes and prokaryotes? A. In most cases, eukaryotes follow the "one gene, one protein" rule, while prokaryotes are monocistronic. B. Eukaryotes have three DNA polymerases, and prokaryotes have three RNA polymerases. C. In prokaryotes transcription and translation can occur simultaneously, while in eukaryotes, they must remain distinct. D. Eukaryotes modify their primary transcripts by adding a 5' cap and a 3' poly-A tail, but prokaryotes only add a poly-A tail since the Shine-Dalgarno sequence replaces the function of the 5' cap.

C. Because prokaryotes do not have organelles, both transcription and translation occur in the cytoplasm, frequently simultaneously. In eukaryotes, however, transcription occurs in the nucleus, and translation occurs in the cytoplasm. Most eukaryotic RNA codes for a single protein with very few exceptions (alternative mRNA splicing); however, prokaryotic mRNA is often polycistronic and codes for several different proteins, often by utilizing different reading frames (A is wrong). Eukaryotes and prokaryotes both have multiple DNA polymerases (more than three), but eukaryotes have three RNA polymerases while prokaryotes have only a single RNA polymerase (B is wrong). While it is true that the Shine-Dalgarno sequence in prokaryotes essentially replaces the function of the 5' cap in eukaryotes, prokaryotes do not add poly-A tails to their mRNA transcripts (D is wrong).

M" is in police custody undergoing the ninth straight hour of interrogation regarding the death of his wife, whom he discovered shot to death that evening upon returning home from work. For the past hour detectives have been continuously yelling at him in an effort to get him to admit responsibility for the crime. Unable to endure the situation any longer, M states that he must have shot his wife but simply can't remember. In a soft and comforting tone the detectives praise M for making the admission, then gently ask him to try to remember the details of the crime. When he says that he cannot, the detectives resume yelling at him. M then capitulates, stating that he remembers having shot his wife. The detectives then gently ask M a lengthy series of questions regarding the supposed incident, in response to which M offers vivid and detailed "recollections" of the shooting. M's recounting of these purported details of killing his wife is an example of: A. escape learning. B. positive punishment. C. avoidance learning. D. positive reinforcement.

C. Escape learning occurs when an individual learns a means of escaping an unpleasant stimulus. M's first statement indicating that he must have shot his wife but can't remember doing so, and his second statement indicating that he in fact remembered the incident, are examples of escape learning.

The male reproductive system includes accessory glands, gonads and other genital structures (both internal and external). Which of the following is true? A. Semen must pass through the urethra, then the ductus deferens on its way out of the body. B. The testes contains the seminiferous tubules and bulbourethral glands, and the scrotum aids in temperature control. C. Accessory organs such as the seminal vesicles and prostate help with semen production. D. In addition to helping with ejaculation, the urethra also functions in urine and solid waste excretion.

C. Many components of semen are generated by the accessory glands (bulbourethral glands, seminal vesicles, and prostate; choice C is correct). Sperm are made in the seminiferous tubules of the testes, mature in the epididymis and are stored in the vas deferens (or ductus deferens). During ejaculation, they travel with the rest of semen through the ejaculatory duct and then the urethra (choice A is wrong). The testes contain the seminiferous tubules and the epididymis, but not the bulbourethral glands (choice B is wrong). While the urethra does function in urination, it plays no role in solid waste (feces) excretion (choice D is wrong).

What might be one of the symptoms a healthcare practitioner would use to distinguish a person with autism from a typically developing person? A. An inability to participate in associative play B. Use of telegraphic speech C. Appearing remote and indifferent to people around them D. Displaying a tendency towards moral relativism

C. One of the hallmarks of autistic spectrum disorder is that the person appears remote and indifferent to those around them, often failing to make eye contact (choice C is correct). If a child is not engaging in what Erikson calls "associative play," where he or she plays in groups of several people, it is likely the child is still under the age of about three years old and hasn't matured from the parallel play stage, but is normal developmentally (choice A is wrong). Telegraphic speech—the use of two to three word sentences—is also a sign that children are quite young, in this case 18-24 months, but is still a part of normal language development (choice B is wrong). Moral relativism is Piaget's term for the stage children go through when they mature and recognize the importance of rules and cooperation in creating a working social system. This is also a normal developmental stage (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following theories argues that adults influence speech development in children by reinforcing babbling? A. Nativist B. Interactionist C. Learning D. Critical period

C. The learning perspective, which is attributed to B. F. Skinner, holds that adults have a significant impact on the speech of children when they reinforce infant babbling (choice C is correct). Championed by Noam Chomsky, the nativist theory of language development contends that humans are born with the innate ability to learn language; this theory does not propose that adults shape language development through reinforcements (choice A is wrong). Interactionist theory, which is often related to Vygotsky, bridges the social and biological factors that contribute to language learning; this theory does not propose that adults shape language development through reinforcements (choice B is wrong). The critical period hypothesis (also part of Chomsky's nativist theory) posits that children are more easily able to learn a language before a certain age. The exact age is debatable, but all proponents of this approach agree that individuals have more difficulty acquiring language after they have reached a certain age (choice D is wrong).

Weak Base - Strong Acid Titration

Inversion of the weak acid strong base curve. Initial pH will be in the basic range and steep drop in pH observed with added acid. Equivalence point <7 (in the acidic range)

How are peptidases activated in the duodenum? A. Trypsinogen from the pancreas is converted to trypsin by stomach acid; trypsin then activates the other pancreatic enzymes. B. Enterokinase converts trypsinogen from the pancreas into trypsin; trypsin then triggers the release of other pancreatic enzymes. C. Enterokinase converts trypsinogen from the pancreas into trypsin; trypsin then activates the other pancreatic enzymes. D. Trypsinogen from the pancreas is converted to trypsin by stomach acid; trypsin then activates the brush border enzyme enterokinase.

C. The majority of peptidases in the duodenum come from the pancreas and are secreted as zymogens. Because they work in the duodenum they must be activated there, so stomach acid can't really play a role (choices A and D are wrong). Enterokinase, a duodenal enzyme, cleaves and activates the pancreatic zymogen trypsinogen; the active enzyme trypsin then cleaves other pancreatic zymogens to activate them (choice C is correct). The release of pancreatic enzymes is triggered primarily by secretin (a duodenal hormone); cholecystokinin (another duodenal hormone) can also help (choice B is wrong).

In the adiabatic expansion of a real gas, the decrease in temperature is accompanied by: A. an increase in the internal energy of the gas. B. a loss of heat by the gas to the surroundings. C. a decrease in the intermolecular forces of the gas. D. positive work being done on the gas by the environment.

C. The passage states that as the gas expands, the potential energy of the molecules increases as the distance between molecules increases. An increased distance between molecules implies a reduction in the strength of electrostatic intermolecular forces, so choice C is best. Choice A is false, because a decrease in temperature implies a decrease in internal energy; choice B is false since the process is adiabatic; and choice D is false, because an expanding gas either does zero work (in this special case of free expansion into vacuum) or generally does positive work on its environment.

Which of the following will bring about an increase in the ratio of separated charge stored on the plates to the potential difference between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor? I. An increase in the distance between the plates II. An increase in the area of the plates III. An increase in the dielectric constant of the material between the plates A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

C. The ratio of the separated charge stored on the plates to the voltage between them, Q / V, is the definition of the capacitance, C. If a dielectric is in place, the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor is given by the equation C = K(ε0A /d), where K is the dielectric constant, A is the area of each plate, d is the distance between the plates, and ε0 is a constant. Therefore, increasing A (Item II) or increasing K (Item III) will increase C, but increasing d (Item I) will cause a decrease in C.

A patient has suffered nerve damage which has impaired the contraction of his scalene muscles and results in difficulty breathing. Which of the following is most likely to be affected? A. Chest wall elasticity B. Diaphragm function C. Inspiration Correct Answer D. Passive expiration

C. This question is essentially asking what function the scalene muscles play in respiration and, as you are not required to know this function, is best answered by process of elimination. The elasticity of the chest wall, which is partially responsible for preventing collapse of the lungs, is a function primarily of bone and other connective tissue, and not any particular muscle group (choice A can be eliminated). Passive expiration is a passive process and no muscle contraction is required (choice D can be eliminated), and there is no reason to believe the function of the diaphragm will be directly affected by the impaired function of the scalene muscles (choice B can be eliminated). This leaves choice C: the scalene muscles, in addition to the sternocleidomastoid and others, are involved in inspiration (choice C is correct)

In premature deliveries before 30 weeks gestation, pulmonary surfactant has not yet been produced. What difficulties would be expected in these infants? A. Decreased CO2 exchange resulting in respiratory alkalosis B. Decreased O2 exchange resulting in respiratory alkalosis C. Collapse of smaller airways resulting in respiratory acidosis D. Collapse of bronchi resulting in respiratory acidosis

C. Without surfactant, the smaller airways (alveolar ducts/alveoli) collapse and are held together by the surface tension of water. This results in reduced oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange, which leads to respiratory acidosis (choices A and B can be eliminated and choice C is correct). Larger airways, such as bronchi, are structurally supported by connective tissue and are much less likely to collapse (choice D is wrong).

In the human visual pathway what cell type comprises the bundle of fibers called the optic nerve? A. Photoreceptors B. Bipolar cells C. Ganglion Cells D. Fovea Cells

C: ganglion Cells

the contraction of skeletal muscle fibers

is caused by the increase of cytoplasmic concentration of calcium

cortex

CNS-brain surface grey matter

Humanist Perspective Personality

Carl Rogers driven by an actualizing tendency to realize their own highest potential (self-actualization) He was a humanist psychologist who believed in communicating genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and empathic understanding to the client using person-centered therapy.

Generalizable

Characteristic of a sample that refers to the degree to which findings based on the sample can be used to make accurate statements about the population of interest.

Which type of inhibitor does NOT alter the KM/Vmax ratio of an enzyme? A. Competitive B. Uncompetitive C. Noncompetitive D. Mixed

Competitive: increase Vmax and has no change in Km uncompetitive: has a decrease in Vmax and Km( so if both decrease then it would not alter the ratio and therefore the answer is B) Noncompetitive: Vmax decrease Km no change

geometric isomers

Compounds that have the same molecular formula but differ in the spatial arrangements of their atoms.

pyloric sphincter (of stomach)

Controls passage of food from stomach to small intestine

Cytokinesis

Cytokinesis refers to physical process of cell division once the replicated genome has been appropriately divided occurs in telophase and anaphase

What is the best explanation for the difference in the number of intrusion errors in the left ear? A. Verbal inputs to the right ear, which first go to the auditory cortex in the right hemisphere, must be processed by the language areas of the left hemisphere. B. Verbal inputs to the right ear, which first go to the auditory cortex in the left hemisphere, must be processed by the language areas of the right hemisphere. C. Verbal inputs to the left ear, which first go to the auditory cortex in the left hemisphere, must be processed by the language areas of the right hemisphere. D. Verbal inputs to the left ear, which first go to the auditory cortex in the right hemisphere, must be processed by the language areas of the left hemisphere.

D is the correct answer because hearing is contralateral meaning if you hear using the left ear it goes to the right auditory cortex and language is only processed by the left hemisphere. So the left ear must travel farther to get to the processing center compared to the right ear.

A researcher studying the role of the immune system on tumor formation used an antibody to deplete the population of CD8+ killer T cells in mice prior to tumor cell injection. It is expected that tumors in animals receiving the depleting antibody will: A. grow slower due to the presence of depleting antibody. B. grow slower due to the depletion of CD8+ T cells. C. grow faster due to the increased presence of CD4+ T cells. D. grow faster due to the depletion of CD8+ T cells.

D. CD8+ T cells (killer Ts) are used to fight tumor formation. Therefore, it is expected that the depletion of these T cells will result in faster tumor growth (choices A and B are wrong and choice D is correct). The depleting antibody will remove the CD8+ T cells but this will not increase the number of CD4+ T cells (helper Ts, choice C is wrong).

Which of the following is an example of group polarization? A. An unusually bright student in a weekend program does not fit in because of exceptional ability and feels ostracized. B. A group leader antagonizes a team member who he perceives as having more natural ability. C. Students working in a group are unable to answer questions that some of the students could do more efficiently alone. D. After meeting together, counselors and parents arrive at the conclusion that a student must be moved to a new school, although each did not think this was necessary separately.

D. Group polarization is the tendency of groups to make decisions more extreme than the tendencies of individual members of that same group. Parents and counselors who met together and, for the first time, came to the conclusion that a child would not be a good fit in a school would be an example of this phenomenon (choice D is correct). None of the other answer choices involves coming to a more extreme decision as a result of being part of a group (choice A, choice B, and choice C are wrong).

What is the most stable conformation of trans-1-ethyl-3-isopropylcyclohexane? A. Both substituents are in the equatorial position. B. Both substituents are in the axial position. C. The isopropyl group is axial, and the ethyl group is equatorial. D. The ethyl group is axial, and the isopropyl group is equatorial.

D. In trans-1,3-disubstituted cyclohexanes, one substituent will always be axial and one equatorial; this eliminates choices A and B. It is more favorable (more stable) to have the larger substituent in the equatorial position. An ethyl group with two carbons is smaller than an isopropyl group with three carbons. The isopropyl group will therefore be equatorial and the ethyl group will be axial, so choice C can be eliminated.

The ion pumps for sodium and chlorine that establish the countercurrent multiplier system in the medulla of a vertebrate kidney are located in the cell membrane of the: A. proximal convoluted tubules. B. distal convoluted tubules. C. descending loops of Henle. D. ascending loops of Henle.

D. Ion pumps for Na+ and Cl- must exist in a part of the nephron that is permeable to those ions. As a result, answer C can be eliminated since the descending loop of Henle is permeable ONLY to water. Answer choices A and B can be eliminated based on knowledge of the anatomy of the nephron and kidney. The convoluted tubules are located in the cortex of the kidney. The question specifically asks "in the medulla of a vertebrate kidney." The loop of Henle is the only part of the nephron, aside from the collecting ducts, that delves into the medulla of the kidney. The deeper into the medulla the loop travels, the greater the countercurrent multiplier concentration that can be established, creating more highly concentrated urine.

What type of stem cell specifically forms the cells of the body? A. Totipotent B. Embryonic C. Somatic D. Pluripotent

D. Pluripotent

A patient with bulimia begins to develop lethargy which is believed to be related to metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following best explains this finding? A. AA decrease in the cooperativity of oxygen binding to hemoglobin B. An increase in oxygen delivery due to hemoglobin's decreased oxygen affinity C. A right-shift in the oxygen saturation curve for hemoglobin D. A left-shift in the oxygen saturation curve for hemoglobin

D. Repeated vomiting can raise blood pH (metabolic alkalosis) and increase hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen (choice B is wrong). This is seen as a left-shift in the oxygen saturation curve for hemoglobin (choice D is correct and choice C is wrong). Note that answer choices B and C describe decreased oxygen affinity which may be due to situations such as acidosis, increased temperature, or increased CO2. Cooperativity does not change significantly with the shift described by the Bohr effect; the curve would still be sigmoidal (choice A is wrong).

tudents of unusual ability are often called weird or nerdy by other students in a normal school setting. If this type of teasing occurs, unusual ability could be considered: A. deindividuation. B. deviance. C. assimilation. D. a social stigma.

D. Social stigma is disapproval with an individual or group of individuals because of certain characteristics. In this case, the characteristic being stigmatized is the unusual ability of the student (choice D is correct). Deindividuation is the process of losing self-awareness in a group, which is not described in the question stem (choice A is wrong). Deviance is an act that deviates from social norms. The question stem does not specify a social norm that is being broken or deviated from. Furthermore, the question is asking what, as a result of teasing, unusual ability could be considered; deviant behavior is considered deviant in relation to social norms, not in relation to teasing or retaliation (choice B is wrong). Assimilation is the process by which one's cultural norms or characteristics begin to resemble those of another culture; this is also not being described in the question stem (choice C is wrong).

Which of the following describes the path of travel for sperm in the female reproductive tract? A. Ovary, fallopian tube, uterus, birth canal B. Vagina, ovary, fallopian tube, uterus C. Cervix, uterus, vagina, fallopian tube D. Vagina, cervix, uterus, fallopian tube

D. Sperm are ejaculated into the female vagina (choice C is wrong), swim through the cervix into the uterus, and travel through a fallopian tube to an oocyte (choice D is correct). Sperm never enter the ovary (choices A and B are wrong). Note that choice A describes the path of a fetus during the birthing process.

If a drug inhibited the activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase in neurons, this would result in: A. increased cellular glucose uptake via secondary active transport. B. increased cellular glucose uptake via primary active transport. C. decreased cellular glucose uptake via primary active transport. D. decreased cellular glucose uptake via secondary active transport.

D. The Na+/K+ ATPase is used to generate a Na+ gradient which is then used for glucose uptake by cells via secondary active transport (choices B and C are wrong). Uptake of glucose is mediated by the Na+-glucose cotransporter. Inhibiting the Na+/K+ ATPase would destroy the Na+ gradient and in turn decrease glucose uptake (choice A is wrong and choice D is correct). Remember that secondary active transport does not directly use ATP, but instead relies on the gradient established by the direct use of ATP.

n exercise physiologist performs an in vitro assay to analyze the Bohr effect in a system where the bicarbonate in the blood has been replaced by a synthetic buffer. Following the addition of acetazolamide (a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor), he increased the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in this model system two-fold. Which of the following changes would be expected immediately? A. A right-shift in the oxygen saturation curve for hemoglobin B. A left-shift in the oxygen saturation curve for hemoglobin C. Hemoglobin is insensitive to pH change D. No significant shift in the oxygen saturation curve

D. The normal buffer of blood, bicarbonate, has been removed and carbonic anhydrase, which facilitates the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid, has been inhibited. This results in blood pH being independent of carbon dioxide concentration (choices A and B are not correct) and no significant shift in the hemoglobin saturation curve would take place (choice D is correct). If the pH of the synthetic blood was changed, we would still observe the expected shifts in the hemoglobin/oxygen saturation curve as no changes in hemoglobin were made in this setup (choice C is not correct).

Which of the following functional groups is at the same oxidation level as a ketone? A. Amide B. Carboxylic acid C. Alcohol D. Aldehyde

D. The oxidation level of a molecule is dependent on how many bonds to elements more electronegative than carbon there are in the molecule (usually oxygen). Since an aldehyde has a C=O double bond like a ketone does, choice D is the best answer. Alcohols are at a lower oxidation state since they have only C—O single bonds, making choice C incorrect. Both amides and carboxylic acids have three bonds from a carbon atom to more electronegative elements, so are at a higher oxidation state than a ketone, eliminating choices A and B.

Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)

Dementia that begins typically in the mid to late 50s, characterized by deficits in executive functions such as planning, problem solving, and goal-directed behavior as well as recognition and comprehension of emotions in others.

A person listening to music at high volume and with earbuds will be less responsive to other people around them. If a professor, who failed to notice the earbuds, greeted a student on the sidewalk and got no response, the fundamental attribution error would indicate that: A. the professor would attribute the student's inaction to cognitive dissonance. B. the professor would conclude the student has an external locus of control. C. the professor would conclude the student's reason for not responding is being distracted by stress related to exams, an external cause. D. the professor would conclude the student's reason for not responding is due to the student's rude personality, an internal cause.

D. The fundamental attribution error is made when an observer discounts the impact of external or situational sources on a person's behavior, in favor of attributing behavior to internal causes (which is just what the professor does if she concludes that the student did not respond because he has a rude personality; choice D is correct). While it is possible to make an attribution to an external cause (as given in choice C, that the professor concluded the student's snub was due to distraction caused by stress; choice C is wrong), it is not the most likely attribution in a casual circumstance such as described. Cognitive dissonance, the mismatch between personally held attitudes and performed behaviors, is not meant to explain attribution of causes for behavior in others (choice A is wrong because cognitive dissonance would not explain attribution of behavior in another person). Locus of control is also not an attribution theory, but rather a set of beliefs a person has about whether one's outcomes are driven by internal and controllable mechanisms or external and uncontrollable mechanisms (choice B is wrong; an external locus of control would mean a person attributes outcomes to some force that is outside of one's own control).

According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, which of the following demonstrated at an extremely young age would best represent a child with prodigy abilities in moral reasoning? A. Post-conventional reasoning using obedience and punishment B. Conventional reasoning of universal ethical principles C. Conventional reasoning of interpersonal accord D. Post-conventional reasoning of social contract orientation

D. The passage states that a child prodigy is someone who demonstrates unusual intelligence or capacity at an early age. Therefore, the correct answer will be the highest level of moral development that is correctly matched with its corresponding category. Social contract orientation is the highest phase of moral reasoning that is correctly paired (choice D is correct). The universal ethical principles phase is the highest stage in Kohler's stages of moral reasoning, but it is a post-conventional, not conventional phase, making this an inappropriate pairing (choice B is wrong). Interpersonal accord and abuse and punishment are both lower phases of moral development and would not represent the best example of prodigy capacity in moral reasoning (choice C is wrong).

he recency effect suggests that the: A. stressed individuals will remember the last of the emotional slides the best. B. stressed individuals will remember the last of the neutral slides that preceded the emotional slides the best. C. control individuals remember the last of the emotional slides the best. D. control individuals will remember the last slide of the story the best.

D. The recency effect is an order effect in which individuals are more likely to remember information presented near the end of a task than those at the beginning or near the middle. Therefore, any group would remember the last slide of the whole story the best (choice D is correct). The emotional slides were slides five, six, and seven of the ten, therefore, the recency effect states that they would not be remembered as well as the last slides of the presentation (choices A and C are wrong). Choice B refers to the fourth of the ten slides, which would not likely be recalled as much by either group (choice B is wrong).

The renal medulla is made up primarily of: A. glomeruli. B. nephrons. C. proximal tubules. D. collecting ducts.

D. The renal medulla is divided into regions called pyramids, which are composed of collecting ducts (choice D is correct). Glomeruli are the beginning of the nephron, where filtration occurs, and proximal tubules are found directly after glomeruli; both are located in the renal cortex (choices A and C are wrong). While portions of the nephron are found in the renal medulla, "nephron" is a broad term and not the best answer choice here (choice D is better than choice B).

Which psychological theory best explains the role of community values as they normalize tobacco? A.Drive theory B.Humanistic theory C.Incentive theory D. Psychoanalytic theory

Drive theory: to relieve stress Humanistic theory: self-actulaziation Incentive theory: to be rewarded by external factors( community reward you for smoking) Psychoanalytic: Ed,Ego and super Ego

Mg2+ + 2e- → Mg E° = -2.37 V Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu E° = 0.34 V Given the reduction potentials above, what is the value of Gibbs free energy at standard state (ΔG°) for the galvanic cell Mg|Mg2+||Cu2+|Cu? (F = 96,500 C/mol e-) A. 391 kJ B. 196 kJ C. -391 kJ D. -523 kJ

D. The standard notation for an electrochemical cell is anode|anode ion||cathode ion|cathode. Magnesium is the anode and is oxidized. Copper is the cathode and is reduced. The total potential of the cell is obtained by adding the voltages of each half reaction: Mg → Mg2+ + 2e- E° = 2.37 V (oxidation) Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu E° = 0.34 V (reduction) E = 2.37 V + 0.34 = 2.71 V or 2.71 J/C At standard state, cell potential (E°) is related to Gibbs free energy by ΔG° = -nFE°, where n is the number of moles of electrons transferred and F is Faraday's constant, given in the question. Galvanic cells are always spontaneous (ΔG < 0), which eliminates choices A and B. Using approximation: ΔG° = -nFE° ΔG° ≈ -(2 mol e-)(105 C/mol e-)(2.5 J/C) ≈ -5 × 105 J ≈ -500 kJ

A 2-newton force is applied horizontally to a 1-kg mass as shown in the figure below. The mass moves with a constant speed of 10 m/s from point A to point B. The coefficient of friction, µk, equals 0.2. The figure shows a 2-newton force is applied horizontally to a 1-kg mass. The mass moves from point A to point B. The work done on the block is: A. a state function, because the work is adiabatic. B. a state function, because the work is not adiabatic. C. not a state function, because the work is adiabatic. D. not a state function, because the work is not adiabatic.

D. The work done by the 2 N force and by the force of kinetic friction both depend on the (length of the) path taken by the sliding block. Therefore, the work done on the block is not a state function. Furthermore, since heat is lost due to friction, the process is not adiabatic.

If the frequency of the CF allele in a randomly mating population is 0.02, what is the frequency of individuals who do NOT manifest symptoms of CF? A. 0.0004 B. 0.9604 C. 0.98 D. 0.9996

D. This is a Hardy-Weinberg question and requires use of the phenotypic frequency equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. Here, p represents the frequency of the dominant allele, and q represents the frequency of the recessive allele. CF is an autosomal recessive disorder, so for individuals to express CF, they must be homozygous recessive, or qq (= q2). The question states that the frequency of the CF allele is 0.02, so q = 0.02 and thus q2 = 0.0004. But remember, these are the affected individuals, so the frequency of unaffected individuals is 1 - 0.0004 = 0.9996.

While a Portsmouth infant's comprehension of verbal instructions could be considered ________, his skill in playing a game unique to the UK would be considered ________. A. symbolic; experience expectant B. experience dependent; symbolic C. symbolic; experience dependent D. experience expectant; experience dependent

D. With regards to human development, psychologists consider certain skill sets to be experience expectant and others to be experience dependent. Experience expectant skills are those that have been part of the human repertoire for a long time, so the brain is essentially hard-wired to produce them. As long as basic, universal needs are met, these experience expectant skills, such as language and visual perception, will evolve within the developing human practically automatically. In contrast, experience dependent skills sets are those that are newer to the human experience or limited to a particular culture, such as driving a car or carrying water jugs on one's head. Accordingly, comprehension of verbal language would be considered experience expectant, while playing a culturally unique game would be considered experience dependent (choice D is correct; choice B is wrong). In his theory of development, Vygotsky did emphasize the role of cultural symbols in a child's learning, but the process of verbal comprehension is not considered a symbol (choices A and C are wrong).

Severe burns that cover a large portion of the body present several significant risks. Which of the following is one of the largest risks to a patient suffering from severe burns? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Overhydration due to inability to sweat C. Hypothermia due to inability to sweat D. Infection

D. With severe burns, many of the normal functions of skin are disrupted. Without the skin functioning as a nonspecific barrier to bacteria and other pathogens, infection is a major concern (choice D is correct). (Note that the other major concern is dehydration, but this is not listed as an answer choice.) Sweating is not a normal means of eliminating excess water (choice B is wrong) and while sweating is important to help prevent overheating, hypothermia (a drop in body temperature) would not be prevented by sweating (choice C is wrong). The skin does not play a significant role in pH regulation (choice A is wrong).

types of governments

Democratic governments: consist of elected leaders(direct democracies: public decides laws, representative democracies: indirect public participation through the election of a representative) Aristarchic governments: are controlled by a small group of people, selected based on specific qualifications, with decision-making power; the public is not involved in most political decisions.( aristocracies: chosen through noble blood, Meritocracies: chosen through his contributions in society) Autocratic governments: are controlled by a single person (like dictatorship and fascist governments) Authoritarian governments: consist of unelected leaders; the public might have some individual freedoms but have no control over representation. Monarchic governments: are controlled by a single person,or a selective small group, who inherited their leadership role, like kings and queens Oligarchic governments: are less clear as leaders can be elected or unelected; the public might have the power to elect representation, but people have little influence in directing decisions and social change. Republican Governments: consider their countries to be public concerns and are thus democratic in nature, meaning that the people have the supreme power in these societies. Federalist governments: include a governing representative head that shares power with constituent groups (includes Parliamentary governments include both executive and legislative branches that are interconnected; members of the executive branch (ministers) are accountable to members of the legislature. and presidental gaverments: organizing branches as well as a head of state) Parliamentary governments include both executive and legislative branches that are interconnected; members of the executive branch (ministers) are accountable to members of the legislature. Presidential governments also include organizing branches, as well as a head of state. anarchy, which refers to societies without a public government; here, there is a common implication of "lawlessness.

how to find Energy with frequency and h

E=hf=h(c/λ) KEmax=hf-(binding energy) KEmax=-eVstop (stopping potential)

Pancreas

Endocrine role: makes insulin(high blood sugar) and glucagon(low blood sugar) Exocrine role: Source of many digestive enzymes(including proteases (Proteins)(trypson and chemotrypsin),amylase(carbohydrates),lipases (triglycerides)) and makes HCO3- to neutralize stomach acids

Endosomes

Endosomes are a heterogeneous collection of organelles that function in the sorting and delivery of internalized material from the cell surface and the transport of materials from the Golgi to the lysosome or vacuole.

Endotoxins Exotoxins

Endotoxins: A toxic component of the outer membrane of certain gram-negative bacteria that is released only when the bacteria die. components of the outer membrane may cause immune reaction and cause septic shock Exotoxins: are toxic substance secreted by the bacteria

first law of thermodynamics

Energy can be transferred and transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed.

strong acid-strong base titration

Equivalence point will be at pH 7 for monovalent species and the solution will be neutral.

Escape behavior and avoidance behavior

Escape Behavior: unplanned escape from an activity Avoidance Behavior: planned escape from an acitivity

siRNA

small interfering RNA, involved in gene silencing and regulation only specific gene targets

Gardner's idea of eight intelligences

Gardner proposed eight abilities that he held to meet these criteria: musical-rhythmic, visual-spatial, verbal-linguistic, logical-mathematical, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalistic.

Gluconeogenesis and glycolysis

Gluconeogenesis: The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids. uses enzyme Fructose-1,6-Biphosphatase and oxaloacetate. (increased serum glucose and decreased glycolytic activity) requires ATP. Glycolysis: The cutting of glucose to form noncarbohydrates. uses enzyme phosphofructokinase And forms Glycolysis produces 2 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvate molecules. (Generated ATP) This is regulated using hormonal regulation Insulin activates glycolysis which is why diabetes is so dangerous Glucagon activates gluconeogenesis

H2 is removed from an electrochemical cell in which metallic magnesium is oxidized, and H+ is reduced. At STP the volume of gas is measured to be 11 L. If the reaction has proceeded for 2 hours at constant current, what was the value, in amps, of the current?

H2 is removed from an electrochemical cell in which metallic magnesium is oxidized, and H+ is reduced. At STP the volume of gas is measured to be 11 L. If the reaction has proceeded for 2 hours at constant current, the value of the current is 13.4 A. (F = 96,500 C/mol) At STP 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4 L. Thus, 11 L accounts for half a mole of H2. Since 2 electrons are required to produce each molecule of H2, the production of 0.5 moles of gas requires a total of 1 mole of e-. Current can then be obtained:

In Equation 1, HPO42- is the conjugate: 2 NH4H2PO4(s)→ 2 NH4+(aq) + H2PO4-(aq) + HPO42-(aq) + H+(aq) A. Acid of NH4+ B. base of NH4+. C. acid of H2PO4-. D. base of H2PO4-.

HPO4-2 is the conjugate base of H2PO4- (answer D). An acid differs from its conjugate base only by the presence of an additional H+. A base differs from its conjugate acid only in the lack of a single H+. Since HPO4-2 has one fewer hydrogen atom, and one more negative charge, than H2PO4-, then HPO4-2 must be the conjugate base of H2PO4-. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

An intravenous infusion causes a sharp rise in the serum level of albumin (the major osmoregulatory protein in the blood). This will most likely cause an: A. increase in the immune response. B. increase in tissue albumin levels. C. outflow of blood fluid to the tissues. D. influx of tissue fluid to the bloodstream.

If albumin enter the bloodstream it would force water inside because of the high concentration. Answer is D

Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for the fact that the saponification of the triacylglycerol in the passage resulted in four different fatty acid salts? A. The triacylglycerol molecule consisted of four different fatty acid units. B. Glycerol was transformed into a fatty acid salt under the reaction conditions. C. One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and it completely isomerized under the reaction conditions. D. One of the fatty acid salts was unsaturated, and a small percentage isomerized under the reaction conditions.

If one of the R groups in the triacylglycerol contained a carbon-carbon double bond and if isomerization of the double bond occurred during the saponification reaction, four fatty acids would be obtained instead of three. Thus, D is the best answer.

Recombination DNA technology

In the creation of an expression vector, it is necessary to digest both genetic sequences with the same restriction endonuclease to prepare both a a gene of interest and the plasmid that will carry it for ligation.

In the galvanic cell Ni|Ni2+||Fe3+I Fe2+|Pt, what best describes the direction of current flow and flow of Na+ from the salt bridge? A.Current flows from Ni to Pt, and Na+ flows toward Pt. B. Current flows from Ni to Pt, and Na+ flows toward Ni. C. Current flows from Pt to Ni, and Na+ flows toward Ni. D. Current flows from Pt to Ni, and Na+ flows toward Pt.

In the galvanic cell Ni|Ni2+||Fe3+I Fe2+|Pt, the current flows from Pt to Ni and Na+ flows toward Pt. In electrochemical cells, electrons flow from anode to cathode (therefore, due to the sign convention, current flows from cathode to anode). In this cell, Ni2+ is being oxidized and nickel is the anode, while Fe3+ is being reduced at a platinum cathode. Thus current flows from the Pt cathode to the Ni anode, allowing us to eliminate two answer choices. Na+ meanwhile travels from the salt bridge to the cathode to offset the charge imbalance generated by the current (cations migrate to the cathode).

Broadbent's Filter Model

Information from sensory memory will rapidly decay if it does not pass through Broadbent's filter into short-term memory

Erik Erikson

Known for his 8-stage theory of Psychosocial Development which states that every human will go through stages in his life that will test sociology a psychoanalytic like Freud

Which expression can be used to calculate the solubility of CaCO3? Ca2+(aq) + CO32-(aq) → CaCO3(s) A.Ksp = [Ca2+][CO32-]/[CaCO3] B.Ksp = [Ca2+][CO32-] C.Ksp = [CaCO3]/[Ca2+][CO32-] D.Ksp = [Ca2+]2[CO32-]2

Ksp is solubility of a solid. B

If the concentration of amino acid transport protein is increased, the transport affinity Kt of L-alanine will: A.level off rapidly. B.decrease. C.not change. D.quickly reach the maximum value.

Kt deos not change if there is an increase of substrate it will only change if there is inhibtitors answers C

Intersitial cells of Leydig

Leydig cells secrete testosterone, which causes the development of male secondary sexual characteristics in males. Testosterone feeds back to the anterior pituitary (and the hypothalamus) to inhibit the release of FSH and LH.

Lower-Than-Normal blood pressure will cause which of the following effects on the rate of plasma clearance of Substance A? A. An increase, because the concentration of Substance A in the urine will increase B. An increase, because the ADH levels will be very low C. A decrease, because the decreased rate of urine output will allow more reabsorption by the kidney D. A decrease, because ADH levels will be very high

Low blood pressure cause slower body function cause an increase in re-absorption by the kidney. C

McDonaldization

McDonaldization refers to when a society takes on the characteristics of a fast-food chain. These four characteristics are 1.) Efficiency (every aspect of the organization is geared toward minimizing time), 2.) Calculability (Organizations want consumers to feel like their getting high quantity for little cost /workers are judged based on how fast they can do the job instead of how well they can do the job, 3.) Predictability (Consumers will receive the same product and service/workers will perform the same tasks), and 4.) Control (Replacement of human for non-human technologies).

Kinsey scale

Measures hetero vs. homosexuality; significant portions of the population fell somewhere between them

Blocks to polyspermy

Mechanisms to prevent fusion of more than one sperm • fast block - egg depolarizees • slow block - Ca+ influx into the cell from depolarization causes hardening of zona pellucida. caused by cortical reaction

Boyle's Law

P1V1=P2V2 (inverse) Pressure is inversely proportional (P↑=V↓)

What is the mechanical power exerted on the protein when the retraction speed is 1000 nm/s and Force is 75pN

P=F*v=(75 pN)(1000 nm/s)=7.5*10^-17W

Joule Heating Law Power

P=I^2R P=IV

What is the average power consumed by a 64-year-old woman during the ascent of the 15-cm-high steps, if her mass is 54 kg? using From Table 1, there are 30 steps and t = 27 s.

P=PE /time = mgh/t. P = (54 kg × 10 m/s2 × 30 steps × 0.15 m/step) / (27s) = 90 W.

Power formula

P=W/t=F*v

ganglion

PNS grey matter (hearing)

Opiates, such as morphine and heroin, increase impulse traffic on the PS nerves to the iris. Therefore, after a morphine injection, the pupils will be more: A. constricted, due to release of acetylcholine. B. constricted, due to release of norepinephrine. C. dilated, due to release of acetylcholine. D. dilated, due to release of norepinephrine

ParaSympathetic releases acetylcholine while Sympathetic releases norepinephrine Parasympathetic is causing relaxation and therefore will cause the eye to be constricted Sympathetic causes dilatation in the eye because we need to see more when attacked

a medical student's sense of self-efficacy and confidence regarding patient interactions is most likely to manifest via which phenomenon? A. The Thomas theorem B. Impression management C. Back stage self D. Hawthorne effect

Patient interaction requires impression management and therefore B is the correct answer

Personal identity Social Identity

Personal Identity: Adjective Social Identity: Noun

types of anxiety disorders

Phobias: Specific fears Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD): Excessive thoughts (obsessions) that lead to repetitive behaviors (compulsions). Panic disorder: a Sudden Surge of panic called panic attack Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD): Anxiety from everything Post-traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD): Anxity caused by a traumtic stress event

Baddeley's model of working memory

Phonological loop(Where verbal information can be repeated to aid in remembering it), central executive,( It is responsible for monitoring and coordinating the operation of the slave systems (i.e., visuospatial sketchpad and phonological loop) and relates them to long term memory (LTM).)(Which information needs attention) Visuospatial sketchpad(where visual information can be repeated to aid in remembering it), episodic buffer(where information in working memory can interact with information in long term memory)

The 32P label was generated from naturally occurring phosphorous by: A. removing a neutron from the nucleus. B. adding a proton to the nucleus. C. adding three electrons to the atom. D. adding a neutron to the nucleus.

Phosophorus usually has 31 atomic mass so adding a neutron would turn it into a 32 atomic mass. If we add a proton it would change the atomic number and form a new element

Gel Electrophoresis

Procedure used to separate and analyze DNA fragments by placing a mixture of DNA fragments at one end of a porous gel and applying an electrical voltage to the gel Usuaful for identifying size

Grignard Reagent Formation

R-Br + Mg -> R-MgBr

Common Ego Defense Mechanisms

Repression: when painful memories are held in the unconscious, which prevents a person from remembering the experience Displacement: involves taking out our frustrations, feelings, and impulses on people or objects that are less threatening Projection: reflective of a person's denial of the existence of unacceptable thoughts or behaviors in themselves; this defense mechanism involves attributing such thoughts or behaviors to others Denial: avoidance coping,the outright refusal to admit to the existence of a painful experience and its effects Intellectualization: reasoning is used to block confrontation with an unconscious conflict and its associated emotional stress Rationalization:involves an attempt to explain an unacceptable, impulsive behavior in a rational, or logical, manner without admitting to the true reasons for such behavior Reaction formation: a behavior in which a person will attempt to hide his true feelings or desires by demonstrating or adopting the exact opposite feelings

An organism that causes a human disease is isolated and studied. Researchers conclude that the organism is a bacterium rather than a virus because the organism: A. undergoes mutation. B. lacks a nuclear membrane. C. contains protein in its outermost covering. D. reproduces in a culture medium lacking host tissue.

Researchers would conclude that the organism is a bacterium rather than a virus if the organism reproduces in a culture medium lacking host tissue. Bacteria do not require host tissue to reproduce, whereas viruses do.

Retroviruses, which are a subclass of RNA viruses, are unique in that they contain: A. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase. B. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase. C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. D. RNA-dependent RNA replicase.

Retroviruses have RNA genomes but undergo the lysogenic cycle in hosts with double-stranded DNA genomes. Therefore, the virus must be able to reverse transcribe its genome into DNA so that it can successfully integrate into the host-cell genome. Enzymes that are able to create a strand of DNA by reading a strand of RNA are called RNA-dependent DNA polymerases (B is correct)

impulse pathway

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

According to twin studies, which of the following disorders has the highest heritability?

Schizophrenia

What is ΔG in the following reaction (Faraday's Constant = 96,500 J / (V•mol e-) )? Zn +Cu2+→Cu+Zn2+ Zn2+ + 2e-→ Zn0 E=-0.76 Cu2+ + 2e-→ Cu0 E=-0.34

Since ΔG = -nFE ▲G= -(2 mole e-)(96,500 J / (V•mol e-))(1.01V)= -213KJ

fertilization process

Sperm penetrates oocyte → Second polar body is released → Syngamy (fusion of nuclei) → Cleavage. -The first polar body is released prior to ovulation. After the sperm penetrates the oocyte, the sperm and oocyte nuclei remain separate until the oocyte completes meiosis II and releases the second polar body. - Until this time the fertilized oocyte is a dikaryon (one cell, two nuclei). -After the second polar body is released, the two nuclei fuse, and the cell is known as a zygote; the zygote then begins a period of rapid cell division known as cleavage.

Which one of the following is true for all liquids? A. Liquids are always more stable than gases or solids. B. A higher vapor pressure indicates a lower heat of vaporization. Correct Answer C. As the pressure on a liquid increases, the temperature of that liquid decreases. D. Fluid pressure is equal at all points in a liquid.

Statements A, C, and D are all false, so the answer must be B. The vapor pressure of a liquid is the pressure at which vaporization and condensation are at equilibrium. Higher vapor pressure implies weaker intermolecular forces, and, consequently, a lower heat of vaporization.

How is the final phenotype of a developing stem cell established?

Stem cells need to have their genetic programming fixed first via the process of determination. This genetic programming is then physically manifested through the process of differentiation.

how does preceptors work?

Stimulation by light causes Na+ channels in the photoreceptors to close. This causes the cells to hyperpolarize and to stop releasing an inhibitory neurotransmitter onto the bipolar cells. Removal of the inhibition causes the bipolar cells to fire action potentials, which stimulates ganglion cells which then ultimately transmitted to the optic nerve.

What is the best explanation for the fact that a solution of NaNO2(aq) is basic? A. NO2- is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH -(aq) ions. B. Na+ is hydrolyzed with the formation of OH -(aq) ions. C. NaNO2(aq) decreases the Ka of HNO2(aq). D. NaNO2(aq) increases the Ka of HNO2(aq).

The NO2- reacts with water, forming OH- ions. A is the answer

DNA methylation

The addition of methyl groups to bases of DNA after DNA synthesis; may serve as a long-term control of gene expression.

Which of the following is NOT a possible product of the self-aldol condensation of 2-butanone?

The aldol reaction is a C—C bond forming reaction, so the number of carbon atoms in the product should be equal to twice the number of carbons in 2-butanone, or eight.

When aqueous solutions of the various anions and cations were mixed, precipitates formed because: A. few aqueous solutions can contain more than one cation or anion. B. the anions precipitated as solid metals. C. the solubilities of cations were decreased by the other cations. D. the solubility product of a compound was exceeded.

The amount of a substance that will dissolve in water is described by the Ksp. The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals [A]a[B]b. If the amount of the compound present is in excess of the Ksp, then a precipitate would form to maintain the Ksp. Thus, D is the best answer.

heat of vaporization

The amount of energy required for the liquid at its boiling point to become a gas

Mevalonate (Compound 2, Reaction 3) is expected to display prominent absorption in which region(s) of its infrared spectrum? I: .3200-3500 cm-1 II: 1700-1750 cm-1 III: 1580-1610 cm-1 A.II only B.I and II only C.II and III only D.I, II, and III

The answer to this item is B because mevalonic acid contains both -CO2H and -OH groups, but does not contain a conjugated or aromatic C=C bond. The carboxyl group C=O stretching frequency falls in the region 1700-1750 cm-1, whereas the O-H stretching frequency is expected to fall in the region 3200-3500 cm-1. 1580-1610cm-1 is double bonded carbon which is not in the compound

If the GAPDH gene is continuously expressed, where is it most likely found? A.In euchromatin B.In a telomere C.In heterochromatin D.In a centromere

The answer to this question is A because GAPDH is a housekeeping gene and is expressed continuously. A gene that is always turned on must be accessible to transcription factors. Only euchromatin is in a loose conformation and readily accessible for transcription.

According to the passage, relative to slow-twitch fibers, fast-twitch fibers are likely to exhibit which property? A.Greater Ca2+-pumping capacity B.Increased capillary density C.More mitochondria D.Higher levels of oxygen-binding proteins

The answer to this question is A because according to the passage, slow-twitch fibers are adapted for aerobic exercise which suggests they are likely, relative to fast-twitch fibers, to have increased capillary density, larger numbers of mitochondria, and higher levels of oxygen-binding proteins. The names of the fibers themselves give insight into their relative rates of contraction. Thus, it is unlikely that slow-twitch fibers will have greater Ca2+-pumping capacity, than fast-twitch fibers.

Within the intestines, unabsorbed fats are broken down into fatty acids by intestinal bacteria. Given this, excess unabsorbed fats most likely have which of the following effects within the intestines? A.They increase the osmotic pressure within the intestines, leading to diarrhea. B.They decrease the osmotic pressure within the intestines, leading to diarrhea. C.They increase the osmotic pressure within the intestines, leading to constipation. D.They decrease the osmotic pressure within the intestines, leading to constipation

The answer to this question is A because an excess of unabsorbed fats in the intestines inhibits normal water and electrolyte absorption, resulting in increased osmotic pressure and diarrhea.

CT scan (computed tomography)

a series of x-ray photographs taken from different angles and combined by computer into a composite representation of a slice through the body. Anatomy

Compared to WT, what is the most likely effect of the W140L substitution on the stability of the PRR-prorenin complex? Causing an increase in Kd A. Elimination of a π-stacking interaction decreases the stability of the complex. B. Elimination of an ionic interaction decreases the stability of the complex. C. Addition of a hydrophobic interaction increases the stability of the complex. D. Addition of hydrophilic interactions increases the stability of the complex.

The answer to this question is A because based on results presented in Table 1; in W140L variant, the replacement of tryptophan (a hydrophobic, aromatic amino acid) by leucine (a hydrophobic but non-aromatic amino acid) results in a decrease in stability of the PRR-prorenin complex as indicated by the increase in Kd. This is most likely due to the elimination of a π-stacking interaction with the side chain of tryptophan.

Which of the following animal pairs best illustrates the outcome of convergent evolution? A.The dolphin and the shark B.The domestic sheep and the mountain goat C.The polar bear and the panda bear D.The light-colored and the dark-colored forms of the peppered moth

The answer to this question is A because convergent evolution is defined as a process whereby distantly related organisms independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar needs.

In oxidative phosphorylation, cytochrome c acts as: A.a 1-electron carrier. B.a 2-electron carrier. C.a 3-electron carrier. D.a 4-electron carrier.

The answer to this question is A because cytochrome c is a heme protein that only cycles between a ferrous and ferric state during oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, only single electron transfers are possible.

The six different isoforms of LEPR are produced by using different: A. exons of the LEPR gene. B. isoforms of the LEPR gene. C. promoters of the LEPR gene. D. protein cleavage sites of LEPRb.

The answer to this question is A because different isoforms of proteins are expressed from single genes through alternative splicing of exons of the primary transcript.

Which substance is NOT a product of squalene metabolism? A.Glucose B.Testosterone C.Cholesterol D.Cortisone

The answer to this question is A because glucose is NOT structurally related to squalene. Squalene is structurally similar to the fused 4-ring system of steroids and is the metabolic precursor to this important class of biomolecules. Three of the responses are steroid signaling molecules and one is not.

extraction of organic amines

anionic salts are generally soluble in the aqueous phase and can, therefore, be removed from the organic phase

In humans, the lining of which structure is NOT primarily derived from the endoderm? A.Mouth B.Bronchi C.Bladder D.Stomach

The answer to this question is A because most of the lining of the mouth is derived from an invagination of ectoderm. Most of the epithelial tissues inside the body (B, C, D) are derived from endoderm.

Which amino acid is neutral, but zwitterionic at pH 7, despite possessing two nitrogen atoms in its formula? A.Gln B.Lys C.Tyr D.Arg

The answer to this question is A because of the amino acids that contain two nitrogen atoms, only asparagine, glutamine, and tryptophan carry an equal amount of positive and negative charge at neutral pH. Of the options listed, only glutamine appears.

Two friends accept internships with a city council member even though they do not agree with many of the council member's policies. Which is most likely to happen if they are in a state of dissonance? The students will: A.adapt their attitudes to be more in line with the council member. B.quit the internships after a period of time. C.continue in the internships but retain their original beliefs. D.do as little work as possible so as not to advance the council member's agenda.

The answer to this question is A because research on cognitive dissonance has found that people tend to change their attitudes to match their behaviors, rather than change their behavior.

Protein secondary structure is characterized by the pattern of hydrogen bonds between: A.backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens. B.backbone amide protons and side chain carbonyl oxygens. C.side chain hydroxyl groups and backbone carbonyl oxygens. D.side chain amide protons and backbone carbonyl oxygens.

The answer to this question is A because secondary structure is represented by repeated patterns of hydrogen bonds between the backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygen atoms.

anion exchange

anions stick to sides

Based on the information in the passage, what is the most likely mechanism of inheritance for HPRCC? A.Autosomal dominant B.Autosomal recessive C.X-linked recessive D.Y linked

The answer to this question is A because the allele must be inherited in a autosomal dominant pattern in order for individuals II-1 and II-2 to produce both affected and unaffected offspring. The inheritance pattern for the offspring of these individuals is consistent with autosomal dominant if the parents are heterozygous. The rest of the pedigree is consistent with this mode of inheritance as well. In addition, the offspring of individuals II-1 and II-2 rule out autosomal recessive, X-linked recessive, and Y-linked.

Organic acids, denoted by HA, are only minimally deprotonated when added to pure water. HA(aq)→ H+(aq) + A-(aq) When dissolved in blood, however, HA fully dissociate. What factor can be used to explain this discrepancy? A.In blood, the concentration of H+(aq) is maintained at low levels by other equilibria. B.In blood, the reaction is coupled to ATP hydrolysis to make it more favorable. C.In blood, the ionic strength of the solvent medium is much higher than pure water. D.In blood, enzymes are used to catalyze the dissociation reaction.

The answer to this question is A because the chemical equation shows that H+ is a product of the reaction. Due to Le Châtelier's Principle, the equilibrium will favor products when the concentration of products is kept low.

The kinetic parameters of several isoenzymes are shown. Isoenzyme KM (M) Vmax (mol•min-1) I 10^-6 20 II 10^-5 50 III 10^-4 10 IV 10^-3 60 Assuming the same isoenzyme concentration, which isoenzyme has the highest catalytic efficiency? A.I B.II C.III D.IV

The answer to this question is A because the efficiency of an enzyme is measured by kcat/KM ratio. Since Vmax = kcat[E], at constant concentration, the isoenzyme I has the highest kcat/KM ratio. So the lowest Km is the answer which A

Which of the following properties of a 2.3 MHz ultrasound wave remains unchanged as it passes into human tissues? A.Frequency B.Wave speed C.Amplitude D.Wavelength

The answer to this question is A because the frequency of a wave is not affected by the medium through which it propagates.

Interpretation of intelligence test scores is based on the assumption that the scores are normally distributed within a population such that: A. more than two-thirds of children will score between 85 and 115. B. a quarter of all children will perform poorly on least one component of the exam. C. significantly more children will score at the extremes of the scoring distribution than in the middle. D. only exceptionally gifted children would have IQ scores above 85 by age 6; perfect test scores are rare during early childhood.

The answer to this question is A because, based on the standardization system used to score IQ, the Wechsler Scales of Intelligence (WISC) scores are "normalized" to a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. So 68% of the scores will be between 85 and 115.

In which phase of meiosis does nondisjunction occur? A.Anaphase I B.Metaphase II C.Prophase I D.Telophase II

The answer to this question is A because, by definition, nondisjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during anaphase I of meiosis or the failure of sister chromosomes to separate during anaphase II of meiosis.

If the reaction shown in Equation 1 is spontaneous, the value of K must be: A.greater than 1. B.equal to ΔG. C.less than 1. D.equal to zero.

The answer to this question is A, because a spontaneous reaction is one that exhibits ΔG < 0. Since ΔG = -RTln(Keq), this means that Keq must be > 1.

Radioactive tritium (3H) labeled guanine has been used to measure the rate of biochemical processes that involve its binding or incorporation.Given that water is the solvent for this type of experiment, what is the best site for tritium labeling? A.I B.II C.III D.IV

The answer to this question is A, because the best site for tritium labeling would not exchange the tritium ions for protons in water. All of the N−H sites (II−IV) would readily exchange tritium protons due to their lone pair-facilitating protonation and subsequent tritium exchange with water, but the C−H site (I), lacking a lone pair, would retain its tritium label.

Under certain circumstances, such as having received news about something traumatic on a particular day, many people claim that they remember every detail of what they were doing when they received the news. Psychologists use which term to describe this unusual phenomenon? A. Repression B. Flashbulb memory C. Recency effect D. Spacing effect

The answer to this question is B because Brown and Kulik (1977) coined the term "flashbulb memory" when they found that people claimed to remember detail of what they were doing when they received news about an emotionally arousing event.

The advantage of the Doppler ultrasound technique over the standard ultrasound technique is that it also allows: A.distinguishing between fluids and tissue. B.measuring the blood flow. C.measuring the tissue density. D.measuring the heart wall thickness.

The answer to this question is B because Doppler ultrasound takes advantage of the Doppler Effect in which a sound wave emitted by, or reflected from a moving object, will change its frequency based on the relative speed of the object, in this case, the flow of blood in a vessel.

Subunits of Protein X are linked covalently by bonds between which groups using the information that The purified protein was analyzed by gel electrophoresis under native, denaturing, and denaturing/reducing conditions A.thiol groups of methionine residues. B.thiol groups of cysteine residues. C.hydroxyl groups of serine residues. D.hydroxyl groups of threonine residues.

The answer to this question is B because Figure 1 shows that reducing agents separate subunits of Protein X. This indicates that subunits of Protein X are linked together by disulfide bonds, which implicate the thiol groups of cysteine residues.

A transient shortage of oxygen (global ischemia) releases excess glutamate into the extracellular fluid of the brain. This causes neuronal death by hyperexcitation to a greater extent in the hippocampus than in the cortex. Which reason best explains why the hippocampus is selectively vulnerable during global ischemia? A.The magnitude of action potentials is greater in hippocampal than cortical neurons. B.The expression of NMDA receptors is more abundant in hippocampal than cortical neurons. C.Hippocampal neurons generate a more negative postsynaptic potential than cortical neurons. D.Hippocampal synapses have faster neurotransmitter diffusion rates compared to cortical synapses.

The answer to this question is B because NMDA receptors are a subtype of glutamate receptor. Higher expression of NDMA receptors in the hippocampus than the cortex would render the hippocampus more vulnerable to the excess release of extracellular glutamate.

In which situation is neurotransmitter release from a presynaptic cell most likely to stimulate an action potential in a postsynaptic cell? A. In any excitable cell, if neurotransmitter binding opens ligand-gated channels at the synapse B.In a postsynaptic neuron where a depolarizing change in membrane potential exceeds a threshold C.In a postsynaptic neuron that expresses a high density of neurotransmitter receptors D. In any excitable cell, if the neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft is acetylcholine

The answer to this question is B because action potentials are only generated in postsynaptic neurons when the depolarization stimulus exceeds threshold.

What experimental set-up is most likely to result in a person with a severed corpus callosum saying "ball" after a researcher asks, "What do you see?" A.The letter b is projected to the left visual field, followed almost immediately by "all," at the same location. B.The word "ball" is projected to the right visual field, while "room" is presented to the left visual field. C.The word "base" is projected to the right visual field, while "ball" is projected to the left visual field. D.The word "basketball" is projected to the left visual field.

The answer to this question is B because images projected to a visual field are represented in the opposite hemisphere of the brain. If "ball" is projected to the right visual field, the word will be represented in the left hemisphere where it could be verbalized by left-sided language centers.

When an individual moves from one social class to another over the course of his or her lifetime, this process is defined as: A.intergenerational mobility. B.intragenerational mobility. C.structural mobility. D.horizontal mobility.

The answer to this question is B because moving from one social class to another over the course of a lifetime is referred to as intragenerational mobility

Pairs of research participants interacted for 10 min. They rated themselves and their partners on personality traits and then rated the accuracy of their partners' ratings of them. The partners' ratings were rated as more accurate if they were close to participants' own self-ratings. This finding illustrates: A.the self-fulfilling prophecy. B.self-verification. C.the self-serving bias. D.self-efficacy.

The answer to this question is B because self-verification refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one's self-concept.

In order to balance on one foot, many people need to have their eyes open. This is an example of: A.motion parallax. B.sensory interaction. C.vestibular sense. D.perceptual maladaptation.

The answer to this question is B because sensory interaction is the idea that one sensory modality (e.g., vision) may influence another (e.g., balance).

Which response represents a symbolic interactionist's interpretation A.The spike in holiday deaths is part of the natural cycle of increased deaths during the winter season. B.The practices and rituals of the holiday celebrations are in some way correlated with the spike in holiday deaths. C.Travel during the holiday season increases external environmental factors than can lead to an overall spike in cardiac deaths. D.The spike in holiday cardiac deaths is related to macro-structural factors that are exacerbated during the holidays.

The answer to this question is B because symbolic interactionism is most directly related to studying social practices and rituals. The other options represent different theoretical perspectives (A is purely biological, C represents functionalism, and D represents a macro-sociological perspective).

line weaver burk plot

The y-intercept is 1/Vmax and X-intercept is 1/Km slope: Km/Vmax

The adrenal medulla is part of which branch(es) of the peripheral nervous system? A.The somatic nervous system only B.The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system only C.The parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system only D.Both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous system

The answer to this question is B because the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to short-term stress. Reactions to short-term stress are mediated by the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.

What is the total amount of charge and energy, respectively, that the capacitor will store if it is connected to the battery on the railcar? 100 mF capacitor, and some 12 V, 100 W lightbulbs A.0.12 C and 14.4 J B.1.20 C and 7.20 J C.1.44 C and 0.12 J D.7.20 C and 1.20 J

The answer to this question is B because the charge is given by the relation 100 mF × 12 V = 1.2 C(Q (Charge, in Coulombs) = C (Capacitance, in Farads) x V (Voltage, in Volts).) and the energy is equal to 0.5 × 100 mF × (12 V)^2 = 7.2 J (E=1/2cv^2)

When two amino acids are joined via a peptide bond, what is the mass of the byproduct of this reaction? (Note: Assume that the amino acids were not modified by protecting groups.) A.17 amu B.18 amu C.32 amu D.44 amu

The answer to this question is B because the formation of a peptide bond is accompanied by the formation of water as a by-product, and the mass of water is 18 amu.

The scientist wanted to use antibody B clinically (to treat humans), but this proposal was rejected. Which of the following is the most logical reason for the rejection? A.Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it can never be used in humans. B.Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, repeated usage in the same patient would elicit the production of human anti-mouse antibodies. C.Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it will not recognize human antigens. D.Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it can only be used in vitro.

The answer to this question is B because the human immune system will recognize the mouse antibody as a foreign substance (antigen) and generate an immune response towards it, which may include a mild to severe allergic response. The immune response will generate antibodies against the mouse antibody, limiting its usefulness as a treatment.

HDACs change chromatin by: A.decreasing its coiling and promoting DNA replication. B.increasing its condensation and inhibiting transcription. C.decreasing charge repulsion between acetyl groups, which increases transcription. D.loosening the attachment of DNA to nucleosome core particles.

The answer to this question is B because the passage states that HDACs counter the effects of histone acetyltransferases (HATs). As histone acetylation typically promotes transcription by modifying chromatin structure, HDACs would inhibit transcription by condensing chromatin structure.

Which component of the electron transport chain is defective in cells from an SDH-linked paraganglioma tumor? A.Complex I B.Complex II C.Complex III D.Complex IV

The answer to this question is B because the passage states that the paraganglioma tumor is associated with loss of function of succinate dehydrogenase, which is also known as Complex II, in the electron transport chain.

The scientist claimed that antibody B offers a better means for preventing organ injury than agents such as free radical or protease inhibitors. Which of the following reasons offers the best support for this claim? A.Antibody B is a high-affinity antibody; therefore, it will not be rejected by the patient. B.Antibody B can block the initiation of events that result in the release of harmful, biologically active molecules. C.Antibody B is a very specific antibody; therefore, it will not recognize anything other than the beta subunit. D.Antibody B exhibits a high half-life and can be used at any dosage at any time.

The answer to this question is B because the results of the experiment presented in the passage show that the presence of antibody B, which is directed at subunit B, significantly reduces tissue injury. The results also suggest that the function of subunit B is to adhere the neutrophil to vascular endothelium, which occurs before the release of toxic molecules by the neutrophil. Thus, the use of antibody B would be a proactive treatment that prevents neutrophil adherence and the subsequent release of free radicals and proteases, rather than a reactive treatment, such as free radical and protease inhibitors. This supports the claim that antibody B is a better treatment.

Which hypothetical finding would pose the greatest challenge to the theory that race/ethnicity is socially constructed? A.During data collection for a large national survey, participants' self-chosen racial/ethnic category often differed from the racial/ethnic designation made by in-person interviewers. B.People who identified with one racial/ethnic group were found to have a significantly different genome than people who identified with another racial/ethnic group. C.During data collection for an experiment on facial recognition, participants failed to consistently identify the racial/ethnic category of people from other parts of the world. D.The medically evaluated health status of a representative sample of individuals from two different racial/ethnic groups was found to differ significantly between the groups.

The answer to this question is B because the social construction of race refers to the idea that there is little biological basis for race (or ethnicity). Instead, racial/ethnic categories mostly result from history, culture, and society. If a significant biological basis (specifically for this question, a genetic basis) to racial categories were discovered, however unlikely that might be, it would challenge the idea that race is socially constructed. The remaining options would not contest the social construction of race to the same degree.

Drive Theory of Motivation

Theory that states our motivation comes from an internal tension that pushes or drives us to relieve that tension and thus motivates us.

A 45-year-old man presents himself at a hospital emergency room. Symptoms include a pounding heart, chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, and feeling dizzy. Medical tests reveal that the man did not have a heart attack. Which psychiatric diagnosis provides the most likely explanation for the man's symptoms? A.Generalized anxiety disorder B.Panic disorder C.Illness anxiety disorder D.Somatic symptom disorder

The answer to this question is B because the symptom pattern described in the stem is best explained by the diagnosis of panic disorder.

Urine from inbred strain (Strain A) male mice was swabbed every day for one week on the nostrils of female mice of inbred strain (Strain B). Compared to unswabbed, female Strain B mice, uterine weight, but not total body weight, increased in the swabbed mice. Strain A male urine had no effect on uterine weight or body weight of inbred, female Strain C mice. Which statement best explains these results? A.Conserved evolution of pheromones preserves the ability of male mice to elicit pheromone-mediated behaviors in female mice. B.The molecular profile of puberty-accelerating, chemosensory neurons differs between mouse strains. C.Pheromone-mediated stimulation causes accelerated female reproductive development in Strain C mice compared to Strain B mice. D.Genetic variation between Strain A male mice resulted in inconsistent pheromone concentration in the urine applied to the female groups of mice.

The answer to this question is B because there was most likely a difference in the receptiveness of the two inbred strains of mice, as the same signal applied to two separate strains produced opposing results. The pheromone would be detected by chemosensory neurons.

hypoxia induces an enzyme of: knowing it increases phosphoglucose isomerase A.the respiratory chain. B.glycolysis. C.glycogenesis. D.the citric acid cycle.

The answer to this question is B phosphoglucose isomerase, an enzyme involved in glycolysis

A researcher conducts observational research on the study habits of college students. When students are aware of the researcher's presence, they are more attentive, focused, and structured. When students are not aware of the researcher's presence, they are inattentive, unfocused, and distracted. Which concept best describes this phenomenon? A.Impression management B.The Hawthorne effect C.Self-fulfilling prophecy D.The Thomas theorem

The answer to this question is B. The Hawthorne effect describes changes in research participants as a result of their awareness that they are being observed. The changes to the students' study habits are best explained by the Hawthorne effect, which was first observed among workers. The incorrect options refer to related but distinct concepts. A self-fulfilling prophecy is an individual's internalization of a label that leads to a fulfillment of that label. Impression management refers to individuals actively managing how they are perceived by others. The Thomas theorem states that if an individual believes something to be real, then it is real in its consequences.

Myopia is a condition of the eye where the crystalline lens focuses the light rays to a position between the lens and the retina. To correct for this condition, a thin lens is placed in front of the eye that will help to focus light on the retina. The type of lens required is: A.cylindrical. B.converging. C.diverging. D.spherical.

The answer to this question is C because a diverging lens will spread out the light before it reaches the lens of the eye which will cause light to focus on a point closer to the retina.

Which statement correctly identifies an enzyme involved in DNA replication and describes its primary function? A.Ligase catalyzes the binding of RNA primers to DNA via phosphodiester bonds. B.Primase catalyzes the replacement of RNA primer nucleotides with DNA nucleotides. C.Helicase catalyzes the separation of the parent DNA strands at the origin of replication. D.Topoisomerase catalyzes the joining of adjacent Okazaki fragments into a continuous strand of DNA.

The answer to this question is C because during DNA replication, helicase catalyzes the unwinding and separation of the parental DNA strands, so that each can be replicated.

Lung capillaries are so narrow that RBCs must pass through them in single file. This feature aids respiration by: A.increasing the production of CO2 in the RBCs. B.allowing RBCs to have direct contact with alveoli. C.giving maximum exposure of each RBC to diffusing gases. D.making Hb available for CO2 but not O2 to bind.

The answer to this question is C because gases enter and exit the RBC through diffusion across the RBC plasma membrane. If RBCs pass through capillaries single file, more RBC surface area is exposed, increasing the efficiency of gas exchange.

Hydrolysis of the γ phosphate of GTP bound to Arf1 results in: A.denaturation. B.activation. C.inactivation. D.membrane association.

The answer to this question is C because hydrolysis of GTP would result in the formation of GDP in the pocket, which, based on the information in the passage, is the inactive form.

Dendrotoxin from the mamba snake blocks voltage-gated potassium channels in somatic motor neurons that regulate skeletal muscle contraction. In what way would initial exposure to dendrotoxin affect the ability of a somatic motor neuron to propagate an electrical signal in response to a stimulus? A.It would inhibit the initiation of an action potential. B.It would shorten the refractory period. C.It would prolong the action potential. D.It would prevent depolarization.

The answer to this question is C because if potassium ion channels are blocked, the membrane would fail to repolarize, extending the length of the action potential and simulating excessive muscle contractions.

Administration of a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor to the RBCs would most likely cause an increase in the concentration of: A.HCO3- in the RBCs. B.H2CO3 in the RBCs. C.CO2 in the tissues. D.H2O in the tissues.

The answer to this question is C because inhibition of carbonic anhydrase would slow down the production of carbonic acid from water and carbon dioxide to the uncatalyzed reaction rate. Loss of this part of the reaction would allow for the buildup of carbon dioxide in the tissues because the normal method of carbon dioxide removal is inhibited.

The combination of drive-reduction and incentive theory allows for explaining behavior motivated by secondary reinforcers, which can include: A.water. B.sexual activity. C.money. D.food.

The answer to this question is C because money is a secondary reinforcer since it requires a pairing or association with a primary reinforcer for it to have value.

What are the relative potentials for force and power generation by a slow-twitch muscle fiber and a fast-twitch muscle fiber of the same diameter? A.The slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers possess the same potentials for force and power generation. B.The slow-twitch fiber is capable of generating more force than the fast-twitch fiber, while the potential for power generation is the same. C.The fast-twitch fiber is capable of generating more power than the slow-twitch fiber, while the potential for force generation is the same. D.The fast-twitch fiber is capable of generating more force than the slow-twitch fiber, while the potential for power generation is the same.

The answer to this question is C because similarly sized fibers would generate similar force, regardless of fiber type. However, since the fast-twitch fiber would generate the same force with greater velocity, the fast-twitch fiber would generate more power. A is incorrect because slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers would not generate similar power. B is incorrect because slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers would generate a similar force. D is incorrect because force generation would be equal due to similar cross-sectional areas, while power would be dissimilar.

A person looking at the night sky notices she no longer sees a dim star when her gaze remains fixated on it, but the dim star reappears when she shifts her gaze to one side of the star. What is the most likely cause of the reappearance of the dim star in her vision? Shifting her gaze moved the image of the dim star: A. away from the blind spot where no photoreceptors are present. B. to a region of the retina where photoreceptors have a higher threshold for light detection. C. away from the fovea toward the periphery of the retina. D. to a region of the eye where photoreceptors contain more than one type of retinal pigment.

The answer to this question is C because the fovea is the part of the retina that contains a high density of cones for daytime vision, whereas, the periphery of the retina contains a high density of rods which are more photosensitive and can detect dim light

Which statement best applies conditioning principles to explain the progression from alcohol experimentation in adolescence to alcohol dependence in adulthood? A.Early alcohol use begins with stimulus discrimination, while later use is maintained by stimulus generalization. B.Early alcohol use is initiated by modeling, while later use is modified by shaping. C.Early alcohol use begins with positive reinforcement, while later use is maintained by negative reinforcement. D.Early alcohol use is an unconditioned response, while later use is a conditioned response.

The answer to this question is C because the relevant passage section refers to transition between early alcohol consumption in adolescence to alcohol dependence in adulthood. The description in the passage is best explained by the mechanisms of positive reinforcement (during alcohol use initiation) and negative reinforcement (during later alcohol dependence).

The individual cells making up a tissue differ from single-celled organisms such as Paramecium in that only the latter: A.reproduce by mitosis. B.have subcellular organelles. C.are capable of extended independent life. D.can metabolize nutrient molecules.

The answer to this question is C because tissue cells divide by mitosis (A), contain subcellular organelles (B), and can metabolize nutrient molecules (D), but are not capable of extended independent life.

Which type of enzyme removes the chemical groups that are added to proteins by kinases? A. Phosphorylase B. Cyclase C. Phosphatase D. Acetylase

The answer to this question is C because while kinase catalyzes the addition of a phosphate group to a substrate, the removal of the phosphate groups are catalyzed by a phosphatase. phosphorylase adds a phosphate phosphatase removes the phosphate

In the absence of digoxin treatment, hydrolysis of one molecule of ATP results in which combination of ion movements across the myocardial cell membrane? A.1 K+ out; 2 Na+ in B.2 Na+ out; 1 K+ in C.3 K+ out; 2 Na+ in D.3 Na+ out; 2 K+ in

The answer to this question is D because Na+K+ ATPase transports 3 Na+ outside of the cell and 2 K+ inside of the cell per molecule of ATP hydrolyzed.

A common column material used in size-exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction most likely occurs between proteins and the dextran column material? A.Aromatic B.Hydrophobic C.Salt bridge D.Hydrogen bonding

The answer to this question is D because a polysaccharide of glucose has numerous hydroxyl groups that can hydrogen bond to the polar side chains that are typically exposed on a protein surface.

Which action(s) could contribute to the positive inotropic effect of digoxin on cardiac myocytes? I. Decrease transport of Ca2+ to the extracellular environment. II. Increase availability of intracellular Ca2+ to bind to troponin. III. Increase overall Ca2+ stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. A.II only B.III only C.I and II only D.I, II, and III

The answer to this question is D because all of these actions will lead to an increase in intracellular calcium levels, resulting in enhancement of the contractile force of the heart.

Which type(s) of restriction enzyme(s) can recognize the HIF binding sequence? A restriction enzyme that has: a four-base recognition sequence a six-base recognition sequence an eight-base recognition sequence A.I only B.II only C.III only D.I and II only

The answer to this question is D because only the CCCGGG within the HIF binding sequence is palindromic. Therefore, only a restriction enzyme that recognizes a four-base sequence or a six-base sequence can recognize this sequence within the HIF binding sequence. Palindromic is a 4-6 base repetition

A manuscript reviewer requested that the researchers in this study justify counterbalancing the tasks. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate justification for counterbalancing? A. Participants may become fatigued causing performance to decline as the experiment progresses. B. Some tasks may be more exciting or boring than others and may affect how participants respond to subsequent tasks. C. It is an effective method for controlling the order in which stimuli are presented. D. It ensures that all participants are presented with the same variables.

The answer to this question is D because counterbalancing is a method to control for any effect that the order of presenting stimuli might have on the dependent variable. Therefore D is incorrect because we need to give different participants an independent variable. SO D is NOT an appropriate justification for counterbalancing?

Without conscious effort, people are unlikely to automatically visually process: A.spatial information. B.temporal information. C.the frequency of specific events. D.novel information.

The answer to this question is D because due to the brain's capacity for parallel processing, information about space, time and frequency of events is automatically processed; however, conscious effort is needed to process novel information.

Kallman Syndrome is a disease in which gonadotropin-releasing hormone producing neurons fail to migrate from the olfactory area to the hypothalamus during embryonic development. Which endocrine axis is disrupted in individuals with Kallman Syndrome? A.The stress axis B.The growth hormone axis C.The thyroid axis D.The reproductive axis

The answer to this question is D because gonadotropin-releasing hormone regulates pituitary gonadotropin (luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone) secretion. Thus, if gonadotropin-releasing hormone is not able to regulate luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone secretion from the pituitary, the reproductive axis will remain quiescent.

Under physiological conditions, increased activity of succinyl-CoA synthetase will most likely result in: I. increased levels of succinyl-CoA. II. increased levels of succinate. III. increased levels of GTP. A. I only B. II only C. I and III only D. II and III only

The answer to this question is D because increased activity of succinyl-CoA synthetase will result in greater levels of the reaction products, succinate, and GTP. Succinyl-CoA is the substrate of the reaction and its levels will likely decrease with increased succinyl-CoA function.

Which of the following energy conversions best describes what takes place in a battery-powered resistive circuit when the current is flowing? A.Electric to thermal to chemical B.Chemical to thermal to electric C.Electric to chemical to thermal D.Chemical to electric to thermal

The answer to this question is D because the chemical energy of the battery elements is used as electrical energy to set the charge carriers in motion through the resistor, where they experience drag from the crystal lattice of the resistive conductor and dissipate their energy as heat from the resistor.

Public health campaigns often target behaviors that are formed in adolescence. For example, alcohol, tobacco, and drug use interventions are often designed to prevent or delay risky behaviors because patterns established in adolescence are associated with disorders in adulthood. This example is best described as using which approach to health? A.The biopsychosocial model of health risks B.A macrosociological perspective on health risks C.The social construction of health behavior D.A life course perspective on health behavior

The answer to this question is D because the description of behavioral interventions in the question calls attention to how substance use patterns develop at particular life stages. Attending to life stages is a major characteristic of the life course perspective.

What is the maximum energy of the UV photons generated by this plasma pencil? (Note: Speed of light is c = 3.0 × 108 m/s; Planck's constant is h = 6.63 × 10-34 J•s.) A.7 × 10-16 J B.5 × 10-17 J C.3 × 10-17 J D.1 × 10-18 J

The answer to this question is D because the energy of a photon is given by E = hf. The passage gives the wavelength of the UV radiation. Inserting this into the formula for photon energy yields E = hc/λ = 6.6 × 10-34 J × (3 × 108 m/s)/(200 × 10-9 m) ≅ 1 × 10-18 J.

Which scenario is NOT an accurate representation of the McDonaldization of society? A.A customer cleaning their table and disposing of waste after eating at a restaurant B.A doctor seeing a patient at his or her residence rather than at a medical facility C.A supermarket chain using self-scan machines at check-outs, in place of employees D.A chain of coffee shops offering the same menu and décor across the United States

The answer to this question is option B because it does not represent the elements of McDonaldization which include efficiency (option A), calculability, uniformity (option D), and technological control (option C).

Recombinant DNA technology allows scientists to mass-produce some human proteins by transferring human genes into bacteria. The characteristic of bacteria that would most likely prevent Factor VIII from being produced in this way is that bacteria: A.are too small to incorporate the Factor VIII gene. B.possess no equivalent to the human X chromosome. C.lack a membrane-bound nucleus. D.lack a mechanism for splicing out introns.

The answer to this question is D because, according to the passage, the synthesis of Factor VIII requires mRNA splicing. mRNA processing does not occur in prokaryotes. Because transcription in prokaryotes occurs in the cytoplasm, ribosomes are able to bind and begin translation even before transcription is complete; prokaryotic mRNA requires no additional processing after transcription.

What method did the students use to calculate Vmax? A. Vmax was calculated as KM × kcat. B. Vmax was determined as the fastest initial rate of Compound 2 formation obtained during the kinetics experiments from the passage. C. Vmax was calculated as [S] × kcat for the trial with the highest substrate concentration. D. Vmax was determined as the inverse of the y-intercept of the graph shown in Figure 1.

The answer to this question is D since the plot shown in Figure 1 is derived from the inverse of the Michaelis-Menton (Lineweaver-Burk plot) Vmax was determined as the inverse of the y-intercept of the graph shown in Figure 1.

Which statement is consistent with a symbolic interactionist interpretation of the findings in Study 2? The stigmatizing example: A.created a negative label the participants interpreted and responded to in their behavior. B.operated as an effective sorting mechanism for administering shocks. C.inequitably predisposed certain participants toward receiving additional shocks. D.supports a rational basis for differentially administering shocks to participants.

The answer to this question is option A because from the symbolic interactionist perspective, which is predicated on interaction and interpretation, the stigmatizing example created a negative label to which the participants interpreted and responded.

According to Mead, which behavior is an expression of the Me component of the Self? A.An individual studying for an exam instead of going to a party B. An individual skipping work because they want to go to a concert C. An individual ignoring the emotional needs of a significant other D. An individual dressing inappropriately for a job interview

The answer to this question is option A because studying for an exam instead of going to a party represents the socialized and conforming aspect of self, described by Mead as the ME component of Self. Responses B, C, and D reflect aspects of Mead's I, the spontaneous, less socialized component of the Self.

Based on the passage, incentive theory is most closely aligned with which theoretical framework in sociology? A.Conflict theory B.Exchange theory C.Structure functionalism D.Symbolic interaction

The answer to this question is option B because exchange theory addresses decision making via cost-benefit analyses; similarly, incentive theory argues that individuals are motivated to engage in behaviors that produce rewards or incentives.

vasa recta

The capillaries that surround the tubules of the nephron. The vasa recta reclaims reabsorbed substances, such as water and sodium ions.

What is the maximum volume of PH3(g) that a chemist can obtain from the reaction shown by Equation 1a, if 0.005 mol LiPH2 reacts with 0.002 mol R2NBCl2 at 0oC and 1 atm? A. 0.672 mL B. 6.72 mL C. 67.2 mL D. 67.2 L

The answer to this question relies both upon the molar ratios of Equation 1a and on the fact that, at STP, one mole of a gas will occupy 22.4 L. Equation 1a shows that mixing 2 moles of R2NBCl2 with 5 moles of LiPH2 will produce 3 moles of PH3. Under the conditions given in the question, 0.003 mol PH3 will be produced. At 0oC and 1 atm (STP), this will occupy 0.003 mol × 22.4 L/mol or 67.2 mL. Thus choice C is the correct answer.

The autonomic nerve fibers that directly innervate the heart to cause cardiac slowing are: A. sympathetic motor fibers. B. sympathetic sensory fibers. C. parasympathetic motor fibers. D. parasympathetic sensory fibers.

The autonomic nerve fibers that innervate the heart to slow it are the parasympathetic motor fibers of the vagus nerve. Sympathetic motor fibers increase heart rate. Sensory fibers carry information from the heart to the central nervous system. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

Feminism

The belief that women should have economic, political, and social equality with men MACRO or MICRO

Refraction

The bending of a wave as it passes at an angle from one medium to another

What is the conjugate base of the bisulfate ion (HSO4-)? A. H+ B. OH- C. SO42- D. H2SO4

The conjugate base of HSO4-, formed by the loss of one proton, is SO42-. Thus, C is the best answer.

A college student is late for class and is running down the stairs with several textbooks. The student falls, dropping all of the books. The student is most likely to receive help if: A.only one other student was present when the accident occurred. B.the stairway was crowded when the accident occurred. C.the accident occurred at the end of the day. D.the college was in an urban neighborhood.

The correct answer is A because of the bystander effect, which refers to the observation that an individual who needs assistance will be less likely to be helped (or receive needed help more slowly) as the number of people nearby increases.

Asperger's syndrome (AS) is an autistic spectrum disorder characterized by difficulties in social relationships, communication, and imagination. In contrast to autism, AS is marked by intact language and cognitive abilities. An impairment central to both autism and AS is a deficiency in attributing mental and emotional states to others and explaining and predicting behaviors based on these states.Based on the passage, the mental functioning of individuals with AS is most compatible with which approach to intelligence? A.Spearman's idea of general intelligence B.Gardner's idea of eight intelligences C.Galton's idea of hereditary genius D.Binet's idea of mental age

The correct answer is B. The passage states that individuals with AS have difficulty understanding emotions and mental states of others but have normal language and cognitive skills. This is compatible with Gardner's suggestion that people have different types of intelligences. Spearman's idea of a general intelligence wouldn't predict that some aspects of intelligence would be impaired by a disorder while others remain intact. To make judgment regarding Galton's idea of hereditary genius, one would need to have a more detailed account of the intelligence history of the participants' families. Binet's idea of mental age does not produce any predictions that might or might not be supported by data on AS individuals.

Which statement about technology is most consistent with social constructionism? A.Technology is the predictable application of knowledge. B.Technology is built from the collective effort of innovators. C.Technology is the human response to environmental pressures. D.Technology is embedded with the values of groups who create it.

The correct answer is D, because the statement implies that technology is the product of groups/ individuals rather than of natural processes (in other words, technology is a social creation), which is consistent with social constructionism. Option A is incorrect because social constructionist theories generally dispute the inevitable application of knowledge (such as with scientific knowledge as applied to technology). Option B is incorrect because it does not describe how technology is itself a social product (rather than being produced with others). Option C is incorrect because it implies that technology is simply a response to natural pressures, which understates the role of social forces in the development of technology.

Based on the concept of the looking-glass self, which reaction is most likely for a person who acquires a stigmatized illness? A.The person will seek out other people with the same stigmatized illness. B.The person will internalize the perceived stigmatization against him or her. C.The person will redirect feelings of stigmatization toward out-group members. D.The person will become stigmatized by his or her secondary group members.

The correct answer is option B. The looking-glass self suggests that the self-concept is influenced by how we perceive that others are viewing us. Based on the looking-glass self, a person who acquires a stigmatized illness is likely to internalize the stigmatization directed against him or her.

An example of intersectionality is the relationship between: A. micro and macro levels of analysis. B. symbolic and material culture. C. race/ethnicity and social class. D. cultural values and social norms

The correct answer is option C. Intersectionality calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification. For example, an individual's position within a social hierarchy is determined not only by his or her social class, but also by his or her race/ethnicity. Intersectionality can also refer to intersections involving other identity categories such as age, gender, or sexual orientation.

What formula is the same for compounds 1 and 2? A. Valence-bond B. Empirical C. Molecular D. Structural

The empirical formula of a compound gives the relative number of atoms of each element it contains. Thus Compound 1, B2P2H2N2R4, has the same empirical ratio (1B:1P:1H:1N:2R) as does Compound 2, B3P3H3N3R6 where R = C3H7. The molecular formula represents the actual composition of the molecule. The valence-bond and structural formulas represent the actual structure of the molecule and cannot be the same for molecules with different absolute numbers of atoms. The correct answer is B.

Uric acid enters the urine both through filtration and secretion in the kidney. The process of filtration of uric acid in the kidney takes place in the: A. glomerulus. B. loop of Henle. C. distal convoluted tubule. D. proximal convoluted tubule.

The filtrate is formed as the fluid passes from the glomerular capillaries through the glomerular membrane into the Bowman's capsule. This region of the nephron is known as the glomerulus. Thus, A is the best answer.

wo additional compounds were studied: NO2(OH) dissolved in water and produced an acidic solution, and Ni(OH)2 dissolved only in an acidic solution. What type of compounds were these? A.Both were oxyacids. B.Both were bases. C.NO2(OH) was a base and Ni(OH)2 was an oxyacid. D.NO2(OH) was an oxyacid and Ni(OH)2 was a base.

The first substance is nitric acid, HNO3. Since this substance dissolves to generate an acidic solution, the bond between O and H in the structural formula NO2OH breaks when the substance dissolves, making it an oxyacid. The latter substance, Ni(OH)2, is apparently insoluble in neutral water, but will dissolve if the solution is acidic. This behavior is typical of substances that feature basic anions. The bond between Ni and O is the one that breaks when Ni(OH)2 dissolves. The hydroxide ion that is produced quickly reacts with protons in solution and cannot react again with Ni2+ to form a precipitate.

Challenges to the Concept of General Intelligence

The notion that intelligence could be measured and summarized by a single number on an IQ test was controversial during Spearman's time and has remained so over the decades since. Some psychologists, including L.L. Thurstone, challenged the concept of a g-factor. Thurstone instead identified a number of what he referred to as "primary mental abilities." More recently, psychologists such as Howard Gardner have challenged the notion that a single general intelligence can accurately capture all of human mental ability. Gardner instead proposed that different multiple intelligences exist. Each intelligence represents abilities in a certain domain such as visual-spatial intelligence, verbal-linguistic intelligence, and logical-mathematical intelligence. Research today points to an underlying mental ability that contributes to performance on many cognitive tasks. IQ scores, which are designed to measure this general intelligence, are also thought to influence an individual's overall success in life. However, while IQ can play a role in academic and life success, other factors such as childhood experiences, educational experiences, socioeconomic status, motivation, maturity, and personality also play a critical role in determining overall success.

At the stoichiometric (equivalence) point in a titration of benzoic acid with NaOH(aq) shown by Equation 3, the pH is: HC7H5O2(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaC7H5O2(aq) + H2O(ℓ) A. < 4. B. > 4 and < 7. C. = 7. D. > 7.

The pH at the equivalence point in any titration is the pH of the salt solution formed. At the equivalence point of the titration, the solution contains sodium benzoate and water. The passage states that benzoic acid (HC7H5O2) is a weak acid; therefore, its conjugate base, the benzoate anion, is a stronger base than OH- and reacts with water to produce OH- and undissociated benzoic acid. The resulting solution then has a pH > 7, because of the hydroxide ions produced by this reaction. The reaction of an ion such as benzoate ion with water is called hydrolysis. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer

The structure and bonding of diamond, which is formed from graphite at extreme pressures, should be similar to that of elemental: A. aluminum and gallium. B. silicon and germanium. C. phosphorus and arsenic. D. sulfur and selenium.

The passage states that at extreme pressures an elemental solid assumes the structure and bonding characteristics of a heavier element in the same column of the periodic table. The structure and bonding of diamond, which is a form of carbon, would therefore be most like other elements in the same group of the periodic table as carbon. This group contains silicon and germanium. Answer is B

In a population of 10,000 people, how many carriers of XP are there knowing XP is recessive and 1% A. 99 B. 198 C. 900 D. 1,800

The passage states that the frequency of the recessive XP allele, q, is 1% (0.01). Therefore, the frequency of the dominant non-disease expressing allele, p, is 0.99. The number of carriers is determined by the expression 2pq. Therefore, in a population of 10,000 people, the number of carriers would be 2(0.01)(0.99)(10000), or 198.

gel electrophoresis

The procedure used to separate and analyze DNA fragments by placing a mixture of DNA fragments at one end of a porous gel and applying an electrical voltage to the gel Each band represents a restrictive site The further it is in the gel the smaller/more compact the compound is

One characteristic common to arteries, veins, and capillaries is the: A. presence of a layer of endothelial cells. B. presence of numerous valves that prevent the backflow of blood. C. ability to actively dilate or constrict in regulating blood flow. D. ability to supply surrounding tissues with nutrients by filtration and diffusion.

The question asks the examinee to identify one characteristic common to arteries, capillaries, and veins. A is correct because all three types of vessels possess an inner layer of endothelial cells. B is incorrect because only veins have valves. C is incorrect because only certain types of arteries dilate or constrict to regulate blood flow. D is incorrect because the exchange of nutrients with the surrounding tissues occurs only in capillaries. Thus, A is the best answer.

Muscles with striated fibers are the primary muscle type in: A.the heart. B.the uterus. C.arteries and veins. D.the small intestine.

The question asks the examinee to identify the body organ or structure from the options listed in which the primary muscle type contains striated muscle fibers. Skeletal and cardiac muscles contain striated muscle fibers. Smooth muscles do not. Of the options listed, only A, the heart, is made of cardiac muscle and therefore has striated muscle fibers. The primary muscle type of the uterus (B), arteries and veins (C), and the small intestine (D) is smooth muscle. Thus, A is the best answer. only skeletal and cardiac have strated fibers while smooth don't

A stable, differentiated cell that will NOT divide again during its lifetime would most likely be found in which of the following stages of the cell cycle? A. G1 B. G2 C. M D. S

The question asks the examinee to identify the cell cycle stage in which a stable, differentiated, nondividing cell will most likely be found. A diploid, nondividing cell is most likely in G0 or G1

If oligonucleotides such as mRNA were not degraded rapidly by intracellular agents, which of the following processes would be most affected? A.The production of tRNA in the nucleus B.The coordination of cell differentiation during development C.The diffusion of respiratory gases across the cell membrane D. The replication of DNA in the nucleus

The question asks the examinee to identify the process most likely to be affected if oligonucleotides, such as mRNA, were not degraded rapidly by intracellular agents. The destruction of mRNA prevents continuous protein production, allowing the cell to change its protein expression over time. B is the best answer because the coordination of cell differentiation during development is extremely sensitive to the timing of mRNA turnover. A and D are not the best answers because the exact timing of mRNA turnover is less critical to the successful completion of tRNA production (A) and DNA replication (D). C is incorrect because it is unlikely that an accumulation of mRNA would affect the diffusion of respiratory gases across the cell membrane. Thus, B is the best answer.

Secretin (Small intestines)

The release of secretin, triggered by low duodenal pH, causes the release of bicarbonate and enzymes from the pancreas

Which of the following nucleotide sequences describes an antisense molecule that can hybridize with the mRNA sequence 5′-CGAUAC-3′? A. 5′-GCTATG-3′ B. 5′-GCUAUG-3′ C. 3′-GCUAUG-5′ D. 3′-GCAUAG-5′

The question asks the examinee to identify the sequence of an antisense molecule that could hybridize with the mRNA sequence 5′-CGAUAC-3′. When the RNA molecules hybridize, the antisense molecule would line up in an antiparallel fashion with the sense molecule, meaning its 3′ end would line up with the 5′ end of its complement. The nitrogenous bases would form the following pairs: A with U, G with C. The only correct sequence is C, which is 3′-GCUAUG-5′. A, B, and D do not have the correct sequence with the correct polarity. Thus, C is the best answer.

In human females, mitotic divisions of oogonia that lead to formation of presumptive egg cells (primary oocytes) occur between: A. fertilization and birth only. B. fertilization and puberty only. C. birth and puberty only. D. puberty and menopause only.

The question asks the examinee to identify the stages in the human female life cycle between which all the mitotic divisions that lead to primary oocytes occur. These stages occur in the following order: fertilization, birth, puberty, menopause. All of the mitotic divisions that form primary oocytes occur prior to birth. Thus, A is the best answer

Which of the following tissues have cells that are in direct contact with the external environment or elements of the external environment? I The lining of the reproductive tract II The lining of the respiratory tract III The lining of the gastrointestinal tract A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III

The question asks the examinee to identify those tissues that are in direct contact with the external environment or elements of the external environment. Tissues that are exposed to the external environment have mucosal membranes. All of the tissues listed contain an element of mucosa (e.g., the nasal cavity, vagina, and anus). Thus, D is the best answer.

Radioactively labeled uracil is added to a culture of actively dividing mammalian cells. In which of the following cell structures will the uracil be incorporated? A. Chromosomes B. Ribosomes C. Lysosomes D. Nuclear membrane

The question asks the examinee to predict the cell structure in which radioactively labeled uracil will become incorporated if added to a culture of actively dividing mammalian cells. Uracil is a component of RNA. Therefore, one would expect to find the radioactively labeled uracil in cell structures that contain RNA. B is the best answer because ribosomes contain rRNA and proteins

Some studies find that the association between discrimination and health is stronger for U.S.-born members of certain ethnic minority groups than it is for immigrant members of the same ethnic minority group. This finding suggests that the possible effect of discrimination on health is most likely related to: A.social segregation in the U.S. B.length of residence in the U.S. C.place of residence in the U.S. D.social integration in the U.S.

The question is covered by the content category "Demographic characteristics and processes." With the question's focus on strength of association between discrimination and health, social integration in the U.S., option D, provides the most likely explanation. U.S.-born members of ethnic minority groups experience the system of stratification in the U.S., and its manifestations across different social institutions, throughout their lives. In contrast, immigrant members of the same ethnic minority group will have less exposure to the U.S. stratification system, and fewer experiences with U.S. social institutions (for example, consider an adult immigrant who did not go through the U.S. educational system as a child). Social segregation is a potentially relevant factor, but option A is incorrect because segregation varies across ethnic minority groups and is not closely tied to nativity status (whether a person is native or foreign born). Length of residence, option B, is superficially related to nativity status, but social integration provides a better explanation of the association between discrimination and health. Finally, place of residence, option C, is not a relevant explanation because the question does not describe geographic differences.

rate of effusion

The rate of effusion is governed by average molecular velocity, and hence molecular weight.

redox titration curve

The reaction must be spontaneous for the titration to occur, meaning ΔG must be negative and Eo must be positive. a solution must be able to be made from a dry, pure sample of known mass and volume, or a solution must be able to be standardized with another compound which does have a known concentration. at the equivalence point, the number of moles of titrant added equals the number of moles of analyte at the start of the titration.

What is the concentration of Ca2+(aq) in a saturated solution of CaCO3? (Note: The solubility product constant Ksp for CaCO3 is 4.9 × 10-9.)

The solubility product constant expression for CaCO3 is Ksp = [Ca2+][CO32-]. Since equal quantities of Ca2+(aq) and CO32-(aq) are produced when CaCO3 dissolves, this expression reduces to 4.9 × 10-9 = x2, or 49 × 10-10 = x2.

cultural diffusion

The spread of ideas, customs, and technologies from one people to another

The relationship between the steroid hormone, estrogen, and the peptide hormone, insulin, is being investigated. In order to quantify levels of each of these hormones, tissue samples were homogenized and then placed in a mixture of 2:1 hexane/water. What is the expected result from this extraction method? A.Estrogen would be in the hexane phase; insulin would be in the aqueous phase. B.Both estrogen and insulin would be in the aqueous phase. C.Insulin would be in the hexane phase; estrogen would be in the aqueous phase. D.Both estrogen and insulin would be in the hexane phase.

The steroid is hydrophobic because it's non-polar the peptide is hydrophilic because it's polar

Capillaries in the kidney and elsewhere in the body maintain fluid homeostasis by balancing hydrostatic and osmotic pressures. Which of the following is the initial effect of a blood clot forming on the venous side of a capillary bed? A. Net fluid flow in the direction of interstitial spaces will increase. B. Net fluid flow in the direction of interstitial spaces will decrease. C. Capillary osmotic pressure will increase. D. Capillary osmotic pressure will decrease.

To answer this, it is necessary to know that blood flows from arteries to capillaries and then to veins. If flow is blocked at the venous side, blood would accumulate in the capillaries. Thus, hydrostatic pressure would build up in the capillaries, causing a net increase in fluid flow into the interstitial spaces. A is therefore correct. Hydrostatic pressure is pressure for water to get out of the capillary and osmotic pressure is pressure for water to get in. If there is a blood clot it will increase the concentration in the capillary so the blood would want to get out causing an increase in the direction of interstitial space

Why must the person either lean forward or slide their feet under the chair in order to stand up?

To keep the body in equilibrium while rising The person is in equilibrium only when the center of mass is directly above their feet. Otherwise, if the person did not lean forward or slide the feet under the chair, the person would fall backward due to the large torque created by the combination of the weight of the body (applied at the person's center of mass) and the distance along the horizontal between the center of mass and the support point.

pendulum max theta velocity and acceleration

at max Θ velocity is at minimum and acceleration is maximum

When the environmental temperature is 33° C, vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels helps to regulate the body temperature of a human by: A.slowing blood flow through the skin. B. maintaining an even distribution of heat throughout the body. C. radiating excess body heat into the environment. D.preventing needed body heat from being lost to the environment.

When vasodilation occurs, the walls of blood vessels relax, allowing more blood to enter the area. The presence of increased blood within dilated vasculature in cutaneous tissue allows heat to escape from the surface of the body into the environment

prefrontal cortex

Working memory is strongly correlated with the prefrontal cortex, which acts as a storage center for both short-term and long-term memories

reaction coordinate

X= Transition state ▲G (gibbs free energy)=Energy added Intermediate: steps that don't have products or reactants

acidity trend on the periodic table

a chemical characteristic that helps determine how a substance dissolved in water will interact with and affect its environment increase from left to right and from up to down

dissociative disorders

a class of disorders in which people lose contact with portions of their consciousness or memory, resulting in disruptions in their sense of identity Examples: multiple personality disorder, dissociation identity disorder, dissociative amnesia,depersonalization/derealization disorder

astigmatism

a condition in which the eye does not focus properly because of uneven curvatures of the cornea causing multiple focal points in the eye

coordinate covalent bond

a covalent bond in which one atom contributes both bonding electrons

common ion effect

a decrease in the solubility of an ionic compound caused by the addition of a common ion. Example BaCrO4→Ba+CrO4 Ba+CrO+CaCrO4→Ba The molar solubility of HgCl2 in water is 0.27 M. If 0.1 mol of NaCl is added to 1 L of a 0.27 M aqueous solution of HgCl2, what will happen? Because of the common ion effect, as NaCl (Na Cl will over come HgCl2) dissolves, it will decrease the solubility of HgCl2 and cause it to precipitate.

Reticular Activating System (RAS)

a dense network of neurons found in the core of the brain stem; it arouses the cortex and screens incoming information controls alertness and arousal.

motion parallax

a depth cue in which the relative movement of elements in a scene gives depth information when the observer moves relative to the scene

case study

a descriptive technique in which one individual or group is studied in depth in the hope of revealing universal principles Results may not be used to generalize an idea does not offer points of reference or comparison

taste aversion conditioning

a form of classical conditioning in which a food item that has been paired with gastrointestinal illness becomes a conditioned aversive stimulus

ethnographic research

a form of observational research that involves sending trained observers to watch and interact with consumers in their "natural environments" But Researcher presence may affect individuals behavior Causing a lack of external validity difficult to analyze the multitude of complex variables

concentration cell

a galvanic cell in which both compartments contain the same components(two identical electrodes), but at different concentrations

epidiymis

a highly convoluted duct behind the testis, along which sperm passes to the vas deferens. Stores sperm and it gives sperm its swimming abilities

divergent lens

a lens that bends light waves outward or away, it is thinner in the middle (Concave) always forms virtual imaging

insight heuristic algorithm confirmation bias fixation functional fixation mental set

a sudden and often novel realization of the solution to a problem mental shortcut A step by step procedure that exhausts all possible options we seek evidence to support our thoughts believing a problem could only be solved in a specific way Functional fixation: a mental bias that limits our view of how an object can be used mental set: the tendency to approach situations in a certain way

social stratification

a system by which a society ranks categories of people in a hierarchy

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)

a technique that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce computer-generated images of soft tissue. MRI scans show brain anatomy.

endosymbiotic theory

a theory that states that certain kinds of prokaryotes began living inside of larger cells and evolved into the organelles of modern-day eukaryotes

G-protein linked

a type of cell surface receptor that does not directly affect but it sends a signal into the cell with the aid of the second messenger. The g-Protein receptor is activated by epinephrine and glucagon then adenyl cyclase or phosphorylase activates the second messenger then the second messenger activates cAMP-dependent protein kinases with the end result of mobilizing energy

mand

a verbal operant in which the response is reinforced by a characteristic consequence and is therefore under the functional control of relevant conditions of deprivation or aversive stimulation

dramaturgical approach

a view of social interaction in which people are seen as theatrical performers by Erving goof man Front Stage: Impression Management Back Stage: Relaxed

lytic cycle

a virus invades a host cell, produces new viruses, and ruptures the host cell when releasing newly formed viruses The first enzyme made is hydrolase which destroys the host genome and stops host processes and instead forces the host to reporduce virus genome

PET scan

a visual display of brain activity that detects where a radioactive form of glucose goes while the brain performs a given task. Function

Neutralization reaction equation

a*[Va]*A=b*Vb*B a= # moles of acid b=# moles of base Va= Volume Acid Vb= Volume Base [A]= Molarity A [B]= Molarity B Example NaOH+HCl→ NaCl +H20 find the amount of liters needed of NaOH to reach neutralization NaOH=.1 HCl=.3 Va=40ml Vb=(Va=40ml)*(A=.3)*(a=1)/(b=1)*(B=.1)=120ml

Lewis acid/base

acid: electron pair acceptor base: electron pair donor

The finches observed by Darwin on the Galapagos Islands are an example of adaptive radiation. In order to set up conditions that would produce adaptive radiation, it would be necessary to place members of: A.one species in one rapidly changing environment. B.one species in several different environments. C.several very similar species in the same environment. D.several unlike species in one environment to compete for the same resources.

adaptive radiation: An evolutionary pattern in which many species evolve from a single ancestral species Therefore the correct answer is D

frequency summation

addition of multiple simple twitches before the muscle has an opportunity to fully relax

internal female reproductive organs

cervix,uterus, Uterine Tubes Cervix: opening to uterus when not fertile its closed sticky and acidic but when fertile it dilates and releases a watery mucus and alkaline Uterus: where pregency develop here this includes endometrium: lining that gets shed monthly during menstruation Myometrium: thick smooth muscle walls that divide greatly during pregnancy Uterine Tubes: connect uterus and ovary Uterine horns: fertilization occurs here Fallopian tubes: egg travels thru to get from ovary to uterus Ovary: female primary sex organ, function: make eggs and makes estrogen and progesterone

Surfactant

chemical produced in the lungs to maintain the surface tension of the alveoli and keep them from collapsing

dup

closing of semilunar valves at the end of systole and begining diastole

Bacterial shapes

cocci (spherical), bacilli (rod-shaped), spinilli (spiral)

3 components of attitude

cognitive (beliefs and ideas) , affective, behavioral

tetany

condition affecting nerves causing muscle spasms as a result of low amounts of calcium in the blood caused by a deficiency of the parathyroid hormone

second order conditioning

conditioning where the US is a stimulus that acquired its ability to produce learning from an earlier procedure in which it was used as a CS

threats to internal validity

confounding variables, lack of reliability, sampling bias, attrition bias, demand characteristics

constitutional isomerism Conformational Isomerism Stereoisomerism

constitutional isomerism: compounds that have the same molecular formula but have their atoms connected together differently Conformational isomerism: Compounds that have the same molecular formula and the same atomic connectivity but have different rotation Stereoisomerism: are molecules that have the same formula and connectivity but a different arrangement of the atom. to find the number of stereoisomers use 2^n n=chiral centers

Broca's area

controls language expression - an area, usually in the left frontal lobe, that directs the muscle movements involved in speech. (non-fluent aphasia) Damage to Broca's area in an adult would produce an inability to produce both spoken and written language

Wernicke's area

controls language reception - a brain area involved in language comprehension; usually in the left parietotemporal lobe (fluent aphasia) People with this type of aphasia are unable to understand language in its written or spoken form, and even though they can speak with normal grammar, syntax, rate, and intonation, they cannot express themselves meaningfully using language.

cochlea function

detection of high-frequency but not midfrequency

Catalytic receptors

have an enzymatic active site on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane. Enzyme activity is initiated by ligand binding at the extracellular surface

A researcher finds a +0.38 correlation between a test of verbal intelligence and a test of spatial intelligence. Speculating about a common factor, "g," the researcher concludes that: A. performance on both tests is partly determined by "g." B. the two tests measure different things, which does not include a "g" component. C. both of the tests are excellent measures of "g." D. that "g" is a statistical artifact with no real-world validity.

correlation scores from -1 to +1, usually anything lower than .5 correltation means its partly correlated therefore answer is A

Ketogenesis

creation of ketone bodies which creates helps Acetyl coA for kreb cycle Uses Enzyme HMG-CoA and thiolase

transition metals color and the crystal field theory

crystal field theory can be used to predict the energies of the different d-orbitals, and how the d-electrons of a transition metal are distributed among them. When the d-level is not completely filled, it is possible to promote and electron from a lower energy d-orbital to a higher energy d-orbital by absorption of a photon of electromagnetic radiation having an appropriate energy. Electromagnetic radiations in the visible region of the spectrum often possess the appropriate energy for such transitions.

Quantum Model

current atomic model in which a tiny, dense atomic nucleus is surrounded by a "cloud" of electrons occupying three-dimensional orbitals according to their energies. There is 3 types of orbitals: S(sphere)(2 electrons), P(dumbells)(6 electrons), D( flower)(10 electrons) ( orbital F rare and usually not considered as the top 3 orbitals)

nucleophilicity

decreases across a period and increases down a group Nucleophilicity is the measure of how much it dislikes electrons PKA is not related to nucleophilicity the more Negative Charge the better

Habituation

decreasing responsiveness with repeated stimulation. As infants gain familiarity with repeated exposure to a visual stimulus, their interest wanes and they look away sooner.

humoral

defense mechanism arising from antibodies in the blood The major cell type involved in the humoral immune response is the B cell.

proteasome function

degrades unneeded, damaged, or faulty proteins by cutting them into small peptides. Ubiquitination targets a protein for degradation by a proteasome.

peptide bond formation

dehydration synthesis reaction or addition-elimination mechanism Peptide bond formation is non spontaneous which needs an catalyst Proteases breakdown needs acid, high temperature and long reaction time peptide backbone containes a repeating sequences N-C-C Has a N-Terminus and C-terminus

hemolysis

destruction of red blood cells

In a follow-up experiment, researchers treated cells with 50 µM of C75 in the presence or absence of the free radical scavenger N-acetyl cysteine (NAC) and then measured cell viability. The most likely rationale for this experiment was to test whether: A. mitochondrial respiration plays a role in mediating the effects of C75. B. reactive oxygen species play a role in mediating the effects of C75. C. transport proteins play a role in mediating the effects of C75. D. G protein signaling plays a role in mediating the effects of C75.

free radical scavengers affect oxygen species which is why Antioxidants protect organic compounds from free radical scavengers Answer is B

Methicillin

functions to inhibit the transpeptidase enzyme used by bacteria to cross-link the peptides in the cell wall.

Reductionism

gain of electrons, loss of oxygen and gain hydrogen

G cells of the stomach secrete

gastrin (make stomach more active, increases secretions and contractions)

Embryonic Stages

gastrulation: 4 weeks from the 3 primary germ layer Endoderm: inner lining and glands Mesoderm: muslces, bone, Dermis of skin, blood vessels, bladder, uterus and stomach Ectoderm: Nervous system ,skin,hair, and nails Neurulation and organogenesis- second half of embryonic stage.

Suppose that the railcar passes by a horn that is emitting a sound with frequency f. Which of the following describes the frequency f' that the person on the railcar hears? A. f' > f before passing the horn, f' < f after passing it B. f' < f before passing the horn, f' > f after passing it C. f'= f before passing the horn, f' = f after passing it D. f'> f before passing the horn, f' > f after passing it

he answer to this question is A because, due to the Doppler effect, the frequency that the person on the railcar hears before passing the horn is larger than the actual frequency of the sound emitted, while the person hears a frequency lower than the actual frequency after passing the horn.

Which term is used to describe a memory report that is inaccurate, but expressed with extreme confidence? A. Autobiographical memory B. False memory C. Amnesia D. Recovered memory

he answer to this question is B because so-called false memories can be observed both in real-world and laboratory settings, and they are generally given with high confidence. Autobiographical memory:Autobiographical memory relates to things we remember during the course of our lifetime. Amnesia:the partial or total loss of memory Recovered memory: forgotten memory of a traumatic event and recalled many years later that is sometimes held to be an invalid or false remembrance generated by outside influence.

Which image best illustrates the electric field lines between the inside of an axon and the surrounding extracellular solution?

he answer to this question is B because the electric field lines exit from positive and enter negative charges. The axon is negatively charged. The extracellular solution has a zero net potential.

If no braking occurs, a total of how much power would be required to keep the railcar moving at 40 m/s? 1000 N decelerating force A.16 kW B.40 kW C.600 kW D.800 kW

he answer to this question is B because the power required must match the work done by the friction force that tends to slow down the railcar, which is equal to the decelerating force multiplied by the constant speed, so 1000 N × 40 m/s = 40 kW.

Large amounts of protein are found in the urine of a patient. Based on this information, which portion of the nephron is most likely malfunctioning? A.Collecting duct B.Distal tubule C.Glomerulus D.Loop of Henle

he answer to this question is C because in healthy individuals, the structure of the glomerular capillaries prevents the entry of large molecules, such as proteins, into the filtrate.

Human speech is generated in the vocal cords as the lungs push air past them. What property of the vocal cords is changed so that the frequency of sound can be altered? Volume Density Tension Number

he frequency of the sound produced in vibrating cords and strings (such as vocal cords) of fixed length is proportional to the propagation speed of the sound through the cord. In turn, the propagation speed of a transverse wave (such as the sound wave in the vocal cords) is directly proportional to the tension applied along the cord.

Thomas Theorem

how subjective reality can drive events to develop in accordance with that reality, despite being originally unsupported by objective reality

While Person A was in a coma, researchers considered stimulating her brain to bring her out of the comatose state. The researchers would most likely have stimulated the: A. Wernicke's area. B. parietal lobes. C. reticular activating system. D. somatosensory cortex.

he reticular activating system is involved in controlling alertness and is most likely to be stimulated to bring someone out of a coma.

pacemaker cells

heart cells that regularly produce spontaneous electrical impulses Pacemaker cells are present in the SA node, the AV node, and the His-Purkinje tracts and exhibit automaticity, which is the result of an unstable resting potential. Once the membrane reaches the threshold potential, voltage-gated calcium channels open, allowing calcium to flow into the cells and the membrane to depolarize, and once the membrane become very positive (around +20 mV), voltage-gated potassium channels open and allow potassium ions to flow out of the cells and the membrane to repolarize.

Giemsa stain

heterochrimotain: Denser regions in the chromatin Euchromatin: less denser regions in the chromatin

melting point factors

high molecular weight makes it harder to break Branching makes molecule easier to break

limbic system includes

hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus

Which amino acids are most likely present at the dimerization interface of STAT3 proteins? Knowing that STAT3 are homodimer A.Polar amino acids B.Hydrophobic amino acids C.Positively charged amino acids D.Negatively charged amino acids

homodimers are nonpolar since the are two identical compounds connected to each other and therefore will be hydrophobic

What is the approximate molecular weight of active Dnmt3a? Knowing that Dnmt3a is homotetramer and SDS-PAGE is 35 KDA and its a single band of Dnmt3a A.35 kDa B.70 kDa C.105 kDa D.140 kDa

homotetramer is 4 single bands. So if Dnmt3a is homotetramer and SDS-page is 35 kDa (a single band) then we multiple 35*4=140 kDa which meansthe answer is D

peptide hormones

hormones composed of short chains of amino acids the receptor is extracellular located on the cell surface fast temporary effects 2nd messenger system

behavioral genetics perspective

how our genes and our environment influence our individual differences

epimeric D-sugar of glucose

https://cdn.princetonreview.com/EvaluativeContent/tprimages/MCAT/124/2287_8_15soln.png Epimers are defined as diastereomers that differ in configuration at only one of many chiral centers. A D-sugar is assigned where the last chiral hydroxyl group in the Fischer projection is on the right. Below is the structure of D-glucose where the carbons are appropriately numbered:To be considered a D-sugar the hydroxyl on C-5 needs to be on the right.

steriods characterization

hydrophobicity ring system made from cholesterol(function for cell membrane fluidity and cholesterol also helps make vitamin d and bile salts)

hyper vs hypotonic

hyper all of solute outside of cell hypo all of solute inside cell

types of sensory memory

iconic (visual) and echoic (auditory)

Which of the following changes in flow rate or in solute concentrations would NOT occur if the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber? A. The blood volume reaching the outflow tube per unit time would increase. B. The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase. C. The osmotic concentration of proteins in the blood outflow would increase or remain unchanged. D. The filtration rate across the dialysis membrane would increase.

if inflow increases then outflow must increase because of le chatelier principle so any option where they imply of increasing outflow is correct. And options that increase inflow, even more, would be incorrect. which would be B because osmotic pressure is inflow and there are no proteins in the dialysate fluid And D is correct because increase blood inflow would cause increasing pressure and increase in filtration rate

Deuterium Exchange

if you exchange all hydrogens into deuterium it will cause no signal in NMR scan

presbyopia

impaired vision as a result of aging

social facilitation

improved performance of tasks in the presence of others; occurs with simple or well-learned tasks but not with tasks that are difficult or not yet mastered

perineum

in females, the area between the anus and the vagina

What mechanism probably would be responsible for the increased urine output induced by hypertension A.Increased blood flow to the bladder B. Increased renal tubular reabsorption of solutes and water C. Increased collecting duct permeability to water D. Increased glomerular filtration rate

kidney is responsible for urine output. So A is incorrect. Increasing re absorption would decrease urine output. Increasing collecting duct permeability would decrease urine output because the collecting duct primary function is re absorption increasing glomerular filtration rate would increase more water to be secreted and therefore would increase urine output

thermodynamics vs kinetic enolate reaction

kinetic reactions occur quickly and are often irreversible Thermodynamic occur slower and are more reversible

In comparison with the wall of the right ventricle of the heart, the left ventricular wall is: A. thinner and generates a higher pressure when it contracts. B. thinner and generates a lower pressure when it contracts. C. thicker and generates a higher pressure when it contracts. D. thicker and generates a lower pressure when it contracts.

left ventricle needs to pump blood to the whole body while the right just needs to pump blood to the lungs therefor the left ventricle needs to be stronger and thicker

ligaments, tendons and fasciae

ligament: bone to bone Tendon: muscle to bone Fasciae: muscles to other muscles.

One type of metabolic feedback loop that influences weight control involves the regulation of glucose levels in the blood. Which organ in the digestive system participates in this regulation by breaking down glycogen? A.Stomach B.Liver C.Pancreas D.Small intestine

liver breaks down glycogen. Glucagon stimulates breakdown of glycogen stored in the liver.

Where does ketogenesis occur?

liver mitochondria

Immunohistochemistry

localizing antigens or proteins in tissues using labeled (colored or fluorescent) antibodies

The relationship between the frequencies and the intensity levels of sounds perceived by the human ear as having a particular loudness is shown. What is the ratio between the maximum and the minimum sound intensities that produce this particular loudness? A.10^6 B.10^5 C.10^4 D.10^3

maximum sound intensity level is 80 dB and the minimum level is 30 dB, 80-30=50 10^5 ratio which correspond to intensities Imax = I0 × 108 and Imin = I0 × 103, based on the definition of the decibel units. Their ratio is then Imax/Imin = 105.

properties affected by intermolecular forces

melting point solubility volatility vapor pressure

Alzheimer's disease symptoms

memory loss, loss of recognition, mood swings, and trouble problem solving simple equations

explicit memory

memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and "declare"

uterine cycle

menstrual phase: Shed Endometrium, occurs with drop in estrogen and progesterone proliferative phase: build of endometrium causes a rising of estrogen secretory phase: enhance and maintain endometrium using progesterone and estrogen

Types of coding RNA

messengers RNA are constant Heterogenous nuclear RNA eukaryotic only used for the first RNA transcribed

alkenes vs double bond metaloid bonds

metaloid bonds are shorter then normal carbon bond alkenes

archival research

method of research using past records or data sets to answer various research questions, or to search for interesting patterns or relationships Difficult to conduct follow up Quality of analysis subject to the quality of records

miRNA

micro RNA, regulate gene expression can have several different gene targets

brain stem

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata all in control vital autonomic control like heart rate and autonomic respiration

Trier Social Stress Test,

mock job interview and arithmetic that is meant to trigger high stress, those who were introduced to chronic stressors didn't show high stress levels (burned out psychologically)

Hemophilia, a disease in which the time required for blood to clot is greatly prolonged, is determined by a sex-linked gene. Suppose a man with normal blood clotting marries a woman with normal blood clotting whose father was a hemophiliac. If this couple has three sons, what is the probability that hemophilia will be transmitted to all three of them? A. 1/8 B. 1/4 C. 3/8 D. 1/2

mother has one recessive diseased gene and the father has dominant good gene. Making it 50% that there son will get hemophile. Then power (1/2)^3 to the there making. 1/2*1/2*1/2=1/8

simple diffusion

movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration without a need of a protein channel

Why is the Ames test for mutagens used to test for carcinogens? A. Salmonella transform mutagens into carcinogens. B. Most mutagens are also carcinogens. C. Salmonella contain oncogenes. D. Salmonella's RNA distinguishes between carcinogens and mutagens.

mutagens are things that can change DNA and most DNA change can lead to cancer aka carcinogens

Which one of the following general characteristics is shared by all catalysts? A. They induce more collisions among reactant molecules. B. They transfer kinetic energy to the reactant molecules. C. They increase the reaction rate but do not change the Keq of a reversible reaction. D. They increase both the reaction rate and the Keq of a reversible reaction.

n general, catalysts lower the activation energy of the slowest step in a reaction. Thus, they increase the rate of the reaction without increasing the number of collisions, the kinetic energy of the reactants, or the Keq of a reversible reaction. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

What prediction can be made about the entropy change during the proposed synthesis of solid nitrogen? A. ∆S is positive, entropy decreases. B. ∆S is positive, entropy increases. C. ∆S is negative, entropy decreases. D. ∆S is negative, entropy increases.

n the synthesis of the more ordered solid nitrogen, the entropy of the system decreases and therefore ΔS is negative. Thus, C is the best answer.

Neuroleptics

neuroleptics are the first antipsychotic drugs used to treat schizophrenia and though they are effective in treating positive symptoms, their side effects include cognitive dulling, which can exacerbate negative symptoms.

Predicting Precipitation Reactions

only insoluble compounds form precipitates Qsp>Ksp NOT in equilibrium (precipiration will occur, excess Solute) Qsp=Ksp (no Precipitation) Qsp<Ksp( no Precipitation not enough solute) Example Ca3(PO4)2=3Ca + 2PO4 will it precipitate, Knowing CaCl2= 5*10^-6 M Na3PO4= 1*10^-5 M Ksp=2*10^-33 We can use these becuase of the common ion effect Qsp=[3Ca]^3+[2PO4]^2 Qsp=[3*(5*10^-6)]^3 +[2*(1*10^-5)]^2=1*10^-28 Qsp>Ksp precipitation will occur

Five Factor Model of Personality

openness to new experiences conscientiousness(tend to be efficient and organized) extroversion (recharges by being around people) agreeableness(kind, sympathetic, cooperative, warm, and considerate) neuroticism (anxiety, worry, fear, anger, frustration, envy, jealousy, guilt, depressed mood, and loneliness)

ordered vs random mechanism

ordered mechanism only one substrate attach to another Random mechanism multiple substrate attach to another

The cell type in the male reproductive system that is most analogous to the female ovum is the: A. spermatogonium. B. primary spermatocyte. C. spermatid. D. spermatozoon.

ovum is the last stage for female before fertilization so spermatozoon is the last stage too.

Which participant in the electron transport chain has the greatest attraction for electrons? A. FAD B. NAD+ C. Oxygen D. Cytochrome c

oxygen is the only element that enters and accepts the most hydrogen so the answer is C because oxygen attracts the electrons the most

life course perspective

peoples persoanlity will shape depending on these factors: Family, SES, Demographic, Age/health, Disorder prevalence, and major life events

Biological Perspective of Personality

personality can be explained as a result of genetic expression in the brain

Which of the following characteristics clearly marks fungi as eukaryotes? A. They have cell walls. B. They contain ribosomes. C. They contain mitochondria. D. They exhibit sexual reproduction.

prokaryotes include bacteria so bacteria can have a cell wall to protect from high temperature (thermophiles). Bacteria have ribosomes to help produce proteins needed for survival. Bacteria also exhibit sexual reproduction through F+ and F- interaction. The only thing that prokaryotes don't have is mitochondria which why sometimes they need a host to gain energy or a chloroplast.

Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cell division

prokaryotic replication had one chromosomes and produces a theta replication Eukaryotic had several origins and had replication bubbles

Function of skin

protection, prevents penetration, perception, temperature regulation, prevents dehydration,identification, communication, wound repair, absorption and excretion, production of vitamin D

Pseudocleavage

pseudocleavage as an event where a cleavage furrow appears, then disappears without cell division

Pulmonary arterial blood differs from the aortic blood because it has: A.more O2, less CO2, and higher pH. B.more O2, more CO2, and higher pH. C.less O2, more CO2, and lower pH. D.less O2, less CO2, and higher pH.

pulmonary arterial blood is blood before it goes to the lungs while aortic blood has therefore it will have less O2 and more CO2 becuase of the tissue giving it for exchange of O2 and lower PH becuase oxygen makes blood basic so a lake of oxygen would make blood acidic

rate law with reaction mechanism

rate law:k[A][B] Determined from reactants of slowest step

Autoimmunity

reaction of immune response to one's own tissues

reciprocal relationship Unidirectional relationship

reciprocal: both parties effect each other unidirectional: only one party affect the other

Dishabituation

recovery of a habituated response after a change in stimulation

erthrocytes

red blood cells do not go through mitosis and desont even have a nucleus instead the red bone marrow makes red blood cells

social cognitive theory

referring to the use of cognitive processes in relation to understanding the social world

carry blood to the kidneys

renal arteries and abdominal aorta

Types of Heuristics

representative(is affected by how we represent the object using prototypes) and availability( is affected by how often we see it)

Hungtington's disease

s a fatal genetic disorder that causes the progressive breakdown of nerve cells in the brain. It deteriorates a person's physical and mental abilities usually during their prime working years and has no cure. Symptoms include Cognitive: amnesia, delusion, lack of concentration, memory loss, mental confusion, slowness in activity, or difficulty thinking and understanding Muscular: abnormality walking, increased muscle activity, involuntary movements, problems with coordination, loss of muscle, or muscle spasms Behavioral: compulsive behavior, fidgeting, irritability, or lack of restraint Psychological: delirium, depression, hallucination, or paranoia Mood: anxiety, apathy, or mood swings Also common: difficulty speaking, tremor, or weight loss

Catonic Schizophrenia

schizophrenia, the catatonic type is only given when negative symptoms, such as flat affect and rigidity, are the dominant symptoms.

exocrine glands

secrete chemical substances into ducts that lead either to other organs or out of the body and the skin Has Ducts

Chef cells stomach

secrete pepsinogen

vestibular complex

semicircular canals, utricle, saccule, and ampullae important for balance

accessory glands(seminal vesicles, prostate, and Bulbourethral)

seminal vesicles:add 60% of the total ejaculation volume, prostate gland: add 35% of total volume also adds clotting factors, bulbourethral glands: adds about 4% of ejaculation volume and secrete alkaline mucous upon arousal to lubricate

which amino acid can be phosphorylated

serine, threonine, tyrosine All have an OH bond

constructionist approach

social constructionism is not binary. Society places meaning on certain objects. For example, our society has given money as a form of an agreed concept of currency. However, a society living in the jungle wouldn't necessarily think of paper money as currency but fire tinder.

common electrolytes

sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium,Chlorine, Weak Electrolytes:HF, HC2H3O2 (acetic acid), H2CO3 (carbonic acid), H3PO4 (phosphoric acid),NH3 This translates into the rule that tells us that all ionic compounds, strong acids, and strong bases are strong electrolytes.

association with other polypeptides

some enzymes are able to communicate with their sub units using consititutive activity: some proteins that demonstrate continuous rapid catalysis if their regulatory subunit is removed; continuous/unregulated While there is other proteins that require regulation from separate peptides

hearing pathway to the brain

sound waves→auricle/pinna →external auditory canal →tympanic membrane(ear drum)→malleus→incus→stapes→oval window→ (inside of cochlea) perilymph→'(inside of cochlea) endolymph→basilar membrane(inside cochlea)→auditory hair cells (inside cochlea)→ tectorial membrane (inside cochlea)→ auditory nerves→brain→perception

Aufbau Principle

states that each electron occupies the lowest energy orbital available Valence elcetons = highest energy state Electrons are lost from highest to lowest When adding electrons the s orbital would donate an electron to the d orbital to make sure its full but only in transtion metals example: NI-: [Ar]4s2 3d9

Normally the immune system avoids attacking the tissues of its own body because: A. a special intracellular process recognizes only foreign antigens. B. the body does not make any antigens that the immune system could recognize. C. it changes its antibodies to be specific only to foreign antigens. D. it suppresses cells specific to the body's own antigens.

the B cells makes antigen so that it recognize its self and therefore and cell without those antigens are killed. A is wrong because foreign has no antigens unless the body already fought the foreign body and there fore memory B cells memorizes the foreign body B is wrong B cells make antigens to recognize it self C is wrong because antibodies never change D is the correct answer

emotional salience

the ability to understand and manage oneʼs own emotions and to be sensitive to othersʼ feelings, i.e. even if you're wearing a $500 suit, if you see a kid drowning you'll jump in to save him

pupil

the adjustable opening in the center of the eye through which light enters

The ATP-dependent phosphorylation of a protein target is catalyzed by which class of enzyme? A. Oxidoreductase B. Transferase C. Hydrolase D. Ligase

the answer is B because kinases catalyze the transfer phosphate groups from ATP to target proteins and are classified as transferases.

An individual who previously worked as a salaried corporate attorney loses his or her job. Subsequently, the individual now works as an hourly wage employee at a retail store. This individual has experienced which type of social mobility? A. Intragenerational B. Intergenerational C. Horizontal D. Vertical

the answer to this question is D because the individual has experienced downward, or vertical, social mobility after moving from a salaried professional position to an hourly position

just world belief

the assumption that good things happen to good people and bad things happen to bad people

X-ray

the bones absorb and reflect the rays causing an image of the bones when produced

Which experimental technique was most likely used by the students to determine the rate of reaction? Knowing that compound 2 was yellow A. Monitor the increase in absorbance of the solutions at 200 nm. B. Monitor the increase in absorbance of the solutions at 360 nm. C. Monitor the decrease in absorbance of the solutions at 200 nm. D. Monitor the decrease in absorbance of the solutions at 360 nm.

the complementary color was purple and therefore will have the lowest in the visible light spectrum. (400-700nm) Answer is B

Molality

the concentration of a solution expressed in moles of solute per kilogram of solvent Boiling point increases with an increasing concentration of solutes because more energy is required to separate the water from those solutes. Vapor pressure decreases with an increasing concentration of solutes; since it takes more energy to trigger evaporation, there will be less solvent evaporating, and thus less pressure due to those evaporated solvent molecules. As a side note, remember that boiling point elevation is proportional to the van't Hoff value for the solutes involved.

institutional discrimination

the denial of opportunities and equal rights to individuals and groups that results from the normal operations of a society

mass defect

the difference between the mass of an atom and the sum of the masses of its protons, neutrons, and electrons

retroactive interference

the disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of old information Retroactive interference occurs when new information interferes with the storage of information learned beforehand for example cramming for finals is a fail for retroactive interference

proactive interference

the disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information

sympathetic nervous system

the division of the autonomic nervous system that arouses the body, mobilizing its energy in stressful situations releases norepinephrine= pupil dilation

parasympathetic nervous system

the division of the autonomic nervous system that calms the body, conserving its energy relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle releases acetylcholine= pupil constriction

cultural lag

the fact that some cultural elements change more quickly than others, disrupting a cultural system which may cause cultural shock

hyperopia

the focus point is behind the retina Farsightedness To fix this a convex lens causing the light to converge sooner before entering the eye and then landing on the retina instead of behind the retina

kinetic friction

the force that opposes the movement of two surfaces that are in contact and are moving over each other Ff=μk(Normal Force)

static friction

the force that resists the initiation of sliding motion between two surfaces that are in contact and at rest Fmax=μs(Normal Force)

Fischer esterification

the formation of an ester from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in acidic conditions

half-life

the half-life of a radioactive material is defined as the time it takes for half of all the radioactive nuclei to decay into their daughter nuclei, which may or may not also be radioactive.

specific heat

the heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of a given substance by a given amount (usually one degree).

linguistic relativity

the hypothesis that one's language determines the nature of one's thought

drive-reduction theory

the idea that a physiological need creates an aroused tension state (a drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy the need

Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis

the idea that different languages create different ways of thinking

Le Chatelier's Principle Temperature, Volume,Pressure

when stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system changes to relieve the stress Catalyst no change nonreactive gas cause no change to equilibium If V↓,P↑ shift to less moles because of less room V↑,P↓ Shift to more moles because of extra room ↓T reaction shift to the right to heat up if exothermic( consider heat as a product) ↑T Reaction shift to the left to cool down if exothermic(consider heat as reactant)

B+ decay

when the nucleus contains too few neutrons it converts the protons into neutrons and positrons (positively charged electron). The atomic number is 1 less than the resulting parent nucleus. increase number of neutrons decreases the number of protons. no change in atomic mass

fallopian tubes

where fertilization takes place

misinformation effect

which refers to the phenomenon in which exposure to incorrect information between the encoding of a memory and its later recall causes impairment to the memory.

Why is light-headedness and occasional dizziness a common symptom for women in their second trimester of pregnancy?

while the maternal circulatory system has expanded to accommodate the needs of the growing fetus, the production of blood itself needs to fill in the new capacity

biographical

having to do with a person's life; giving the story of a person's life Limitations in objectivity and difficult to generalize

Protease

hydrolyzes peptide bonds breaks down hemoglobin include trypsin

Rational Choice Theory

individuals will make decisions that maximize potential benefit and minimize potential harm only objects MICRO

conversion disorder

is a somatoform disorder in which a person displays blindness, deafness, or other symptoms of sensory or motor failure without a physical cause

cells of large intestine

Smooth surface with no plicae and no villi Glands present Mostly goblet cells(Secrete mucous to lubricate surface and protect from shear forces) and absorptive colonocytes

twin studies

a common method of investigating whether nature or nurture affects behavior Difficult to find twins Difficult to analyze the multitude of variables

types of social sanctions

a legal sanction(violation of legal codes resulting in criminal action) stigmatization(violation of the unwritten rules of behavior of social stigma) Preference for one behavior over another

survey

a set of questions that you ask a large number of people in order to find out about their opinions;a general description or report about a particular area or subject Easy to administer to a large sample Self reporting cause limitation of honesty

Functionalism

by Herbert Spencer compares society as a body it involves every party to interact with each other to work Emile Durkheim, he believes people that when a crisis(Caused by anomie or miscommunication) occur people from different parties of societies to reach dynamic equilibrium Durkheim also mentioned that systems may have a manifest (major/direct) or latent (minor/incidental/indirect) function MACRO

Harry Harlow Monkey Experiment

Monkey prefers soft terry cloth mother over wire mesh mother with bottle. Monkey prefers to have close contact with "loving" caregiver The experiments conducted by Harry and Margaret Harlow demonstrated that infant monkeys attach to their mothers for contact comfort, not just for food and infant monkeys raised in social isolation are unable to fully integrate with others after group reintroduction

group polarization

tendency of group members to move to an extreme position after discussing an issue as a group

Yerkes-Dodson Law

the principle that performance increases with arousal only up to a point, beyond which performance decreases

Medicalization

the process by which human conditions and problems come to be defined and treated as medical conditions

by stander effect

the tendency for any given bystander to be less likely to give aid if other bystanders are present

fundamental attribution error

the tendency for observers, when analyzing another's behavior, to underestimate the impact of the situation and to overestimate the impact of personal disposition

social loafing

the tendency for people in a group to exert less effort when pooling their efforts toward attaining a common goal than when individually accountable

Groupthink

the tendency of group members to conform, resulting in a narrow view of some issue

Cannon-Bard Theory

the theory that an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers (1) physiological responses and (2) the subjective experience of emotion

Transferases

transfer functional groups from one substrate to another

Phosphorylase

transfers a phosphate group to a molecule from inorganic phosphate

α-Amino acid

α-Amino acid (alpha-amino acid): A molecule containing an amino group and a carboxylic acid group that are separated by one carbon, called the α-carbon

Antioxidants

Organic molecules that help protect the body from harmful chemicals called free radicals

upward mobility downward mobility intergenerational mobility Intragenerational mobility

upward: increase in social class Downward:decrease in social class Intergenerational: income levels are able to change across generations Intragenerational: social movement within his lifetime

In which organelle of a eukaryotic cell is the pyrimidine uracil, as part of uridine triphosphate (UTP), incorporated into nucleic acid? A.The nucleus B.The Golgi bodies C.The ribosomes D.The endoplasmic reticulum

uracil is a nucleotide from RNA. All Nucleotide is made by the nucleus but the ribosomes translated the RNA.

extraction of phenols

use NaOH to make anionic phenol salt anionic phenol salt goes to the aqueous layer and the ether goes to the organic layer.

Rf (genetic map distance)

used To determine how far apart the genes are Rf = (# recombinants / total) x 100% Example double dominant and double recessive phenotypes are present at 8% and 10% frequency, Rf=((.08+.1)/1)*100=18 cm map units

B- decay

usually the most common Beta decay occurs when there are too many neutrons so to reach equilibrium the element converts a neutron into a proton and an electron which causes an increase in atomic number no change in atomic mass

Velocity for horizontal motion

velocity should be constant causing acceleration to be 0 unless given an angle if the angle is given use V=V0cos(Angle) Velocity is speed plus direction

Which peptide sequence is most likely found in a transmembrane helix of a protein? A.Ala-Ile-Phe-Val-Leu B.Ala-Thr-Lys-Asn-Leu C.Lys-Thr-Arg-Asn-His D. Val-Thr-Pro-Tyr-Ser

Transmembrane proteins are mainly composed of nonpolar/hydrophobic amino acids so that it may interact with cell membrane no matter what type of trnasmembrane( beta barrel and alpha helix)

what figures best illustrates the demographic transition theory?

Demographic transition theory addresses changes in the birth rate and the death rate that are associated with economic development (specifically, related to industrialization). The typical pattern begins with a drop in the death rate, leading to population growth, followed by a drop in the birth rate, leading to population stabilization.

Entropy predictions

1) liquids have more entropy than solids*** 2) gases have more entropy than liquids and solids *** 3) particles in solution have more entropy than undissolved solids. 4) two moles of a substance have more entropy than one mole**** 5) the value of delta S of a reverse reaction has the same magnitude as the forward reaction but with opposite signs. -Delta S forward=Delta S reverse 6. Increase temperature increases entropy****

Absoulte configuration rules

1.the higher atomic number has the highest priority if same atomic # then look at atomic weight 2A double bond is counted as 2 single bonds for both of the atoms 3. according to the priority you can tell if the atom will rotate clockwise(R) or counterclockwise(S)

ligation reactions

2 molecules are joined together using enzymes called synthases and energy from ATP Its an Example of Lewis acid-Base Reaction ( the exchange of electrons)

Antibody Light Chains

2 types: Each chain has a variable and a constant region. Kappa: 60% of human light chains Lambda: 40% of human light chains

In a certain kinetics experiment, the enzymatically catalyzed hydrolysis of ATP proceeds at a constant rate of 2.0 µM•s-1. If the volume of solution is 1.0 mL, what is the total number of ATP molecules that hydrolyzed after 1 min? A. 1.2 × 10-7 mol B. 3.3 × 10-6 mol C. 3.3 × 10-5 mol D. 1.2 × 10-4 mol

(2.0 × 10-6 mol•L-1•s-1) × (60 s × 1.0) × (10-3 L) = 1.2 × 10-7 mol

Which nucleoside has the largest molecular weight? A. Adenosine B. Guanosine C, Deoxyadenosine D. Deoxyguanosine

Deoxy means lack of oxygen is C and D is incorrect Guanosine make 3 Hydrogen bonds so it has larger electronegative atoms compared to Adenosine which can only make 2 Hydrogen bonds

intramolecular forces

forces that hold atoms together within a molecule includes Dipole-Dipole, Hydrogen bonding, London dispersion forces

Synaptogenesis

formation of synapses occurs in hippocampus

multinucleated syncytia

formed from multiple cells through fusion of individual cells this is only in muscles

Nitrogen is always

found in basic compounds and Sodium

Hypothyroidism symptoms

*Be careful, the thyroid is in front of the parathyroid. *Can be caused by hyperthyroid treatments CARDIOVASCULAR- Bradycardia, decreased cardiac output, cool skin, cold intolerance NEUROLOGIC- Lethargy, slowed movements, memory loss, mental dullness, confusion PULMONARY- Dyspnea, hypoventilation INTUGUMENTARY- Cool, dry skin; brittle, dry hair GASTROINTESTINAL- Decreased appetite, weight gain, constipation, increased serum lipid levels REPRODUCTIVE- Decreased libido, erectile dysfunction. Hypercholesterolemia PRIMARY- Decreased TH, Increased TSH SECONDARY (pituitary cause)- Decreased TH, Decreased TSH *Can cause coma when not treated. *Monitor and record bowel movements.

what properties do light and sound waves share?

-constructive and destructive interference -reflection -differaction -doppler effect -f stays the same when entering a new medium

Behaviorist Perspective of Personality

-personality is a reflection of behaviors that have been reinforced over time -Therapy should focus on learning skills & changing behaviors through operant conditioning techniques

second order reactions

-physical collision between 2 molecules of different or same rate=k[A][B] OR rate= k[A]^2

Edman degradation

-used to analyze small proteins -Edman degradation sequencing gives us the most information about the primary level -what would terminate the Edman degradation reaction a disulfide bond(di sulfide bonds are only in the tertiary structure and its one of the strongest bonds) - selectively & sequentially removes the N terminal AA of the protein which is analyzed by mass spectroscopy

Transcription process

1. (Initiation) A large transcription complex made of RNA polymerase and other proteins recognizes the start of a gene and begins to unwind the segments of DNA 2. (Elongation) RNA polymerase uses one strand of the DNA as a template. RNA nucleotides form complementary base pairs with the DNA template. G pairs with C and A pairs with U. the growing RNA strand hands freely as it is transcribed. Then the DNA strand closes back together 3. (Termination) A completed RNA stand separates from the DNA template and the transcription complex falls apart Occur in nucleus

conduction system

1. Artial muscle cells and ventricular muscle cells are not connected by gap junction 2.Av node delays impulse allowing atria to contract first 3.Impulse travels to the bottom of the heart before entering ventricular muscle allowing ventricles to contract from bottom up

Skeletal vs Smooth Muscle

1. Smooth muscles are narrower and shorter than skeletal 2.T-Tubules are not present 3. Not striated by thick and thin filaments so no A bond, H zone, etc 4. No Troponin-Tropomyosin complex instead it is regulated by calmodulin ( binds Ca2+ and activates MLCK ( Phosphorylates the myosin which activates the muscle to move) and myosin 5. Smooth muscle relay on extracellular Ca2+ instead of the Sarcoplasmic reticulum producing it in skeletal muscle) 6.Takes 10 to 20 times longer for Action Potential to occur 7. Has Prolonged contractions 8.Smooth muscle have a constantly fluctuating resting potential until neurotransmitter binds pushing the potential to produce an action potential 9. Autonomic motor neuron and uni nucleated

synaptic transmission steps

1. action potential arrives at the axon terminal 2. voltage gated Ca 2+ channels open 3. Ca 2+ enters the cell 4. Ca 2+ signals to vesicles 5. vesicles move to the membrane 6. docked vesicles release neurotransmitter by exocytosis 7. neurotransmitter diffuses across the synapse and binds to receptors

respiratory system function

1. pH regulation 2. thermoregulation 3. protection from disease 4.Gas Exchange

Layers of the uterus

1. perimetrium 2. myometrium 3. endometrium

labor cycle

1. placenta deteriorate and hormones drop 2. causing it to stretch the uterus to the max 3. baby head push on cervix 4. stimulateing the hypothalmus 3.posterior pituitary releases oxytocin 5. uterus contracts causing baby to be pushed out and the cycle repeates until baby is out 6. postive feedback

nephron function

1.Regulate the concentration of water,glucose and soluble substances like sodium salts by filtering the blood, 2.reabsorbing what is needed and excreting the rest as urine thereby eliminating wastes from the body, 3. regulating blood volume and BP, 4.controls levels of electrolytes and metabolites, 5.regulates blood pH.

Spermatogenesis

1.occurs in seminiferous tubules, starting near the basement membrane and finishing near the lumen 2. then vas deferens 3. then the ejaculatory duct 4. finally the urethra

3 classifications system used to organize amino acids

1.optical activity (+ or -) 2. absolute configuration (R or S) 3. left(L) or right(D) amino group

The radioactive isotope 32P has a half-life of 14 days. If 200 mg of 32P remains in a vial, approximately how much existed 60 days prior?

3.9 g 60/14=4.5 half lives .2*2*2*2*2=.2*16=3.9g

Sensitization

an increase in behavioral response after exposure to a threatening stimulus

sustentacular cells (sertoli cells)

found within the seminiferous tubules in the testes -nourish the developing sperm -secrete nutrients -FSH stimulates the sustentacular cells

somatoform disorders

A class of psychological disorders involving physical ailments with no authentic organic basis that are due to psychological factors.

Which enzyme was LEAST likely used in the cloning of WT-PRR cDNA? A. DNA polymerase B. RNA polymerase C. DNA ligase D. Reverse transcriptase

A complementary strand of DNA synthesized from an RNA template by the enzyme reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase, and DNA ligase.

meso compound

A compound with chirality centers and an internal plane of symmetry causing it to be an achiral molecule will always have opposite configuration R,S

SN1 vs SN2

Sn1 (Subsituiton Nucleophilic Unimolecular) -first order depends on the substrate. -Doesn't get affected by catalyst. - not affected by steric hindrance - Aprotic Solvent (unable to produce hydrogen bonding) Sn2 (Substitution Nucleophilic Bi-molecular) -second-order depends on nucleophile and substrate - Affected by steric hindrance -Protic Solvent (able to do Hydrogen bonding)

Species

A group of similar organisms that can breed and produce fertile offspring. to identify between to different species is if they have inability to interbreed

Temperature

A measure of how hot (or cold) something is; specifically, a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in an object.

Electronegativity

A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons F>O>N>Cl>Br>I>S>C=H

beta oxidation

A metabolic sequence that breaks fatty acids down to two-carbon fragments that enter the citric acid cycle as acetyl CoA. Occur in the mitochondria matrix

noncompetitive inhibitor

A noncompetitive inhibitor:binds to both the free enzyme and the enzyme-substrate complex and does not disturb the equilibrium between them. (In other words, it has equal affinity for both enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex.) Noncompetitive inhibition is actually just a special case of mixed inhibition, in which the inhibitor happens to bind to both enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex with equal affinity. Vmax: decrease Km: no change Binds to an allosteric site

which type of enzyme is most likely to suppress CBC? that cross-bridge cycling (CBC) requires phosphorylation A. Phosphorylase B. Kinase C. Phosphatase D. Synthase

A phosphatase is an enzyme that removes a phosphate group from its substrate; therefore it is likely to suppress CBC.

electron capture decay

A proton captures an electron and converts to a neutron usually occurs when there aretoo few neutrons decrease the atomic number increase the # of neutrons no change in atomic mass

Nucleotide bases

A purine (Adenine and guanine) or pyrimidine (Cytosine, thymine and uracil) used in the synthesis of nucleic acids. The building blocks of DNA. Provides genetic instructions for the organism. Made up of ribose sugar, a phosphate and one of four bases.

spontaneous reaction

A reaction that will proceed without any outside energy. ΔG is negative, exergonic, exothermic, usually release energy as heat chemical system will always react spontaneously when ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0 In order for the products to be more stable, they must have lost energy

temporal lobe

A region of the cerebral cortex responsible for hearing, olfactory sensation (smell), and language

Mutualism

A relationship between two species in which both species benefit

difusion

A solute moves passively down its concentration gradient in a thermodynamically favorable way, increasing entropy.

nondeclarative memory

A subsystem within Long term memory which consists of skills we acquire through repetition and practice (e.g., dance, playing the piano, driving a car)

Epimers

A subtype of diastereomers that differ in absolute configuration at exactly one chiral carbon (Epimeric carbon)

Golgi apparatus

A system of membranes that modifies and packages proteins for exocytosis synthesis certain macromolecules such as polyassacharides

mRNA

A type of RNA, synthesized from DNA, that attaches to ribosomes in the cytoplasm and specifies the primary structure of a protein.

Externalization

A way to defend against the conflict caused by the discrepancy between an idealized and a real self-image by projecting the conflict onto the outside world.

At what stage of the sliding filament cycle is ATP hydrolyzed? A. Resetting the myosin head to bind actin again B. Release of actin C. Binding of the myosin head to actin D. During the power stroke

A. ATP is hydrolyzed into ADP and Pi when the myosin-heads are reset to their high-energy conformation (choice A is correct). The myosin heads are now ready to bind actin; ATP has already been hydrolyzed and ADP is bound to myosin (choice C is wrong). The power stroke occurs when myosin (now bound to actin) returns to its low-energy conformation; no ATP is needed to do this (choice D is wrong). ATP binding (but not hydrolysis) is required in order to release actin from the myosin heads and start the cycle over (choice B is wrong).

During puberty and sexual maturation, what impact do androgens and estrogens have on the epiphyseal plate? A. The hormones ossify the epiphyseal plate, thus stopping growth. B. The hormones ossify the epiphyseal plate, thus creating a layer of cartilage within the bone. C. The hormones stimulate the epiphyseal plate to produce collagen and thus lengthen the bone. D. The hormones stimulate the epiphyseal plate to produce cartilage and thus lengthen the bone.

A. Androgens and estrogens aid in the eventual ossification of the epiphyseal plate, which stops further growth and results in a person reaching his/her final height (choices C and D are wrong). This ossification does not result in a layer of cartilage being formed as mature bones are composed of collagen and hydroxyapatite, a calcium-phosphate crystalline solid (choice B is wrong and choice A is correct).

Glucose and galactose are: A. diastereomers. B. anomers. C. meso compounds. D. conformational isomers.

A. Glucose and galactose are both hexoses and aldoses. They differ only in their absolute configuration at C-4, and so are diastereomers

Which of the following statements about bile is/are true? I. Bile emulsifies lipids for easier digestion. II. The amphipathic nature of bile allows it to digest lipids. III. Bile is produced by the liver and gallbladder.

A. Item I is true: bile is amphipathic (has both polar and non-polar regions); this allows it to interact with both lipids and the hydrophilic intestinal contents. The lipids are emulsified, allowing pancreatic lipases easier access to them for digestion. Bile is sometimes referred to as intestinal soap, because it emulsifies fat in the intestines much like soap emulsifies fat on your hands when you wash them (choice C can be eliminated). Item II is false: bile is not an enzyme and does not digest lipids. It only makes it easier for the pancreatic enzymes to digest (choice D can be eliminated). Item III is false: bile is made only by the liver. It is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder (choice B can be eliminated and choice A is correct).

Oogenesis is different from spermatogenesis in that: A. only one ootid is generated from one oogonium. B. only one round of cytokinesis occurs. C. two polar bodies are secreted at the end of each telophase. D. oocyte mitosis is more efficient than spermatocyte mitosis, leading to a regenerating pool of oogonium

A. Oogonia mature into primary oocytes, which undergo meiosis I to generate a secondary oocyte and a polar body. If fertilized, the secondary oocyte undergoes meiosis II to generate an ootid (which matures into an ovum) and a second polar body (choice A is correct). Two rounds of cytokinesis are still required, one for each telophase (I and II; choice B is wrong). Each cytokinesis event generates one polar body, not two (choice C is wrong). Oocytes undergo meiosis, not mitosis. In female humans, oogonia perform mitosis in the fetal stage, to generate a lifetime supply of primary oocytes. In contrast, spermatogonia can perform mitosis through the life of a human male; this is one of the reasons females go through menopause and males do not (choice D is wrong).

Oogenesis is different from spermatogenesis in that: A. only one ootid is generated from one oogonium. B. only one round of cytokinesis occurs. C. two polar bodies are secreted at the end of each telophase. D. oocyte mitosis is more efficient than spermatocyte mitosis, leading to a regenerating pool of oogonium.

A. Oogonia mature into primary oocytes, which undergo meiosis I to generate a secondary oocyte and a polar body. If fertilized, the secondary oocyte undergoes meiosis II to generate an ootid (which matures into an ovum) and a second polar body (choice A is correct). Two rounds of cytokinesis are still required, one for each telophase (I and II; choice B is wrong). Each cytokinesis event generates one polar body, not two (choice C is wrong). Oocytes undergo meiosis, not mitosis. In female humans, oogonia perform mitosis in the fetal stage, to generate a lifetime supply of primary oocytes. In contrast, spermatogonia can perform mitosis through the life of a human male; this is one of the reasons females go through menopause and males do not (choice D is wrong).

sp vs sp2 vs sp3

Sp3: single bond Sp2: Double bond Sp3: Triple bond or 2 Double bonds

Blockage of the K+ leak channels in an axon would produce which of the following? A. Depolarization B. More rapid repolarization C. Hyperpolarization D. Increased activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase

A. The K+ leak channels are the channels primarily responsible for the negative resting membrane potential. They allow many positive ions to flow out of the cell (K+ moves down its gradient, to the outside of the cell). If these channels were blocked, these positive ions would remain inside the cell, driving the membrane potential in the positive direction. Movement away from rest potential in the positive direction is called depolarization (A is correct, and B and C are wrong). Note that this would not cause an increase in the Na+/K+ ATPase activity, since it is not dependent on ion gradients for its function (D is wrong).

An exercise physiologist looking at Type IIA muscle fibers under the microscope would see: A. white cells with some mitochondria. B. white cells with no mitochondria. C. red cells with many mitochondria. D. red cells with no mitochondria.

A. Type IIA fibers are fast twitch fibers that are moderately fatigue-resistant; so they would have mitochondria (choices B and D can be eliminated). They would not have as many mitochondria as the red (myoglobin filled) slow twitch fibers that very fatigue-resistant, and do not have myoglobin so appear white (choice C is wrong and choice A is correct).

The process taking place at the cathode was: A. oxidation by a loss of electrons. B. oxidation by a gain of electrons. C. reduction by a loss of electrons. D. reduction by a gain of electrons.

According to the passage, H2(g) was produced at the cathode. The reaction taking place at the cathode was 2H+(aq) + 2e- → H2(g), which means the H+ was gaining electrons and undergoing reduction. Thus, D is the best answer.

Which extraction procedure will completely separate an amide from the by-product of the reaction between an amine and excess carboxylic acid anhydride? A.Add 0.1 M NaOH(aq) to quench unreacted anhydride. Then add diethyl ether and separate the layers. The amide can be obtained from the ether layer by evaporating the solvent. B.Add 0.1 M HCl(aq) to quench unreacted anhydride. Then add diethyl ether and separate the layers. The amide can be obtained from the ether layer by evaporating the solvent. C.Add 0.1 M NaOH(aq) to quench unreacted anhydride. Then add diethyl ether and separate the layers. The amide can be obtained from the aqueous layer by neutralizing with HCl(aq). D. Add 0.1 M HCl(aq) to quench unreacted anhydride. Then add diethyl ether and separate the layers. The amide can be obtained from the aqueous layer by neutralizing with NaOH(aq).

Acid can only be broken with a base so NaOH must be added causing carboxylic acid to sink allowing use to obtain it through the organic layer and the amide in the ether layer

In situ hybridization (ISH)

Technique used to locate cells that manufacture a specific protein or peptide by detecting the specific mRNA sequence coding for that substance. It can also be used to study changes in regional mRNA levels (i.e., gene expression).

Aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption by the kidneys. What changes in blood volume and pressure would be expected as a result of aldosterone deficiency? A. Increased volume and increased pressure B. Increased volume and decreased pressure C. Decreased volume and increased pressure D. Decreased volume and decreased pressure

Aldosterone cause a decrease in blood volume and pressure

If DDT accumulates in the liver, all of the following bodily functions may be significantly impaired EXCEPT: absorption of fats in the small intestine. production of bile. detoxification of poisons. regulation of blood pressure.

All of the option has a major role with the liver except regulation of blood pressure. The blood pressure can be effected by the liver but the heart will stop effect.

inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

an inhibitory hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane of a synapse caused by the liberation of a neurotransmitter by the terminal button If open K+, then inhibit if opens Na+ ,then excite If Cl- opens, then inhibit if opens Ca2+ then excite

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

An endomembrane system where lipids are synthesized, calcium levels are regulated, and toxic substances are broken down.

reverse transcriptase

An enzyme encoded by certain viruses (retroviruses) that uses RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. produces a strand of DNA in the 5' to 3 This occurs after capsid is formed but before it leaves the cell. RT does not have any proofreading mechanism RNA-(RNA dependent DNA polymerase)-> Single Strand DNA-(DNA Dependent, DNA polymerase)-> Double Strand DNA

Dehydrogenase

An enzyme that catalyzes a chemical reaction during which one or more hydrogen atoms are removed from a molecule.

synthase

An enzyme that catalyzes the linking together of two molecules, especially without the direct involvement of ATP.

A dopamine agonist is found to have dose-dependent effects. Based on this finding, which correlation is most likely to be supported? A.A positive correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the duration of the visual hallucinations that occur when the dopamine agonist is administered B.A negative correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the duration of the visual hallucinations that occur when the dopamine agonist is administered C.A positive correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the intensity of euphoria experienced when the dopamine agonist is administered D.A negative correlation between the dose of the dopamine agonist and the intensity of euphoria experienced when the dopamine agonist is administered

Answer is C .A dopamine agonist enhances the functioning of dopamine in the nervous system. Because the agonist is said to have dose-dependent effects, a positive correlation between the dose and the intensity of euphoria experienced is most likely.

antagonistic and synergistic in muscles

Antagonistic: acts against the prime mover We control the antagonistic Synergistic: works with the prime mover Example: Triceps(antagonistic), While biceps is the synergistic/agonistic

Antigen Antibody Pathogen

Antigen: Protein that triggers an immune response Antibody: is a trigger/ marker that activates antigen which then triggers an immune response. Antibodies only bind to the antigen and crosslink it to other antigen molecules to inactivate it, activate the complement system to destroy the pathogen that the antigen is a part of, stimulate macrophages to ingest and destroy the antigen Pathogen: disease-causing organism

What is the maximum number of grams of H2S that can be produced from 2 mol of sulfate ions by the reaction of Equation 1? SO42-(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + 4 H2(g) → H2S(aq) + 4 H2O(l) Equation 1 A. 68 g B. 34 g C. 96 g D. 192 g

Equation 1 shows that for every mole of sulfate ion consumed, one mole of H2S is produced. Thus 2 mol of H2S are formed from 2 mol sulfate. The molecular weight of H2S is 34 g/mol, so 68 g of H2S can be formed. Answer choice A is the correct answer.

attachment theory

Attachment theory maintains that parent-child relationships strongly influence the child's attitudes about the self and the world.

The amino acid residue at position 61 in Rac is most likely: Knowing it goes through deamidation A.glutamine. B.leucine. C.arginine. D.tyrosine.

B and D are incorrect because we need NH2 group C. is incorrect because its an amine group A. is correct because it has an amide group

The researchers determined that two participants in the S group were taking medication that may have exacerbated their negative symptoms. Which classification of medication were these participants most likely taking? A. Atypical antipsychotics B. Neuroleptics C. Hallucinogens D. Stimulants

B because neuroleptics are the first antipsychotic drugs used to treat schizophrenia and though they are effective in treating positive symptoms, their side effects include cognitive dulling, which can exacerbate negative symptoms.

Certain digestive enzymes secreted by pancreatic acinar cells are synthesized as longer polypeptide chains than they actually possess when carrying out their specific functions. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that these enzymes: A. are targeted by lysosomal hydrolases for protein degradation. B. are zymogens. C. have not gone through mRNA splicing. D. have been inactivated through cleavage by proteases.

B. Because the digestive enzymes secreted by the pancreatic acinar cells would digest the pancreas itself if secreted in an active form, the enzymes are secreted in an inactive precursor form called a zymogen. Activation of the zymogen usually involves removal of a portion of the protein precursor, therefore the zymogen can be considerably longer than the active form of the enzyme (B is correct). The proteins are to be secreted, not digested by the lysosome (A is wrong), and if they had been cleaved by proteases they would be shorter, not longer (D is wrong). Finally, enzymes do not go through mRNA splicing, mRNA does (C is wrong).

operant conditioning vs classical conditioning

Both classical conditioning and operant conditioning are processes that lead to learning. Classical conditioning pairs two stimuli, while operant conditioning pairs behavior and response. Also, classical conditioning always works with involuntary responses, while operant conditioning works with voluntary behaviors. Operant conditioning is accomplished when someone receives a reward after performing a task; after the person has performed the task and received the reward enough times, they will perform the task without the reward

Which of the following is an accurate characterization of lipid molecules? A. Phospholipids and triacylglycerides are made of glycerol and 3 fatty acids, but steroids are not. B. Steroids such as testosterone and estrogen can simply diffuse across the phospholipid bilayer. C. Lipases hydrolyze triacylglycerides to liberate fatty acids from the steroid backbone. D. Steroids, triacylglycerides and phospholipids all have some amphipathic character.

B. Phospholipids are made of a glycerol backbone, two fatty acids and a polar head group (choice A is incorrect). Steroids are hydrophobic and so can diffuse across the plasma membrane without the help of the protein transporter (choice B is correct). Lipases hydrolyze triacylglycerides, but TAGs do not contain a steroid backbone (choice C is incorrect). Amphipathic molecules contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions. While this is true of phospholipids and some steroid derivatives, triacylglycerides have very little hydrophilic character (choice D is incorrect).

Aspartic acid (R = CH2CO2H) would have which of the following net charges at physiological pH? A. -2 B. -1 C. 0 D. +1

B. Physiological pH is 7.4. This pH is past the pKa of the carboxyl group (pKa ~2) and the acidic side chain (pKa ~4), so both these groups will be deprotonated. It is before the pKa of the ammonium group (pKa ~9), so this group will be protonated. This will lead to a net charge of (-1) + (-1) + (+1) = -1 (choice B is correct).

Weak acid-strong base titration curve

Equivalence point is greater than 7, has a halfway equivalence point

This is known as "Cue-Dependent Recall." Which of the following is a NOT a type of memory cue? A. Mnemonics B. Chunking C. Encoding-specificity principle D. State dependent learning

B. Researchers have discovered that human memory is limited in capacity, but that capacity can be expanded by "chunking," a process by which units of meaningful information are grouped into smaller chunks—for example, remembering a long series of numbers by seeing it as a group of years chained together. However, chunking is not dependent on specific cues for recall (choice B is correct). Mnemonics utilize easily remembered sentences, initials, or rhymes to remember more complicated lists of items that one must memorize. By remembering the mnemonic, that cues the memory of the list (choice A is wrong). The encoding-specificity principle states that information is most easily retrieved in the place where it was first learned. For example, if one studies for a test in the library, that person would do better on the test if he or she took the test in the library because that is where recall of the material would be best (choice C is wrong). State-dependent learning works similarly to the encoding-specificity principle in that recall is best when one is in the same state of mind as when the material was learned (choice D is wrong).

Which of the following types of renal vasculature are NOT responsible for returning components to the circulatory system as part of filtrate adjustment? A. Efferent arterioles B. Afferent arterioles C. Peritubular capillaries D. Vasa recta

B. The afferent arterioles carry blood toward the glomerulus, but do not function in returning substances to the circulatory system after filtration (choice B is the correct answer). The efferent arterioles carry blood away from the glomerulus and ultimately branch into the peritubular capillaries. These vessels interlace with the nephron and pick up reabsorbed material (choices A and C return components to the circulatory system and can be eliminated). The vasa recta is part of the peritubular capillaries; it runs in parallel with the renal tubule and is also involved in returning material to the circulatory system (choice D can be eliminated).

(R)-3-Chloro-1-pentanol reacts with sodium azide (NaN3) in acetone. The configuration of the stereocenter in the product would be: A. S, because the reaction is SN1 and will proceed with inversion. B. S, because the reaction is SN2 and will proceed with inversion. C. R, because the reaction is SN2 and will proceed with retention. D. R and S, because the reaction is SN1 due to a poor nucleophile and will make a racemic mixture.

B. The azide ion is a strong nucleophile and the solvent, acetone, is aprotic. These conditions are optimal for an SN2 reaction (choices A and D are incorrect). During the SN2 mechanism, the reacting stereocenter proceeds with inversion (choice B is correct and choice C is incorrect).

The Mullerian ducts in females: A. develop into the ovary and fetal mammary tissue. B. regress and the Wolffian ducts develop into female internal genitalia. C. develop into internal genitalia such as the fallopian tubes, uterus, and cervix. D. regress and the Wolffian ducts develop into female external genitalia.

C. The Wolffian ducts regress in females (choice B and D are wrong), and the Mullerian ducts develop into female internal genitalia, such as the fallopian tubes, uterus, and cervix (choice C is correct). Note that mammary glands develop mostly from the ectoderm, because they are similar to glands found in skin (choice A is wrong).

sanction

rewards/punishments that are given if you follow/violate norms.

ll of the following are true of the bacteria living in the large intestine EXCEPT: A. the bacteria compete with consumed pathogens that have evaded other innate immune system defenses. B. the bacteria are mostly aerobic with some facultative anaerobes. C. the bacteria produce vitamin K, which is necessary for proper blood clotting. D. the bacteria are considered to be mutualistic symbionts because the human host derives benefit while the bacteria obtain a steady source of food in the form of undigested material passing through the gut.

B. The gastrointestinal tract has a limited supply of oxygen within it, especially once the large intestine is reached. Bacteria residing there must be facultative or obligate anaerobes (choice B does not describe the bacteria in the gut and is the correct answer choice). The bacteria compete with pathogens, providing an additional immune mechanism (choice A is true and can be is eliminated) and also produce vitamin K, which is involved in blood clotting (choice B is true and can be eliminated). The fact that both humans and bacteria benefit from this arrangement makes this a mutualistic relationship (choice D is true and can be eliminated).

If a teacher shows her students a new way to do algebra that causes them to forget how to do algebra the way they used to do it, that would be an example of: A. positive transfer. B. retroactive interference. C. proactive interference. D. misinformation effect.

B. When newly learned information, such as a new way to do algebra, interferes with the ability to recall the old way, that is known as retroactive interference (choice B is correct). Positive transfer is when old information makes it easier to learn new information. For example, knowing chess might make it easier to learn to play checkers (choice A is wrong). Proactive interference is when old information interferes with the ability to learn new information. For instance, if one always lived on the seventh floor of an elevator building but then moved to the sixth floor, pressing the right button in the elevator would probably prove quite difficult for a while (choice C is wrong). The misinformation effect occurs when people are exposed to bits of wrong information that causes them to then misremember events or to fill in the blanks with incorrect details (choice D is wrong).

denaturing proteins

Definition: altering or "screwing" up the shape of proteins by interacting with the integrity of hydrogen/covalent bonds. breaks secondary,tertiary and Quaternary structure

Glucose is labeled with 14C and followed as it is broken down to produce CO2, H2O, and ATP in a mammalian liver cell. In theory, during this process the label will be detectable: A.in the mitochondria only. B.first in the nucleus, then in the mitochondria. C.first in the mitochondria, then on the ribosomes. D.first in the cytoplasm, then in the mitochondria

Breakdown of glucose proceeds first by glycolysis, then by oxidation in the citric acid (Krebs or tricarboxylic acid) cycle. The enzymes for the former process are located in the cytoplasm and those for the latter are in the matrix of mitochondria.

All the participants in the study are given information regarding the benefits of a healthy diet. According to the cognitive dissonance theory, which hypothetical finding is most likely? A. Obese participants will change their unhealthy eating behaviors. B. Non-obese participants will change their unhealthy eating behaviors. C. Obese participants will question the validity of the information provided. D. Non-obese participants will overemphasize the importance of the information provided.

C is correct. According to the cognitive dissonance theory, when an individual's attitudes are incongruent with his or her behavior, this leads to cognitive dissonance. To eliminate cognitive dissonance, the individual can either change his or her attitudes or his or her behavior. The theory posits that individuals are more likely to adjust their attitudes to align with their behavior than the other way around. Therefore, obese participants are likely to question the importance of the information provided.

Jane reported that many of her memories reflected personal experiences. Which of the following is true about memories that are associated with deeply personal memories? A. Personal, more emotional memories are usually reconstructed with the passage of time. B. Personal, more emotional memories are always more accurate than non-emotional ones. C. Personal, more emotional memories are just as subject to reconstruction as non-emotional ones. D. Personal, more emotional memories are exempt from reconstruction.

C. Although people may believe their emotionally-driven memories are more vivid and accurate than non-emotional ones, this is not necessarily the case. In fact, these emotional memories are just as subject to reconstruction as their non-emotional counterparts (choice C is correct). While these memories may be reconstructed over time, it would be inaccurate to say that this is usually the case (choice A is wrong). Likewise, they are not always more accurate than non-emotional ones (choice B is wrong). As indicated above, emotional memories are not exempt from reconstruction (choice D is wrong).

DNA fingerprinting

analysis of sections of DNA introns (repetitive sequences) that have little or no known function, but vary widely from one individual to another, in order to identify individuals

A prodigy in an ability-grouping program works in a group with normally developing children. She becomes frustrated that despite her higher ability, more outspoken and charismatic members of the group do most of the talking. This student's inability to exert herself within the group would most impact her: A. self-esteem. B. self-concept. C. locus of control. D. groupthink.

C. Locus of control is the extent to which individuals feel they can exert control over events around them. The prodigy's inability to exert control over her surroundings would most impact her sense of locus of control (choice C is correct). Self-esteem is a person's overall value of his or her self-worth. This is not as specific in capturing the student's problem exerting control on her environment (choice A is wrong). Self-concept is a collection of beliefs about oneself, it is not as specific as locus of control (choice B is wrong). Groupthink is a phenomenon in which groups make irrational or dysfunctional decisions as a result of the interactions among its members (choice D is wrong).

Transduction, the process through which sensory signals from the environment are transformed into neural signals, occurs where in the major structures of the ear? A. Auditory nerve B. Eardrum C. Cilia (hair cells) D. Cochlea

C. The cilia, or hair cells, are the delicate organs that vibrate in response to the sound waves that enter into the ear (choice C is correct because this is the point where physical energy from the environment becomes electrical energy that the brain can process). The auditory nerve is the collection of neurons that receives already transduced information from the hair cells and transmits this signal to the auditory cortex; therefore, the auditory nerve receives the signal after transduction takes place, so it is not the structure where this occurs (choice A is wrong). The eardrum is the part of the middle ear where the vibrations from sound waves in the environment are transferred to organs of the inner ear where transduction finally takes place, which is the first step in getting the environmental information into a format that the brain can process (choice B is wrong). The cochlea is the snail shaped chamber of bone that houses the organs where the cilia are located; therefore, the cochlea itself is also not responsible for transducing information (choice D is wrong).

How would the results in Figure 1 needed to have changed in order for the researchers' hypothesis to be proven? A. The data would need to demonstrate a more significant improvement in the ASDs' overall performance. B. The data would need to demonstrate a decrease in the in the ASDs' overall performance. C. The data would need to demonstrate a more significant improvement in the TDs' dice performance, with a decrease in the ASDs' performance. D. The data would need to demonstrate a more significant improvement in the TDs' overall performance with a decrease in the ASDs' performance.

C. The first paragraph states "researchers have hypothesized that people with autism would display much more individualized patterns and would rely less on the holistic Gestalt principles." Therefore, if more typically developing people had improved in accuracy and reaction time in recognizing the dice pattern while the performance of people with autism declined, that would have corresponded with the original hypothesis that people with autism are less sensitive to holistic patterns such as the classic dice pattern (choice C is correct). A more significant improvement in the reaction time and accuracy of the performance of people with autism further contradicts the original hypothesis (choice A is wrong). A decrease in overall performance for people with autism may or may not confirm the hypothesis depending on whether that decrease was specifically on the dice patterns or on the random or concentric patterns (choice B is wrong). The increase in the overall performance for typically developing people with a decrease in the performance of autistic people could also be attributed to an improvement in perceiving the random and concentric "patterns," which were included in overall performance and would neither have confirmed nor denied the original hypothesis (choice D is wrong).

All animal amino acids have the ___ configuration, while all naturally occurring carbohydrates have the ___ configuration

animal: L configuration Carbohydrates: D configuration

Fructose is a: A. pentose and aldose, and forms a furanose ring. B. pentose and ketose, and forms a furanose ring. C. hexose and ketose, and forms a furanose ring. D. hexose and ketose, and forms a pyranose ring.

C.Fructose is a monosaccharide with six carbons (a structural isomer of glucose) which makes it a hexose (choices A and B are incorrect). Fructose is also a ketose, with the carbonyl group at C-2. Because of this, fructose usually forms a furanose (or five-membered) ring in solution (choice C is correct and D is incorrect), due to nucleophilic attack of the hydroxyl on C-5 onto the ketone. Hexose monosaccharides that are also aldoses form pyranose rings.

In premature deliveries before 30 weeks gestation, pulmonary surfactant has not yet been produced. What difficulties would be expected in these infants? A. Decreased CO2 exchange resulting in respiratory alkalosis B. Decreased O2 exchange resulting in respiratory alkalosis C. The collapse of smaller airways resulting in respiratory acidosis D. The collapse of bronchi resulting in respiratory acidosis

C.Without surfactant, the smaller airways (alveolar ducts/alveoli) collapse and are held together by the surface tension of water. This results in reduced oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange, which leads to respiratory acidosis (choices A and B can be eliminated and choice C is correct). Larger airways, such as bronchi, are structurally supported by connective tissue and are much less likely to collapse (choice D is wrong).

thermogenesis for newborn

Chemical thermogenesis, or the metabolism of brown fat, is far more common in newborns because newborns have a decreased ability to shiver when placed in a cold environment.

What is the electronic configuration of the Co(II) center found in vitamin B12? A.[Ar] 3d7 B.[Ar] 4s2 3d5 C.[Ar] 4s2 3d7 D. [Ar] 4s2 4d5

Co2+ it lost 2 electrons and there fore loss 2 electrons from the highest configuration which would be 4s

primary spematocyte

IS the only part of spermatogenesis that is not haploid but diploid

Peroxisomes

Contain oxidase enzymes that detoxify alcohol, hydrogen peroxide, and other harmful chemicals

corrosion pits

Corrosion pits and crevices are essentially spontaneous electrochemical cells. The metal is oxidized to an ionic form in the pit or crevice, and the electrons that are lost can react in a reduction reaction at a distant surface site of the metal. Since the pit or crevice is the site of oxidation, it must be an anode. Anode of a corrosion cell

cross-sectional study

Cross-sectional research involves using different groups of people who differ in the variable of interest but share other characteristics, such as socioeconomic status, educational background, and ethnicity.

The Vmax of an enzymatic reaction is altered by which types of inhibitors? I. Competitive II. Noncompetitive III. Uncompetitive IV. Mixed A.I and II only B.II and IV only C.I, II, and III only D.II, III, and IV only

D

Which statement below most accurately describes the roles of the proteins actin and myosin during muscular contraction? A.Both actin and myosin shorten, causing the muscle tissue to which they are attached to contract. B.Both actin and myosin catalyze the reactions that result in muscle contraction. C.Actin molecules are disassembled by myosin, leading to a shortening of muscle sarcomeres. D.Bridges between actin and myosin form, break, and re-form, leading to a shortening of muscle sarcomeres.

D

When 5-methyl hexane-2,4-dione is treated with one equivalent of NaOH, the ion formed is: A. a kinetic enolate, because the α-hydrogens on carbon 1 are least sterically hindered. B. a trisubstituted enolate, because the small base favors the formation of the thermodynamic product. C. the least substituted enolate, because it forms fastest under the reaction conditions. D. a disubstituted enolate, because it is the conjugate base of the strongest acid.

D. Choices A and C suggest deprotonation at C-1 to form the kinetic enolate. The use of a small base, such as OH-, favors the formation of the more substituted, thermodynamic enolate. Eliminate choices A and C. Choice B is also incorrect because the strongest acid will be deprotonated first, regardless of the substitution of any other possible enolates in the molecule. Since the diketone has a pair of α-hydrogens between the carbonyls, these protons are significantly more acidic due to a total of three resonance structures, two of which put the negative charge on the electronegative oxygen atoms. The enolate formed by deprotonation between the carbonyls has two carbon groups attached, making it disubstituted. Choice D is the correct answer.

During fertilization: A. the sperm and oocyte plasma membrane fuse to form a zygote in the uterus. Your Answer B. the sperm's bindin protein facilitates nuclear fusion. C. both fast and slow blocks increase the likelihood of a second sperm fusing with the oocyte membrane. D. the sperm must penetrate both the corona radiata and the vitelline layer. Correct Answ

D. Fertilization occurs in a fallopian tube (choice A is wrong). The sperm's bindin protein binds an oocyte receptor to allow plasma membrane fusion and injection of the sperm nucleus (choice B is wrong). Fast and slow blocks function to decrease the likelihood of multiple sperm fusing with an oocyte (choice C is wrong). The spermatozoa must penetrate both the corona radiata (made of granulosa cells) and the zona pellucida to access the oocyte (choice D is correct).

Low blood pressure and low blood volume trigger which of the following? A. An increase in ADH followed by a subsequent decrease in aldosterone B. An increase in ADH followed by a subsequent increase in aldosterone C. An increase in aldosterone followed by a subsequent decrease in ADH D. An increase in aldosterone followed by a subsequent increase in ADH

D. First, aldosterone levels increase (choices A and B are wrong). This allows sodium reabsorption from the distal nephron. The resulting increase in plasma osmolarity triggers antidiuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin) release (choice C is wrong and choice D is correct). This induces expression of water channels on the cells of the distal tubule and collecting duct, allowing water reabsorption.

Which of the following would impair nitrogen excretion? I. Increased glomerular filtration rate II. Impaired ammonia reabsorption in the proximal tubule III. Impaired glycolysis A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. III only

D. Item I is false: increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) would cause more urea to be excreted (choices A and B can be eliminated). Note that both remaining choices include Item III, so Item III must be true and we can focus only on Item II. Item II is false: if ammonia reabsorption is impaired, more ammonia will be lost in the urine (choice C can be eliminated and choice D is correct). Item III is in fact true: glycolysis is a primary pathway of pyruvate production. Since transport of ammonia from the muscle to the liver is pyruvate-dependent, reduced pyruvate production would impair ammonium excretion.

extraction of carboxylic acids

anionic salts are generally soluble in the aqueous phase and can, therefore, be removed from the organic phase

What best characterizes alveolar ducts, which follow the respiratory bronchioles? A. They are the terminal component of the respiratory zone. B. They are the area with greatest gas exchange in the lung. C. They are the first component of the respiratory zone. D. They are thin-walled branches of the respiratory zone where gas exchange can occur.

D. The alveolar ducts are a portion of the respiratory zone where gas exchange occurs (choice D is correct). They branch further out into individual alveoli where the vast majority (approximately 90%) of gas exchange occurs (choices A and B are wrong). The respiratory zone is composed of the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli (choice C is wrong).

1H NMR spectroscopy can provide all of the following information EXCEPT: A. the connectivity of atoms in a molecule. B. the number of nonequivalent hydrogens in a molecule. C. the chemical environment of the hydrogen atoms in a molecule. D. the splitting patterns of equivalent hydrogen atoms.

D. This question is asking for the FALSE statement. The number of signals in a 1H NMR spectrum indicates how many different types of hydrogens a molecule has (eliminate choice B). The splitting pattern of each signal provides insight into the connectivity of the atoms since nonequivalent neighboring hydrogens split the signals of their neighbors (eliminate choice A). The chemical shift of a signal generally indicates what types of groups are near the hydrogens in the molecule (eliminate choice C). While 1H NMR provides information about the splitting patterns of hydrogen atoms in a molecule, splitting effects only apply between nonequivalent hydrogens (not equivalent hydrogens). This answer choice is false, thus choice D is correct.

What two components are unique to the regulation of smooth muscle? A. Myosin light chain kinase and troponin B. Troponin and tropomyosin C. Tropomyosin and calmodulin D. Calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase

D. Troponin and tropomyosin are the regulatory proteins used in cardiac and skeletal muscle, but not smooth muscle (choices A, B, and C are wrong). In smooth muscle, calcium binds to calmodulin, activating myosin light chain kinase (MLCK), which then phosphorylates the myosin light chain. This phosphorylation permits interaction between actin and myosin, triggering contraction (choice D is correct).

Find Distance when given velocity and time but missing acceleration

D=1/2(V0+V)T

DNA vs RNA structure

DNA has Thymine and RNA has Uracil DNA has deoxyribose and RNA has ribose Hydrophilic DNA backbone (outside) and hydrophobic DNA nucleotides (Inside)

If the anti-inflammatory drug in Treatment 1 interfered with DNA replication, in which phase of the cell cycle would cells tend to be arrested? A. G0 phase B. G1 phase C. S phase D. G2 phase

DNA replication occurs during the S or synthesis phase of a cell cycle. Thus the cell cycle would be arrested in this particular phase of the cycle and not in G0, G1, or G2 phases. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

Bacterial Structure

DNA: free floating and circular ribosomes: polyribosomes are needed for translation Plasmids: a smaller genome than DNA referred to as extrachromosomal genetic elements they also serve as a conjugation has NO mRNA processing has an electron transport chain Bacteria cannot remove introns has regulation of transcription and simultaneously does transcription and translation

Osteoblasts, which form bone, and osteoclasts, which resorb it, work together to cause continuous bone remodeling. In a person suffering from osteoporosis, which of the following combinations of changes in the activity of these cell types will most likely occur? A. Increased osteoblast and decreased osteoclast activity B. Increased osteoblast and increased osteoclast activity C. Decreased osteoblast and decreased osteoclast activity D. Decreased osteoblast and increased osteoclast activity

Decreased osteoblast (build bone) activity and increased osteoclast (break bones) activity result in bone loss, answer choice D.

isoforms are produced by

Different protein isoforms are synthesized from the same gene through alternative splicing, during which sections of the full transcript ( both introns and exons) are spliced.

DNA repair systems

Direct reversal: enzymes can repair UV induced pyrimidine called photo reactivation Mismatch repair: occurs After or during replication recognizing and repairing erroneous insertion, deletion, and mis-incorporation of bases that can arise during DNA replication Nucleotide Excusion: Not part of the replication usually occur after repair pathways exist to repair single stranded DNA damage from radiation,chemical or biological agents Homologous recombination: sister chromatid replaces the whole chromatid Nonhomologous Recombination: parts of missing DNA is fixed or recombined but the DNA is not completely fixed

Pedigree: X-linked Dominant

Dominant gene carried on X chromosome Male & Females equally likely to have trait ** NEED ONLY 1 COPY to EXPRESS phenotype ** * Generally does not skip generations * Dad pass trait onto ALL DAUGHTERS, Mom pass trait to 50% boys&girls

Mesylates and tosylates as protecting groups

Don't react with many other reagents that would attack alcohols

X inactivation

During development, females inactivate half of their X gene alleles in order to prevent producing double the amount of the protein. this may cause carriers for recessive X linked disorder to show mild symptoms

epiphysis and diaphysis

Epiphysis - ends of a bone Diaphysis - shaft of a bone

Researchers design a study to explore how healthcare providers establish rapport, show empathy, and navigate disagreements with their patients. Based on this description, the researchers are most likely taking a theoretical approach that is consistent with which sociological paradigm? A. Functionalism B. Exchange-rational choice C. Conflict theory D. Symbolic interactionism

Exchange-rational choice theory is a social application of rational choice theory, which is where an individual considers the pros and cons of behaving a certain way in a social context. At a fundamental level, symbolic interactionism is a sociological perspective that focuses on the micro-sociology of social interactions that comprise social relationships. The stem states, "...[HCP] establish rapport, show empathy, and navigate disagreements wit their patients." the stem is focused on the study of HOW HCP interact with patients, not necessarily what the repercussions and/or justifications of their behavior are. Answer is D

In a species of beetle, red body color is dominant to brown. Two red beetles are crossed and produce 31 red and 9 brown offspring (F1 generation). If two red F1 beetles are crossed, what is the probability that both red and brown beetles will appear in the F2 generation? (Note: Assume Mendelian inheritance patterns.) 4/9 1/2 2/3 3/4

Figure out the genotype of the parents. - The F1 generation is 31:9 so 3:1 simplified. -The parents have to be heterozygous then. (Rr x Rr) no other combination can get you this 3:1 ratio. Ok so do the Punnett square for the F1 generation to find which beetles turned out to be red. Out of the 4 blocks in the Punnett square, 3 F1s are red. Rr, Rr, and RR. We have 2/3 of the red heterozygous. 1/3 is dominant. Ignore recessive because they are asking to abut RED beetles. - For F1 to have F2 babies that are both red and brown (both dominant and recessive), we need to have them the same as their parents were. Rr x Rr (2/3 heterozygous parents)x 2/3 again = 4/9 each time we select a red beetle 2/3 of them are heterozygous so just do 2/3 x 2/3 = 4/9

Fussion vs Fission

Fission is the splitting of a heavy, unstable nucleus into two lighter nuclei, and fusion is the process where two light nuclei combine together releasing vast amounts of energy.

Formal Social Norms Informal Social Norms

Formal Social Norms: Legal norms and violation of these sets the criminal justice system in motion Informal Social Norms: norms that don't have a justice system in motion. (Folkway(if broken no serious consequences), Mores(if broken there will be disapproval), Taboo( extreme disgust))

Galvanic vs Electrolytic Cells

Galvanic generates electricity while Electrolytic is usually used to recharge batteries

causes mutations in DNA

Physical mutagens(caused by radiation) Reactive chemicals( caused by mutagens) Biological agents (DNA polymerase, viruses, transposons)

glycolysis, krebs cycle, electron transport chain total amount of energy produced

Glycolysis: -2 ATP,4 ATP, 2 NADH (1 NADH during Glycolysis is 1.5 ATP (2*1.5=3)=5 Total ATP (Occur in the cytoplasm) Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Complex: 2 NADH (2.5 ATP = 1 NADH after Glycolysis)= 5 ATP ( mitochondira)(creates CO2) Krebs Cycle: 6 NADH (2.5 ATP=1 NADH(6*2.5=15 ATP), 2 FADH2 (1 FADH2=1.5 ATP(1.5*2=3 ATP), 2 GTP(1 GTP =1 ATP)= 20 ATP Total (mitochodira matrix) Electron Transport Chain (mitochondira inner membrane) Final Total 30 ATP Eukaryotas and 32 ATP Prokaryotes

Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria

Gram negative: Bacteria that have a thin peptidoglycan cell wall covered by an outer plasma membrane. They stain very lightly (pink) in Gram stain. Gram-negative bacteria are typically more resistant to antibiotics than Gram-positive bacteria because of there lipopolysaccharide Endotoxins are common components of the outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria. Gram-positive have a single thick peptidoglycan layer Gram-positive bacteria secrete exotoxins, and their cell wall can cause an immune response since it contains structures unique to bacteria

What is GTP?

Guanosine Triphosphate is similar to ATP and is used by some plant cells. can be used to make n ATP or to directly power work in the cell

A-band, H-band, I-Band, Z-line (disk),

H band and I band are both experience a change in length during sliding filament cycle while the A band and the Z line can change in length

An alternative method for examining the effects of fatty acids on blood flow would be to measure changes in blood pressure. If blood pressure were measured, one would predict that it would be lowest in which of the following? A.Heart B.Arteries C.Arterioles D.Capillaries

Heart→Arteries→Arterioles→Capillaries→Veins. The farther the blood is from the heart the lower the pressure

pitch

High pitch=High Frequency Low Pitch=Low Frequency

Which amino acid is found in greatest abundance in the active site of a laccase? Laccase has an R group of amino ring A.Phe B.Tyr C.His D.Cys

Histidine is the only amino group with amino ring R group

The posttranslational modification of some of the eukaryotic cell's most abundant proteins is thought to affect the ability of those proteins to condense DNA into 30‑nm fibers. Given this, these proteins are most likely:

Histones

How skin regulates body temperature

Hot: Sweating, and vasodilation Cold: Shivering, vasoconstriction,brown adipose fat

HCl function in stomach

Hydrochloric acid is made by parietal cells in the stomach, causes zymogen conversion( pepsinogen into active enzyme pepsin), facilitates non-specific acid hydrolysis of proteins aiding in their elmentary digestion

Cortisol has a direct inhibitory effect on: A) the posterior pituitary. B) the hypothalamus. C) the adrenal cortex. D) glycogen mobilization.

Hypothalamus

An inactive tetramer of IN is expected to have approximately what molecular weight? IN is a 288-residue protein A. 16 kDa B. 32 kDa C. 64 kDa D. 128 kDa

IN is a 288-residue protein so it weights about 288 * 110 Da(the average molecular weight of an amino acid is 110 Da) = 31680 Da. They want the weight of a tetramer of IN, which is composed of 4 IN units. 31680 Da * 4 = 126,720 Da which is about 128 kDa.

What are the oxidizing and reducing agents, respectively, in the reaction below? 2HCl + H2O2 + MnO2 → O2 + MnCl2 + 2H2O A. H2O2; HCl B. H2O2; MnO2 C. MnO2; HCl D. MnO2; H2O2

In the reaction pictured, Mn is reduced from +4 to +2; therefore, MnO2 is the oxidizing agent. O is oxidized from -1 in H2O2 to 0 in O2; therefore, H2O2 is the reducing agent. Thus, D is the best answer.

Inflation of the lungs in mammals is accomplished by: A. diffusion of gases. B. active transport of gases. C. positive pressure pumping action. D. negative pressure pumping action.

Inflation of lungs in mammals is accomplished by negative pressure pumping action. Because the lung stays in contact with the thoracic wall as it enlarges due to contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles, a pressure that is lower than atmospheric pressure (negative pressure) is generated within the alveolar sacs. Although diffusion of gases is important in the movement of oxygen into the blood from the alveoli and the movement of carbon dioxide out of the blood into the alveoli, it does not explain the inflation of the lung alveoli at inspiration. Active transport describes a situation in which the net movement of a substance occurs against the energy gradient. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

Observation

Information obtained through the senses. like naturalistic observation difficult to explain

The diagram shows the size and position of the exons (numbered) and introns (lines) of a gene that codes for hypothetical Protein X, which can exist as two isoforms (either 16 or 17 amino acid residues long). Which technique can be used to determine if a sample of cells expresses both isoforms? A. Synthesize cDNA from Protein X mRNA using primers overlapping exons 1 and 4, followed by gel electrophoresis and band visualization. B.Separate Protein X mRNA by gel electrophoresis and visualize band pattern using a DNA probe complementary to exon 3. C. Perform a PCR of Protein X genomic DNA using primers overlapping exons 1 and 3, followed by gel electrophoresis and band visualization. D. Perform a restriction digest of Protein X genomic DNA using an endonuclease that cuts in the middle of exon 2, followed by gel electrophoresis and band visualization.

Isoforms are just different versions of a protein that differ based on which exons are kept and which are removed during post-transcriptional processing. So protein X has two isoforms, and one isoform has one less amino acid than the other, which means that the final mRNA's of the two proteins should differ by 3 base pairs (since 3 base pairs = 1 amino acid). So they give you 4 exon sequences and you have select the correct combination that makes a difference of only 3 base pairs. The right combination would be exons 1,2,4 for one mRNA and exons 1,3,4 for the other mRNA. Since both mRNA have exons 1 and 4 at the ends of the mRNA, you would use primers for exons 1 and 4 to make DNA copies using PCR. The 2 different DNA copies will differ by 3 base pairs, because the mRNA's differed by 3 base pairs, and this difference will cause the two DNA sequences to migrate differently during gel electrophoresis, which will show you whether or not a cell is making both isoforms of protein X or not. Answer is A

The term "ideal gas" refers to a gas for which certain assumptions have been made. Which one of the following assumptions applies to an ideal gas? A. The law PV = nRT2 is strictly obeyed. B. Intermolecular forces are infinitely large. C. Individual molecular volume and intermolecular forces are negligible. D. One mole occupies a volume of 22.4 L at 25°C and 1 atm pressure.

It is assumed that the molecules in an ideal gas have no volume and that there are no interactions between the molecules. Thus, C is the best answer.

declarative memory

It refers to memories which can be consciously recalled such as facts and events.

When viewing an X-ray of the bones of a leg, a doctor can tell if the patient is a growing child, because of the X-ray shows: A. cartilaginous areas in the long bones. B. bone cells that are actively dividing. C. the presence of Haversian cells. D. shorter-than-average bones.

Long bones grow via endochondral ossification, which requires cartilaginous growth plates at the ends of long bones, that thicken as cartilage and later become ossified (A). Dividing bone cells (B) and haversion canals (C) can be present in fully ossified adult bones. Some adults who are short in stature may have fully ossified long bones that are shorter than those of a developing child (D). Thus, A is the best answer.

Hypoxia

Low oxygen saturation of the body, not enough oxygen in the blood may occur in high altitude

Killer T cells (cytotoxic T cells)/ CD8 cells

Lymphocytes that use enzymes to destroy the cell membranes of bacteria and other foreign invaders.

Lysine and amino acids with similar chemical characteristics in histones most likely promote the interaction of histones with which DNA components? A. Purines B. Pyrimidines C. Deoxyribose D. Phosphate groups

Lysine is basic amino acid with a positive charge therefor the only thing it can interact with is acid and the phosphate group is basic.

The side chain of which amino acid can form a bond that is similar to a peptide bond? A.Gly B.Phe C.Lys D.Ala

Lysine makes peptide bonds because of its nitrogen group and the rest has no nitrogen group

polypeptide hormones

Made of protein. Bind to a receptor on the surface of the cell to trigger a secondary messenger to start the cell response -hydrophilic hormones -large -stored in vesicles -free transport -bind to receptors that generate second messenger which result in modification of enzyme activity -Rapid and short-lived

Mead's Theory Me and I

Me: socialized, conforming aspect of self I: spontaneous, less socialized aspect of self

Bidet's idea of mental age

Mental age, intelligence test score, expressed as the chronological age for which a given level of performance is average or typical. An individual's mental age is then divided by his chronological age and multiplied by 100, yielding an intelligence quotient (IQ). Thus, a subject whose mental and chronological ages are identical has an IQ of 100, or average intelligence. However, if a 10-year-old has a mental age of 13, his IQ is 130, well above average. Since the average mental age of adults does not increase past age 18, an adult taking an IQ test is assigned the chronological age of 18. Mental age was first defined by the French psychologist Alfred Binet, who introduced the intelligence test in 1905. Because the variation in scores for different age groups taking graded tests increases roughly in proportion to the increase in age, mental ages cannot be used accurately to compare the basic ability of children of different chronological ages.

From which germ layer(s) do the tissues of the heart and blood vessels differentiate? I. Ectoderm II. Mesoderm III. Endoderm A. II only B. III only C. I and II only D. I and III only

Mesoderm

Microtubules

Microtubules, which are made up of the proteins alpha and beta tubulin, participates in cellular division, intracellular transport and movement. These small fibers are an integral part of centrioles, cilia, and flagella. 9(pairs)+2(single) structure( only eukaryotes has this structure prokaryotes might different)

Ksp and Molar Solubility

Molar solubility is how many mole are needed to hit equilibrium

What is the approximate molarity of the solution prepared by the instructor? A. 0.1 M B. 0.2 M C. 0.4 M D. 4.0 M

Molarity is the number of moles of solute per liter of solution. The passage gives the mass (8 g) and molar mass (40.00) for NaOH and also gives the volume (2 L) of solution. The instructor dissolved (8 g)/(40 g/mol) = 0.2 mol NaOH in 2 L of H2O, or 0.1 mol in 1 L of H2O. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

Which of the following is the most likely reason that plants CANNOT utilize nitrogen from the atmosphere? A. N2 is present in very low concentrations in the atmosphere. B. N2 is too polar. C. N2 is very unreactive because it is a noble gas. D. N2 is very unreactive because of the great strength of the N≡N triple bond

Molecular nitrogen is normally a very unreactive molecule, because of the very strong triple bond holding the nitrogen atoms together, as stated in answer choice D. Since plants require nitrogen in a reduced form, this would be the main reason for their inability to utilize nitrogen directly from the air. The other responses are readily eliminated. Nitrogen is the most abundant element in the air, so A is incorrect. Because the two nitrogen atoms in N2 are identical, and have the same electronegativity, the molecule is not polar at all, and B is incorrect. Finally, N2 is not classified with the noble gases, which are in group 8 of the periodic table. Thus, answer C is incorrect as well. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

Urbanization

Movement of people from rural areas to cities

recognition

Multiple-choice questions provide a variety of potential answers; someone answering such a question is attempting to recognize the correct answer from the options provided, so multiple-choice questions test recognition

Multipotent vs pluripotent vs totipotent

Multipotent stem cells can become several different types of cells from a single primary germ layer, while pluripotent stem cells can become any of the three primary germ layers. Pluripotent stem cells are the embryonic stem cells that form the embryo itself (the three primary germ layers). Totipotent stem cells precede this and form both the embryo and the placenta

How to determine where the reaction is moving using Q (reaction quotient)

Q<Keq (too many reactants) reaction is moving forward → Q will increase to establish equilibrium Q=K reaction is at equilibrium Q>Keq (too many products) reaction is moving reverse ← Q will decrease to establish equilibrium

99 rule

PH=4=1/1000 molarity=99.9% acid PH=3=1/100 molarity=99% acid PH=2=1/10 molarity=90% acid PH=1=1/1 molarity=9% acid

How many bands would be observable if GK was subjected to native PAGE and SDS-PAGE analysis? (Note: Assume GK maintains a single state in solution.) Nowing GK is homodimer A. Two bands in both the native PAGE and the SDS-PAGE B. One band in the native PAGE and 2 bands in the SDS-PAGE C. Two bands in the native PAGE and 1 band in the SDS-PAGE D. One band in both the native PAGE and the SDS-PAGE

Page test based on mass SDS-Page breaks compound and then test mass So since its homodimer(2 compounds same mass) SDS-page will have one band Native Page will have one band they will both have different bands but each will only have one band D

Cells of the small intestine

Pantha(secretory cells, and secrete anti-bacterial proteins such as lysozyme, cryptdins, or defensins. These function to provide host defense against microorganisms in the gut.), enterocytes: are the major cell component of the intestinal epithelial layer and are simple columnar absorptive cells. They have a microvilli brush border on their apical surface and function in absorption and secretion., goblet cells(found in lungs too): Goblet cells secrete mucus via numerous secretory granules stored at their apical surface. There are several subtypes of enteroendocrine cells, but they are all endocrine cells and secrete gut hormones, including a variety of signaling peptides and catecholamines. The stem cells in the crypts are constantly regenerating the mature cell types of the intestine; no further cell division occurs in epithelial cells of the villi and eventually, the cells are sloughed off the villus tip. enteroendocrine cells: found in the wall of the gut that secrete hormones that regulate numerous processes in the body, including controlling glucose levels, food intake, and stomach emptying.

Nucleophilic addition reactions

Polarization of the C=O bond allows for partial positive charge on carbon making it an electrophile susceptible to nucleophilic attack When the nucleophile attacks, covalent bond forms with carbon This (breaks the pi bond)!! and electrons are pushed into the oxygen atom The oxygen accepts these electrons. If a carbonyl cannot reform O- will accept a proton from the solvent to form - OH group making alcohol If good leaving group is present, that carbonyl double bond can form pushing of the leaving group, note: one of the most important mechanisms on the MCAT

Through which mechanism does the Na+/K+ ATPase move ions across the plasma membrane

Primary active transport, since it is powered by ATP hydrolysis

Which independent variable is most relevant for a study that investigates the possible impact of primary groups on the outcome measure discussed in the passage? A. Family structure B. Religious affiliation C. Occupational status D. Population density

Primary groups include the family. Thus, a variable measuring family structure would be most relevant to assessing the impact of primary groups.

At birth, females possess the total number of their potential ova. In oogenesis, meiotic division is arrested for a long period at which stage?

Primary oocytes are arrested in meiotic prophase I in the ovaries from birth until they are stimulated to ovulate sometime during sexual maturity.

Which of the following is a correct pairing between the level of protein structure and its definition? A. Primary - amino acids are strung together via the ionic peptide bond. B. Secondary - hydrogen bonding stabilizes structures such as α-helices and β-sheets. C. Tertiary - hydrophobic regions of peptide chains localize to the external protein shell to decrease steric interactions. D. Quaternary - different peptides associate via a nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction mechanism.

Primary protein structure involves amino acids strung together via the covalent peptide bond (choice A is incorrect). Option B is a correct statement. While tertiary protein structure involves hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions, choice C is backwards: hydrophobic regions are found on the protein interior, away from water (choice C is incorrect). Quaternary protein structure involves the interactions of R-groups from different polypeptides, either through non-covalent interactions or through disulfide bridges (choice D is incorrect). The nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction mechanism is used to generate the peptide bond.

cap-independent translation

Process by which eukaryotes can start translation in the middle of an mRNA molecule despite being monocistronic -- relies on presence of internal ribosome entry site -- typically for production of essential proteins in sub-optimal conditions

Which of the following correctly pairs a cellular process with the location in which that process occurs in a prokaryotic cell? A. Transcription, cytoplasm B. ATP synthesis, mitochondria C. Degradation of macromolecules, lysosomes D. Modification of carbohydrates on transmembrane proteins, Golgi complex

Prokaryotic cells do not contain nuclei, membrane-bound organelles in which nuclear genes are transcribed in eukaryotic cells. Consequently, transcription occurs in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells. Thus, A is the best answer.

Which type of interaction does NOT contribute to the stabilization of the tertiary structure of a protein? A. Disulfide bond B. Phosphodiester bond C. Hydrogen bond D. Salt bridge

Proteins may have disulfide bonds,hydrogen bonds and salt bridges but phosphodiesterase bonds are only for DNA and DNA is not a protein

proto-oncogenes

Proto-oncogenes often encode gene products, like growth factors, that are necessary for the cell when expressed at normal levels. Proto-oncogenes are often "normal" versions of a gene that encode a needed cellular product. Gene mutation or exposure to a mutagen can convert them to their oncogenic/cancerous state

he psychiatric term for a person's "loss of contact with reality" is: A. splitting. B. psychosis. C. defense mechanism. D. paranoia.

Psychosis is properly defined as a "loss of contact with reality" (choice B is correct). Splitting is a term used to describe "all or nothing" thinking, in which a person vacillates between thinking of the positive and negative aspects of situations or people, but cannot bring them into a nuanced whole. Psychiatrists consider this a defense mechanism, and it is a trait associated with borderline personality disorder (choice A is wrong). A defense mechanism is an unconscious coping strategy that a person uses to deal with a stressful situation (choice C is wrong). Paranoia is a condition characterized by anxiety, suspicions of conspiracy, perceived threats, and distrust of others (choice D is wrong).

Urethra

tube leading from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body. responsible for ejaculation

The time dependence of the potassium current through a cell membrane channel subject to a constant 80-mV depolarization voltage is shown. What is the minimum electrical resistance of the ion channel during the time interval shown? 120 kΩ 160 kΩ 200 MΩ 240 MΩ

R=V/I minimum Resitance is at maximum current. R=(80mV/400-10^-12A)=

RISC

RNA induced silencing complex used for Gene regulation by cutting DNA or silencing it using siRNA is made of siRNA and other proteins including Argonaute

RNA polymerase

RNA polymerase I transcribed rRNA RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA RNA ppolymerase III trascribed tRNA

RNA splicing

RNA splicing, specific parts of the pre-mRNA, called introns( repetitive sequences used to identify the DNA) are recognized and removed by a protein-and-RNA complex called the spliceosome. The pieces of the RNA that are not chopped out are called exons. The exons are pasted together by the spliceosome to make the final, mature mRNA that is shipped out of the nucleus. in nucleus

RNA dependent RNA polymerase RNA dependent DNA polymerase DNA dependent DNA polymerase DNA dependent RNA polymerase

RNA to RNA copy RNA to DNA copy DNA to DNA copy DNA to RNA copy

Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction

RT-PCR uses reverse transcriptase with an initial mRNA sample to generate cDNA, then specific nucleotide primers to amplify specific sequences within that cDNA. useful for copying RNA

What is the rate law?

Rate Law for unimolecular are always 1st order The rate law for bimolecular is always 2nd order Solids, pure liquids, and Solvents are not part of the equilibrium constant just like in rate law

heart diagram

SA node →superior vena cava →right atrium→ right ventricle → pulmonary artery (prevent backflow of blood into the right ventricle using the pulmonary valve)(carries the most CO2) →pulmonary veins→left atrium→ left ventricle→aorta tricuspid AV valve to bicuspid AV valve The rapid increase in pressure during isovolumetric contraction of the ventricles is eventually responsible by the pulmonary semilunar (valve to heart) sortic semilunar (valve is to lungs)

Which alcohol will most likely undergo substitution by an SN1 mechanism in acidic conditions? A.Primary B.Secondary C.Primary D. Tertiary

SN1 is not affect be steric hinderance there fore tertiary would be the best conditon

symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following except? A. Disorientation B.Forgetfulness C. Mood Swings D. Slow fine movements

Slow Fine Movements is not a symptom.

Salt acid/base

Salt could be acidic or basic depending on cation and anion of the salt Cation and anion must be a weak base so that the conjugate will be strong acid. Cation: group 1 and group 2 will make a weak acid Cation:NH4, Be,Cu, Zn, Al, Cr, Fe will make a strong acid Anion: conjugate of a strong acid will make a weak base. Cl-,Br-, NO3, all weak so usually neutral The acidity of an element increases as one moves to the right or down the periodic table. The conjugate base (or acid) of a strong acid (or base) forms pH neutral solutions. The conjugate base (or acid) of a weak acid (or base) is a weak base (or acid) Example K(group 1 weak acid)-Cl(conjugate of HCl(strong acid) make weak base)= Neutral Salt NH4 (weak base=strong conjugate acid)- Cl (conjugate of HCl make weak base)= Acidic Salt Ba (Group 1 strong acid=weak conjugate base)- (CH3COO)2( weak acid make strong conjugate base)= Basic Salt NaNO3=Na( Group 1 is not acidic so a weak acid) NO3(conjugate of a strong acid= weak base)= Neutral salt FeCl3=Fe(transition metal so strong acid)(Cl the conjugate of a strong acid is weak base )= Acid Salt

schizotypal vs schizoid personality disorder

Schizotypal: severe social anxiety Schizoid: lack of interest in social relationships

In helping to explain the results of the study, which other concept would be most similar to a homophilous social network? A.Reference group B.Secondary group C.Out-group D. Social group

Secoundary group: is a impersonal group Out-group: a group that is not connected Social group: is a general group of interaction Reference group: any group that individuals use as a standard for evaluating themselves Therefore A is the correct answer

Among the following routes, the one most likely taken in the formation of Protein X and its incorporation in a lysosome by a normal (non-Hurler's) cell is: A. synthesis in Golgi apparatus, passage to endoplasmic reticulum, secretion to extracellular space, uptake by same or different cells, and incorporation into lysosome. B. synthesis in endoplasmic reticulum, passage to Golgi apparatus, secretion to extracellular space, uptake by same or different cells, and incorporation into lysosome. C. synthesis in Golgi apparatus, passage to endoplasmic reticulum, and budding off endoplasmic reticulum to produce lysosome containing Protein X. D. synthesis in endoplasmic reticulum and direct passage to lysosome containing Protein X.

Secreted, membrane-bound, and organelle proteins are synthesized by ribosomes on the rough ER (choices A and C are wrong). From the rough ER they are directed to the Golgi for processing and packaging before traveling to the cell surface or to another organelle (choice B is correct, and choice D is wrong).

cardiac vs skeletal muscle

Similar 1. Both have thick and thin filaments 2. Both have T-Tubules 3. Both regulate contraction with calcium 4. both have similar length -tension relationship 5.both undergo depolarization via fast voltage-gated sodium channels 6. Repolarization via voltage-gated potassium channel Different 1. Cardiac muscle are not structurally synction/multi nucleate syncytia 2. Cardiac cells are connected by intercalated disk which are type of gap junction to allow communication through each cell. allowing it to be corporate in a functional syncytium 3.cardiac calcium comes from environment while skeletal muscle produces their own calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum 4.cardiac muscles does not depend on neuron for action potential opens both sodium/calcium channels called slow channels responding more slowly to threshold depolarization causing plateau

What is the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in a solution that is prepared by mixing 10 mL of a 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution with 10 mL of a 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution? A. 0.010 mole/L B. 0.015 mole/L C. 0.020 mole/L D. 0.030 mole/L

Since 1 equivalent of NaHCO3 provides 1 equivalent of Na+, the molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M NaHCO3(aq) solution is also 0.010 M = 0.010 mole/L. The molar concentration of Na+(aq) in 0.010 M Na2CO3(aq) solution is 0.020 mol/L since 1 equivalent of Na2CO3 provides 2 equivalents of Na+. When equal volumes of these two solutions are mixed, the resulting molar concentration is equal to their average, (0.010 mol/L + 0.020 mol/L)/2. Thus, B is the correct answer.

If the dose of Streptococcus Strain A required to cause infection is 1 x 105 bacteria and that of Streptococcus Strain B is 5 x 104 bacteria, which of the following statements describes the relative potencies of these strains? A. Strain A is five times as potent as Strain B. B. Strain A is one-fifth as potent as Strain B. C. Strain A is twice as potent as Strain B. D. Strain A is half as potent as Strain B.

Since it takes fewer strain B bacteria to cause an infection than strain A (50,000 versus 100,000, respectively), then strain B is more potent. How much more potent is it? Since 100,000 is twice 50, strain B is twice as potent. Therefore, the correct answer is option D, which states that the strain A is half as potent as strain B since it takes more bacteria to cause an infection that would mean its less potent compared to a strain that takes fewer bacteria to cause an infection

Based on the following data: Li+(aq) + e- Li(s) E° = -2.71 V Na+(aq) + e- Na(s) E° = -3.05 V which one of the following must be true? A.Sodium metal is more easily oxidized than lithium metal. B. Lithium metal is more easily oxidized than sodium metal. C. Lithium metal is more easily reduced than sodium metal. D. Both lithium and sodium ions are spontaneously reduced by H2.

Since the reduction potentials for Li+(aq) and Na+(aq) are both negative, neither process is spontaneous, so "both sodium and lithium are spontaneously reduced" is wrong. Flipping each of the reactions listed in the table reveals that Na(s) is more easily oxidized than Li(s), since 3.05 V > 2.71 V. A correct answer

Translational Equilibrium Static equilibrium rotational equilibrium

State where the sum of the forces acting on an object is zero, giving it no net acceleration. State where the sum of the forces acting on an object is zero, giving it no movement defined as the state of a system for which the total angular acceleration is zero becuase of the forces acting on the object equal zero

E/Z configuration

Substituents on opposite ends are E, same side are Z. Determined by priority.

Surfactant for newborn

Surfactant is not produced until about eight months of gestation, so in a premature infant (an infant born prior to the eighth month of gestation) there is an insufficient amount of surfactant for the child to breathe easily upon birth. A lack of surfactant would lead to an increase in surface tension.

What stereochemical designation can be assigned to naturally occurring aspartic acid? A. S B. Z C. D D. E

Switch the horizontal line becuase the highest priority is on it causing it to be counterclockwise instead of clockwise. NH2 > CO2H > R.

Helper T cells/ CD4 cells

T cells that help the immune system by increasing the activity of killer cells and stimulating the suppressor T cells make sure the the foreign object is foreign

When used in place of spHM, which peptide would be most likely to achieve the same experimental results? orginal was FLGFTY. A.FLGFAY B.FLGFQY C.FLGFGY D.FLGFEY

T= Theronine but phosphyorlated so it needs to be replaced with a negative charge which is why E Glutamic Acid would be the answer

Which statement correctly describes both PO43- and TNBS? A. Both TNBS and PO43- are hydrophobic. B. TNBS is hydrophobic and PO43- is hydrophilic. C. PO43- is hydrophobic and TNBS is hydrophilic. D. Both TNBS and PO43- are hydrophilic.

TNBS and PO43- both have charge making them polar and hydrophilic only non-polar are hydrophobic

ionization energy

The amount of energy required to remove an electron from an atom

A combination of KM and kcat with which relative values is indicative of the lowest catalytic efficiency for an enzymatically catalyzed reaction? A.A high KM and a low kcat B.A high KM and a high kcat C.A low KM and a high kcat D.A low KM and a low kcat

The answer is A because catalytic efficiency is measured by kcat/KM, which means that a higher KM and a lower kcat gives the lowest efficiency.

When experiments are performed on enzymes that display traditional Michaelis-Menten kinetics, what shape does the graph of V0 versus substrate concentration [S] have? A.A hyperbolic dependence on [S] B.A linear dependence on [S] C.A sigmoidal dependence on [S] D.A parabolic dependence on [S]

The answer is A because traditional Michaelis-Menten kinetics describes a hyperbolic dependence of V0 on substrate concentration.

When choosing a buffer to use for an experiment conducted at pH 5.3, it would be best to choose one with a pKa of: A.2.14. B.4.75. C.6.5. D.7.0.

The answer is B because good experimental design protocols state that a good buffer has a pKa within 1 pH unit of the desired experimental conditions.

Which experimental results confirm that Compound 1 is an uncompetitive inhibitor of a particular enzyme? In the presence of Compound 1: A. the KM increases and Vmax decreases. B. the KM decreases and Vmax increases. C. both the KM and Vmax decrease. D. both the KM and Vmax increase.

The answer is C because the presence of an uncompetitive inhibitor results in a lower apparent KM and Vmax of the enzymatically catalyzed reaction.

The stabilization of pantothenate in PanK3 is most likely due to an active site: A.arginine. B.asparagine. C.aspartate. D.glutamine.

The answer is C because, of the choices listed as response options, only aspartate has the necessary carboxylate side chain.

Dnmt3a was purified using which type of column chromatography? nickel-nitrilotriacetic acid-agarose chromatography. A.Affinity B.Anion-exchange C.Cation-exchange D.Size-exclusion

The answer to the question is A because a nickel column is a form of affinity chromatography

What fraction of the starting amount of tritium remains after 13,500 days? Knowing it has a half-life of 4500 days A. 1/8 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 3/4

The answer to the question is A because after 13,500 days, the equivalent of three tritium half-lives have passed, which means that (1/2)^3, or 1/8th,

Which concept takes into account the negative impact of long-term exposure to stressful events addressed in the first paragraph? A.General adaptation syndrome B.Fight-or-flight response C.Activation-synthesis model D.Long-term potentiation

The answer to this question is A because the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is a model of the body's stress response that consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. An individual enters the stage of exhaustion only after that individual has encountered the stressor for a prolonged period of time.

The finding from Study 3 regarding the differential effect of emotional arousal on memory for central and peripheral details is best explained by which mechanism? Increasing emotional arousal: A.causes a restriction of the focus of attention. B.improves memory, but only up to an optimal level of arousal. C.impairs the encoding of peripheral details. D.enhances the retrieval of encoded central details.

The answer to this question is A because emotional arousal seems to focus a person's attention on the central features of an event. The hypothesis (Easterbrook, 1959) that a person will notice information that elicits arousal, but fail to process other information, has been supported by studies in which memory for an (emotional) event's "central" aspects (directly tied to the emotion elicitor) is compared to memory for "peripheral" aspects (removed from the source of the emotional arousal). Thus, memory for the fundamental gist of the emotional event is retained, whereas memory for details (if they are encoded at all) either fades or undergoes changes.

Another researcher suggests that the study should also include measures of a teacher's academic standards as a component of the classroom learning environment. Which statement provides a possible reason for the researcher's suggestion that is based on the concept of self-fulfilling prophecy? A.If a teacher has low expectations, students are more likely to behave in a way that reinforces the teacher's low standards. B.If a teacher has high expectations, students are more likely to consider the teacher's high standards to be unfair. C.If a teacher has low expectations, students who overcome the teacher's low standards are more likely to succeed. D.If a teacher has high expectations, students are more likely to experience frustration from the teacher's high standards.

The answer to this question is A because in a self-fulfilling prophecy, an observer's expectations either directly or indirectly lead to the expected attributes or behavior. A teacher's low expectations and low standards can cause students to behave in ways that then confirm the teacher's low expectations (or standards).

Suppose that at the end of Reaction 1 the level of the aqueous solution was 26 cm higher inside the buret than outside. Compared to ambient pressure, the pressure of the gas inside the buret would be: 2HCl(aq) + Mg(s) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g) A.lower. B.the same. C.2 times greater. D.26 times greater.

The answer to this question is A because the level of the liquid inside is higher than outside which results from the fact that the air pressure outside is higher than the pressure inside. Pressure builds on the inside by raising the liquid level. When the sum of the inside air pressure plus liquid pressure equals the outside air pressure, the liquid level stops rising (attains equilibrium).

The principal quantum number is a measure of which of the following? A.Approximate radial size of an electron cloud B.Approximate shape of an electron cloud C.Number of valence electrons that orbit a nucleus D.Number of protons and neutrons found in the nucleus of an atom

The answer to this question is A because the principal quantum number n is most closely associated with the potential energy of the electron. Since potential energy is proportional to the square of the distance of two oppositely charged particles by Coulomb's Law, it is also true that n is associated with the radial "size" of the electron cloud.

The cutting of introns and the splicing associated with the expression of the Factor VIII gene occur during which of the following steps in the protein-synthesis process? A.DNA → mRNA B.DNA → tRNA C.mRNA → tRNA D.tRNA → protein

The answer to this question is A because the removal of introns and splicing of the remaining pieces (exons) is a step in the production of mature mRNA from the transcript produced from DNA (pre-mRNA).

In its lowest-energy electron configuration, zinc has a: A.filled 3d energy level and a filled 4s energy level. B.half-filled 3d energy level and a filled 4s energy level. C.filled 3d energy level and a half-filled 4s energy level. D.half-filled 3d energy level and a half-filled 4s energy level.

The answer to this question is A, based on subshell filling rules, the 12 valence electrons occupy 4s and 3d subshells, which are completely filled. Zn is element number 30 and in Group 12 of the Periodic Table.

Based on the relative energy of the absorbed electromagnetic radiation, which absorber, a peptide bond or an aromatic side chain, exhibits an electronic excited state that is closer in energy to the ground state? A.An aromatic side chain; the absorbed photon energy is higher. B.An aromatic side chain; the absorbed photon energy is lower. C.A peptide bond; the absorbed photon energy is higher. D.A peptide bond; the absorbed photon energy is lower.

The answer to this question is B because aromatic side chains absorb in the near UV region of the electromagnetic spectrum, which has longer wavelengths, and hence lower energy, than peptide bonds. Because the energy of the photon matches the energy gap between the ground and the excited state, this implies that the aromatic side chain has more closely spaced energy levels.

Introduction of which amino acid substitution would result in the largest decrease in the entropic penalty associated with a protein folding into its native conformation? A.Ile to Asp substitution at a buried site B.Leu to Thr substitution at a surface-exposed site C.Gly to Pro substitution in a flexible loop D.Arg to Tyr substitution at a surface-exposed site

The answer to this question is B because changing a surface-exposed hydrophobic residue for a more hydrophilic residue eliminates the entropic penalty associated with ordered water molecules around hydrophobic groups.

The phenomenon that occurs when people mistakenly read the letter "C" as the letter "O" illustrates which Gestalt principle of perceptual grouping? A.Similarity B.Closure C.Proximity D.Symmetry

The answer to this question is B because closure, which refers to one of the Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping, occurs when people perceive objects that are incomplete as complete.

A fatty acid is comprised of a long hydrocarbon tail and a head consisting of: A.a hydroxyl group. B.a carboxyl group. C.a phosphate group. D.an amino group.

The answer to this question is B because fatty acids contain a carboxylic acid head group and a hydrocarbon tail.

Which enzyme is used both in gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis? A. Phosphoglucomutase B. Glucose 6-phosphatase C. Hexokinase D. Glucokinase

The answer to this question is B because glucose 6-phosphatase catalyzes the final step of both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.

5′-TTCCCTACCCTCCCCACCCTAA-3′ The complement to the WT sequence does NOT contain which nucleoside? A.Deoxyadenosine B.Deoxycytidine C.Deoxyguanosine D.Deoxythymidine

The answer to this question is B because the WT sequence does not contain deoxyguanosine. The complementary sequence will therefore not include deoxycytidine.

In a study of college students, a correlation was found between those reporting high rates of insomnia and reduced hit rates for detecting the sounds of birds chirping. This represents what type of correlation, and what phenomenon was described? A.Positive, signal detection B.Negative, signal detection C.Positive, difference threshold D. Negative, difference threshold

The answer to this question is B because the relationship between rates of insomnia (high) and the hit rate (reduced) describes a negative correlation. In addition, according to signal detection theory the detection of a stimulus is not only dependent on its strength, but also on the psychological state (tired) of the individual.

Two male children with different biological parents are adopted in infancy and raised together. Which observation best supports the idea that heredity is an important determiner of intelligence? The two boys' IQs: A. are more similar to each other than to their own biological siblings. B. are less similar to each other than to their own biological siblings. C, are more similar to their adoptive parents than to their biological parents. D. are less similar to each other than to their adoptive siblings.

The answer to this question is B because the situation describes an outcome that disconfirms a strong environmental influence.

Which of the following is a negative symptom of Schizophrenia? A. Delusions B. Hallucinations C. Emotional flattening D. Disorganized speech

The answer to this question is C because negative symptoms are defined as the absence of appropriate behaviors and emotion.

The most likely result of various alanine to proline mutations in subunit A is: A.lack of retrograde trafficking. B.increased hydrogen bonding. C.loss of secondary structure. D.higher catalytic activity.

The answer to this question is C because proline disrupts α helices, and subunit A is primarily α-helical, which is a form of secondary structure.

A group of students takes the same test of visual perception at the same time on two consecutive days. The students' scores are very different each time. This suggests that the test is not: A.valid. B.standardized. C.reliable. D.generalizable.

The answer to this question is C because reliability is the degree to which an assessment tool produces stable and consistent results

Which of the following best describes the chemical energy that is derived from the Krebs cycle? Energy is produced in the forms of: A.ATP, which directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, and NAD+, which supplies energy for the electron transport chain. B.NAD+, which directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, and ATP, which supplies energy for the electron transport chain. C.ATP, which directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, and NADH, which supplies energy for the electron transport chain. D.NADH, which directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, and ATP, which supplies energy for the electron transport chain.

The answer to this question is C because the Krebs cycle produces both ATP and NADH but not NAD+. ATP directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, such as muscle contraction, and NADH, which is used in the electron transport chain.

Rate experiments were performed to determine the effect of an inhibitor on the kinetics of a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme. The results were plotted, as shown. Based on the data, which statement best describes the interaction between the inhibitor and the enzyme? The inhibitor: A. irreversibly binds the enzyme. B. can only bind the enzyme after the enzyme has already bound substrate. C. binds the enzyme and the enzyme-substrate complex with the same affinity. D. prevents the binding of the enzyme to its substrate by occupying the enzyme's active site.

The answer to this question is C because the data is presented as a Lineweaver-Burk plot, which indicates that the inhibitor is a noncompetitive inhibitor. A characteristic of noncompetitive inhibitors is that they bind the enzyme and the enzyme-substrate complex with the same affinity; Vmax is affected, but KM does not change.

When studying education as a social institution, the hidden curriculum constitutes: A.a manifest function of schools. B.an equalizing function of schools. C.a latent function of schools. D.a discriminatory function of schools.

The answer to this question is C because the hidden curriculum refers to the subtle lessons that are taught in school that reinforce broader social norms. The hidden curriculum can be combined with the concept of latent functions (aspects of a social institution that may serve an unacknowledged purpose), in order to better understand how education functions as an institution.

Pauli Principle

atomic orbitals can hold only 2 electrons at most and they must have opposite spins

Which of the following statements explains why the boiling point of HF is abnormally high when compared to the boiling points of other Group 7A hydrides? A.The H-F bond is much less polar than the bonds between H and the other halogens. B.HF has the lowest molecular mass of the Group 7A hydrides. C.HF is affected by hydrogen-bonding interactions to a much greater degree than the other Group 7A hydrides. D.HF has the highest vapor pressure among the Group 7A hydrides.

The answer to this question is C. Hydrogen bonding is a special type of intermolecular force that happens when H is bonded to highly electronegative elements such as N, O, and F. Since hydrogen bonding is a higher than anticipated dipole-dipole interaction, it causes substances that exhibit it to have higher than expected boiling points and lower vapor pressures.

Telomerase enzyme - function

attaches many copies of DNA repeat sequence to the ends of chromosomes

A study finds that individuals who follow a weekly exercise routine exhibit less immunity decline compared to those who do not. The exercise group only included participants who exercised regularly, whereas the comparison group only included those who did not exercise regularly. Which statement does NOT identify a limitation of this research design? A.The study lacks random assignment. B.The study has a possible sampling bias. C.The study lacks replicable results. D.The study has a possible confound

The answer to this question is C. The study lacks random assignment because the two groups were composed of individuals with established exercise habits. Because the participants were not equally likely to be in the two groups, there is a potential bias in the sample. In addition, exercise habits pose a potential confound because the group that already exercises regularly could differ from the comparison group in a number of ways. However, there is nothing about the hypothetical study that excludes the possibility of replicable results. Keeping in mind that the question asks for what is NOT a limitation, the incorrect options identify important methodological limitations of the study whereas the correct answer does not.

Which of the following experiences is NOT related to any of the principles of perceptual organization A. Seeing a portion of food served on a large plate as being smaller than the same portion of food served on a small plate B. Seeing birds flying in the same direction as being part of an integrated flock C. Seeing cars lined up in a parking lot as being in long rows, rather than in pairs facing each other with a gap between each pair D. Seeing a word with a missing letter and being able to identify the word, based on the sentence in which it is contained

The answer to this question is D because it is the only option that describes a perceptual experience that results from a form of top down processing (i.e., context effects), but is neither a perceptual illusion nor the result of one of the Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping.

Which experimental condition is NOT necessary to achieve reliable data for Michaelis-Menten enzyme kinetics? A.Initial velocity is measured under steady state conditions. B.Solution pH remains constant at all substrate concentrations. C.The concentration of enzyme is lower than that of substrate. D.The reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium before measurements are taken.

The answer to this question is D because once the reaction reaches equilibrium, measurement of Vo will be impossible and the kinetic data will look the same regardless of substrate concentration. Hence, response D is not necessary (nor desirable) to achieve reliable data for Michaelis−Menten enzyme kinetics. In contrast, Distractors A−C are essential to obtain reliable Vo versus substrate concentration data to calculate KM and Vmax using Michaelis−Menten enzyme kinetics.

Which primer is most suitable for PCR? A. 5-ATTACGTTAACATGAAG-3 B. 5-ATATCGTTAACAAATTG-3 C. 5-GCTATAAAGATTGCAAA-3 D. 5-GCATAGAAGCATTCCGC-3

The answer to this question is D because suitable primers have a high GC content and have G or C base pairs at the 5' and 3' ends.

pathway of eye

The correct pathway of light entering the anterior surface of the eye leading to stimulation of the The image focuses on the fovea centralis when you stare directly at something. optic nerve is cornea → anterior chamber→ lens→ retina.

Suppose that CH4(g) reacts completely with O2(g) to form CO2(g) and H2O(g) with a total pressure of 1.2 torr. What is the partial pressure of H2O(g)? A. 0.4 torr B. 0.6 torr C. 0.8 torr D. 1.2 torr

The balanced equation for the complete combustion of CH4(g) is shown below. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) The pressure of the gaseous products is 1.2 torr. For every three product molecules, two are water. Therefore, the partial pressure of water is 2/3 the total pressure, because the total pressure is a function of the total number but not kind of molecules. Two-thirds of 1.2 torr is 0.8 torr. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

allosteric regulation

The binding of a regulatory molecule to a protein at one site that affects the function of the protein at a different site.

Medullar Cavity

The central cavity of bone shafts where yellow marrow is stored.

Country A has a relatively weak economy, a weak political infrastructure, and competes poorly in the globalized economy. Country A is also dependent on Country B, which has a much stronger economy. According to world systems theory, Country A is a: A.core nation. B.semi-periphery nation. C.periphery nation. D.developed nation.

The correct answer is C because the stem describes Country A as a periphery nation in World Systems Theory, which characterizes global inequalities in terms of core nations (more economically developed with strong governments and institutions) and periphery nations (less economically developed with weak governments and institutions).

The concentration of the protein cyclin rises and falls during the cell cycle as shown Changes in the concentration of cyclin during phases of the cell cycle What mechanism could account for this oscillation of cyclin protein concentration? A. Replication of the cyclin gene during S phase of interphase B. Segregation of chromosomes carrying the cyclin genes during mitosis C. Translation of cyclin mRNA in interphase and proteolysis of cyclin protein in mitosis D. Translation of cyclin mRNA in mitosis and proteolysis of cyclin protein in interphase

The cycle is a translation of cyclin in the interphase because of the sudden increase in the protein and proteolysis(destruction of protein) in the mitosis because of the decreaser in the protein

Benedict's test for reducing sugars

The exposed aldehyde group reduces the Cu2+ in Benedict's solution to Cu+. Precipitate Cu2O Benedict's reagent is a chemical reagent and complex mixture of sodium carbonate, sodium citrate and copper(II) sulfate pentahydrate can only react to hemiacetal (Positive) not acetal (Negative) Test: 1. Add an equal amount of sample solution and Benedict's solution to the test tube. 2. Leave test tube in boiling water bath for 5 mins. 3. Observe color changes as a colored ppt form. Colour changes: BLUE > GREEN > YELLOW > ORANGE > BRICK RED 4. The higher the conc. of reducing sugar the further the color change goes - you can use this to compare the amount of reducing sugars in diff. solutions. A more accurate way of doing this is to filter the solution and weigh the ppt.

How could the researchers use the foot-in-the-door technique to increase the participants' likelihood of adopting a diet diary? A. Encourage the participants to sign a petition in support of diet diaries. B. Have the participants personally interact with the health buddy who adopted the diet diary. C. Tell the participants that the health buddy who adopts the diet diary is a trustworthy health expert. D. Tell the participants that by agreeing to be in the study, they have agreed to cooperate with the researchers.

The foot-in-the-door technique refers to convincing individuals to make a small commitment toward a cause, because this small commitment increases the likelihood of a larger commitment toward the same cause in the future. Option A is an example of this. If the participants make a small commitment toward diet diaries (signing a petition), according to the foot-in-the-door technique, they will be more likely to adopt a diet diary in the future.

heat of formation equation

The general formula for hydrogen halide formation is:(.5)H2+(.5)X-> HX. The reaction that forms the most stable and highest electronegative HX will be the most exothermic (exergononic) and have the most negative standard heat of formation.

In eukaryotes, oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondrion. The analogous structure used by bacteria to carry out oxidative phosphorylation is the: A. cell wall. B. ribosome. C. nuclear membrane. D. plasma membrane.

The inner membrane of a mitochondrion is analogous to the plasma membrane of a prokaryote. The enzymes for oxidative phosphorylation are embedded in the inner membrane. The endosymbiotic theory suggests that mitochondria are descendents of prokaryotes that were engulfed by endocytosis into a vesicle lined with a membrane derived from the cell membrane of the eukaryote host. This is the outer membrane. The inner membrane is the plasma membrane of the endosymbiotic prokaryote, so answer choice D is correct

Bacteriophage life cycle

attachment penetration lytic cycle (kill host) or lysogenic cycle (doesn't kill host)

Which amino acid was incorporated into Compound 1 as a future site of covalent attachment to HA prior to mineralization? A.Ser B.Ala C.Tyr D.Thr

The last amino group in compound one has it directly connected to an OH group So the only amino group with an R group of OH is Serine.

Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation

The law that says every object in the universe attracts every other object, and that the force is affected by mass and distance: the greater the mass of an object, the greater the attraction; the farther apart the objects, the weaker the attraction. Fgrav=G (M1M2/r^2) G=6.7*10^-11 w=mg g=GM/(r^2) (used to compare gravitational pull from earth)

A virgin female Drosophila mates and produces 34 daughters and 38 sons. Eighteen of these sons sire only daughters, while the remainder sire approximately equal numbers of daughters and sons. What are the genotypes of the original female and the male with whom she mated? Knowing Xi gene produces only females A. XiXs and XsY B. XiXs and XiY C. XiXi and XsY D. XsXs and XiY

The male parent must have been XsY or there would only have been daughters in the offspring of the first generation, so options B and D are incorrect. If the female had been XiXi then all its sons would have had only daughters, but twenty of the sons have both sons and daughters, so option C cannot be correct. The correct answer is option A,

non-specific defenses

attack any antigen not recognized as 'self' Cells: Neutrophils, macrophages, natural killer cells, eosinophils, basophils Chemicals: Mucus, lysozyme, stomach acid, complement sysetem Barriers: skin, mucus, hair, earwax

isoelectric point

The pH value at which the amino acid exists as a zwitterion Pi=(Pka1+PKa2)/2 PH<pI positive charge (A high isoelectric point implies that the molecule will have positive charge generally) PH>pI Negative Charge

The pancreas produces which of the following substances for the digestive system? A. Bile salts B. Emulsifier C. Gastric juices D. Proteolytic enzymes

The pancreas produces several proteolytic enzymes, which are released into the small intestine where they are converted to their active forms of trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase. Thus, D is the best answer.

inclined plane force equations

The parallel force applied to the object equation F=mgsinθ Perpendicular forces applied to the object F=mgcosθ

The passage's description of delivering culturally competent care advocates for: A. social support rather than social stigma. B. cultural relativism rather than ethnocentrism. C. symbolic culture rather than material culture. D. the front stage self rather than the backstage self.

The passage describes delivering culturally competent care as being aware of one's own cultural standards and biases while understanding that others may have different cultural standards and biases. This idea is best represented by the contrast in option B. Ethnocentrism involves relying too heavily on one's own cultural standards to judge those from another culture. Cultural relativism, on the other hand, raises awareness of the fact that cultures have different standards and biases.

To a first approximation, the ionization constant of H2S is: A. near zero. B. much less than 1. C. about 1. D. much more than 1.

The passage states that H2S is a weak acid. A weak acid is one that dissociates in water, but only to a very small extent. For example, the dissociation constant of the weak acid acetic acid is 1.8 x 10-5. This is much less than one, but is measurably non-zero. Answer choice B is the best choice

Phosphate store energy

because of the 2 negative charges at the end repeal each other its a spontaneous reaction with -delta G has more favorable interaction with water than with phosphate

Which of the bromomethanes is LEAST polar? A. CBr4 B. CHBr3 C. CH2Br2 D. CH3Br

The polarity of each of the bromomethanes is determined by the vector sum of all of the individual bond polarities within a given molecule of the compound. Carbon is sp3 hybridized and tetrahedral in all of the bromomethanes. Therefore, the vector sum of the bond polarities in CBr4 is zero, whereas the vector sum is greater than zero in the other compounds. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

What are the units for the rate constant Ku discussed in the passage? A. M-1•s-1 B. M•s C. M•s-1 D. s-1

The protein unfolds by a unimolecular mechanism. The rate of unfolding has units of M/s and is given by the expression Δ[unfolded protein length]/Δt = ku[folded protein length]. The units of ku are therefore s-1.

tight junctions

The purpose of tight junctions is to keep liquid from escaping between cells, allowing a layer of cells (for instance, those lining an organ) to act as an impermeable barrier but allow some molecules to exit the cell made of claudins

The antibiotic penicillin has the effect of inhibiting the production of the chemical peptidoglycan. Therefore, penicillin is likely to be most effective in treating infection by: A. viruses. B. bacteria. C. fungi. D. protozoa.

The question asks the examinee to determine which biological entity is most likely to be affected by treatment with penicillin. Since penicillin inhibits the production of peptidoglycan and peptidoglycan is a major component of the bacterial cell wall, one can conclude that penicillin will be an effective treatment for a bacterial (B) infection. Thus, B is the best answer.

In unimolecular nucleophilic substitution (SN1), a nucleophile attacks an electrophile. The rate law of the reaction is first order overall, and first order with respect to the electrophile. Which of the following, if true, would NOT support this statement? A. Diluting the reaction has no effect on the rate. B. Doubling the concentration of nucleophile has no effect on the rate. C. Increasing the concentration of electrophile increases the rate. D. The rate constant has units of reciprocal seconds.

The rate law for the reaction described should be rate = k [electrophile], so if the concentration of electrophile changes, the rate will change by the same factor (eliminate choice C). Since the nucleophile is not part of the rate law, changing its concentration will have no effect on the rate (eliminate choice B). By diluting the reaction, the concentration of electrophile is decreased, and a decrease of the rate is expected. If the reaction is diluted and there is no effect on the rate, that means electrophile concentration does not affect the rate, making the reaction zero order, not first order, with respect to the electrophile. This makes choice A the correct answer since it is inconsistent with what we expect. First order reactions have rate constants with units of reciprocal seconds (eliminate choice D).

Tautomerization

The rearrangement of bonds within a compound, usually by moving a hydrogen and forming a double bond Keto is more stable than Enol becuase of the double bond Oxygen

In the macronucleus, the genes for rRNA are located extrachromosomally. This suggests that the rRNA genes are: A. nonlinear. B. nonfunctional. C. self-replicating. D. rearranged.

The stem of this item states that the rRNA genes are extrachromosomal and asks what this suggests. Genes are strands of DNA, so his must mean that they are strands of DNA that are not part of the cell's chromosomes. These strands still must self-replicate just as the chromosomes do if they are to be passed from one generation to the next, so choice C is the correct answer. All nucleic acids are a linear arrangement of the component nucleotides, so choice A is incorrect. The rRNA genes must be functional or the organism could not produce protein, so choice B is incorrect. Finally, the fact that they are extrachromosomal give no clue to their arrangement, so choice D can also be rejected.

Based on information in the passage, would the S or the PS division of the ANS be expected to produce a more rapid systemic (whole-body) response to a stimulus? A. The S division, because its ganglia are interconnected B. The S division, because it secretes norepinephrine C. The PS division, because its ganglia are not interconnected D. The PS division, because it secretes acetylcholine

The sympathetic division has interconnected ganglia and will, therefore, have a more rapid systemic response to a stimulus

thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct

The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks Right lymphatic duct only drains the left side

Lymphocytes

The two types of white blood cells that are part of the body's immune system: B lymphocytes form in the bone marrow and release antibodies that fight bacterial infections; T lymphocytes form in the thymus and other lymphatic tissue and attack cancer cells, viruses, and foreign substances there are specific body denfense.

role taking theory

Theory which states that perspective taking is key to growth in social cognition by Robert Selmon Level 0: Egocentric role Level 1: Subjective Role Level 2: Self-reflective Level 3: Mutual Role Level 4: Societal Role

The pentose phosphate pathway results in the generation of: A.NADPH, which is used as a reductive agent in cellular respiratory processes. B.NADPH, which is used as an oxidative agent in cellular respiratory processes. C.NADH, which is used as a reductive agent in cellular respiratory processes. D.NADH, which is used as an oxidative agent in cellular respiratory processes.

Turns NADP+→NADPH this reaction is adding hydrogen and therefore a reduction reaction A.

Find velocity when given acceleration and time but missing distance

V=V0+aT

Big 5 equations

V=Vo+at d=Vot+(1/2)at² V²=Vo²+2ad d=(1/2)(Vo+V)t d=Vt-(1/2)at²

Weber's Law

Weber's Law states that two stimuli must differ by a constant proportion in order for the difference between the two to be perceived

Displacement for vertical motion

Y=VoyT + 1/2(-g)T^2

phase diagram

a graph of the relationship between the physical state of a substance and the temperature and pressure of the substance if you add more pressure to a superfluid it will stay in the same stay Since the substance starts in the gas phase, it cannot evaporate or sublime. A gas can be liquefied by bringing the molecules closer together. This can be accomplished by either increasing the external pressure on the gas or by decreasing its temperature.

Schizophrenia

a group of severe disorders characterized by disorganized and delusional thinking, disturbed perceptions, and inappropriate emotions and actions It has, however, been associated with enlarged ventricles, a smaller hippocampus, and abnormal levels of dopamine + symptoms: Delusions and hallucination - symptoms: Flattened affect, Avolation, and reduced speech cognitive symptoms: Poor executive function, and trouble focusing

Cholecystokinin

a hormone that is secreted by cells in the duodenum and stimulates the release of bile into the intestine and the secretion of enzymes by the pancreas.(trypsin,chemotrypsin,trypsinogen,amylase,lipase

hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis

a major neuroendocrine pathway relevant to the stress response involving the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and the adrenal cortex. they control each other and keep each other in check

complex ion (coordination compound)

a molecule in which a cation is bonded to at least one electron pair donor

What bond is cleaved by IN during the first reaction of integration? integration, integrase cleaves a dinucleotide A. P-C B. P-P C. P-H D. P-O

a nucleotide is connected with the phosphate group and deoxyribose group and they are bonded together with P-O bond.

TCA cycle (Krebs cycle)

a series of metabolic reactions that break down molecules of acetyl CoA to carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms for every acetyl CoA enters the cycle 3 NADH and 1 FADH are generated

Dyssomnia

a sleep disorder in which one has difficulty falling asleep( insomnia), staying asleep( sleep apnea, ), or avoiding sleep(Narcolepsy)

emission spectrum

a spectrum of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by a source. causing electrons to drop in energy level

pluripotent cells

able to differentiate into all three of the germ layers( ectoderm ,mesoderm, and endoderm) and their derivatives. They make up the inner cell mass

Types of Poverty

absolute: the inability to meet a bare minimum of basic necessities relative: the inability to meet the average standard of living within a society marginal: due to a lack of stable employment structural: due to underlying and pervasive effects of the society's institutions

cognitive triad

according to Beck, there are 3 important areas of life that are most influenced by the depressive cognitive schema; this refers to information about the self, about the world, and about the future

Which of the following changes would NOT interfere with the repeated transmission of an impulse at the vertebrate neuromuscular junction? A.Addition of a cholinesterase blocker B.Addition of a toxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine C.An increase in acetylcholine receptor sites on the motor end plate D.Addition of a substance that binds to acetylcholine receptor sites

acetylcholine is helpful for impluse The question asks what process would not interrupt the repeated transmission of a nerve impulse to a muscle cell. The impulse is transmitted by release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from the presynaptic membrane and its reception by membrane-bound proteins on the postsynaptic membrane. Answers B and D are incorrect, because they involve substances that would interfere with the presynaptic release or postsynaptic reception of neurotransmitter. Addition of a cholinesterase blocker would produce a buildup of acetylcholine in the synapse and prevent receptors from responding to impulses, so option A is incorrect. The only change that would not result in blockage of the impulse transmission is option C, which is the correct answer. An increase in acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic membrane would enhance transmission, not interfere with it.

Why did the researchers choose "A" as the replacement residue for each of the single-site variants used in the study? Use of "A": A.reduces the net charge on the bimetallic center. B.increases strength of substrate binding to the active site. C.increases the conformational rigidity of the active site and the enzyme. D.reduces the interaction of the side chain with other active site components.

alanine is nonreactive because of the ch3 so it will reduce interaction

Would an increase in the level of plasma aldosterone be expected to follow ingestion of excessive quantities of NaCl? A. No; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. B. No; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney tubules. C. Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ reabsorption by kidney tubules. D. Yes; aldosterone causes Na+ secretion by kidney tubules.

aldosterone cause reabsorption when sodium levels are low so if we ingested high levels of NaCl. aldosterone would have no propose so the answer is A

how does the brain process visual input

all of the elements (form, depth, color, movement) are processed simultaneously.

Korsakoff's syndrome

an alcohol related disorder marked by extreme confusion, memory impairment, and other neurological symptoms

DNA ligase

an enzyme that eventually joins the sugar-phosphate backbones of the Okazaki fragments All RNA Primers are replaced by DNA

excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

an excitatory depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane of a synapse caused by the liberation of a neurotransmitter by the terminal button If open K+, then inhibit if opens Na+ ,then excite If Cl- opens, then inhibit if opens Ca2+ then excite

inclusive fitness

an explanation for altruism that focuses on the adaptive benefit of transmitting genes, such as through kin selection, rather than focusing on individual survival

Medulla

an extension of the spinal cord into the skull that coordinates heart rate, circulation, and respiration

negative priming

an implicit memory effect in which telling someone to ignore a stimulus and then suddenly remember the stimulus causes an increased time to remember the stimulus

retrograde amnesia

an inability to retrieve information from one's past

long-term potentiation

an increase in a synapse's firing potential after brief, rapid stimulation. Believed to be a neural basis for learning and memory.

The terminal electron acceptor in the metabolic pathway responsible for the chemical changes observed when Culture A was electrically stimulated is: knowing Culture is white and produces lactic acid A. pyruvate. B. oxygen. C. NAD+. D. water.

becuase it produces lactic acid we can assume the metabloic pathway is fermentation and fermentation is the process of breakiung down pyruvate. ANSWER is A

cellulose uses what linkage?

beta-1,4 linkage

testcross/backcross

both determine whether org is heterozygous or homozygous dom by crossing with a homozygous recessive org Backcross:In backcross, the F1 is crossed with one of the parents or genetically identical individual to the parent. Testcross: a dominant phenotype is crossed with the homologous recessive genotype in order to discriminate between homologous dominant and heterozygous genotypes.

Glycogenolysis

breakdown of glycogen to glucose

Overall Yield chemistry can be calculated

by multiplying every reaction yield together For Example, if synthesis has two steps, each yield 50% then the overall yield is 50% x 50% = 25%.

calmodulin

calmodulin binds calcium in smooth muscle cells. Instead of using the troponin-tropomyosin complex to bind calcium and facilitate actin-myosin interaction (as seen in striated muscle), calcium ions bind to calmodulin. This in turn activates myosin light-chain kinase (MLCK) to phosphorylate the myosin and enable it to bind actin.

acylation of nucleophiles

can be accomplished using a number of carboxylic acid derivatives, including acid anhydrides , acid halides , and esters

LiAlH4 with ester

can be used to brake down Fat Produce water as side product

hydrogenation reaction of cyclopropane and cyclobutane

can only occur if it has a low degree of ring strain

blood pressure is directly proportional to

cardiac output and peripheral resistance

elastic cartilage

cartilage with abundant elastic fibers; more flexible than hyaline cartilage Epiglottis has elastic cartilage

Cathode vs Anode for galvanic / electrochemical and electrolysis

cathode: metal forms, reduction, attracts positive charge because it forms a negative charge for galvanic but its opposite in electrolysis (oxidation, attracts negative charge because it forms a more positive charge) Anode: nonmetal forms, oxidation, attracts negative charge because it forms a positive charge for galvanic but its opposite in electrolysis( reduction, attracts positive charge because it forms a more negative charge)

If a cell's membrane potential changes from -60mV to -70mV after treatment with an adrenergic drug, the NE receptor is most likely linked to: A. a G-protein. B. adenylate cyclase. C. a sodium channel. D. a potassium channel.

cell membrane potentials will go to -70mV only if its repolarizing. Repolarizing is only cause after K+ channels open and allow K+ to go back inside the cell

cells of respiratory epithelium

columnar epithelium cells, goblet cells(mucous), mucocilary escalator(describes the self-clearing mechanism )

Using knowledge of Michaelis-Menten kinetics, what effect would the addition of chloramphenicol have on the kinetics of its target enzyme? Knowing chloramphenicol is a competive inhibitor a. Vmax decreases, and KM increases. b. Vmax decreases, and KM remains unchanged. c. Vmax remains unchanged, and KM increases. d. Vmax remains unchanged, and KM decreases

competitive inhibitor increases Km and causes no change to Vmax

Enterogasterone (Small Intestines)

decreases stomach emptying

intermolecular forces

forces of attraction between molecules includes metallic bonds, Ionic bonds(high melting point), polar covalent bonds, Non-polar covalent bonds

The above graph represents an action potential recorded from the cell body of a neuron. What type of ion movement is causing the depolarization of the neuronal membrane at the time denoted by the arrow? A. Sodium ions are moving into the neuron down a concentration gradient. B. Sodium ions are being moved out of the neuron via active transport. C. Potassium ions are moving out of the neuron down a concentration gradient. D. Potassium ions are being moved into the neuron via active transport.

depolarization causes Sodium ions to move into the neuron. Potassium ions move out in the beginning of repolarization Sodium moves out and potassium goes in once it goes into the refractory period

chemical shift

difference between the resonance frequency of chemically shifted hydrogens and those on reference compound downfield=more deshielded upfield= less deshielded more Electronegativity: more downfield the greater the orbital: the more downfield the greater the acidity the more downfield

Which of the following peptides is most likely to form a covalently bonded dimer? A.AVTSYWP B.GHICEPN C.NFMNELI D.ELIPWQN

disulfide bridges are the most common type of covalent bond in proteins. a dimer is a combination of two peptide strands. Cysteine is the amino acid that makes disulfide bridges. so the answer should be B, right?

Passive expiration is achieved primarily by the

elastic recoil of the lungs

Hund's Rule

electrons occupy orbitals of the same energy in a way that makes the number of electrons with the same spin direction as large as possible Paramagnetic:1 unpaired electron usually follows external magnets because of the charge Diamagnetic: all electrons are paired no magnetic field created will be repelled by the external magnetic field

embryonic stem cells

embryonic cells, which can develop into any type of body cellr goes through determination(cytoplasmic and nuclear change)→ differentiation(physical changes)→ Pluripotent cells (comes from trophoblast can be anything except placenta)

secound law of thermodynamics

entropy increase as a reaction of spontaneous increase

proteolytic cleavage

enzymes are synthesized in inactive forms that are then activated by cleavage (splitting the enzyme causing it to be in active form or relaxed form) by protease

3 layers of skin

epidermis(keratin,melatonin,stratum basale), dermis( blood vessels, sensory receptors, sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands, hair follicles, ceruminous glands ) hypodermis(Fat/Adipose Tissue)

types of long term memory

episodic (event), semantic(common knowledge), procedural(learning how to walk,talk,or ride a bike), emotional(an event that had an emotional impact)

Kp

equilibrium constant for gas-phase reactions based on partial pressures of reactants and products

Threats to External Validity (Based on Methods)

experiments don't reflect the real world selection is not Representative situational laboratory conditions change the outcome lack of statistical sample

which of the following endocrine disorders would cause hypertension that could NOT be rectified by physiologically normal kidneys? A. An excess of aldosterone B. An excess of glucagon C. A shortage of thyroxine D. A shortage of insulin

extra aldosterone --> more Na+ reabsorption -> osmotic water reabsorption --> blood volume increases --> BP increases --> hypertension none of the others talk about hypertension

Which technique CANNOT be used to analyze gene expression? A.Western blotting B.Northern blotting C.Southern blotting D.Reverse transcription PCR

gene expression is RNA,or protein SNOW DROP Southern=DNA Northern=RNA O=O Western=Protein So the answer is C because it test DNA not GENE expression

knockout genes

genes that take the place of normal genes but that fail to produce the specific protein produced by the normal genes. Used to see effect of the gene without activation

endocrine glands

glands that secrete chemicals called hormones directly into the bloodstream No ducts

Presumably, hyperglycemia promotes cellular dehydration because A. glucose, as an energy source, accelerates the osmotic work performed by plasma membranes. B. glucose, as an energy source, accelerates plasma membrane ion exchange pumps. C. glucose molecules raise the osmotic pressure of the extracellular space. D. glucose molecules are exchanged for water molecules across the plasma membrane.

glucose molecules raise the osmotic pressure of the extracellular space.

Which amino acid substitution within the consensus-binding site for STAT3 is LEAST likely to interfere with STAT3 binding? A. Gln to Glu B. Gln to Gly C. Gln to Asn D. Gln to Ala

glutamine and asparagine are both polar amino acids

When erythrocytes are placed in distilled water, the volume of each erythrocyte increases because the

gradient of ions causes water to enter the cells

Microarray colors

green: underexpressed Red:over expressed Yellow: equally expressed

Lysosomes

have enzymes that digest and recycle worn-out organelles or materials and substances entering the cell. garbage disposal.

80) Which of the following properties is most useful in explaining the trend in the reactivities in Experiment 1? A. Electronegativity B. Ionization potential C. Electron affinity D. Polarizability

he metals that reacted in Experiment 1 underwent oxidation. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the ionization potential. The reactivity of a metal depends on its ionization potential. Among the metals listed in Table 1, potassium has the smallest ionization potential and magnesium has the largest ionization potential. Therefore, potassium reacted the most vigorously and there was no obvious reaction with magnesium. Thus, B is the best answer. Anyway, the whole passage is about metals reacting with water...this should ring a bell....REDOX reactions! Ding ding ding! What happens in redox reactions to metals?! OXIDATION. These metals are getting stripped of their electrons and can give them up easily due to their LOW IONIZATION POTENTIAL.

External Genitalia for females

includes labia (skin folds that enclose openings including utheral opening, vaginal opening) Greater vestibular glands: lubrication mammary glands(produce milk for baby) vagina( birth canal, stretchy and muscular and has a low pH)

In mammals, which of the following events occurs during mitosis but does NOT occur during meiosis I? A. Synapsis B. The splitting of centromeres C. The pairing of homologous chromosomes D. The breaking down of the nuclear membrane

in mitosis chromosomes are replicated and cell is replicated with exact DNA In meiosis chromosomes are crossed over and split by centromeres causing each gamete cell to have 1/2 of DNA Answer is B

CCK (cholecystokinin) (Small intestines)

increases release of bile when there is an increase of lipids or proteins

inductive vs. deductive reasoning

inductive reasoning- reasoning from the specific to the general, forming concepts about all members of a category based on some members. deductive reasoning- reasoning from the general to the specific.

Capside

is a protein coating made from capsomeres proteins function as to attach to cell

delta G =0

is always true that ΔG for a reaction at equilibrium between reactants and products is equal to 0.

diarrhea

is caused by an over secretion of water into the large and small intestines

affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen

is increased in response to metabolic alkalosis

mutarotation of D-glucose

is the rotation of an alpha D glucose into a Beta D glucose

Dispersion

is the splitting of light in a prism. The shorter the wavelength, the more it bends

Anomers

isomers that differ at a new asymmetric carbon atom formed on ring closure

When performing experiments to measure the kcat of an enzyme, the substrate concentration should be: A. limiting. B. equal to 1/2 KM. C. equal to KM. D. saturating.

kcat is used to describe the rate-limiting step of catalysis under saturating conditions of substrate

At pH 7, which of the following peptides will bind to an anion-exchange column and require the lowest concentration of NaCl for elution? A. AVDEKMSTRGHKNPG B. YPGRSMHEWDIKAQP C. HIPAGEATEKALRGD D. EAPDTSEGDLIPEVS

look for the acidic and basic amino acids Acidic: D(Aspartic Acid) and E(Glutamic acid) Basic: K(lysine),H(Histidine),R(Arginine) A. Has D(-1),E(-1),K(+1),R(+1),H(+1),K(+1)=+1 B.R(+1),H(+1),E(-1),D(-1),K(+1)=+1 C.H(+1),E(-1),E(-1),K(+1),R(+1),D(-1)=0 D.E(-1),D(-1),E(-1),D(-1),E(-1)=-5 therfore NaCl will work require the least for C since it has no charge

How to find magnification

m=-i/o

# of orbitals

m=2l+1 l for f=3,d=2,p=1,s=0 How many orbitals make up the 5f subshell? m=2(3)+1=7

RNA translocation

mRNA transcripts aren't translated into proteins until they are localized properly in the cell by recombination occurs between non-homologous chromosomes and previously unrelated genes are now placed together

epithelial cells

mainly form a covering of the organs, internally as well externally, helps in transcellular or intercellular transportation, in selective absorption, and in the protection of cells. This includes the reproductive system, Gastro intestines, skin, bladder, and blood vessels

bacteria in large intestine

make Vit K and Biotin, prevent bad micros. 700 species

Vmax

maximum initial velocity or rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction. Depends on enzyme concentration and type of enzyme

Scientists have hypothesized that mitochondria evolved from aerobic heterotrophic bacteria that entered and established symbiotic relationships with primitive eukaryotic anaerobes. According to this hypothesis, the bacteria that entered primitive eukaryotic cells were able to carry out which function(s) that the primitive eukaryotic cells could not? A. Glycolysis B. Citric acid cycle and electron transport C. Cell division D. Transcription and translation

mitochondira is resposible for citric acid cylce and electron transport

Equlibrium constant

molar concentration at equilibrium Solids, pure liquids, and Solvents are not part of the equilibrium constant just like in rate law Keq>1=Favor Products Keq<1=Favor Reactants Keq=1=Equal favor

mass spectrometry

molecules are ionized then the compounds enter a region of the spectrometer where they are acted on by a magnetic field. The field causes the flight path of the charged species to alter and the degree to which the path is changed is determined by the mass of the ion.

MHC I VS MHC II

molecules found on everybody cell that presents antigen Allows cells to display cell contents on cell surface ; signals cytotoxic T killer to destroy MHC I is found on all nucleated cells, including antigen presenting cells.(macrophages, dendritic cells, langerhans cells, and B- lymphocytes) MHC II molecules found on macrophages, B cells, and activated T cells; signal helper T cells Allows cells to display stuff T cells found on cell surface

plane of polarization

vibration of the electromagnetic field aligned along specific angles in relation to the direction of propagation Sound cant be polarized

According to the hypothesis presented in the passage, which drug is most likely to cause a decline in the wheel-running behavior of ABA-induced rats? Knowing exercise stimulate endorphins A. Alcohol B. Cocaine C. Marijuana D. Morphine

morphine is an endorphin agonist

Increasing the volume of air that reaches the alveoli and takes part in gas exchange will cause blood pH to: A.increase, because the neural mechanisms that remove acid from the blood will be activated. B.increase, because the partial pressure of CO2 in the blood will decrease. C.decrease, because the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen will be increased. D. decrease, because the work associated with increased ventilation will come more O2.

ncreasing the volume of air that reaches the alveoli and takes part in gas exchange will enhance O2 uptake and CO2 removal, thereby increasing blood pH. CO2= acidic O2=Basic

are there any antigens on nucleic acids

no but there are in protein,red blood cells, and bacteria

Nucleoside

no phosphate group but has sugar and amino group

micels vs bi layer and liposomes

non polar will get through while polar molecules while not get through Micels: to find diameter of micels multiple the length of a individual fatty acid by 2

Virus structure

nonliving, can't reproduce on their own; Capsid: protein coat that encloses the viral genome Envelope: a membrane that surrounds some viral capsids All viruses have a capside

When the pronuclei fuse, which of the following events must occur for cell division to proceed?

nuclear membranes must be reorganized both when the pronuclei fuse and when the (now) embryonic nucleus disintegrates during prophase.

Which type of molecule is LEAST likely to be found in a eukaryotic cell membrane? A. Phospholipid B. Cholesterol C. Glycoprotein D. Peptidoglycan

only Prokaryotes have peptidoglycan

split brain patients

people whose corpus callosum has been surgically severed A split brain patient will be able to see an object in his left visual field because his optic nerves and optic tracts will be unaffected by a severed corpus callosum, and this information will be processed in his right hemisphere. However, without a corpus callosum, this information cannot be transferred across to the left hemisphere where Broca's area is localized, so he will not be able to say what the shape is.

An ulcer that penetrated the wall of the intestine would allow the contents of the gastrointestinal tract to enter: A. the perineum. B. the peritoneal cavity. C. the pleural cavity. D. the lumen of the intestine.

peritoneal cavity is a membrane surrounding the gastrointestinal contents

Trait perspective of personality

personality is a result of traits, which are habitual patterns of behavior, thought, and emotion that are relatively stable over time

phosphorylase vs phosphatase

phosphorylase adds a phosphate phosphatase removes the phosphate

Torque

pivot point / Fulcrum: the point at which the object may rotate The closer away from the force from the fulcrum the stronger the torque needs to be τorque = Iα I=mr^2 α= rotational inertia

platelets are LEAST likely to contain: A. transmembrane serotonin transporters. B. ribosomes. C. serotonin. D. Ki67.

platelets are made from 90% of sertonin and ribosomes. which leaves Ki67 to be least likely to contain platelets.

Types of mutations

point mutation, translocation(recombination between nonhomologous chromosomes), amplification (multiple copies), insertion(adding),Deletions(removing), Inversions(upside down),loss of heterozygosity

liver function The liver is special

produces bile, detoxify drugs,stores glycogen, and synthesis of blood protein. The liver is special because it has the ability to recover using meiosis.

5 major functions of family

reproduction, affection, social status, socialization, and protection

Nucleotides are composed of

ribose or deoxyribose(sugar), purine or pyrimidine base(nitrogenous base), phosphate group attached with 1 to 3 phosphate and the backbone of DNA is made of phosphodiester bond (P-O bond)

Loop of Henle

section of the nephron tubule that conserves water and minimizes the volume of urine by releasing NaCl It acts as a countercurrent multiplier: is the process of using energy to generate an osmotic gradient that enables you to reabsorb water from the tubular fluid and produce concentrated urine. This mechanism prevents you from producing litres and litres of dilute urine every day, and is the reason why you don't need to be continually drinking in order to stay hydrated. As it goes down H2O is permeable but as it goes Up H2O is impermeable Longer loop of Henle means a stronger gradient created which can allow for more efficient water reclamation from collecting duct

Olfaction

sense of smell Olfaction is the only sense that does not synapse with the thalamus before reaching its primary processing cortex. The olfactory bulb of the frontal lobe is connected directly to the nasal cavity by the olfactory nerve

A bacterium containing genes for sex pilus construction gave rise to a daughter cell lacking these genes. This most probably occurred because: A. the bacterial chromosome was not completely replicated prior to cell division. B. the cell membrane failed to move the replicated chromosomes apart. C. copies of the plasmid containing the genes were not equally distributed to the new daughter cells. D. one copy of the plasmid containing the genes was digested by a bacterial lysosome.

sex plius is controlled by plasmids instead of chromosomal genes and therefore plasmids genes are not distributed equally

tandem repeats

short, adjacent segments of DNA within a gene that are repeated several times

Approximately how much Al2O3 is required to make 100 kg of Al? 2Al2O3(ℓ) → 4Al(s) + 3O2(g) A. 500 kg B. 200 kg C . 80 kg D. 50 kg

shows that 4 mol Al is produced from 2 mol Al2O3. 100,000 g Al × (1 mol Al/27 g Al) × (2 mol Al2O3/4 mol Al) × (102 g/mol Al2O3) = 188.9 kg Al2O3 Thus, B is the best answer.

types of point mutations

silent(A codon is different but it makes no different in translation), missense((A missense mutation is the substitution of single amino acid for another.)Replaced with a wrong amino acid combination) , nonsense(stop codon replaces a regular codon and prematurely shorten the DNA)

Spearman's idea of general intelligence

single g factor responsible for intelligence that underlies performance on all cognitive tasks

Recordings of brain wave activity revealed that the participants in the S groups spent the most time in the stage of sleep characterized by sleep spindles. This observation indicates that they were in which stage of sleep? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

sleep spindle is stage 2

Velocity vs. Time Graph

slope is acceleration

Viroids

small circular +RNA molecules that infect plants and disrupt their growth. no capside Virions are similar to viroids except that virions have a capsid Viroids can alter the RNA polymerase and transcriptional machinery of certain host cells to replicate their genetic material.

Which of the two products was detected during the experiment? A. Compound 2a; it has three aromatic rings. B. Compound 2a; it is a diphenol. C. Compound 2b; it has extensive delocalization of electrons. D. Compound 2b; it is a mixed phenol and quinone.

sp2 compounds reflect more light.( delocalization of electrons)(double bonds) Extensive conjugation will cause color to appear in organic compounds. In transition metals, it's the d orbital that gives color (coordinate complex and what not). There fore C is the answer

The Gibbs free energy equation can be used to predict whether a reaction will proceed spontaneously. For which relative values of ΔH and ΔS will a spontaneous reaction always occur? A. A positive ΔH and a negative ΔS B. A positive ΔH and a positive ΔS C. A negative ΔH and a negative ΔS D. A negative ΔH and a positive ΔS

spontaneous reaction means its exothermic meaning that there will be less heat at the end of the reaction (delta H is negative) and the reaction will occur right away( delta S is positive)

2 factor theory of emotion

states that emotion is based on two factors: physiological arousal and cognitive label

Graham's law of effusion

states that the rate of effusion for a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass

tissue stem cells (adult stem cells)

stem cells with a more restricted capacity to generate different cell types found in adults. turn into multipotent cells

Myoglobin

stores oxygen in muscle cells and organs but not bone only 1 subunit while hemoglobin has 4 subunits

role conflict vs role strain

strain: one role places a burden on you conflict: multiple roles are in opposition

After the depletion of hepatic glycogen in newborns, which compounds can be used as precursors to sustain the blood glucose level? Gluconeogenesis I.Acetyl-CoA II.Lactate III.Oxaloacetate IV. α-Ketoglutarate A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I, II, and IV only D. II, III, and IV only

succinyl-CoA,lactate, pyruvate, glycerol,oxaloacetate, fumarate, and α-ketoglutarate-all good starting materials for gluconeogenesis Answer is D

An ITC experiment is conducted by injecting Compound 1 into a solution of Protein A giving large measured heats and a high affinity constant K1. A CITC experiment under identical conditions but in the presence of 10 mM Compound 2 gives the same heat curve and Kapp = K1. What change to the experimental conditions can result in measurable heat differences and Kapp < K1? A.Dilute all of the solutions. B.Increase the concentration of Compound 1 in both titrations. C.Increase the concentration of Protein A in both titrations. D.Increase the concentration of Compound 2 in the second titration.

supposely compound is a competive inhibitor and therefor will make mesurable heat difference and higher Kapp value D is the answer

Oocyte structure

surrounded by the zona pellucida and the corona radiata meiosis two is triggered when the sperm cells penetrate these layers with the help of the acrosomal enzyme its surrounded by thecal cells (when interacts with LH it produces androstenedione) and granulosa cells/corna radiate ( when interacted with FSH it produces androgens

systolic and diastolic

systolic: contraction of heart muscle( Left ventricle contraction) Diastolic: relaxation of heart muscle heartbeat is valve closing

Two gel electrophoresis analyses are performed on a sample of purified protein with unknown structure: SDS-PAGE (1 band appears) and SDS-PAGE under reducing conditions (2 bands appear). Which prediction about the protein is directly supported by these results? The protein: A. is posttranslationally glycosylated. B. contains a high proportion of charged residues. C. contains no disulfide bonds. D. is composed of multiple subunits.

the answer to this question is D because a reducing agent is used during SDS-PAGE to cleave disulfide bonds. The appearance of 1 band on SDS-PAGE without the reducing agent and 2 bands on SDS-PAGE with a reducing agent, suggests that at least one disulfide bond is present in the protein and that the disulfide bond(s) hold(s) two separate subunits of different masses together. This is the best response.

renal medulla (of kidney)

the inner portion of kidney, composed of collecting tubules that empty into the renal pelvis

What process would be most disrupted by an inflammation of the colon? A. Digestion B. Absorption of nutrients C. Absorption of water D. Secretion of digestive enzymes

the main job of colon is to absorb water so if colon was inflamed it would interfere in absorption of water

Pharynx

the membrane-lined cavity behind the nose and mouth, connecting them to the esophagus. near the jaw and mouth

DNA sequence analysis

the more related two organisms are, the more similar their DNA will be DNA sequencing utilizes ddNTPs which lack the 3'OH group. This terminates polymerization, creating fragments uses electrophoresis

social capital

the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, enabling that society to function effectively.

anomeric carbon

the new chiral center formed in ring closure; it was the carbon containing the carbonyl in the straight-chain form Beta linkage bond point up Alpha linkage bond point down

Hair cells used to detect motion are found in which of the following structures?

the organ of Corti and the semicircular canals contain hair cells with small "hairs" that project from the apical surface of the cell into the surrounding fluid.

Haploinsufficiency

the phenomenon in which a person has only a single functional copy of a gene, and that single functional copy does not produce a normal phenotype. Shows a dominant pattern of inheritance.

accommodation

the process by which the eye's lens changes shape to focus near or far objects on the retina

parallel processing

the processing of many aspects of a problem simultaneously; the brain's natural mode of information processing for many functions, including vision.

Oogenesis

the production, growth, and maturation of an egg, or ovum Meiosis II of oogenesis considered complete After secondary oocyte is fertilized

The speed of sound depends on

the properties of the medium it travels through

recombination frequency (RF)

the proportion of the total number of gametes or progeny that are recombinant types (recombinants/total)

Henery's Law

the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas on the surface of the liquid

A substance has a standard heat of formation of 0. What does that mean

the substance is an element in its standard state. For elements in their standard state, ΔHf° is equal to zero by definition.

Hawthorne effect

the tendency for people to behave differently when they know they are being studied

vagus nerve

the tenth cranial nerve that innervates digestive organs, heart, and other areas. The vagus nerve releases acetylcholine and slows the heart rate. causing lower cardiac output

Capsule (bacteria)

third outer layer in some bacteria that provides protection.

Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex

this interferes with the body's ability to handle internal and external stress, associated with Addison disease

Sponge bone tissue

this is where all type of bone marrow are found Red bone marrow: hematopoiesis (red blood cells) found in sponge bone tissue or flat bone Yellow bone marrow: fat filled

EOG (electrooculogram)

this measures eye movement

Helping to instill norms and values related to violence and violent behavior, media exposure is an aspect of which process? A.Assimilation B.Discrimination C.Socialization D.Stratification

thus, C is the correct answer. (socialization is an individual process) The other options are not relevant to the question and the passage. Assimilation is the process through which immigrants or minority groups take up aspects of mainstream culture. Discrimination is behavior based upon prejudice, which is also not a precise fit for this stem or passage. Finally, stratification is an objective position within social hierarchy.

4 types of economic systems

traditional ( consider social customs in economic decisions; this practice is most common in rural areas and often involves bartering and trading.), command( economic decisions are based on a plan of production and the means of production are often public (state-owned); these include socialism and communism.), market economic decisions are based on the market ("supply and demand") and the means of production are often private; these include laissez-faire and free market economies.,(Capitalism) mixed blend elements of command and market economies with both public and private ownership

voltage-gated ion channel Ligand-gated ion channel

voltageic gated: open in response to alterations in the electrical potential Ligand gated: response to the binding of small molecules on the extracellular surface of the proteins

Multiple Equilibria

when one reaction in a system shifts, all reactions shift in the same direction H2O + CO2 <-> H2CO3 <-> H+ when a person hyperventilates, CO2 decreases, blood pH increases combining two equations requires multiplying the K values Largest Kf value means the reaction will occur the most and will be predominant reversing an equation requires inversing the K value

nerve

white mater in the PNS

cone cells

work best in bright light and enable you to see colors 3 types (Red,Green,Blue) Fovea centralis

rod cells

work best in dim light and enable you to see black, white, and shades of gray more in periphery

starch uses what linkage?

α-1,6 linkage

electrical potential energy equation

▲PE=q▲Φ=qV

Eukaryote Translation

3 main differences 1. 5' cap of 7-methylguanosine (essential for initiation) 2. Kuzak sequence- similar to shine-delgarno-> increases translation efficiency 3. POLY-A tail-> 3' end is poly adenylated-> keeps polynucleotide from being rapidly degraded. mRNA last for hours in eukaryotes while in prokaryotes only lasts for minutes. Translation requirements are as follows 2 ATP per AA-tRNA loading; 1 ATP to form the initiation complex; and 2 ATP per AA joining the peptide chain. (4 atp per Amino Acid need to translation)(1 glucose=30ATP) Eukaryotes require template Use Shine-Dalgarno the start codon is bound to the E site then the next codon bounds to the A site the start codon moves to the E site and gets terminated and the next codon fills its place.

Correlation

A measure of the relationship between two variables Great preliminary technique usually easy to conduct Doesn't establish causality may not pick up a nonlinear relationship

Schachter-Singer Theory

A theory of emotion that states that both physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal must occur before an emotion is consciously experienced. similar bodily responses may be interpreted as different emotions suggests that our physiological arousal and subsequent emotional experience is determined by the context of the situation