mcb 3

66) Vinegar is made by bacteria from one of two genera, either Gluconobacter or ________________.

Acetobacter

65) The bacterium that gives Swiss cheese its characteristic flavor and holes is in the genus ____________.

Propionibacterium

57) Which gel constituents are essential in facilitating DNA strand separation in the DGGE technique? (Select all that apply) a) Urea gradient b) Temperature gradient c) GC-rich primer clamp d) Polyacrylamide e) Applied voltage

a

26) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in ammonia? a) -3 b)-1 c) 0 d) +1 e) +3

a) -3

3) What is the oxidation state of carbon in lactic acid (C3H6O3)? a) 0 b) -2 c) -4 d) +2 e) +4

a) 0

16) What is the estimated percentage of microbial species on Earth have been grown in culture? a) 1 -5% b) 5 - 10 % c) 10 - 15% d) 15-20% e) 20 - 25%

a) 1 -5%

27) What is the average temperature of the world's ocean waters? a) 2 to 3°C b) 8 to 10°C c) 12 to 15°C d) 18 to 20°C e) 22 to 25°C

a) 2 to 3°C

39) Chlorophyll a maximally absorbs light energy at what frequency(ies)? a) 430 nm and 662 nm b) 550 nm c) 750 nm and 850 nm d) 900 nm e) 800 nm and 950 nm

a) 430 nm and 662 nm

4) Which food is most prone to xerophilic mold spoilage? a) Apple jelly b) Sausage c) Lettuce d) Salt fish e) Ground beef

a) Apple jelly

52) Which of the following may NOT have been produced by microbial activity? a) Arsenate b) Gold ore c) Uranium ore d) Sulfate e) Hydrogen sulfide

a) Arsenate

2) How do enzymes increase the rate of a biochemical reaction? a) By lowering the activation energy. b) By increasing the standard free energy. c) By lowering the standard free energy. d) By increasing the activation energy. e) By lowering the reduction potential.

a) By lowering the activation energy.

37) Which of these bacteria has the most adverse influence on global warming? a) Denitrifier species b) Annamox species c) Brocadia d) Candidatus e) Jettenia

a) Denitrifier species

23) When does feedback inhibition of an enzyme occur? a) If an end product of the pathway binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme. b) If a competitive inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. c) If the coenzyme fails to bind to the active site of the enzyme. d) If an end product of the pathway binds to the active site of the enzyme. e) If a noncompetitive inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme.

a) If an end product of the pathway binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme.

41) Atmospheric sulfur is primarily: a) Present as H2S b) Present as sulfate c) Present as elemental sulfur d) Present as dimethylsulfoniopropionate e) Present as the amino acid cysteine

a) Present as H2S

43) In the MPN test, at which stage would the first identification of lactose fermenting organisms occur? a) Presumptive b) Confirmed c) Completed d) Conclusive e) All stages would permit this identification

a) Presumptive

44) In the MPN test, at which stage would the first identification of coliforms organisms occur? a) Presumptive b) Confirmed c) Completed d) Conclusive e) All stages would permit this identification

a) Presumptive

40) An MPN test where lactose-fermenting microbes have been observed is known as a: a) Presumptive test b) A confirmed test c) A completed test d) A conclusive test e) None is a correct choice

a) Presumptive test

18) Which of these technologies employs heavy isotopes of nitrogen and carbon to enrich for DNA samples from actively growing organisms? a) RNA-SIP b) Metagenomic sequencing c) DDGE d) FISH e) SSU rRNA sequencing

a) RNA-SIP

11) Today, the most effective technique for analyzing microbial community structure is based on this analysis. a) Sequencing small subunit rRNA. b) Identification of the catabolic enzymes present. c) Isolation and characterization of microbes from the community. d) Enrichment culture technique for microbial isolation. e) Identification of metabolic intermediates that accumulate in the environment.

a) Sequencing small subunit rRNA.

18) Bacteria that rely on methanotrophy for carbon and energy metabolism utilize one of these two unique pathways for carbon assimilation. a) Serine pathway and the ribulose monophosphate pathway. b) Acetyl-CoA pathway and the serine pathway. c) Reductive TCA pathway and the acetyl-CoA pathway. d) Ribulose monophosphate pathway and the reductive TCA pathway. e) Acetyl-CoA pathway and the ribulose monophosphate pathway.

a) Serine pathway and the ribulose monophosphate pathway.

52) What is denitrification? a) The reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen. b) The production of nitrate from ammonia. c) The reduction of dinitrogen to nitrate. d) The assimilation of nitrate by the cell. e) The assimilation of ammonia by the cell.

a) The reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen.

1) Which one of the following is an extrinsic factor that affects that rate of food spoilage? a) The storage temperature b) The pH of the food c) The skin on a fruit d) The water content of the food e) The nutrient content of the food

a) The storage temperature

17) What are the NET products of the Embden-Meyerhof pathway, when operating in the catabolic direction? a) Two pyruvate, two ATP, and two NADH. b) Two pyruvate, four ATP, and four NADH. c) Two CO2, four pyruvate, two ATP, and four NADH. d) Two CO2, two pyruvate, four ATP, and four NADH. e) Two CO2, two pyruvate, two ATP, and two NADH.

a) Two pyruvate, two ATP, and two NADH.

24) The pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction catalyzes the oxidation and decarboxylation of pyruvate into which of these products? a) an acetyl group + CO2. b) lactic acid c) citrate d) ethanol + CO2 e) acetic acid and CO2

a) an acetyl group + CO2.

23) This mold and metabolism are used in the koji stage of soy sauce production: a) anaerobic Aspergillus strains b) aerobic Aspergillus strains c) aerobic Leuconostoc strains d) anaerobic Leuconostoc strains e) none is active in this phase

a) anaerobic Aspergillus strains

19) The fungus Penicillium is used in the production of a) blue cheese. b) cheddar cheese. c) limburger cheese. d) American cheese. e) Colby cheese.

a) blue cheese.

22) Methane monooxygenase activity: a) both donates to and accepts electrons from an electron transport chain b) cannot occur in the cytosol c) generates reduced methanol d) removes protons from the proton-motive force of the cell e) none is a correct statement

a) both donates to and accepts electrons from an electron transport chain

9) The most common disease associated with improperly canned food is a) botulism. b) tetanus. c) gastroenteritis. d) colitis. e) stomach ulcer.

a) botulism.

47) For what purpose is the reductive TCA cycle used by Sulfolobus ? a) carbon dioxide fixation b) generation of reducing power c) glucose breakdown d) energy generation e) respiration

a) carbon dioxide fixation

7) Intestinal E. coli and Methanobrevibacter smithii are members of the same: a) ecosystem b) biofilm c) genus d) niche e) guild

a) ecosystem

8) Elemental movement between reservoirs is termed: a) flux b) source c) sink d) oxidation e) reduction

a) flux

45) Siderophores are necessary for movement of iron into cells because: a) free iron will otherwise pass electrons to oxygen and be unavailable b) nitrate will compete for free iron under oxic conditions c) nitrate will reduce Fe3+ under oxic conditions d) neutral pH conditions such as those in cells will reduce Fe3+to Fe2+ e) none of the choices is correct

a) free iron will otherwise pass electrons to oxygen and be unavailable

40) Lignocellulose is primarily mineralized by this group of organisms during plant decomposition. a) fungi b) Gram positive bacteria c) Gram negative bacteria d) Archaea e) slime molds

a) fungi

13) Which of these is TRUE for a chemolithoautotroph? a) inorganic molecules as energy sources and inorganic carbon as a carbon source. b) organic molecules as electron sources and inorganic carbon as a carbon source. c) organic molecules as energy sources and organic carbon as a carbon source. d) inorganic molecules as electron sources and organic carbon as a carbon source. e) inorganic molecules as energy sources and organic carbon as a carbon source.

a) inorganic molecules as energy sources and inorganic carbon as a carbon source.

36) The fuel gas __________ is frequently recovered from anaerobic digesters at a waste treatment plant. a) methane b) carbon dioxide c) hydrogen d) nitrogen e) argon

a) methane

30) Approximately what percent of primary production reaches the ocean floor? a) one b) five c) ten d) twenty e) forty

a) one

46) The key carbon dioxide fixation reaction in the Calvin Cycle is carried out by which enzyme? a) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase b) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate kinase c) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase d) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate kinase e) ribose 1,5-bisphosphate transcarboxylase

a) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase

10) Which carbon reservoir is most actively cycled? a) the atmosphere b) ocean waters c) underground limestone d) forest mulch e) ocean sediments

a) the atmosphere

26) Staphylococcus aureus causes foodborne illness through a) the production of an enterotoxin that contaminates prepared foods. b) a break in the skin during food preparation. c) the ingestion of the microbe which grows in the large intestine to produce symptoms. d) the production of an exotoxin after ingestion of the microbe. e) the consumption of undercooked meat.

a) the production of an enterotoxin that contaminates prepared foods.

32) Which of the following methods use microbial biofilms for secondary phase of wastewater treatment? a) trickling filter b) activated sludge c) anaerobic digester d) nitrification tank e) oxidation pond

a) trickling filter

54) Which of these elements are atmospherically abundant? (Select all that apply) a) oxygen b) nitrogen c) sulfur d) phosphorous e) sodium

ab

60) Amino acids which are deaminated can feed catabolically into the pathway(s): (Select all that apply) a) Glycolysis b) TCA cycle c) Fermentation d) Electron transport system e) All are correct

ab

60) Due to the environment from which it can be isolated, we can characterize Beggiatoa as: (Select all that apply) a) Barophilic b) Chemolithotrophic c) Photolithotrophic d) Psychrophilic e) oligotrophic

ab

55) Why may it take months to years for some zones of the Winogradsky colum to develop their characteristic colors? (Select all that apply) a) oxygen intially present throughout the column may inhibit initial growth of anaerobes b) some microbes grow more slowly than others c) biofilm communities may have to form to allow microbial consortiums to exchange nutrients d) the plastics of column containers need to be altered by sunlight to permit microbial metabolism e) all are correct choices

abc

47) The end-products of anaerobic methanotrophic metabolism include: (Select all that apply) a) carbonate b) carbon dioxide c) acetate d) formate e) sulfate

abcd

50) The end-products of anaerobic methanotrophic metabolism include: (Select all that apply) a) carbonate b) carbon dioxide c) acetate d) formate e) sulfate

abcd

53) Metabolism of a cyanobacterium can influence which biogeochemical cycles? (Select all that apply) a) carbon b) nitrogen c) water d) phosphorous e) none of these is a correct choice

abcd

56) Which of these technologies could be used to determine the related ness of organisms? (Select all that apply) f) RNA-SIP g) Metagenomic sequencing h) DDGE i) FISH j) SSU rRNA sequencing

abcde

62) Electrons needed for PS I may come from: (Select all that apply) a) Water b) Elemental sulfur c) Hydrogen sulfide d) Sulfate e) Organic molecules

abcde

57) with respect to water quality, an indicator organism is one which: (Select all that apply) a) Causes little, if any, illness b) Ferments lactose to produce gas c) Is found in the avian intestine d) Is non-endospore forming e) Grows well at temperatures of 25 degrees C

abd

61) Due to the environment from which it can be isolated, we can characterize Thiobacillus as: (Select all that apply) a) Barophilic b) Chemolithotrophic c) Photolithotrophic d) Thermophilic e) oligotrophic

abd

49) Which of the following are correct statements regarding methane monoxygenase? (Select all that apply) a) the enzyme functions under aerobic conditions b) microbes possessing this enzyme often reside at the interface between aerobic and anaerobic zones c) methane is converted to carbon dioxide in a single step d) its activity requires membrane localization e) electrons released by methane oxidation enter an electron transport chain which generates ATP and water as end products

abe

50) At an aw of 0.93, which of these microbes might cause food spoilage? (Select all that apply) a) Staphylococcus aureus b) E. coli c) Xerophilic molds d) Osmophilic microbes e) Pseudomonas

abe

53) Hurdle preservative technology permits: a) Reduced acidification of foods b) Increased acidification of foods c) Reduced heat treatment of food d) Increased heat treatment of food e) Reduced aw of food

ac

58) The MPN test estimates 33 potential fecal coliforms per 100 ml of sample water. Which results may have been observed? (Select all that apply) a) Positive results in 4 in the 10ml samples, 3 in the 1ml samples and 1 from the 0.1ml samples b) Positive results in 4 in the 10ml samples, 2 in the 1ml samples and 1 from the 0.1ml samples c) Positive results in 5 in the 10ml samples, 1 in the 1ml samples and 0 from the 0.1ml samples d) Positive results in 5 in the 10ml samples, 0 in the 1ml samples and 1 from the 0.1ml samples e) Positive results in 4 in the 10ml samples, 0 in the 1ml samples and 1 from the 0.1ml samples

ac

54) The koji and moromi stages of soy sauce fermentation differ by these characteristics: (Select all that apply) a) Koji is aerobic, moromi is anaerobic b) Moromi is aerobic, koji is anaerobic c) Koji is low-salt conditions, moromi is high-salt conditions d) Moromi is low-salt conditions, koji is high-salt conditions e) Koji is fermentation for several days, moromi is fermentation for several months

ace

65) Chorismate is required for biosyntheis of aromatic amino acids. Which precursor pathways contribute to its biosynthesis? (Select all that apply) a) Phosphoenolpyruvate is derived from the EMP pathway b) Phosphoenolpyruvate is derived from the pentose phosphate pathway c) Erythrose 4-phosphate is derived from the EMP pathway d) Erythrose 4-phosphate is derived from the pentose phosphate pathway e) Both substrates can be derived from either of the pathways mentioned

ad

61) By which processes can CO2 be incorporated into organic molecules? (Select all that apply) a) reductive pentose phosphate pathway b) pentose phosphate pathway c) reductive glycolytic cycle d) reductive TCA cycle e) Calvin cycle

ade

64) If glutamate synthesis within a cell is abnormally low, which of these molecules may also be present in abnormally low concentrations? (Select all that apply) a) glutamine b) UTP c) ATP d) threonine e) proline

ae

62) Methanogens are members of the Domain _______.

archaea

4) ( Glutamic acid + NH3) is converted to glutamine ΔGo' = +14.2 kJ/mole. Coupling this reaction with ATP hydrolysis yields an overall free energy value of: a) 16.3 kJ/mole b) -16.3 kJ/mole c) 44.7 kJ/mole d) -44.7 kJ/mole e) -314 kJ/mole

b) -16.3 kJ/mole

46) A silt loam soil will possess: a) 50% clay, 20% sand, 10% silt b) 10% clay, 10% sand, 80% silt c) 50% clay, 20% sand, 80% silt d) 80% clay, 20% sand, 15% silt e) 40% clay, 20% sand, 10% silt

b) 10% clay, 10% sand, 80% silt

45) A sandy loam soil will possess: a) 50% clay, 20% sand, 10% silt b) 15% clay, 60% sand, 85% silt c) 50% clay, 20% sand, 80% silt d) 80% clay, 20% sand, 15% silt e) 40% clay, 20% sand, 10% silt

b) 15% clay, 60% sand, 85% silt

24) What is the % salinity of the ocean? a) 1% or less b) 3.5% c) 8% d) 15% e) 35%

b) 3.5%

47) The MPN test generates positive tube numbers of 5 in the 10ml samples, 1 in the 1ml samples and 0 from the 0.1ml samples. What is the most likely number of organisms present in the original sample? a) 33 microbes per ml b) 33 microbes per 100 ml c) 33 microbes per liter d) 43 microbes per 100 ml e) 46 microbes per ml

b) 33 microbes per 100 ml

10) LTH pasteurization is a method of preservation that involves heating the liquid to _______ °C for 30 min. a) 45 b) 63 c) 85 d) 100 e) 121

b) 63

14) In the microbial world, an "operational taxonomic unit" is defined as any group of microbes that share at least __________ sequence identity of their SSU rRNA gene. a) 100% b) 97% c) 90% d) 80% e) 50%

b) 97%

41) An MPN test where a positive EMB test (presence of metallic green colonies) has been observed is known as a: a) Presumptive test b) A confirmed test c) A completed test d) A conclusive test e) None is a correct choice

b) A confirmed test

4) Which of these is linked with production of cement for construction of highways? a) A decrease in sand. b) An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide. c) A decrease in limestone. d) A decrease in fossil fuel consumption. e) An increase of atmospheric nitrogen.

b) An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide.

33) Proteorhodopsin has been found in many marine bacteria, including the SAR-11 group. This protein has activity : a) In the detection of light. b) As a light-driven proton pump. c) As a photosynthetic reaction center. d) As a repressor for global regulation. e) As an activator for global regulation.

b) As a light-driven proton pump.

28) An example of an organism that causes a foodborne infection is a) Staphylococcus aureus. b) Campylobacter jejuni. c) Clostridium perfringens. d) Clostridium botulinum. e) Bacillus cereus.

b) Campylobacter jejuni.

45) In the MPN test, at which stage would the first identification of Enterobacteriaceae organisms occur? a) Presumptive b) Confirmed c) Completed d) Conclusive e) All stages would permit this identification

b) Confirmed

17) DNA-SIP technology relies upon the differential: a) AT richness of organisms growing in an environmental sample b) Isotope incorporation into DNA of assimilatory microbes within an environmental sample c) Distribution of nitrogen in the proteins of actively metabolizing cells d) Distribution of carbon into the cytoplasmic constituents of actively growing cells e) None is a correct choice

b) Isotope incorporation into DNA of assimilatory microbes within an environmental sample

33) Why is the process of denitrification detrimental to the soil? a) It leads to acidification of the soil. b) It leads to loss of utilizable nitrogen from the soil. c) It leads to loss of oxygen in the soil. d) It leads to loss of organic matter from the soil. e) It leads to the production of toxic nitrogen intermediates.

b) It leads to loss of utilizable nitrogen from the soil.

19) Which of these technologies gives direct sequence information? a) RNA-SIP b) Metagenomics c) DDGE d) FISH e) T-RFLP scanning

b) Metagenomics

29) Which of these summarizes the overall process of nitrogen fixation? a) ammonia → N2 b) N2 → biomass c) NO3- → biomass d) NO3- →N2 e) ammonia → NO3-

b) N2 → biomass

18) Which of these are important products of the pentose phosphate pathway that are used in biosynthesis? a) pyruvate, ribose-5-phosphate, and NADPH b) NADPH, ribose-5-phosphate, and erythrose-4-phosphate c) pyruvate, citrate, and erythrose-4-phosphate d) pyruvate, erythrose-4-phosphate, and ribose-5-phosphate e) citrate, NADPH, and ribose-5-phosphate

b) NADPH, ribose-5-phosphate, and erythrose-4-phosphate

53) Which of these processes likely contributes LEAST to growth of microbes in subsurface environments a) Chemolithoautotrophy b) Organic detritus deposition from surface layers c) Chemolithoheterotrophy d) Chemoorganoheterotrophy e) All contribute equally

b) Organic detritus deposition from surface layers

9) When oxygen reacts with hydrogen gas, water is produced as the product in this oxidation-reduction reaction. Hydrogen donates electrons to oxygen in the reaction. Which statement below is true about this reaction? a) Oxygen is oxidized to water. b) Oxygen is being reduced in the reaction. c) Hydrogen is being reduced in the reaction. d) The electron donor in this reaction is reduced. e) The electron acceptor in this reaction is oxidized.

b) Oxygen is being reduced in the reaction.

17) This microorganism is often used to make fermented semi-dry sausages and salami. a) Leuconostoc b) Pediococcus c) Saccharomyces d) Aspergillus e) Lactobacillus

b) Pediococcus

42) Aquatic sulfur is primarily: a) Present as H2S b) Present as sulfate c) Present as elemental sulfur d) Present as dimethylsulfoniopropionate e) Present as the amino acid cysteine

b) Present as sulfate

9) How mught quorum sensing knowledge assist in medical antibiotic applications? a) Quorum sensors are antimicrobial in nature and their overexpression and purification may lead to a novel antibiotic class b) Quorum sensing inhibition might reduce bacterial communication and toxin release c) Quorum sensing stimulation might allow bacteria to outgrow nutrient sources d) Quorum sensing stimulation may allow biofilm reduction e) All are plausible choices

b) Quorum sensing inhibition might reduce bacterial communication and toxin release

27) Which microbe listed below causes foodborne intoxication? a) Shigella b) Salmonella c) Staphylococcus d) Campylobacter e) Vibrio

b) Salmonella

10) Given the information in this figure and your knowledge from Chapter 10, what aspect of the illustration may not be strictly accurate? a) RNA sequencing is not possible because hairpin formations inhibit polymerase activity b) Sequencing runs of 1400 base pairs are unlikely to occur with existing technology c) Universal primer lengths are too short for conventional PCR d) No choices are correct e) Universal primer lengths are too long for conventional PCR

b) Sequencing runs of 1400 base pairs are unlikely to occur with existing technology

20) Methane utilization by methylotrophs is an environmentally important process. Why? a) Methane is a dead-end energy source. b) The process prevents methane, a greenhouse gas, from entering the atmosphere. c) Methane is toxic to fish. d) Methane inhibits photosynthesis. e) The process prevents lakes from becoming anoxic.

b) The process prevents methane, a greenhouse gas, from entering the atmosphere.

53) Which of these best describes assimilatory sulfate reduction? a) The reduction of sulfate to elemental sulfur. b) The reduction of sulfate for incorporation into cellular material. c) The reduction of sulfate to sulfide for excretion by the cell. d) A type of anaerobic respiration. e) An energy yielding process.

b) The reduction of sulfate for incorporation into cellular material.

28) Which of these occurs in anaerobic respiration, but not in aerobic respiration? a) A fermentation product is produced. b) The terminal cytochrome oxidase is replaced by a cytochrome reductase. c) Glucose is only partially oxidized to CO2. d) NADH dehydrogenase is replaced by NADH oxidase. e) Glycolysis.

b) The terminal cytochrome oxidase is replaced by a cytochrome reductase.

23) The difference between a methanotroph and a methylotroph can be explained as: a) a methanotroph can oxidize any substrate which lacks C-C bonds, while a methylotroph oxidizes only methane b) a methylotroph can oxidize any substrate which lacks C-C bonds, while a methanotroph oxidizes only methane c) methylotrophs can always oxidize methane while methanotrophs cannot d) methylotrophs can never oxidize compounds with C-C bonds while methanotrophs oxidize them e) all statements are correct

b) a methylotroph can oxidize any substrate which lacks C-C bonds, while a methanotroph oxidizes only methane

39) All of the following are processes that may be used in the treatment of drinking water except a) filtration. b) activated sludge digestion. c) flocculation. d) chlorination. e) sedimentation.

b) activated sludge digestion.

24) This mold and metabolism are used in the moromi stage of soy sauce production: a) anaerobic Aspergillus strains b) aerobic Aspergillus strains c) aerobic Leuconostoc strains d) anaerobic Leuconostoc strains e) none is active in this phase

b) aerobic Aspergillus strains

33) The activated sludge method of wastewater treatment uses a) a microbial biofilm for organic carbon reduction. b) an inoculum from the previous activated sludge treatment. c) chemolithotrophic bacteria for carbon reduction. d) special chemicals for the removal of organic pollutants. e) large screens to filter out particulate matter.

b) an inoculum from the previous activated sludge treatment.

24) Which of these microbial activities would be first in a chain of metabolite production culminating in methane production? a) yeast ethanol production b) bacterial fatty acid oxidation c) bacterial acetate production d) archaeal conversion of hydrogen to methane e) bacterial conversion of acetate to methane

b) bacterial fatty acid oxidation

13) Small protein molecules produced by a microorganism that adversely affect a closely related microorganism are called a) siderophores. b) bacteriocins. c) lysozymes. d) beta-blockers. e) proteases.

b) bacteriocins.

34) The ________________ is a measure of the amount of oxygen required for the microbial oxidation of organic compounds in a water source. a) chemical oxygen demand b) biological oxygen demand c) respiration rate d) carbon dioxide production e) cell yield

b) biological oxygen demand

45) How would the "dark reactions" of photosynthesis best be described? a) energy generating reactions b) carbon dioxide fixing reactions c) glycolytic reactions d) reducing power generating reactions e) part of photosystem II

b) carbon dioxide fixing reactions

32) Which of these best describes nitrification? a) chemoorganotrophic b) chemolithoautotrophic c) photolithoautotrophic d)photoorgano heterotrophic e) photlithoautotrophic

b) chemolithoautotrophic

6) When you add salt to meat for preservation you are a) increasing the water activity of the meat. b) decreasing the water activity of the meat. c) increasing the pH of the meat. d) decreasing the pH of the meat. e) decreasing the nutrient content of the meat.

b) decreasing the water activity of the meat.

38) Ozonation is a wastewater treatment used to a) remove organic pollutants. b) disinfect wastewater. c) reduce nitrogen levels in the water. d) remove heavy metals that may be present in wastewater. e) remove phosphorus from wastewater.

b) disinfect wastewater.

56) The most common lipids in the cell are synthesized from ___________ and ____________. a) fatty acids and sterol b) fatty acids and glycerol c) fatty acids and hopanoids d) hopanoids and sterols e) glycerol and hopanoids

b) fatty acids and glycerol

49) What possible sources of energy may be used by microbes that live deep within the Earth? a) carbon dioxide and oxygen b) hydrogen gas and ferrous iron c) nitrate and sulfate d) sulfate and ferric iron e) nitrate and ferric iron

b) hydrogen gas and ferrous iron

50) What possible sources of energy may be used by microbes living in hydrothermal vents? a) nitrate and methane b) methane and sulfide c) sulfide and nitrate d) sulfate and nitrate e) sulfate and methane

b) methane and sulfide

21) Fermented soybean products, like miso and tempeh, are produced using a) lactic acid bacteria. b) molds. c) propionate bacteria. d) acetic acid bacteria. e) Saccharomyces.

b) molds.

25) Which elements necessary for microbial life are often limiting in the ocean? a) magnesium and calcium b) nitrogen and phosphorous c) magnesium and chloride d) sodium and calcium e) potassium and magnesium

b) nitrogen and phosphorous

32) How would you best classify most of the microbes from marine environments that cannot be isolated? a) obligate anaerobes b) obligate oligotrophs c) obligate halophiles d) extreme halophiles e) extreme thermophiles

b) obligate oligotrophs

37) Most of the organic matter in soil comes from the decomposition of: a) animals b) plants c) fungi d) protozoa e) algae

b) plants

15) In methane-producing environments large polymers are broken down by a consortium of microbes. This consortium includes: a) obligate aerobic bacteria and methanogens. b) polymer hydrolyzing microbes, fermenters, and methanogens. c) aerobic polymer hydrolyzing microbes and fermenters. d) primary aerobic respiratory microbes and methanogens. e) sulfate-reducing microbes and methanogens.

b) polymer hydrolyzing microbes, fermenters, and methanogens.

34) Enzymes that break down proteins into individual amino acids. a) amylases b) proteases c) reductases d) dehydrogenases e) lipases

b) proteases

5) Which of these regulates the formation of biofilms? a) photosynthesis b) quorum sensing c) water availability d) catabolite repression e) end product repression

b) quorum sensing

41) What are humic substances? a) clay particles b) recalcitrant organic molecules c) glucose molecules d) carbonates and phosphates e) silt and sand

b) recalcitrant organic molecules

7) Select the correct choice for the abundances of elements found in cells, from lowest to highest: a) carbon, sulfur, nitrogen, phosphorous b) sulfur, phosphorus, nitrogen, oxygen c) carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, sulfur d) carbon, potassium, phosphorous, hydrogen e) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur

b) sulfur, phosphorus, nitrogen, oxygen

16) How many NET molecules of ATP are produced during the Embden-Meyerhof pathway of glycolysis for every molecule of glucose that is converted into two molecules of pyruvate? a) one b) two c) four d) six e) ten

b) two

56) with respect to water quality, an indicator organism is one which: (Select all that apply) a) Causes water-borne illness b) Ferments lactose c) Is found in the mammalian intestine d) Forms endospores e) Ferments glucose

bc

59) Silt is defined as: (Select all that apply) a) organic matter found in soil b) mineral particulate with an intermediate size c) a textural component of soil d) a product of hemicellulose digestion e) material found where lower pH soils abound

bc

59) Which paired pathways can perform the same function(s)? (Select all that apply) a) EMP, pentose phosphate pathway b) Entner- Duodoroff, pentose phosphate c) EMP, Entner- Duodoroff d) EMP, TCA cycle e) Pentose phosphate, TCA cycle

bc

52) Which of the following type of radiation may be used to sterilize food? (Select all that apply) a) Long wavelength ultra-violet b) Short wavelength ultra-violet c) Gamma irradiation d) Ionizing e) Infrared

bcd

57) ATP donates energy through: (Select all that apply) a) Phosphate ester bond hydrolysis b) Coupling with an endergonic reaction c) Anhydride bond hydrolysis d) Enzyme-mediated reactions e) none is a correct choice

bcd

58) The laws of thermodynamics state that (Select all that apply) a) Energy can be created in exergonic (catabolic reactions0 b) Systems proceed towards a state of maximum entropy c) Work must be done to maintain a steady state d) Energy is conserved e) Energy can be converted from one form to another

bcde

48) Which of the following are correct statements regarding methane monoxygenase? (Select all that apply) a) the enzyme functions under anaerobic conditions b) microbes possessing this enzyme often reside at the interface between aerobic and anaerobic zones c) methane is converted to methanol in a single step d) methane is converted to formaladehyde in a single step e) electrons released by methane oxidation enter an electron transport chain which generates ATP and water as end products

bce

63) If aspartic acid synthesis within a cell is abnormally low, which of these molecules may also be present in abnormally low concentrations? (Select all that apply) a) glycine b) UTP c) ATP d) threonine e) valine

bd

66) The use of living organisms to clean up chemically contaminated soils is called __________.

bioremediation

55) The koji and moromi stages of soy sauce fermentation differ by these characteristics: (Select all that apply) a) Koji is high-temperature, moromi is low-temerature b) Moromi is low-temerature, koji is high-temperature c) Koji is low-salt conditions, moromi is high-salt conditions d) Moromi is low-salt conditions, koji is high-salt conditions e) Koji is fermentation for several months, moromi is fermentation for several days

c

58) Which gel constituents are essential in ensuring partial DNA strand separation in the DGGE technique? (Select all that apply) a) Urea gradient b) Temperature gradient c) GC-rich primer clamp d) Polyacrylamide e) Applied voltage

c

42) An MPN test where E. coli bacteria have been identified is known as : a) A presumptive test b) A confirmed test c) A completed test d) A conclusive test e) None is a correct choice

c) A completed test

27) Which statement is TRUE with respect to the electron transport system? a) The electron transport system accepts electrons directly from glucose. b) In bacteria, the electron transport system is located in the cytoplasm. c) A proton motive force is generated as electrons move through the system to a terminal acceptor. d) In prokaryotes, protons are transported into the cell as electrons move through the system. e) ATP is produced by a process called substrate-level phosphorylation.

c) A proton motive force is generated as electrons move through the system to a terminal acceptor.

30) What can the proton motive force generated by the electron transport system be used for? a) NADH oxidation, ATP synthesis, and flagella rotation b) NADH oxidation, ATP synthesis, and nutrient transport c) ATP synthesis, flagella rotation, and nutrient transport d) NADH oxidation, flagella rotation, and nutrient transport e) oxygen reduction and ATP synthesis

c) ATP synthesis, flagella rotation, and nutrient transport

26) Which of these is NOT an electron carrier used in the electron transport system? a) flavoproteins b) iron-sulfur proteins c) ATPase d) quinones e) cytochromes

c) ATPase

49) Which set of conditions will most effectively removed nitrogen containing compounds from wastewater to reduce eutrophication? a) Aerobic conditions with addition of nitrifiers and denitrifiers b) Anaerobic conditions with addition of nitrifiers and denitrifiers c) Aerobic conditions with addition of nitrifiers and annamox bacteria d) Anaerobic conditions with addition of denitrifiers and annamox bacteria e) Anaerobic conditions with addition of denitrifiers and annamox bacteria

c) Aerobic conditions with addition of nitrifiers and annamox bacteria

51) What is dissimilatory nitrate reduction? a) The production of nitrate from ammonia. b) The incorporation of nitrate into cellular material. c) Anaerobic reduction of nitrate. d) Nitrogen fixation. e) The production of nitrate from nitrite.

c) Anaerobic reduction of nitrate.

38) Where is the soil's rhizosphere? a) Areas in contact with bodies of water. b) Areas in direct contact with the atmosphere. c) Areas surrounding plant roots. d) Patches that support nitrogen fixation. e) Zones that contain animal life.

c) Areas surrounding plant roots.

5) When considering biogeochemical cycles, the earth is divided into these four major reservoirs. a) Ocean, terrestrial, sedimentary and earth's crust. b) Atmosphere, earth's crust, biological and land. c) Atmosphere, terrestrial, biological and aquatic. d) Terrestrial, aquatic, biological and earth's crust. e) Ocean, freshwater, sedimentary and terrestrial.

c) Atmosphere, terrestrial, biological and aquatic.

26) Which of these characterizes dead zones in the ocean? a) Low temperatures. b) Lacking microbial life. c) Being hypoxic. d) Being oligotrophic. e) Lacking nutrients.

c) Being hypoxic

16) Which one of the following foods is not a fermented milk product? a) Swiss cheese b) Kefir c) Butter d) Butter milk e) Yogurt

c) Butter

35) How can denitrification of soil be reduced? a) By adding lime to the soil. b) By adding ammonia to the soil. c) By keeping the soil well aerated. d) By adding potash to the soil. e) By flooding the soil with water.

c) By keeping the soil well aerated.

46) In the MPN test, at which stage would the first identification of Klebsiella organisms occur? a) Presumptive b) Confirmed c) Completed d) Conclusive e) All stages would permit this identification

c) Completed

31) How is ATP is primarily produced in chemolithotrophs? a) Fermentation reactions. b) Anaerobic respiration. c) Electrons moving through an electron transport system to generate a proton motive force. d) Glycolysis and TCA cycle reactions. e) Using reduced inorganic molecules as electron acceptors for the electron transport system.

c) Electrons moving through an electron transport system to generate a proton motive force.

29) Staphylococcal enterotoxicosis may occur with: a) Recently oven-removed cooked foods b) Canned foods recently opened and then refrigerated c) Foods in warming ovens at a buffet d) Frozen foods like ice cream freshly served e) All have an equal risk

c) Foods in warming ovens at a buffet

42) Some anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria are able to use _______ as an electron source. a) light b) CO2 c) H2S d) H2O e) nitrate

c) H2S

13) Which of these is true regarding soil humus? a) It is quickly broken down by microorganisms. b) It is a minor component of organic carbon in the soil. c) It is degraded very slowly over time. d) It is primarily inorganic in composition. e) It is a polymer of glucose.

c) It is degraded very slowly over time.

12) Which two lanes appear to have DNA from the most closely related or identical microbes/populations? a) Lanes 3 and 4 b) Lanes 4 and 5 c) Lanes 5 and 6 d) Lanes 8 and 9 e) Lanes 12 and 14

c) Lanes 5 and 6

3) Which of these is an example of a coenzyme? a) glucose b) iron c) NAD+ d) cytochrome c e) a kinase

c) NAD+

12) Which of these would occur in an "ideal" food web? a) Organic carbon production > carbon dioxide production. b) Organic carbon production < carbon dioxide production. c) Organic carbon production = carbon dioxide consumption. d) Carbon dioxide consumption < than organic carbon production. e) Carbon dioxide consumption > organic carbon production.

c) Organic carbon production = carbon dioxide consumption.

18) What bacterium is used in the production of Swiss cheese to give it its characteristic flavor and also the holes from carbon dioxide production? a) Pediococcus b) Leuconostoc c) Propionibacterium d) Clostridium e) Pseudomonas

c) Propionibacterium

10) The standard reduction potential (E0') for ferredoxin (Fdox/Fdred) is (-0.43 V). Based on this, which of these would you expect to be true? a) Oxidized ferredoxin to be a good electron donor. b) Oxidized ferredoxin to be a good electron acceptor. c) Reduced ferredoxin to be a good electron donor. d) Reduced ferredoxin to be a good electron acceptor. e) Cannot be determined without knowledge of the other reactant.

c) Reduced ferredoxin to be a good electron donor.

6) The biochemical reaction, PEP + ADP → Pyruvate + ATP, is an example of which of these? a) An oxidation/reduction reaction. b) Oxidative phosphorylation. c) Substrate-level phosphorylation. d) An aldolase catalyzed reaction. e) An electron transport reaction.

c) Substrate-level phosphorylation.

7) How is the activity of an allosteric enzyme regulated? a) By a coenzyme. b) By covalent modification. c) Through the binding of an effector molecule. d) Through the binding of a competitive inhibitor. e) By substrate binding.

c) Through the binding of an effector molecule.

51) At an aw of 0.80, which of these microbes might cause food spoilage? (Select all that apply) a) Staphylococcus aureus b) E. coli c) Typical molds d) Osmophilic microbes e) Pseudomonas

c) Typical molds

41) Where is the reaction center of photosystems located? a) In the cytoplasm. b) In the periplasmic space. c) Within a biological membrane. d) Either in the cytoplasm or within a membrane. e) Within the cell wall.

c) Within a biological membrane.

32) Choose the correct sequence of ATP synthetase subunits encountered by a proton re-entering the cell: a) a subunit, b subunit b) c subunit, b subunit c) a subunit, c subunit d) δ subunit, b subunit e) β subunit, α subunit

c) a subunit, c subunit

17) Which compound listed below would NOT be utilized by an obligate methylotroph? a) methanol b) dimethylamine c) acetate d) formate e) formaldehyde

c) acetate

12) Pickling is a preservation method that uses __________ to help preserve the food. a) alcohol b) acetic acid c) ascorbic acid d) citric acid e) spices

c) ascorbic acid

1) What is the best classification of primary producers found in hydrothermal vents on the ocean bottom? a) photosynthetic b) organotrophs c) chemolithoautotrophs d) chemoorganoheterotrophs e) photolithoautotrophs

c) chemolithoautotrophs

43) A soil with 50% clay, 20% silt and 10% sand is classified texturally as: a) loam b) sandy loam c) clay d) silty clay loam e) sandy clay loam

c) clay

43) Marine.algae have the potential to reduce global warming through generation of: a) Hydrogen sulfide b) Sulfur dioxide c) dimethylsulfoniopropionate d) dimethylsulfide e) methane

c) dimethylsulfoniopropionate

30) All of the following are goals of wastewater treatment except a) reduction of total organic content (TOC). b) removal of harmful pathogens. c) enhancement of the taste of water. d) removal of nitrogen. e) removal of phosphorus.

c) enhancement of the taste of water.

25) Which of these endergonic reactions would be most easily permitted to take place via the activity of hydrogenotrophic methanogens? a) butyrate oxidation b) propionate oxidation c) ethanol oxidation d) all will be oxididized with equal efficiency e) the reactions cannot proceed under any conditions because of the positive ΔGo' values

c) ethanol oxidation

35) The release of high levels of nitrogen and phosphorus into streams after wastewater treatment will result in a) the production of high quality water for plant irrigation. b) water that tastes bad. c) eutrophication of the stream. d) increased nutrients for the fish in the stream. e) increase in oxygen levels in the stream.

c) eutrophication of the stream.

21) The fluorescence seen in this photograph is a result of: a) gfp promoterless gene constructs b) fluorescently labeled antibodies c) fluorescence of ethidium bromide, a DNA detecting stain d) fluorescently-labeled primers used for DNA synthesis e) fluorescently-labeled primers used for RNA synthesis

c) fluorescence of ethidium bromide, a DNA detecting stain

50) Which amino acids are the primary nitrogen donors for biosynthetic reactions in the cell? a) glycine and glutamate b) glycine and serine c) glutamine and glutamate d) glutamine and serine e) serine and glutamate

c) glutamine and glutamate

42) All of the following but one are xenobiotics that frequently contaminate our terrestrial environments. Which one does NOT represent a xenobiotic? a) polychlorinated biphenyls b) polycyclic aromatics c) lignin d) trichloroethylene e) nitroaromatics

c) lignin

19) Methanotrophs, in contrast to non-methanotrophic methylotrophs, may contain this enzyme. a) methane carboxylase b) methane lyase c) methane monooxygenase d) methane dehydrogenase e) methane kinase

c) methane monooxygenase

2) Microbes are able to generate energy through the: a) oxidation of organic compounds only. b) reduction of organic compounds only. c) oxidation of inorganic and organic compounds. d) reduction of inorganic and organic compounds. e) synthesis of ATP.

c) oxidation of inorganic and organic compounds.

54) The leguminous plant symbionts protect FeMo-co by: a) sequestration of N2 in heterocysts b) production of methemoglobin to lower oxidative potential within root nodules c) production of leghemoglobin to lower oxidative potential within root nodules d) production of leghemoglobin to lower reductive potential within root nodules e) inhibiting ATP formation

c) production of leghemoglobin to lower oxidative potential within root nodules

21) Lactic acid is a common fermentation product. It is produced when ___________ is reduced by electrons received from NADH. a) ethanol b) glucose c) pyruvate d) acetyl-CoA e) 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde

c) pyruvate

7) The most common food preservation method used in US households is a) canning. b) curing meat. c) refrigeration. d) heating. e) freeze-drying.

c) refrigeration.

43) The purple sulfur bacteria produce reducing power during the light reactions of photosynthesis by what process? a) cyclic photophosphorylation b) the Calvin cycle c) reverse electron flow d) the reverse TCA cycle e) the Parnas pathway

c) reverse electron flow

36) Soil texture classification is based on the percent of __________ that make up the soil. a) air, water, and solids b) water and solids c) sand, silt, and clay d) sand and water e) clay and sand

c) sand, silt, and clay

35) In terrestrial environments, where is the greatest microbial diversity found? a) lakes b) rivers and streams c) soil d) rocks e) springs

c) soil

28) Which is the major nitrogen reservoir on Earth? a) plants b) microbes c) the atmosphere d) ocean biomass e) organic matter in soil

c) the atmosphere

44) Cyanobacteria use _______ as an electron source for the reduction of NADP+. a) sulfur b) glucose c) water d) carbon dioxide e) nitrate

c) water

39) Soil microbes surrounding the plant root contribute to plant growth by providing the plants with all of the following EXCEPT: a) a source of fixed nitrogen. b) soluble phosphorus. c) water. d) a usable carbon source. e) protection from pathogens.

c) water.

61) The burning of fossil fuels has contributed to an increase in the atmospheric gas _______ ________.

carbon dioxide

52) Which microbes metabolize hydrogen during methanogenesis? (Select all that apply) a) primary fermenters b) secondary fermenters c) homoacetogens d) acetotrophic methanogens e) hydrogenotrophic methanogens

ce

55) Given the information in this figure and your knowledge from Chapter 10, what limitations to this technique exist or may exist? a) RNA sequencing is not possible because hairpin formations inhibit polymerase activity b) Sequencing runs of 1400 base pairs are unlikely to occur with existing technology c) Universal primers for SSU rRNA have not yet been designed d) No choices are correct e) Universal primers for SSU rRNA cannot be designed as there are no highly enough conserved sequence regions

ce

63) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.

consortium

59) The MPN test estimates 34 potential fecal coliforms per 100 ml of sample water. Which results may have been observed? (Select all that apply) a) Positive results in 4 in the 10ml samples, 3 in the 1ml samples and 1 from the 0.1ml samples b) Positive results in 4 in the 10ml samples, 2 in the 1ml samples and 1 from the 0.1ml samples c) Positive results in 5 in the 10ml samples, 1 in the 1ml samples and 0 from the 0.1ml samples d) Positive results in 5 in the 10ml samples, 0 in the 1ml samples and 1 from the 0.1ml samples e) Positive results in 4 in the 10ml samples, 4 in the 1ml samples and 0 from the 0.1ml samples

d

15) How much energy is released when NADH donates its electrons to cytochrome b? a) 0.245 kJ/mole b) -0.245 kJ/mole c) 37.3 kJ/mole d) -47.3 kJ/mole e) -27.2 kJ/mole

d) -47.3 kJ/mole

48) The MPN test generates positive tube numbers of 4 in the 10ml samples, 3 in the 1ml samples and 0 from the 0.1ml samples. What is the most likely number of organisms present in the original sample? a) 33 microbes per ml b) 20 microbes per 100 ml c) 33 microbes per liter d) 27 microbes per 100 ml e) 46 microbes per ml

d) 27 microbes per 100 ml

38) What is the chromophore of the chlorophyll molecule composed of? a) A carotenoid molecule with an atom of iron in the center. b) A porphyrin molecule with an atom of iron in the center. c) A phycoerythrin with an atom of iron in the center. d) A porphyrin molecule with an atom of magnesium in the center. e) A phycoerythrin molecule with an atom of magnesium in the center.

d) A porphyrin molecule with an atom of magnesium in the center.

5) Which of these is the most widely used form of energy in cell processes? a) glucose b) NADH c) pyruvate d) ATP e) citrate

d) ATP

2) Which one of the following foods would have the highest water activity? a) Almonds b) Honey c) Dried Beans d) Apple e) Rice

d) Apple

40) Bacteria which assist in making phosphorous available to plants include; a) Desulfovibrio b) Candidatus c) Clostridium d) Bacillus e) None is a correct choice

d) Bacillus

15) All of the following microbes play an important role in the production of fermented milk products except for a) Lactobacillus. b) Leuconostoc. c) Lactococcus. d) Clostridium. e) Streptococcus.

d) Clostridium.

15) FISH is a fluorescent microscopic technique used to differentiate microbes using this fluorescently labeled material. a) antibody b) antigen c) protein d) DNA probe e) lipid

d) DNA probe

34) Which industrial process is used for the production of ammonia for land application? a) Mattox b) Havel - Brill c) Dalgarno d) Haber-Bosch e) Anderson-Plamann

d) Haber-Bosch

9) Why is carbon dioxide considered a greenhouse gas? a) It is fixed by plants during photosynthesis. b) It is produced during the oxidation of organic compounds. c) It is found in high concentrations in greenhouses. d) It absorbs heat attempting to escape the atmosphere. e) It is utilized by suspended microbes in the atmosphere.

d) It absorbs heat attempting to escape the atmosphere.

14) Which of these statements is TRUE regarding oxygen use and utilizers of methanogenesis? a) It is aerobic, and carried out by Bacteria. b) It is aerobic, and carried out by Archaea. c) It is anaerobic, and carried out by Bacteria. d) It is anaerobic, and carried out by Archaea. e) It is anaerobic, and carried out by Eukarya.

d) It is anaerobic, and carried out by Archaea.

11) What does a large positive ΔE0' indicate for a redox reaction? a) It is endergonic. b) It has a positive ΔG0'. c) It will require an input of energy. d) It is spontaneous. e) It is energetically unfavorable.

d) It is spontaneous.

25) Which of these sets are products of the TCA (Krebs) Cycle? a) NADH, ATP, CO2, and oxaloacetate b) NADH, FADH2, and GTP c) NADH, FADH2, and oxaloacetate d) NADH, FADH2, CO2, and GTP e) NADH, FADH2, CO2, and oxaloacetate

d) NADH, FADH2, CO2, and GTP

31) Which of these summarizes the overall process of denitrification? a) N2 → NH3 b) biomass → ammonia c) NO3- → ammonia → biomass d) NO3- →N2 e) ammonia → NO3-

d) NO3- →N2

20) Fermentation can most accurately be described by which of these? a) The reoxidation of NADH by an electron transport chain. b) A process that occurs in the absence of oxygen. c) An energy producing process found in all anaerobes. d) The direct reoxidation of NADH by an internal organic molecule. e) The use of a terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen.

d) The direct reoxidation of NADH by an internal organic molecule.

12) Which of these is TRUE for a chemoorganoheterotroph? a) Uses inorganic carbon as an energy source and organic carbon as a carbon source. b) Uses inorganic carbon as an electron source and organic carbon as a carbon source. c) Uses organic carbon as an electron source and inorganic carbon as a carbon source. d) Uses organic carbon as an electron source and a carbon source. e) Uses inorganic carbon as an energy source and a carbon source.

d) Uses organic carbon as an electron source and a carbon source.

31) To grow the widest diversity of marine microbes from the open ocean requires growth media that contain which of the following? a) High concentrations of vitamins. b) High concentrations of carbohydrates and salts. c) High concentrations of siderophores. d) Very low carbon concentrations. e) Very low concentrations of proteins and high concentrations of carbohydrates.

d) Very low carbon concentrations.

38) Which one of the following is NOT a reservoir for oxygen? a) the atmosphere b) carbon dioxide c) nitrate d) ammonia e) water

d) ammonia

20) The protease rennin is used in the production of a) butter. b) yogurt. c) kefir. d) cheese. e) ice cream.

d) cheese.

48) Nitrogen fixation is the reduction of _______ to ammonia for cell use. a) nitrate b) nitrite c) hydroxylamine d) dinitrogen e) nitric oxide

d) dinitrogen

5) Lyophilization is a) the acidification of food for long term storage. b) a type of canning technique. c) sun-dried food. d) freeze-drying of food. e) salting of food for storage.

d) freeze-drying of food.

35) Monosaccharides which can be utilized for energy in the pentose phosphate pathway include all of the following EXCEPT: a) glucose b) ribose c) xylulose d) galactose e) arabinose

d) galactose

11) Most milk sold in stores today has an extended shelf life primarily because of: a) ultra-high temperature pasteurization b) refrigeration c) Tyndallization d) high temperature short term pasteurization e) low temperature hold pasteurization

d) high temperature short term pasteurization

16) Many metabolic reactions in anaerobic environments are driven by methanogens because of the rapid utilization of this material during methanogenesis. a) carbon dioxide b) sulfate c) formate d) hydrogen e) nitrogen

d) hydrogen

1) A chemical reaction that has a negative ΔG0' a) is an endergonic reaction. b) will require an input of energy. c) is not a spontaneous reaction. d) is an energy yielding reaction. e) will absorb energy.

d) is an energy yielding reaction.

20) FACS may employ which all the following EXCEPT: a) laser fluorescence detector b) fluorescently labeled antibodies c) gfp promoterless gene constructs d) laser probe to destroy unlabeled cells e) differential flow to move cells to a variety of end containers

d) laser probe to destroy unlabeled cells

23) Which of these represents MOST of the ocean's organisms? a) fish b) sea mammals c) archaea d) marine viruses e) bacteria

d) marine viruses

44) Which of these terms refers to a substance which does NOT reduce global warming? a) Osmolyte b) dimethylsulfoniopropionate c) dimethylsulfide d) methane e) all reduce global warming

d) methane

4) Which of these is the LEAST important physiological activity to consider when studying an ecosystem? a) primary production by chemolithotrophs b) primary production by phototrophs c) decomposition by chemoorganotrophs d) methane production by methanogens e) biogeochemical cycling of the elements

d) methane production by methanogens

11) The main primary producers in aquatic environments are _______, while in terrestrial environments the main primary producers are __________. a) plants, plants b) microbes, microbes c) plants, microbes d) microbes, plants e) microbes and plants contribute equally in both environments

d) microbes, plants

6) Microbes which display the same physiological responses to environment and others within a community are said to occupy the same: a) ecosystem b) biofilm c) community d) niche e) environment

d) niche

51) Moderate temperature and neutral pH geothermal springs in terrestrial environments may contain __________ as primary producers. a) chemolithotrophs b) oxygenic phototrophs c) anoxygenic phototrophs d) oxygenic and anoxygenic phototrophs e) oxygenic and anoxygenic phototrophs and chemolithotrophs

d) oxygenic and anoxygenic phototrophs

8) Oxidative phosphorylation uses ALL of the following for energy production EXCEPT: a) electrons from NADH. b) membrane-associated electron transport chain. c) an ATP synthase. d) phosphoenolpyruvate. e) a proton motive force.

d) phosphoenolpyruvate.

4) Vacuum packaging inhibits the growth of microbes that a) are obligate anaerobes. b) rely on fermentation for energy metabolism. c) are aerotolerant anaerobes. d) rely on aerobic respiration for growth. e) are chemolithotrophs.

d) rely on aerobic respiration for growth.

31) The main goal of the primary treatment phase of wastewater treatment is the a) reduction of total organic content (TOC). b) removal of pathogenic microbes. c) reduction of nitrogen. d) removal of particulate matter. e) removal of toxic chemicals.

d) removal of particulate matter.

44) A soil with 35% clay, 65% silt and 20% sand is classified texturally as: a) loam b) sandy loam c) clay d) silty clay loam e) sandy clay loam

d) silty clay loam

19) Microorganisms that rely solely on fermentation reactions for energy production make ATP primarily by this method. a) oxidative phosphorylation b) electron transport phosphorylation c) membrane bound ATPase d) substrate-level phosphorylation e) the oxidation of NADH

d) substrate-level phosphorylation

22) The products of yeast fermentation, following the Embden-Meyerhof pathway of glycolysis for one molecule of glucose, are two ethanol molecules as well as these others. a) two ATP and two NADH b) two ATP, two NADH, and two CO2 c) four ATP and two NADH d) two ATP and two CO2 e) four ATP, two NADH, and two CO2

d) two ATP and two CO2

8) Canning is a technique used in food preservation. The food to be canned is heated to boiling for an hour a) in the presence of high salt. b) under acidic conditions. c) with a preservative added for long term storage. d) under pressure of 10 - 15 psi. e) and immediately chilled after boiling.

d) under pressure of 10 - 15 psi.

33) Term for the primary pathway for fatty acid oxidation? a) Calvin cycle b) pentose phosphate pathway c) Parnas pathway d) β-oxidation pathway e) reductive TCA pathway

d) β-oxidation pathway

51) Which microbes are directly responsible for methane production? (Select all that apply) a) primary fermenters b) secondary fermenters c) homoacetogens d) acetotrophic methanogens e) hydrogenotrophic methanogens

de

65) The anaerobic process that results in the reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen gas is called ______________.

denitrification

76) The reduction of nitrate to a gaseous form of nitrogen, such as dinitrogen, is called __________.

denitrification

2) What is the oxidation state of carbon in carbon dioxide? a) 0 b) -2 c) -4 d) +2 e) +4

e) +4

27) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in nitrate? a) -3 b) -1 c) +1 d) +3 e) +5

e) +5

1) What is the oxidation state of carbon in methane? a) +1 b) + 2 c) -1 d) -2 e) -4

e) -4

3) Evidence of microbial food spoilage requires the presence of at least _________ microbes per gram. a) 100 b) 1000 c) 10,000 d 100,000 e) 1,000,000

e) 1,000,000

28) The coastal marine waters contain on average about _________ microbial cells per ml. a) 10 b) 100 c) 10,000 d) 1 million e) 100 million

e) 100 million

47) From the study of deep subsurface microbiology, what is the approximate upper temperature limit for microbial growth? a) 80°C b) 90°C c) 100°C d) 110°C e) 120°C

e) 120°C

48) What is the deepest that viable microorganisms have been found in the Earth's crust? a) 100 meters b) 500 meters c) 1000 meters d) 1500 meters e) 3000 meters

e) 3000 meters

37) The product(s) of the light reactions of photosynthesis. a) glucose and ATP b) glucoseonly c) ATPonly d) glucose and NADPH e) ATP and NADPH

e) ATP and NADPH

46) Bacteria capable of iron reduction include all of the following except: a) Euryarchaeota b) Crenarchaeota c) Proteobacteria d) Archaea e) Firmicultes

e) Firmicultes

25) The most efficient production of vinegar is achieved with the: a) trickle method b) quick method c) Orleans method d) Appertiizer method e) Frings method

e) Frings method

54) Which organisms has NOT been discovered as part of a hydrothermal vent comminity? a) Tube worms b) Shrimp c) Anemones d) Octopus e) Kelp

e) Kelp

8) Select the pair of microbes belonging to the same guild: a) Methanobrevibacter smithii, E. coli b) E. coli, Caulobacter c) Pseudomonas, Desulfovibrio d) Azotobacter, Pseudomonas e) None is a correct choice

e) None is a correct choice

22) Vinegar production occurs through the oxidation of ethanol by a) lactic acid bacteria. b) the yeast Saccharomyces. c) various molds. d) sulfate-reducing bacteria. e) acetic acid bacteria.

e) acetic acid bacteria.

3) Which of these is NOT an advantage of living in a biofilm community? a) protection from predation b) water availability c) protection from toxins d) nutrient availability e) all are advantages of biofilm community living

e) all are advantages of biofilm community living

39) Biological uses for phosphorus include: a) incorporation into lipids b) incorporation into cofactors c) incorporation into nucleic acids d) protein activity regulation e) all are correct

e) all are correct

30) Which of these summarizes the overall reaction for nitrification? a) NO3- → NO2- b) NO2- → NO3- c) NO3- → ammonia → biomass d) NO3- →N2 e) ammonia → NO3-

e) ammonia → NO3-

6) Select the correct choice for the abundances of elements found in cells, from highest to lowest: a) carbon, sulfur, nitrogen, phosphorous b) sulfur, phosphorus, nitrogen, sodium c) carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, sulfur d) carbon, potassium, phosphorous e) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur

e) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur

34) Which of these pairs best categorizes water below the thermocline in a lake during the summer? a) warm and aerobic b) low density and anaerobic c) cold and aerobic d) low density and aerobic e) cold and anaerobic

e) cold and anaerobic

36) Ammonia monooxygenase characteristics include: a) conversion of nitrite to nitrate b) conversion of nitrate to nitrite c) conversion of ammonia to nitrate d) conversion of ammonia to nitrite e) conversion of ammonia to hydroxylamine

e) conversion of ammonia to hydroxylamine

55) The biosynthesis of amino acids requires starting intermediates from which of these pathways? a) glycolysis only b) the TCA cycle only c) glycolysis and TCA cycle d) the pentose phosphate pathway and glycolysis e) glycolysis, TCA cycle, and the pentose phosphate pathway

e) glycolysis, TCA cycle, and the pentose phosphate pathway

36) Disaccharides which can be utilized for energy via conversion to glucose include all of the following EXCEPT: a) lactose b) maltose c) sucrose d) cellobiose e) hemicellulose

e) hemicellulose

29) Which of the following would NOT be appropriate as a terminal electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration? a) nitrate (NO3-) b) sulfate (SO42-) c) sulfur (S0) d) ferric iron (Fe3+) e) hydrogen sulfide (H2S)

e) hydrogen sulfide (H2S)

22) Which of these represents MOST of the ocean's biomass? a) fish b) sea mammals c) fish and sea mammals d) marine plants e) microbes

e) microbes

13) Given your knowledge from previous chapters, particularly chapter 14, which of the genes listed is likely to display the most sequence diversity, and why? a) SSU .rRNA because its ubiquity means evolutionary diversity is inevitable b) nif because nitrogen fixation may have evolved independently in a wide variety of organisms c) pmoA becuae both membrane bound and cytoplasmic forms of the enzyme have been identified d) all of the choices are valid e) not all choices are valid, but those with validity still do not provide enough information for an evauation to be made

e) not all choices are valid, but those with validity still do not provide enough information for an evauation to be made

14) Cyanobacteria carry out oxygenic photosynthesis producing oxygen as a byproduct from the oxidation of water, which serves as the electron donor for the light-dependent reactions. How would cyanobacteria be classified? a) chemoorganoautotroph b) chemoorganoheterotroph c) photolithoheterotroph d) photoorganoautotroph e) photolithoautotroph

e) photolithoautotroph

29) Which of these best summarizes the contribution of cyanobacteria in the open ocean? a) primary carbon production b) oxygenation of the waters c) nitrogen fixation d) primary carbon production and oxygenation of the waters e) primary carbon production, oxygenation of the waters, and nitrogen fixation

e) primary carbon production, oxygenation of the waters, and nitrogen fixation

40) Which organisms contain bacteriochlorophyll? a) cyanobacteria b) cyanobacteria and purple non-sulfur bacteria c) cyanobacteria and green sulfur bacteria d) cyanobacteria, purple sulfur bacteria, and green sulfur bacteria e) purple sulfur, purple non-sulfur, and green sulfur bacteria

e) purple sulfur, purple non-sulfur, and green sulfur bacteria

49) How many ATP molecules is/are required to "fix" a molecule of nitrogen? a) one b) two c) four d) eight e) sixteen

e) sixteen

21) The anaerobic oxidation of methane by some archaeons may occur syntrophically with these organisms. a) nitrogen fixing bacteria b) nitrifying bacteria c) denitrifying bacteria d) iron-oxidizing bacteria e) sulfate-reducing bacteria

e) sulfate-reducing bacteria

37) Anaerobic digesters at wastewater treatment plants are used to a) reduce nitrogen and phosphorus in wastewater. b) remove toxic organic pollutants. c) remove potential pathogens. d) treat wastewater effluent. e) treat sludge and particulates collected during waste treatment.

e) treat sludge and particulates collected during waste treatment.

57) T/F: Members of the Plantae are the primary producers in aquatic environments.

false

59) T/F: Methane cannot be oxidized back to CO2 under anaerobic conditions.

false

62) T/F: Chemical food preservatives like sodium benzoate, acetic acid, and propionate can only be used to protect alkaline foods.

false

63) T/F: A person eats some leftover potato salad from a picnic and becomes ill within three hours. This type of food poisoning is referred to as a "food-infection".

false

64) T/F: Deep subsurface environment are considered to be void of microbial life.

false

66) T/F: A net gain of four ATP are produced during glycolysis from the conversion of glucose to pyruvate.

false

68) T/F: Most of the electrons that are donated to the electron transport chain by intermediate electron carriers are derived from oxidation/reduction reactions in glycolysis.

false

70) T/F: The β-oxidation pathway is used for the breakdown of nucleotides for use as carbon source.

false

64) The chemoautotrophic process that results in the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite is called ____________.

nitrification

74) During the respiratory process, as electrons are passed through the electron transport chain, a ________ ________ force is generated across a biological membrane to drive the synthesis of ATP by a membrane associated ATP synthase.

proton motive

65) The part of the soil that immediately surrounds the plant root is called the __________.

rhizosphere

67) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.

sulfide

75) The photosynthetic membranes in cyanobacteria are called __________ membranes.

thylakoid

56) T/F: Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.

true

58) T/F: Methanogenesis helps drive a number of other microbial processes in anaerobic environments through the removal of hydrogen gas.

true

60) T/F: Foods with high water activity will usually spoil faster than foods with a low water activity.

true

60) T/F: The process of denitrification is an anaerobic process.

true

61) T/F: The addition of salt to certain food for preservation has been used for hundreds of years. Salt helps to preserve food by lowering the water activity.

true

62) T/F: Microbes can form a biofilm on any type of surface.

true

63) T/F: Estimates of overall microbial abundance in the ocean indicate that more Archaea are present than Bacteria.

true

64) T/F: One of the main reasons for wastewater treatment is to reduce the BOD.

true

67) T/F: Fermentation reactions reoxidize NADH.

true

69) T/F: Energy production by chemolithotrophs is the result of inorganic molecule oxidation and passage of electrons into an electron transport chain for the generation of a proton motive force to drive an ATPase for the synthesis of ATP.

true

71) T/F: Most cells prefer to assimilate nitrogen as ammonia.

true

72) T/F: The assimilation of sulfate requires energy.

true

73) T/F: The starting intermediate for the synthesis of the amino acid glutamate is α-ketoglutarate.

true