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MCC 19-2 State FF I and II Exam prep

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54. How much of the body is structural firefighting PPE designed to cover? A) Every square inch B) All but the neck and ears C) All but the ears D) All but the wrists

56. What is the purpose of the moisture barriers found in structural firefighting PPE? A) To keep liquids and vapors from reaching the skin B) To keep steam evolved from the body from escaping C) To keep perspiration from the body from evaporating D) To keep the skin from drying out

57. What part of the structural firefighting PPE is designed to protect the neck and ears? A) The fire-retardant hood B) The thermal collar C) The neck swath D) The SCBA mask

65. When donning SCBA, fire fighters should check to ensure that the cylinder has at least a certain minimum specified percentage of its capacity of air. What percentage? A) 90% B) 75% C) 50% D) 10%

67. At what types of emergency incidents should ICS be implemented? A) At all emergency incidents B) At structure fires only C) At hazardous materials incidents only D) At known-victim incidents only

74. What is the rule about fire fighter seat belt use while en route to an emergency call? A) Seat belts must be worn. B) Seat belts must be worn except if donning PPE or SCBA. C) Seat belts may be worn. D) Seat belts are normally not worn.

80. What other piece of equipment must be worn with structural firefighting PPE and SCBA? A) PASS device B) IACOM communicator C) AGPS tracking system D) IEEA reflecting metal

82. How are protective hoods worn? A) Over the face piece but under the helmet B) Over the face piece and over the helmet C) Under the face piece and under the helmet D) Under the face piece but over the helmet

29. What type of fire company is responsible for securing a water source, deploying handlines, conducting search and rescue operations, and putting water on the fire? A) Engine company B) Truck company C) Pumper company D) Firefighting company

32. What characterizes the set of guidelines that a department establishes for fire fighters? A) Discipline B) Division of labor C) Unity of command D) Span of control

52. What is one sign or symptom of heat stroke? A) Lack of sweating B) Whooping breathing C) Profuse sweating D) Cheynes-Stokes breathing

53. How soon after a traumatic call should CISD be held? A) As soon as possible B) After returning to the station, showering, and calming down C) Some time during the next shift D) Not less than three days later, preferably in the evening

445. Why should rope be protected from prolonged exposure to sunlight? A) Because exposure to ultraviolet radiation can damage rope B) Because the inside of a rope heats up to damaging temperatures C) Because the heat causes delamination of the sheath of ropes D) Because the rope can easily become hot enough to the touch to cause burns

1294. Who provides online medical control? A) An EMS physician B) An EMT-Paramedic C) A computer software package D) A medical reference company

1295. Who determines and approves the continuing education and training courses that are required to ensure that proper EMS training standards are met? A) Medical director B) EMS training officer C) State certification agency D) LEPC

130. What two pieces of information are required by the telecommunicator when he or she is first taking a call? A) Location of the emergency and nature of the situation B) Nature of the situation and history leading up to it C) History leading up to the situation and identities of those involved D) Identities of those involved and location of the emergency

1302. What does the D stand for in AED? A) Defibrillator B) Deficiency C) Detector D) Device

1304. ALS personnel use standing orders, protocols, and radio direction from the physician to assure treatment that is both correct and: A) uniform. B) incorrect. C) economical. D) guaranteed.

1310. What does the E stand for in CME? A) Education B) Emergency C) Energy D) Emetic

1311. CEUs often count toward: A) EMS provider recertification. B) EMS agency DOT requirements. C) USFA driving refresher skills. D) fire department cross-training.

1312. What is one disadvantage to combination fire department EMS systems? A) A fire company may be out of service a long time waiting for an ambulance. B) A fire company may be out of service a long time if the transport is to a distant hospital. C) Combination system units cannot serve as EMT training preceptor vehicles. D) Fire department personnel have no defined role until the ambulance arrives.

1316. Who is the ongoing working liaison for the medical community, hospitals, and the EMS providers? A) Medical director B) Chief fire inspector C) EMS training officer D) State certification agency

1317. Victim assessment, splinting, CPR, and controlling bleeding are examples of the emergency medical skills expected to be performed by a fire fighter trained to the ________ level. A) BLS B) CLS C) ELS D) TLS

132. What does the N stand for in ANI? A) Number B) Network C) Normal D) Name

1321. What is the term for medical control that directs EMS providers to take specific actions for emergency incidents? A) Standing orders B) Indirect actions C) Guidelines D) Directives

1327. Which cells in the human body are the most sensitive to being deprived of oxygen? A) Brain B) Liver C) Skin D) Heart

1329. What is the dome-shaped muscle between the chest and the abdomen? A) Diaphragm B) Peritoneum C) Epigastris D) Umbilicus

1330. What is the thin flapper valve in the throat that allows air to enter the trachea but prevents food or water from doing so? A) Epiglottis B) Tympanum C) Patella D) Mitral valve

1334. To check for adequate breathing, one must look, listen, and: A) feel. B) say. C) stop. D) tell

1337. Gastric distention increases the likelihood that the victim will: A) vomit. B) spontaneously recover. C) have a seizure. D) herniate the diaphragm.

1338. Where does blood from the right ventricle of the heart go? A) Lungs B) Kidneys C) Digestive tract D) The whole body

1342. For infant CPR, which pulse is checked? A) Brachial B) Carotid C) Radial D) Pedal

1345. What is the legal term for discontinuing CPR without either the order of a physician or turning the victim over to someone of equal or superior training? A) Abandonment B) Nonfeasance C) Assisted suicide D) Dereliction

1348. What is the most serious type of bleeding? A) Arterial B) Venous C) Capillary D) Tissue

135. What is one potential problem with wireless phones calling 9-1-1? A) The calls can be routed to a neighboring jurisdiction by mistake. B) Wireless callers are often pranksters or deliberately malicious callers. C) Many wireless phones are pre-programmed not to allow special calls, such as 9-1-1 or 4-1-1. D) When a wireless phone calls 9-1-1, the call is routed to a national center resulting in considerable delay.

1352. How is HBV spread? A) By direct contact with infected blood B) By inhalation of airborne particles C) By intimate sexual contact only D) By sharing living facilities, especially eating utensils

1356. What is the medical term for the windpipe? A) Trachea B) Medulla C) Esophagus D) Carotid artery

1359. What are the tiny air sacs at the end of the airway called? A) Alveoli B) Bronchi C) Esophagi D) Umbilici

136. What does the second D stand for in TDD? A) Deaf B) Dispatch C) Dedicated D) Dialer

1367. During rescue breathing, what should be done with firmly attached dental appliances? A) They should be left in place. B) They should be removed if hand pressure alone is enough to do so. C) They should be removed no matter what pressure is required to do so. D) Single or double bridges should be left in place, all others should be removed.

137. What should any incoming calls without voice contact at the other end be checked for? A) TDD/TTY/text phone systems B) Fax or modem initiation signals C) Instant messaging signal D) National wireless routing center delay

1374. What, exactly, does the medical term "shock" mean? A) Failure of the circulatory system B) A sudden overwhelming emotional reaction C) A period of fainting due to horror or fear D) A transitory state of hysterical inability to act or reason

1377. How can arterial bleeding be recognized? A) It spurts from the wound. B) It oozes steadily from the wound. C) It is tinted dark red or blue. D) It seems yellowish or clear.

138. How can an active phone call be traced? A) A second telecommunicator, on a second phone line, must call the phone company and request the trace. B) Communications centers can activate a trace by pressing star-6-1-1-6. C) All calls to all communications centers are automatically traced by the phone company, which only needs to be asked for the information. D) Tracing phone calls is an obsolete technology and is no longer available.

1380. What emotional problem accounts for 20 percent of violent attacks? A) Depression B) Hallucinations C) Multiple personality disorder D) Autism

1384. What NFPA standard contains information on a fire department infection control program? A) 1581 B) 1561 C) 1521 D) 1500

139. What is it called when picking up a particular telephone causes an immediate ring to a particular other phone, with no other choice? A) A ring down B) A field pack C) A negotiation set D) A Phillips phone

1390. What is the most important sign of inadequate breathing? A) Respiratory arrest B) Cardiac arrest C) Wheezing D) Gurgling

1394. What technique is used to assist an airway obstruction in an infant? A) Combination back slaps and chest thrusts B) Back slaps C) Chest thrusts D) Abdominal thrusts

1398. What is the major artery in the groin? A) Femoral B) Carotid C) Radial D) Brachial

14. What is another term for truck companies? A) Ladder companies B) Engine companies C) Utility companies D) Rapid intervention companies

1402. What should a fire fighter do if a victim vomits during CPR? A) Roll the victim on his or her side and clear the vomit. B) Rinse the vomit out of the victim's mouth. C) Leave the vomit in place. D) The victim will not vomit during CPR.

1406. With what type of bleeding does the blood have a steady flow and is dark red? A) Venous B) Arterial C) Cardiary D) Capillary

141. What does the squelch feature on a radio do? A) Adjust sensitivity of radio signal reception B) Enable the transmission of a message C) Change the transmission power setting D) Switch channels from one to another

1410. If direct pressure and elevation do not stop the bleeding, what should you do next? A) Pressure points B) Tourniquet C) Military anti-shock trousers D) Pneumatic anti-shock garment

145. What is the correct term for a radio system permanently mounted in a building? A) Base station B) Hardwire system C) Land radio system D) Repeater system

15. What type of company is usually responsible for rescuing victims from fires, confined spaces, trenches, and high-angle situations? A) Rescue company B) Barrel company C) Wildland company D) ARFF company

158. Which ICS section is responsible for keeping vehicles fueled and providing food for fire fighters? A) Logistics B) Liaison C) Operations D) Safety

165. How is the supervisor of a task force designated? A) Task force leader B) Task commander C) Task force officer D) Task brigadier

185. How are the chiefs of the four major functional components known, collectively? A) As the ICS general staff B) As the planning committee C) As the tactics committee D) As the ICS council

190. In ICS terminology, what is a single resource? A) A single fire fighter B) A single person, fire fighter or not C) A substance that will be applied, such as water D) An individual vehicle and its assigned personnel

191. What is the term for a group of fire fighters who are working without apparatus and have an assigned leader? A) Crew B) Group C) Resource D) Strike force

196. What is the term for an assembly of five units of the same type with an assigned leader? A) Strike team B) Attack force C) Regiment D) Brigade

198. What is one of the three basic ICS components that always apply to every incident? A) You always report to one supervisor. B) Level II staging is always located downwind. C) The PIO always reports to the logistics section chief. D) The logistics section is always the first to be filled.

199. What method of communication of the necessary transfer-of-command information is most effective? A) Face to face B) Simplex radio broadcasts C) Duplex radio broadcasts D) Written report with diagrams

201. What NFPA Standard is titled Emergency Services Incident Command System? A) 1561 B) 1571 C) 1581 D) 1591

204. What level of supervision can an IC establish in charge of a number of divisions or groups? A) Branch director B) Task force leader C) Strike team leader D) Company commander

21. What NFPA Standard specifies training and performance qualifications for firefighters? A) 1001 B) 1002 C) 1003 D) 1004

215. What is the method of choice for extinguishing most Class B fires? A) Excluding the oxygen B) Cooling the fuel C) Interrupting the chemical chain reaction D) Polymerizing the fuel

219. What is one warning signal of possible backdraft conditions? A) Glass that is smoke-stained and blackened due to heavy carbon deposits from the smoke B) Smoke observed pouring out a burned-through opening in the roof C) Front door unaccountably wide open D) Upper windows observed to be open or shattered

224. What is the term for a chemical reaction that produces heat? A) Exothermic B) Thermodynamic C) Isothermic D) Thermostatic

225. What type of oxidation is combustion? A) Rapid B) Slow C) Reverse D) Static

228. Down to what temperature, can gasoline still give off flammable vapors? A) -45º F B) -15º F C) 0º F D) 32º F

234. What is the second phase of fire? A) Growth B) Explosion C) Full development D) Incipience

237. When water is converted to steam, how much space does the steam take up as compared to the space taken up by the water that created it? A) Steam takes up many times more space. B) They take up exactly the same space. C) Steam takes up slightly less space. D) Steam takes up much less space.

241. Which process occurs when oxygen combines chemically with another substance to create a new compound? A) Oxidation B) Combustion C) Pyrolysis D) Conflagration

245. What is the MOST common method of extinguishing a fire? A) Cool the fire B) Exclude oxygen C) Remove fuel D) Inhibit chemical reaction

246. What is a danger to consider when attacking a class C fire? A) Electricity B) Flashover C) Foam breakdown D) Violent explosion

25. The fire fighter who receives specialized training in aircraft fires, extrication of victims on aircraft, and extinguishing agents is a(n) ________. A) aircraft rescue fire fighter B) hazardous material technician C) technical rescue technician D) SCUBA dive rescue technician

250. Turbulent smoke is an indication that what will occur soon? A) Flashover B) Smoke inversion C) Self ventilation D) Extinguishment

264. What will happen to gypsum board that is exposed to fire for a prolonged time? A) It will fail. B) It will spall. C) It will discolor. D) Nothing will happen.

281. What metal is used in building construction primarily as a coating to protect metal parts from rust and corrosion? A) Zinc B) Tin C) Manganese D) Sodium

282. What are laminated glass windows likely to do when exposed to a fire? A) Crack and remain in place B) Shatter into small nuggets without sharp edges C) Break irregularly into long, sharp-edged shards D) Nothing except discolor with the smoke

286. What is it called when individual pieces of wood are glued together? A) Laminated wood B) Truncated wood C) Flitch-plated wood D) Bowstring wood

295. What is the measure of how readily a material will conduct heat? A) Conductivity B) Combustibility C) Thermability D) Reducability

299. What term is used to describe the transfer of the weight of the building and its contents to the ground? A) Foundation B) Dead load C) Live load D) Free load

303. What can be used to provide a secure work platform for fire fighters working on a pitched roof? A) Roof ladder B) Steel truss C) Gusset D) Attic ladder

309. What is the most common extinguishing agent for class A fires? A) Water B) CO2 C) Dry chemical D) Carbon tetrachloride

319. Which of the following is NOT an example of a light hazard environment? A) Self-storage buildings B) Classrooms C) Assembly halls D) Hotel guest rooms

338. Do fire apparatus usually carry portable fire extinguishers? A) Yes, at least one and sometimes more B) Yes, but only in non-hydranted areas C) No, but they can and sometimes do D) No, and they are prohibited from doing so

345. What class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a burning trash can beside a wood fire? A) A B) D C) M D) R

347. How are occupancy use category and hazard classification related? A) They are not necessarily related. B) Occupancy determines hazard. C) Hazard determines occupancy. D) They are the same thing.

351. What extinguishing method is being used when a foam blanket is placed over the surface of a burning liquid? A) Cutting off the oxygen B) Cooling the fuel below its kindling temperature C) Chemically converting the fuel to a non-fuel D) Reflecting evolved heat back into the fire

354. What do the chemicals in multipurpose dry chemical extinguishers do to prevent rekindling of the fuel? A) They form a crust over the fuel. B) They form a blanket of foam over the fuel. C) They chemically bond to the fuel, making it non-combustible. D) They do nothing to prevent rekindling.

357. Select the true statement regarding class A and B foam fire extinguishers and their use on the unintended class of fire. A) Class B extinguishers may be used to some effect on class A fires. B) Class A extinguishers may be used to some effect on class B fires. C) Either extinguisher may be used to some effect on either class of fire. D) Neither extinguisher can be used to any effect on the other class of fire.

360. What power acts to expel the extinguishing agent in pump tank water-type extinguishers? A) Hand and arm effort B) Bottled CO2 C) Compressed nitrogen D) Gravity

362. If a fire extinguisher containing ammonium phosphate is used on a class K fire, not only will it be ineffective, but it can actually worsen the problem. How? A) It can neutralize the foaming properties of any alkaline agent applied to the fire. B) It will evolve hydrogen cyanide gas, a deadly and penetrating poison. C) It will cause a rapid polymerization, resulting in a near-BLEVE expansion of the fuel. D) It can cause the fuel to heat up internally to reacquire its flash point.

364. When approaching a fire with an extinguisher in hand, fire fighters should always have what behind them? A) An exit B) The wind C) A light source D) A backup extinguisher

368. What class of fire involves combustible cooking oils and fats? A) K B) A C) B D) D

372. What class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a fire in a frying pan? A) K B) B C) C D) D

378. What test measures the ability of a cylinder to withstand internal pressure? A) Hydrostatic testing B) Hydromatic testing C) Load test D) Capacity test

381. What is the term for a short (two-to-four-foot) pike pole designed for use in tight spaces? A) Closet hook B) K tool C) Porta power D) Baker pole

384. What is one application for a rabbet tool? A) Opening doors quickly B) Stretching hose quickly C) Opening a hydrant quickly D) Hurling a rope quickly

388. What type of saw is used for cutting curves in wood? A) Coping saw B) Carpenter's handsaw C) Hacksaw D) Circular saw

389. There are two disadvantages to using power saws instead of hand saws, one being that they are heavy to carry. What is the other? A) They can be hard to start. B) Some of them require licensing. C) They tend to produce slower results. D) Their exhaust gases can fan the fire.

390. What is one use for high-pressure lift air bags? A) Lifting vehicles B) Shoring trenches C) Cushioning falls D) Ventilating confined spaces

393. What is one tool from the basic set of interior firefighting tools? A) Prying tool B) Twisting tool C) Hydraulic tool D) Pneumatic tool

397. Which tool is used to pull down a ceiling? A) Pike pole B) K tool C) Rabbet tool D) Spanner wrench

448. What is one item that would be included in a life safety rope's rope record? A) Each time it was used B) Each person's name who has checked it out C) Who purchased the rope D) The rope's life expectancy

451. What effect do knots in ropes have on their load-bearing capacity? A) They lessen it. B) They strengthen it. C) They have no effect. D) It depends on the knot.

455. What is the application of a safety knot? A) To finish the other basic knots B) To keep a rope from running completely through a pulley or eye C) To form a loop that does not tighten, for rescue D) To attach a rope to a pole in a way that cannot vibrate loose

399. In what condition should the fuel tanks on power tools be left when not in use? A) Full B) Approximately half full C) Almost empty; the engine should be run until it runs out of gas. D) Absolutely empty and dry; the tank should be drained at its low point.

40. According to the text, "A safety program is only as effective as: A) the individuals who implement it." B) a program of safety." C) safety itself." D) statistics."

405. What are Phillips head and Roberts head? A) Screw head types B) Types of pistons C) Axe handle designs D) Weld patterns

41. To whom does the safety officer report on the fireground? A) The incident commander B) The operations chief C) The safety council D) The sector officer

410. Some fire fighters carry knives, combination tools, a small length of rope, and/or ________ in their turnout gear. A) wooden wedges B) lug wrenches C) fusees or flares D) litmus strips

411. What qualifies a hammer as a sledgehammer? A) It is long, heavy, and requires both hands. B) It is short, heavy, and has a pick on one side of the head. C) It is long or short, heavy, and has an adze on one side of the head. D) Its head weighs exactly five pounds.

417. What specialty tool used for dragging heavy objects? A) Come along B) Jersey jim C) Barker belt D) Jumping jack

421. What is one electronic tool used in search and rescue? A) Thermal imaging device B) Hydraulic cutter/spreader C) Personal digital assistant D) Sound navigation ranging

422. What does the I stand for in RIC? A) Intervention B) Intermediate C) Internal D) Initial

426. What body of rules, regulations, or guidelines usually addresses where and how to stage tools at a fire scene? A) The department's own SOPs B) Applicable NFPA standard C) Manufacturers' recommendations D) State fire and building codes

438. Exposure to a certain type of light can damage synthetic ropes. What type of light? A) Ultraviolet B) Infrared C) Incandescent D) Fluorescent

441. What is the kern of a kernmantle rope? A) The core B) The sheath C) The end D) The weave

444. There are four parts to the maintenance formula for ropes. What is one of those? A) Store B) Shore C) Coil D) Curl

457. From which end of the rope can a clove hitch accept tension without coming untied? A) From either end B) The working end only C) The running end only D) Neither end

458. What kind of loop does a figure eight on a bight create? A) Secure loop at the working end B) Loop that will tighten at the standing end C) Sliding loop at the running end D) Double loop at both ends

461. There are two primary types of rope in the fire service, each dedicated to a distinct function. What is one of the types? A) Utility rope B) Non-conductive rope C) Wire rope D) Non-slip rope

462. How are life safety ropes rated? A) For one person or two persons B) For rappelling or for steady lowering only C) For static or dynamic loads D) For knots or for no knots

464. In the past, fire departments used ropes made of natural fibers. What is one of those? A) Manila B) Nylon C) Polyester D) Ester

465. Do natural fiber ropes have any use in today's fire service? A) Yes, but as utility ropes only B) Yes, but as life safety ropes only C) Yes, but as heaving ropes only D) No, not as any type of rope

1256. When a site has a private water supply system that feeds both the sprinkler system and the fire hydrants, what might be noted on a preincident plan? A) The typically very high pressure of such hydrants B) Alternate off-site hydrants that should be used C) A reminder that such hydrants do not use five-sided wrenches D) A reminder that such hydrants use pipe, not fire, threads on their discharges

126. If a CAD system senses a possible duplicate address as information is being entered prior to a dispatch, what does it do? A) It sends a full first alarm assignment to each possible location. B) It notifies the operator to ask the caller for further information. C) It makes its best estimate of which possible location is correct. D) It freezes, which is one drawback to the CAD system.

563. Who develops the incident action plan that outlines the steps needed to control the situation? A) IC B) Operations chief C) Planning director D) EO

570. What is the process where firefighters remove or protect property that could be damaged during firefighting operations? A) Salvage B) Overhaul C) Cover-up D) Conservation

573. What kind of steel has been specially treated to resist cutting by normal means? A) Case-hardened B) Low-carbon C) Acid-bathed D) Zinc-plated

576. How many people are needed to use a battering ram? A) Two to four B) One or two C) Four to six D) Six only

577. What tool combines an adz, a pick, and a claw? A) Halligan bar B) Pick-head axe C) J-shaped crowbar D) Ball peen hammer

581. Some circular saw blades are made of composite material that includes silicon carbide or steel; what material are such blades designed to cut? A) Masonry B) Steel only C) Any metal D) Polycarbonate window panes

585. There are three types of wood swinging doors: slab, ledge, and: A) panel. B) cantilever. C) schoolhouse. D) modular frame.

586. Wood-framed doors come in two styles: rabbet and: A) stopped. B) tiered. C) automatic. D) cased.

588. What is the quickest way to force entry through a security roll-up door? A) Cut the door with a torch or saw. B) Apply a K tool to the latch. C) Use a J tool on the roller. D) Use the irons.

594. What hazard should fire fighters remain aware of when carrying long tools, especially pike poles? A) Overhead wires B) Tight turns in corridors C) Auto-closing doors D) Moderate or higher winds

602. Which is a type of door jamb? A) Rabbet B) Nonloading C) Weight-bearing D) Lamb

605. To force an inward-opening door, what part of the Halligan bar is inserted between the stop and the jamb? A) Forked end B) Blade end C) Blade side D) Pick

610. Where is the hinge on a casement window? A) On one side B) On the top C) On the bottom D) In the middle

614. What type of doors are normally used as entrance doors? A) Solid-core B) Hollow-core C) Ledge D) Panel

618. What term describes the part of the lock that catches and holds the door frame? A) Latch B) Operator lever C) Deadbolt D) Shackle

622. What is the best tool to use to breach a floor? A) Rotary saw B) Halligan C) Flathead axe D) Hydraulic cutters

625. What is the term for a metal bar that runs from one beam of a wooden ladder to the other to keep the beams from separating? A) Tie rod B) Spring bar C) Rebar D) Basket arch

628. What do the stops do on an extension ladder? A) Prevent it from overextending B) Limit how far the fly sections can collapse C) Lock the extensions in place when extended D) Prevent the whole ladder from slipping on the ground

629. What type of ladders are permanently mounted and operated from a piece of fire apparatus? A) Aerial B) Extension C) Bangor D) Rescue

638. Where should the tip of a ladder be placed during rescue operations from a window? A) Immediately below the sill B) Into the opening about three rungs C) On either side of the window, half way up the opening D) About three feet above the window

645. If a ladder is placed at the proper angle for climbing and it is reaching 20 feet up a wall, how far away from the wall should the base be, in feet? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8

646. What is the danger if the butt of a ladder is placed too close to the side of the building and people climb it? A) The tip could pull away from the wall. B) The butt could slide away from the wall. C) Contact might be made with power lines. D) The butt might sink into the ground.

648. What type of knot is used to tie off a ladder halyard? A) Clove hitch B) Sheepshank C) Figure eight D) Bowline on a bight

652. Why should fire fighters climbing a ladder not look up, as a rule? A) So that any falling debris will not strike them in the face B) Because to climb with the head tilted back causes vertigo C) Because this is what a person passing out will do and it may cause an immediate, unnecessary rescue D) Because doing so shifts the center of balance from neutral to negative

653. What term means the level at which the ground intersects the foundation of a structure? A) Grade B) Ingress C) Atrium D) Foyer

657. What is the term for the rope or cable used to extend or hoist the fly section(s) of an extension ladder? A) Halyard B) Hawser C) Sheet D) Leader

659. How high on a typical two-story building can a 24-foot or 28-foot ladder reach? A) The roof B) The second story windows with two rungs inside C) The second story window sills only D) The first story windows with two rungs inside

660. Roof ladders provide stable footing and also: A) distribute weight. B) serve as electrical grounds. C) serve as gin ladders for raising equipment. D) allow fire fighters doing ventilation to remove SCBA.

661. What type of ladder can be converted from a straight ladder to an A-frame configuration? A) Combination B) Boston C) Attic D) Bangor

662. How often should ground ladders be visually inspected? A) Monthly B) Quarterly C) Annually D) Bi-annually

666. Fire fighters working from a ladder should use a safety belt or a ________ to secure themselves to the ladder. A) leg lock B) man-saver C) Lyons strap D) Boston bar

667. What is the floor-to-floor height, in feet, of a commercial building? A) 12 B) 14 C) 16 D) 18

669. When a straight ladder other than a roof ladder is being carried, which end should be facing forward? A) The butt end B) The tip C) The butt if the ladder is 12 feet or shorter, otherwise the tip D) It does not matter.

671. On a two-fire-fighter shoulder-ladder carry, what should the fire fighter closer to the butt end do, in addition to carrying that end of the ladder? A) Cover the butt spur with a gloved hand. B) Announce "ladder moving," every few seconds. C) Extend the free arm forward. D) Place a helmet over the pawl.

678. What is one precaution fire fighters should take when extending the fly section of an extension ladder? A) They should not wrap the halyard around their hands. B) They should pause between each click of the dogs. C) They should wrap the halyard around their feet in case it slips out of their hands. D) They should electrically ground themselves during the raise.

680. Should fire fighters ever slide their hands along the undersides of the beams while climbing a ladder rather than holding the rungs hand-over-hand? A) Yes, this is a more secure method than hand-over-hand. B) No, this is a dangerous practice that should never be done. C) Yes, but only on fiberglass ladders. D) No, it should not be done unless climber is using a slide lock.

684. What term describes the end of the ladder placed against the ground when the ladder is raised? A) Butt B) Dawg C) Heel D) Bed

688. When raising ladders, what is the minimum distance they should be kept from power lines? A) 10 feet B) 15 feet C) 20 feet D) 25 feet

690. What area is the first search priority? A) The area immediately around the fire B) The exterior of the structure C) The top floor D) The area directly inside the main egress

695. When is a secondary search performed? A) After the fire is under control or fully extinguished B) Immediately upon completion of the primary search C) Only when the primary search discovered no victims D) Only when the primary search discovered victims

700. When using the clothes drag, what supports the victim's head? A) The rescuer's arms B) The victim's arms C) The victim's hands D) A roll of blanket

710. The overall plan for an incident must focus on the life-safety priority as long as ________ operations are still underway. A) search and rescue B) fire suppression C) size-up D) salvage

711. What is the second search priority? A) The area directly above the fire B) The area between the fire and the main exit C) The exterior of the structure D) The area directly under the fire

721. What is one instance in which the blanket drag would be preferable? A) Victim is not dressed. B) Victim has a leg injury. C) Victim is not breathing. D) Victim is a child.

722. When using a webbing sling drag, what helps support the victim's head and neck? A) The webbing sling B) The rescuer's hands C) The victim's forearms D) A roll of blanket

723. How does the fire fighter move when performing the fire fighter drag? A) On hands and knees B) Walking forward, upright C) Walking backward, upright D) Walking backward, crouched

726. In an unconscious-victim ladder rescue, in what orientation are the fire fighter and victim? A) Face to face B) Rescuer faces victim's back C) Victim faces rescuer's back D) Back to back

731. What type of search is a quick attempt to locate potential victims who may be in danger? A) Primary search B) Secondary search C) Prime search D) Initial search

735. If fire fighters notice sagging steel structural supports while conducting search operations, what should the IC do? A) Call for evacuation of structure. B) Request additional truck company. C) Request structural engineer. D) Call for all clear.

739. The search and rescue plan should identify areas to be searched, priorities of areas to be searched, additional actions to support search and rescue, and ________. A) number of search teams B) types of tools to be used C) names of rescuers D) type of rescue drag

743. When using search ropes, where should they be anchored? A) At the entry point B) To a vehicle C) To a heavy piece of furniture D) To another rescuer

746. What is it called when heated products of combustion flow outward and downward? A) Mushrooming B) Flashover C) Horizontal ventilation D) Thermal imbalance

760. What is one disadvantage of positive-pressure fans? A) They can spread the fire if used improperly. B) They require the products of combustion to pass through them. C) They block up an otherwise useable doorway. D) They require a team of fire fighters several minutes to hang, set up, and seal.

761. Where is water directed during hydraulic ventilation? A) Out a window or door B) In a window or door C) Just over the seat of the fire D) At the ceiling at a 45º angle over the seat of the fire

762. When a roof is sounded, what is a positive result, indicating that the roof is probably safe? A) Firm rebound and reassuring sound B) Non-bounce dead strike C) Sharp vibration felt through the tool handle D) Kettle drum sound

763. What is the greatest danger to fire fighters performing vertical ventilation? A) Roof collapse B) Chimney collapse C) Fire lapping up from under an eave D) Obscured vision

77. At least one member of every interior firefighting team should be equipped with this specific instrument for communication. A) A two-way radio B) A pager C) A strobe D) A whistle

770. In ordinary construction, of what are the exterior walls made? A) Noncombustible or limited-combustible materials B) Combustible materials only C) Noncombustible materials only D) Combustible or noncombustible materials

778. What are the fans that are used in negative-pressure ventilation called? A) Smoke ejectors B) Hydraulic ventilators C) Pneumatic recirculators D) Positive-pressure fans

790. What is negative-pressure ventilation? A) Pulling smoke out B) Blowing fresh air in C) Pushing smoke out D) Blowing fresh air out

794. If a roof must be cut to provide a ventilation opening, what is the recommended minimum size of the opening? A) 4' X 4' B) 5' X 5' C) 6' X 6' D) 8' X 8'

798. What is the preferred method to cut a ventilation hole in a metal roof? A) Triangular B) Peak C) Trench D) Louvered

802. From which of the following sources can fire fighters obtain water? A) Municipal water system B) Modular water system C) Negative pressure system D) Centrifugal system

806. What is the term for an arrangement of water mains that delivers water to hydrants from more than one direction at the same time? A) Grid B) Matrix C) Nexus D) Web

808. What is the term for the large discharge opening on a fire hydrant? A) Steamer B) Boiler C) Docker D) Oiler

820. Realistically, how many gallons per minute can a tanker shuttle deliver? A) Several hundred B) About 150 C) Perhaps 100 D) Fewer than 50

822. Up to how many gallons per minute can a portable pump deliver? A) 500 B) 750 C) 1000 D) 1250

827. What type of fire hydrants are designed to be used when the temperatures can be expected to fall below freezing? A) Dry-barrel B) Wet-barrel C) Plug-barrel D) Frost-barrel

828. When color-coding fire hydrants, what color would the bonnet be on a hydrant flowing less than 500 gpm? A) Red B) Orange C) Green D) Light-blue

834. The pressure in a system when no water is flowing is called ________ pressure. A) static B) elevation C) flow D) residual

841. In jacketed fire hose, what function does the outer jacket serve? A) It adds strength to withstand water pressure. B) It adds the waterproof layer to the hose. C) It provides a slick surface for maneuvering hose in buildings. D) It provides a rough surface to grab.

846. What is the hose called that is usually carried on a hose reel, is made of rubber, and flows only 40 to 50 gallons per minute? A) Booster hose B) Dumpster hose C) Fool's hose D) Attic hose

849. What does a hose adaptor connect? A) Two hose sections of equal diameter but differing threads B) Two hose sections of unequal diameter but similar threads C) Two hose sections of equal diameter and similar threads D) Two hose sections of unequal diameter and differing threads

865. What tool is sometimes used to tighten hard suction hose connections? A) Rubber mallet B) Dead-bounce maul C) Come along D) Turnbuckle

870. What is one common use for a hose clamp? A) To allow a hydrant to be charged before the driver/operator is ready to receive the water B) To jacket a burst section of hose line and allow the continuation of water flow through it C) To allow for a quick-connect of an attack line to a pumper when the threads do not match D) To allow two sections of hose with dissimilar threads to be connected in an emergency

875. When referring to a hosebed, what is the end called that is closer to the cab, or front of the fire engine? A) The front B) The A bulkhead C) The mid slat D) The back

88. NFPA standards require a low-air alarm to activate on SCBA when a certain percentage of air is left. What percentage? A) 25% B) 20% C) 15% D) 5%

880. What type of hose ranges in size from 1 to 2 inches in diameter? A) Small B) Medium C) Large D) Master

884. During annual testing, at what pressure must a supply hose be tested? A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500

888. What NFPA standard governs inspection, care, and use of fire hose, couplings, and nozzles and service testing of fire hose? A) 1962 B) 1972 C) 1982 D) 1992

892. When hose testing, for what length of time is the hose required to maintain the set pressure? A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 20 minutes

896. What type of hose roll is used to store hose on a storage rack? A) Straight B) Doughnut C) Eared D) Flat

899. The three most common hose loads for preconnected attack lines are the flat load, triple-layer load, and ________ load. A) minuteman B) military C) patriot D) quick

903. On what floor should attack lines be connected when connecting to a standpipe system? A) Floor below fire floor B) Floor above fire floor C) On the fire floor D) Bottom floor

906. At what nozzle pressure is a smooth-bore nozzle designed to operate? A) 50 psi B) 75 psi C) 100 psi D) 125 psi

907. What advantage does a fog-stream nozzle have over a smooth-bore nozzle? A) Absorbs greater amount of heat B) Less affected by wind patterns C) True solid stream D) Longer reach

911. Class B foam is used for what types of fires? A) Flammable liquids B) Electrical instruments C) Metal shavings D) Wood

913. What type of foam is made from animal byproducts? A) Protein foam B) Fluoroprotein foam C) Aqueous film-forming foam D) Alcohol-resistant foam

917. What is the term for a device that mixes the foam concentrate in the fire stream in the proper percentage? A) Foam proportioner B) Foam concentrator C) Foam reducer D) Foam variator

92. What is the first step in cleaning SCBA? A) Rinse the entire unit with a hose with clean water. B) Remove the face piece glass from the rubber seating. C) Fully discharge the compressed air cylinder. D) Pressurize the corrugated air tubing.

920. What foam application method should be used on open top storage tank fires? A) Bankshot (bank-down) B) Rain down C) Sweep (roll-on) D) Subsurface injection

922. Complete this sentence: "We will not risk our lives at all ________." A) for persons or property that are already lost B) because to do so we become part of the problem C) for others who are already at risk D) because we will use our heads instead

924. A combination of three things is designed to protect fire fighters from the hazards during an interior attack. What is one of those three? A) Training B) Experience C) Intuition D) Probability

932. When one member of a fire company has to leave a structure to change an air cylinder, who else from the company exits too? A) All company members B) Just one other C) No one else D) Anyone else who is low on air

94. What type of breathing apparatus recycles the user's exhaled air? A) Closed circuit B) Single stage C) Double stage D) Nonrebreathing

940. What is one basic method for staying oriented inside a low-visibility environment? A) Staying in contact with the hose line B) Staying in contact with a partner C) Sounding the floor periodically with an axe D) Counting paces or crawl movements

943. Complete this sentence: "We will accept a limited level of risk, under measured and controlled conditions, to save ________." A) property of value B) human life or property C) human or animal life D) human life only

945. Are hazardous conditions evident by observation? A) They may or may not be. B) Yes, they always are if one looks carefully enough. C) No, they almost never are evident by observation alone D) No, they never are.

950. Who is responsible for knowing the location of every member of a fire company? A) The company officer B) The IC C) The assignment officer D) The communications center

963. What is the term for the crew assigned to stand by at the incident scene, fully dressed and equipped for action, and is ready to deploy when assigned by the IC? A) RIC B) RIF C) EAC D) ERC

967. During a two-person rescue of a downed fire fighter, where does the first fire fighter grab to lift the fire fighter? A) SCBA shoulder straps B) Chest C) Arms D) Legs

97. What must a fire department use to track personnel and assignments on an emergency scene? A) Personnel accountability system B) Passport accountability system C) Paper reporting system D) Accountability tag system

971. What does CISM mean? A) Critical incident stress management B) Collective incident stress meeting C) Critical interim support management D) Critical interim support meeting

974. Where do salvage crews usually begin? A) On the floor below the fire floor B) On the fire floor C) On the floor above the fire floor D) On the top floor

987. The risk of a new fire remains even if only a small percentage of the original fire remains smoldering. How small a percentage? A) 1% B) 5% C) 10% D) 15%

99. What is the NFPA standard on protective ensembles for structural and proximity fire fighting? A) 1971 B) 1977 C) 1981 D) 1982

997. Which areas of a wall are usually opened first during overhaul? A) The most heavily damaged areas B) The least damaged areas C) The areas closest to any openings in that wall D) The area closest to the baseboard

998. What is the term for the type of light that projects a diffuse light over a wide area? A) Flood B) Spot C) Halogen D) LED

1048. How is the amount of rest needed to recover from physical exertion related to the intensity of the work performed? A) It is not related. B) It is directly related. C) It is inversely related. D) It is inversely related up to the point of maximum exertion, then it becomes directly related.

1052. What relationship is there between age and ability to endure the stresses of firefighting? A) Younger people have somewhat less endurance. B) Younger people have somewhat more endurance. C) Younger and older people have about the same endurance, other things being equal. D) Younger people have much less endurance.

1055. On what type of fires was rehabilitation first used extensively? A) Airport fires B) Wildland fires C) High-rise fires D) Commercial fires

1057. How is humidity related to evaporative cooling? A) High humidity increases evaporative cooling. B) High humidity reduces evaporative cooling. C) High humidity combines with evaporative cooling. D) Humidity is not related to evaporative cooling.

1059. What is the term for that condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95º F? A) Hypoglycemia B) Hypothermia C) Hyperactivity D) Hypertempura

1071. What type of carbohydrates are in whole grain breads, whole grain pasta, rice, and vegetables? A) Simple B) Complex C) Starchy D) Saturated

1076. If a member of a fire fighting company requires rehabilitation, who should accompany him or her to the rehabilitation site? A) Company officer B) Entire crew C) Incident commander D) Safety officer

1082. What is slash? A) Bark piled up from stripping operations B) Leftovers from logging or clearing operations C) The insect activity generated by logging D) The pasty, half-decomposed remains of a wildland fire

1086. Why do compact fuels burn more slowly than less compact fuels? A) Heat is radiated more efficiently in compact fuels. B) Air cannot circulate as freely around the more compact fuels. C) Heat is radiated more efficiently in less compact fuels. D) Air is trapped in more compact fuels.

1087. What is the term for fuels that are close together or touch each other? A) Contiguity B) Continuity C) Contactivity D) Constancy

1088. How does the oxygen requirement of the fire triangle differ for wildland fires as opposed to structure fires? A) Unlike structure fires, wildland fires do not need oxygen to ignite or burn. B) Unlike most structure fires, wildland fires have unlimited oxygen available. C) Compared to structure fires, wildland fires need almost six times more oxygen to burn. D) Compared to structure fires, wildland fires need more than 30 times the oxygen to burn.

1089. What are the two weather conditions that most influence wildland fires? A) Barometric pressure and moisture B) Moisture and wind C) Wind and temperature D) Temperature and barometric pressure

1090. Relative humidity is the ratio of the amount of water vapor present in the air compared to: A) the amount of water that it would make if it came out of the vapor state. B) the maximum amount the air can hold at a given temperature. C) the amount that would totally exclude the oxygen in that volume of air. D) the amount of oxygen in the same volume of air at that particular time.

1091. What is the relationship between the relative humidity and the dryness of the vegetative fuels in an area? A) When the relative humidity is high, the fuels dry out. B) When the relative humidity is low, the fuels dry out. C) When the relative humidity is right at 21%, the fuels dry out. D) There is no relationship between these quantities.

1106. What is the term for the quantity of fuel available in a specific area? A) Fuel density B) Fuel volume C) Fuel availability D) Fuel distribution

1108. What is dry lightning? A) A strike of only negatively charged ions B) A lightning strike without rain C) A strike of only positively charged ions D) A lightning strike that does not make it all the way down to the ground

1109. Does the temperature of air affect its capacity for moisture content? A) No, there is no relationship between these quantities. B) Yes, the warmer it is, the more it can hold. C) Yes, the warmer it is, the less it can hold. D) Yes, the optimal temperature is 73º F.

111. What type of listening is required by a telecommunicator to draw out all the necessary information from a caller who may be excited, confused, or dealing with a language barrier? A) Selective B) Active C) Modal D) Presumptive

1116. A Pulaski axe combines an axe with another tool. What other tool? A) Pick B) Adze C) Maul D) Sledge

1118. The NFPA defines wildland fires as unplanned and uncontrolled fires burning ________ fuel. A) hydrocarbon B) vegetative C) anaerobic D) natural

1124. How much water do portable backpack pumps contain? A) 1 to 2 gallons B) 4 to 8 gallons C) 6 to 10 gallons D) 8 to 12 gallons

1131. What type of respiratory protection is normally used for wildland firefighting? A) SCBA B) Filter mask C) APR D) PAPR

1139. Small handlines are those up to ________ diameter, in inches. A) 2½ B) 2 C) 1½ D) 1

1149. What is the objective of an indirect fire attack? A) To extinguish the fire directly and immediately B) To quickly remove as much heat as possible from the fire atmosphere C) To mix the fire gases with water vapor, diluting them D) To cause the fire gases to condense into liquids and fall to the surface

1152. What is a master stream device that is permanently mounted on a vehicle and piped called? A) Monitor B) Deck gun C) Playpipe D) FDC

1156. In what type of operation are large handlines and master streams more often used? A) Deluge B) Defensive C) Sprinkler-assisted D) Interior attack

1168. In an indirect fire attack, where is the water directed? A) The base of the fire B) The ceiling C) The center of the flames D) A point just above the orange/yellow demarcation in the flame

1175. When water is converted to steam it expands to ________ times the volume of an equivalent amount of liquid water. A) 1600 B) 1700 C) 1800 D) 1900

118. What does the D stand for in ADA? A) Dangerous B) Disabilities C) Distressed D) Directional

1181. Which of the following can be a difficulty when fighting a basement fire? A) Use of thermal imagers B) Ventilation C) Lighting D) Exterior access points

1186. Who can assist fire fighters on a fire in a transformer vault? A) Hazardous materials team B) Utility company C) USAR team D) Regional response team

1190. How should fire fighters approach a vehicle fire? A) 90-degree angle B) 45-degree angle C) From the front D) From the rear

1194. A spill, pool, or open container of liquid that is burning only on the top surface is known as a ________ fire. A) one-dimensional B) two-dimensional C) three-dimensional D) four-dimensional

1198. The greatest danger of propane cylinders is ________. A) Low vapor density B) BLEVE C) Cryogenic D) Relief valve actuation

1204. The definition of preincident planning begins, "The process of obtaining information about a building or a property and storing the information in a system . . ." What is the rest of the definition? A) as long as the owner or operator have no objection B) so that it can be retrieved quickly for future reference C) in a manner dictated by federal or local OSHA standard D) that is to be used anonymously for scenario modeling only

1205. To which units should completed preincident plans be available? A) The highest ranking field supervisor over that area, only B) All units that would respond to an incident at that location C) The first-due unit for that location, only D) Staff officers, only

1209. Who creates the final preincident plan drawings that can be used effectively in an emergency? A) A drafter B) A fire officer C) A graphic artist D) An architect

1210. What is one advantage of storing preincident plans on computer rather than paper? A) Computer-stored data is more reliable than paper-stored. B) When changes are made, the need to make and distribute copies is eliminated. C) Data stored in one computer location is less vulnerable to sudden loss than data stored in multiple locations on paper. D) Computers generally survive being banged around in responding apparatus over time better than do plastic three-ring binders.

1212. During the response phase of an emergency incident, two aspects of a property are particularly important. One of those is building layout. What is the other? A) Water supply type B) Access information C) Location of riser valves on the detection system D) Location of any activated sensor heads on the suppression system

1217. What process can potentially remove some built-in fire protection and introduce new hazards to a building? A) Changing occupancy B) Remodeling C) Tenting for wood-destroying insects D) Retrofitting a sprinkler system

1220. What type of systems in high-rise buildings deliver water from the outside up to fire hose outlets on each floor? A) Dry bed B) Standpipe C) Cross feed D) Cistern

1221. Some low-rise buildings have standpipe systems. Why? A) They are on an artesian well system. B) They enable hose lines to be connected near the fire. C) They do not have sprinkler systems. D) They contain electrical equipment.

1223. Where is the annunciator panel usually located in a building? A) In the building basement B) Near a building entrance C) Above the fire department connections in a weatherproof cabinet D) In the cab of the first-due engine company

1227. What building access device is particularly dangerous to operate around overhead electrical wires? A) Sparking circular saw B) Ladder C) Non-sparking hydraulic spreader D) Ram

123. What is one requirement of communications centers mandated by the applicable NFPA standard? A) Non-encryption of all broadcast signals B) Backup systems for all the critical equipment C) Certification as a bomb shelter D) A private water supply

1230. A high-rise structure is generally defined in terms of being a certain height or taller. What is this height, in stories? A) 4 or 5 B) 6 or 7 C) 8 or 9 D) 10 or more

1231. What is the most challenging problem during an emergency incident at a health care facility? A) Having to perform operations without undue noise B) Protecting nonambulatory victims C) The presence of plumbed oxygen D) The presence of flammable gas

1237. Preincident plans should be prepared for properties that have the potential to create a: A) multiple-class fire where one of the classes is B. B) large fire or one involving many structures. C) multiple-class fire where one of the classes is C or D. D) rollover or flashover fire

1241. What is one assumption made in preincident planning that is not made in fire prevention? A) The facility will have some useful resources. B) A fire will occur. C) No changes will be made. D) People want to learn

1244. Why might the existence of an underground parking facility warrant further examination by fire fighters conducting a preincident survey? A) It might be too low to permit entry of apparatus. B) It might not support the weight of a ladder truck. C) Water is bound to run off down into it. D) Those never have fire alarm activation boxes.

125. Voice recorders and incident logs have what impact on any errors that occur in the communications center? A) They make it impossible to make any errors. B) They make it hard to conceal any errors. C) They make it possible to err and never even realize it. D) They can be set to automatically detect errors and alert the operator.

1250. What is the term for any other building or item that may be in danger as a result of an incident in another building or area? A) Liability B) Exposure C) Endangerment D) Abutment

1252. A preincident survey of a building should include the locations of the valves associated with the automatic sprinkler system if there is one. In what position should those valves be kept? A) All fully closed B) All fully open C) Some open, some closed D) All half-open

1260. One problem with a high-rise building in an emergency is gaining access to occupied areas. What is another? A) Locating it among the other high-rises B) The large number of occupants C) Lack of area for tactical apparatus placement D) Elevated fire department connections

1262. The amount and nature of information provided on a preincident plan will depend on the size and complexity of the property, the types of risks that are present, and the particular ________. A) crew B) hazards C) number of fire fighters D) company officer

1266. Where should the preincident survey begin? A) Roof B) Outside C) Bottom floor D) Top floor

127. About what percentage of the United States and Canada does NOT use a 9-1-1 system but rather have to dial a 7-digit number or 0 for the operator? A) 21% B) 7% C) Less than 1% D) 0%

1273. What type of building construction is also known as noncombustible? A) Type I B) Type II C) Type IV D) Type V

1276. In the EMS context, what does "first responder" signify? A) A voluntary, unsubstantiated term of respect B) An EMS certification level C) A generic term for the first arriving person D) A fire fighter

128. In the five steps of receiving and dispatching emergency calls, the first step is call receipt. What is the second step? A) Ticket initiation B) Location validation C) Calling the caller back D) Paging the units

1283. How long is an EMT-Basic course? A) 240 hours or more B) 110 hours or more C) 80 hours or more D) 40 hours or more

1289. At what level of life support are fire department first responses provided? A) Basic only B) Basic or advanced C) Advanced only D) None

1292. Each EMS system has a medical director with ________ credentials. A) ex-victim B) physician C) EMT-Paramedic D) MBA

1297. What is one reason that EMS providers should have a good working knowledge of hospital procedures and policies? A) They may move on from field EMS provision to an appointment at a hospital. B) They may be asked to assist hospital personnel during victim transfer. C) They may be asked to testify in court as to their evaluation of hospital personnel actions. D) EMS personnel are subject to assignment to a hospital without warning in a disaster situation.

1300. When citizens call 9-1-1 for an emergency, how much training is it likely they have had in differentiating a medical emergency from a less serious situation? A) Absolutely none B) Little or none, generally C) A modest education, based on television mostly D) A pretty sharp mini-lesson from the dispatcher

1301. What is one level of emergency medical service provision? A) EOA B) ALS C) FSTC D) ASUR

1305. The first responder is expected to assess and provide basic care for the victim until: A) the victim recovers. B) EMTs arrive. C) the victim worsens. D) the victim's family arrives.

1307. What is the minimum level of training necessary to provide care to a victim in an ambulance? A) First responder B) EMT-Basic C) EMT-Intermediate D) EMT-Paramedic

1314. What is another term for written medical standing orders? A) Diuretics B) Protocols C) Canons D) Ethics

1315. How can an EMS physician be reached by EMS providers for medical control during a call? A) By fax or radio B) By radio or telephone C) By telephone or instant messaging (IM) D) By instant messaging (IM) or fax

1318. Administering intravenous fluids, medicating, and removing trapped air from the chest are examples of the emergency medical skills expected to be performed by a fire fighter trained to the ________ level. A) BLS B) ALS C) CLS D) TLS

1322. Which of the following is the acronym for the federal law protecting the privacy of victims? A) FLSA B) HIPAA C) FOIA D) FPPA

1323. What is HBV? A) A disease B) A virus C) A vaccine D) A type of respirator

1326. How is tuberculosis spread? A) It is not spread; each person develops it him- or herself, like cancer. B) Through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes C) Through contact with infected saliva D) Through intimate sexual contact only

133. What does an ALI system show? A) Caller's emergency B) Caller's location C) Caller's phone number D) Caller's past history of calling 9-1-1

1331. When a child's heart stops, what is the usual reason? A) Cardiac myopathy B) A breathing problem C) Myocardial infarction D) Penetrating trauma to the heart

1332. What is the first step in assessing a victim's airway? A) Attempt to give two full breaths. B) Check the victim's level of responsiveness. C) Perform the jaw-thrust technique. D) Lift up and forward on the chin.

1346. What should be done with the legs of a supine victim to treat for shock? A) They should be iced. B) They should be raised. C) They should be massaged. D) They should be tucked up under the victim.

1354. The assumption that all victims are potential carriers of bloodborne pathogens leads to a policy of protection that all rescuers should follow. What is this policy called? A) Assisted living B) Universal precautions C) Do not resuscitate D) Service delivery documentation

1361. What is the purpose of the head tilt-chin lift technique? A) Examine the pharynx B) Open the airway C) Check for a broken jaw D) Feel the carotid pulse

1363. What is the most common cause of total lack of respirations? A) Choking B) Heart attack C) Drowning D) Trauma

1365. What is the treatment for a completely obstructed airway in a conscious adult? A) The jaw-thrust technique B) The Heimlich maneuver C) Placing the person in the rescue position D) External hepatic compressions

1366. What occurs when air is forced into the stomach instead of the lungs during rescue breathing? A) Cardiac tamponade B) Gastric distention C) Inverted diaphragm D) Subcutaneous emphysema

1368. What is the pressure wave generated by the pumping action of the heart? A) The aorta B) The pulse C) Blood pressure D) Peristalsis

1371. What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilations in one-rescuer adult CPR? A) 15:1 B) 30:2 C) 5:1 D) 5:2

1373. What should fire fighters do if there is not sufficient space to perform CPR where the victim is found, such as in a bathroom? A) Perform in place as well as can be done. B) Either create space or drag the victim to a larger room. C) Have a second person hold the victim up and perform CPR against a wall instead of the floor. D) Drag the victim completely outside the building.

1375. What is one situation where you would not raise the legs of a victim in shock? A) Two different color eyes B) Head injury C) Victim is female in child-bearing years D) Victim is female past child-bearing years

1378. What is the medical term for a tearing away of body tissue? A) Incision B) Avulsion C) Hemorrhage D) Deformation

1381. What concept describes using protective equipment to prevent possible exposure to blood and bodily fluids of victims? A) Body fluid isolation B) Body substance isolation C) Blood borne isolation D) Bloody substance isolation

1385. One of the main purposes of the respiratory system is to provide oxygen; what is the other? A) Remove carbon monoxide from red blood cells as they pass through the lungs B) Remove carbon dioxide from red blood cells as they pass through the lungs C) Remove carbon dioxide from outside air prior to absorbing into bloodstream D) Remove carbon dioxide from white blood cells as they pass though the lungs

1389. On average, how many breaths a minute does a normal adult take? A) 5 to 10 B) 12 to 20 C) 15 to 25 D) 20 to 30

1391. When assessing breathing, how long should you look, listen, and feel? A) At least 1, no more than 5 seconds B) At least 5, no more than 10 seconds C) At least 10, no more than 15 seconds D) At least 15, no more than 20 seconds

1395. Where does blood from the lungs go? A) Right atrium B) Left atrium C) Right ventricle D) Left ventricle

1399. What thin-walled part of the circulatory system carries blood back to the heart? A) Arteries B) Veins C) Platelets D) Capillaries

1403. What type of shock is caused by an extreme allergic reaction to a foreign substance? A) Septic B) Anaphylactic C) Cardiogenic D) Hemorrhagic

1407. Which of the following is a closed wound? A) Abrasion B) Bruise C) Laceration D) Puncture

1411. What is used to hold a dressing in place? A) Sling B) Bandage C) Gauze pad D) Tourniquet

142. Which NFPA standard contains a complete list of qualifications for telecommunicators? A) 1051 B) 1061 C) 1071 D) 1081

146. What agency regulates the design, installation, and operation of two-way radio systems? A) FAA B) FCC C) FDA D) FCA

542. What is one firefighting task that would make it especially important to have the utilities controlled? A) Setting up positive-pressure ventilation B) Opening walls to look for fire extension C) Setting up negative-pressure ventilation D) Constructing a water chute from a salvage cover

544. How is natural gas usually delivered? A) By tanker trucks B) Through a series of underground pipes C) In small, portable bottles D) In cryogenic tanks that then bubble the gas out

545. If the specific key is not available to turn on or off a natural gas supply line valve, what tool will work as well? A) Allen wrench B) Adjustable wrench C) Flat-head screwdriver D) Metric nut driver

547. When is the initial size-up of an emergency incident conducted? A) When the first chief officer arrives on the scene B) When the first unit arrives on the scene C) When the first caller is asked questions by the dispatcher D) When the fire is declared under control

548. Who usually performs size-up? A) Fire fighters B) Fire officers C) Fire inspectors D) Fire instructors

55. Structural firefighting PPE is designed to be worn with what specific piece of equipment? A) Rappelling harness B) Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) C) Flotation vest D) Chemical splash suit

553. What is one reason that the age of a building is relevant during size-up? A) The fire resistive properties of building materials change over time. B) Building and safety codes change over time. C) Older buildings are built more solidly. D) Older buildings have private suppression systems.

554. What is one building feature that would limit access and complicate rescue of trapped victims? A) Double sash windows B) Bars on the windows C) Slab garage door D) Bi-fold garage door

557. What is one example of advanced technology that helps identify fire lurking behind walls? A) Photo ionization smoke detectors B) Thermal imaging devices C) Rapid deploying sprinkler heads D) Fire alarm retard chambers

561. What process enables the IC to determine what resources will be needed to control the situation and to ensure their availability? A) Unified command B) Size-up C) Level I staging D) Level II staging

565. Select the correct statement regarding the order of accomplishment of the basic five fire ground objectives: A) The priorities are separate and exclusive. B) The priorities are not separate and not exclusive. C) The priorities are separate but not exclusive. D) The priorities are exclusive but not separate.

567. What class reflective vest is required when fire fighters are working a vehicle accident scene where the speed limit exceeds 25 mph? A) I B) II C) III D) IV

571. What is the process used to completely extinguish any remaining pockets of fire? A) Salvage B) Overhaul C) Open-up D) Conservation

574. Forcible entry tools can be grouped into several categories. What is one? A) Grinding B) Striking C) Twisting D) Crushing

58. What is one flame-resistant material? A) Durex B) Nomex C) Javex D) Thermex

583. What kind of tool is specifically designed to open double doors equipped with panic bars? A) A French curve B) A J tool C) An opening strip D) A claw tool

587. To force entry into an outward-swinging door, where is the adz end of a Halligan bar applied? A) On either side of each hinge in turn B) Between the door and the frame near the locking mechanism C) Between the door and the frame near each hinge in turn D) Between the door and the frame on the latch side, but at hinge height, each in turn

589. The transparent part of a window is called the ________ part. A) paneled B) glazed C) interior D) thermal

593. What happens if the wrong tool is used on case-hardened steel? A) The metal can be cut through much faster than anticipated, resulting in personal injury. B) The tool can break, and people can be injured. C) The metal can ignite, or the powder dust from the cutting can explode. D) Nothing happens, but time is wasted.

595. What type of tools are used to generate an impact force directly on an object or another tool? A) Grinding B) Striking C) Swinging D) Crushing

601. What kind of circular saw blades should not be stored near gasoline because the vapors will decompose the composite materials in the blade? A) All blades B) Masonry C) Metal D) Polycarbonate

604. What is the old tool that could be slipped between a door with older style latches and the door frame at the latch, to force the latch back and open the door? A) Open strip B) Shove knife C) Hux bar D) Wire curl

611. During forcible entry, who determines the point of entry and method to be used? A) Driver/operator B) Company officer C) Fire fighter D) Fire chief

615. Where should a firefighter stand when breaking windows during forcible entry? A) Windward side of the window with the hands below the break B) Windward side of the window with the hands above the break C) Leeward side of the window with the hands below the break D) Leeward side of the window with the hands above the break

619. What term used describes the U-shaped top of a padlock that slides through a hasp and locks in the padlock itself? A) Latch B) Shackle C) Deadbolt D) Tumbler

623. When forcible entry is used, what must occur before firefighters leave the scene? A) Investigator arrives. B) Building secured. C) Power tools refueled. D) Hand tools cleaned.

632. Can a free-hanging roof ladder that is not on a roof but is hanging just from its hooks support the weight of fire fighters? A) Yes, design requirements mandate that they must be able to do so. B) No, they cannot support this weight from just the hooks. C) Yes, as long as the total weight does not exceed 750 pounds. D) Yes, as long as the ladder was manufactured after 1993.

641. The two-fire-fighter shoulder carry is usually used with extension ladders up to: A) 50 feet. B) 35 feet. C) 24 feet. D) 16 feet.

642. On a three-fire-fighter ladder carry, how should the fire fighters be aligned? A) The front person should be on the left, the others on the right. B) They should all be on the same side of the ladder. C) The front and rear person should be on the left, the middle person on the right. D) The front and middle person should both be on the right and the rear person on the left.

649. Why should fire fighters not place a foot in the rungs of an extension ladder while it is being raised? A) This puts a diagonal load on the hoister's back. B) If the fly slips, the foot will be crushed. C) This reduces the hoister's leverage by about a fourth. D) This produces a hoisting angle that is outside the design parameters.

655. What is a ladder I-beam usually made of? A) Steel, unspecified B) Fiberglass C) Stainless steel D) Wood

656. What does a heat sensor label do on a ladder? A) It reports the highest temperature in which the ladder can be used safely. B) It changes color when exposed to a specific degree of heat. C) It attests to the heat treatment the ladder underwent during construction. D) It reports what the ambient temperature currently is.

670. What type of ladder is usually carried up another ladder before being placed? A) Chimney B) Roof C) Folding D) Fresno

672. What is the two-fire-fighter ladder carry called where the ladder is carried at arm's length rather than on the shoulder? A) Two-fire-fighter tormenter carry B) Two-fire-fighter suitcase carry C) Two-fire-fighter softball carry D) Two-fire-fighter submarine carry

674. What do all three fire fighters do during the raise of a ladder into the final position for the three-fire fighter flat-shoulder carry? A) Hop B) Pivot C) Reverse hands D) Switch sides of the ladder

681. When fire fighters are checking the stability of a roof prior to dismounting a ladder to work on it, how many points of contact should they maintain with the ladder? A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1

685. What part of the ladder is raised or extended from the bed section? A) Tip B) Fly C) Dawg D) Rail

693. What is the rule about the point of exit when doing a primary search of a room? A) Exit through a different door than the one you entered. B) Exit through the same door you entered. C) Exit through the first door to the left of the one you entered. D) Exit through the first door to the right of the one you entered.

696. If fire fighters become disoriented and must rely on the hose line to find their way out, how can the couplings help? A) The male couplings point toward the nozzle. B) The male couplings point toward the way out. C) The couplings do not indicate direction, but can be banged on the floor to signal for help. D) The Higbee cut points toward the side of less pressure

705. How should an unconscious child be carried down a ladder? A) Vertically, in the crook of one arm B) Cradled across the rescuer's arms C) Across the shoulders D) Over one shoulder

707. Given the choices of ground ladder, aerial ladder, and elevating platform, which is the method of choice for rescuing people from a height? A) Ground ladder B) Aerial platform C) Either ground ladder or aerial platform D) Aerial ladder

708. When rescuing an unconscious child or small adult from a window, how many rescuers enter the window to assist the victim? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

717. What is the signal to the IC that the secondary search has been completed? A) Secondary complete B) Secondary all clear C) Loss stopped D) Fire under control

718. Actions that present a high level of risk to the safety of fire fighters are justified only under certain circumstances. What circumstances? A) The fire fighters volunteer to go in. B) There is the potential to save lives. C) There is a charged hose line to protect them. D) There is valuable property to save.

720. What is the most efficient method for removing an unconscious or unresponsive victim from a dangerous location? A) Carry B) Drag C) Sling hoist D) Web hoist

727. When fire fighters are climbing down a ladder carrying an unconscious child, where should their hands be? A) On the same rung B) Sliding down the beams C) On different rungs D) One on a rung, the other on a beam

728. When rescuing an unconscious victim from a window, how many fire fighters enter the window to assist the victim? A) None B) One C) Two D) Three

732. What type of thorough search is conducted after the scene is under control? A) Primary search B) Secondary search C) Detailed search D) Quantitative search

736. When a victim has been located and requires medical treatment, when should the treatment begin? A) After patient packaging B) After removal from hazard area C) Upon locating the victim D) When victim is on a flat surface

740. What is the best source of information rescuers can use to identify the building layout, stairways, and exits of a building? A) Map B) Preincident plan C) Occupant description D) Initial entry crews

744. When assisting a conscious victim down a ladder, what can a fire fighter do to maintain control of the victim's descent? A) Grab the victim around the waist. B) Lean in towards the victim. C) Tie the victim to the rescuer. D) Loop the victim's hands around the rescuers neck.

745. How do heated gases move in a room? A) They rise to the ceiling and pool in the middle. B) They rise to the ceiling and spread outward. C) They spread outward to the walls then begin to rise. D) They fill the entire volume of the room uniformly.

748. What is positive-pressure ventilation? A) Pulling smoke out B) Blowing fresh air in C) Blowing products of combustion up D) Blowing products of combustion down

749. What is one term for the spread of fire from one floor to another via the exterior windows? A) Laddering B) Leap-frogging C) Stack effect D) Trickling

750. What is the term for the open space between the ceiling of the top floor and the underside of the roof of a building? A) Roof chase B) Cockloft C) Head space D) Mantle

751. Modern wood-frame construction uses a technique that builds one floor at a time and inserts a plate between each floor that acts as a fire stop. What is this technique called? A) Flitch-plate B) Platform-frame C) Balustrade D) Awning

759. How can churning be eliminated during smoke ejection? A) Pulling the fan back a few inches B) Completely blocking the opening around the fan C) Moving the fan forward a few inches D) Keystoning the fan slightly up

764. What type of structure is used in roof supports and is composed of relatively small and lightweight components in a series of triangles? A) Mansard B) Truss C) Lintel D) Eave

766. What is the term for an open space within a wall where wires and pipes can run? A) Hoist way B) Chase C) Pilaster D) Channel

771. What is the construction feature in which there are uninterrupted channels in the walls from foundation to attic, allowing rapid, unchecked vertical fire spread? A) Bowstring truss B) Balloon frame C) Heavy timber D) Common cockloft

776. What undesirable effect can occur if windward windows are opened first in a horizontal ventilation situation? A) A sudden flashback can injure fire fighters. B) Fire may be forced into uninvolved areas of the structure. C) A negative stack effect can be created, which will hamper suppression efforts. D) Paradoxical ventilation can occur, in which fire gases travel upwind.

777. How do thermopane windows behave in fire, compared to windows with standard glazing? A) They break sooner under fire conditions. B) They resist breaking in fire much longer. C) When they break due to fire, they fragment explosively in both the inward and outward directions. D) They do not break in fire, but they melt.

783. What is the term for the weather-resistant surface of a roof? A) Roof deck B) Roof covering C) Roof truss D) Roof platform

784. What are gusset plates? A) Long strips of metal that are sandwiched by wood beam members B) Truss-component connecting plates made of wood or lightweight metal C) Pipe-shaped fasteners with a flat base on one end for attaching a rod to a wall D) Metal collars at the base of chimneys that direct water out over the top of the surrounding shingles

791. The factors to consider when determining when and where to ventilate include the size of the fire, the stage of combustion, the location of the fire in a building, and the ________. A) type of construction B) available ventilation options C) color of the smoke D) amount of fans

795. What must a fire fighter be aware of when using a power saw to cut a ventilation opening in a roof? A) Water lines B) Structural supports C) Electric lines D) Temperature of fir

799. When ventilating the basement, where is the preferred location to ventilate? A) Lowest window B) Farthest point away from entrance used by fire attack crew C) Stairway from upper level D) Same entrance as fire attack crew

803. What are the pipes that deliver water from the treatment facility to the fire hydrants called? A) Filler pipes B) Water mains C) Recirculators D) Drain fields

807. When would a dry-barrel hydrant be required? A) When the water system is pump-fed B) When the climate is subject to freezing C) When the hydrant is on a dead end D) When the distribution system is normally dry

812. What feature in hydrant caps should be checked during routine inspections? A) Level bubbles B) Gaskets C) Snap fittings D) Air bleeder valves

817. To what type of water source does a dry hydrant provide access? A) Municipal water system B) Static water source C) Proprietary source D) Artesian source

818. How much water, in gallons, do fire department tankers usually carry? A) 1,000 or less B) 1000 to 3500 C) 3500 to 6000 D) 6000 to 9000

823. What is installed on a tanker that allows it to offload 3000 gallons of water in 1 minute? A) Clapper valve B) Dump valve C) Flapper valve D) Water chute

829. When color-coding fire hydrants, what color would the bonnet be on a hydrant flowing 500-999 gpm? A) Red B) Orange C) Green D) Light-blue

832. According to NFPA Standard 24, what is the minimum distance between the center of a fire hydrant hose outlet and the finished grade of the ground around the hydrant? A) 12" B) 18" C) 24" D) 30"

835. What is another term for head pressure? A) Static pressure B) Elevation pressure C) Flow pressure D) Residual pressure

838. Friction loss is affected by three factors. What is one of those? A) Incident elevation B) Hose diameter C) Atmospheric pressure D) Nozzle type

843. What is the indicator notch on hose couplings that lines up when the threads are lined up to engage properly? A) The Wilt score B) The Higbee notch C) The thread-alignment arrow D) The coupling-alignment cross

845. Generally speaking, how many gallons per minute does a 2 ½" fire hose line flow? A) 350 B) 250 C) 175 D) 125

848. What does a gated wye enable that a non-gated wye does not? A) Remote control of the valves inside by radio frequency from a distance B) Regulating the flow to either side of the wye independently of the other side C) Securing the wye from tampering by anyone without a special tool D) Connecting hose lines of unequal diameter to the two sides

853. Which coupling goes on the inside of a straight hose roll? A) Female B) Male C) Either D) It depends on the diameter.

854. What locks the hose on the self-locking twin-doughnut hose roll? A) A hose clamp B) Loops of the hose itself C) An 18" section of strap D) An 18" section of rope

856. When should the fire fighter attaching hose to the hydrant charge the supply line? A) As soon as possible B) Not until the driver/operator's signal is received C) After slowly opening the hydrant all the way D) After ten full minutes from the time of drop-off

859. What word describes the volume of water that is being moved through a pipe or hose? A) Pressure B) Flow C) Resistance D) Stream

862. What is the two-fire fighter stiff-arm method used for? A) Forcing entry through an outward-opening door B) Uncoupling hose C) Venting a pitched roof D) Lowering a ladder from the apparatus

867. What hose appliance combines two hose lines into one? A) Wye B) Siamese C) Mixer D) Manifold

869. On a reducer, which end is usually male? A) The larger B) The smaller C) Both D) Neither

872. What is the last step in rolling a straight hose roll? A) Connecting the couplings together B) Tapping out protrusions with the foot C) Attaching the hose clamp D) Tying the slip knot

873. What is one thing the fire fighter securing hose to the hydrant on a forward (straight) lay must remember to avoid? A) Forgetting to bring a hydrant clamp B) Standing between the hose line and the hydrant C) Letting the hose line touch the ground D) Placing the hydrant wrench on the nut until ready to open it

877. What is the short fold in a supply hose load called that is made so that a coupling does not have to turn around when the hose is being laid out? A) A bowtie B) A Dutchman C) An anchor hitch D) A Gordian knot

881. What type of hose ranges in size from 2 ½ to 3 inches in diameter? A) Small B) Medium C) Large D) Master

885. What is used to connect individual sections of hose together to extend their length? A) Jacket B) Coupling C) Higbee D) Rocker

889. What should be used to clean hoses? A) Bleach B) Mild detergent C) Ammonia D) Foam

893. Which of the following is required to be annotated on a hose record? A) Color of hose B) Date hose was tested C) Pressure used to test hose D) Date hose was last used to fight fire

900. What is the second stage of advancing an attack line? A) Pulling hose off the engine B) Advancing the line into the position where fire attack occurs C) Attaching the nozzle D) Placing the hand line at the door

908. Which fog-stream nozzle has a flow of between 90 and 225 gpm? A) Fixed-gallonage B) Automatic-adjusting C) Adjustable-gallonage D) Variable-gallonage

912. How does foam extinguish flammable liquid fires? A) Inhibits chemical chain reaction B) Separates fuel from fire C) Dilutes the fuel D) Cools fire

914. Which type of foam contains a surfactant additive that allows the foam to produce a fast-spreading film? A) Protein foam B) Fluoroprotein foam C) Aqueous film-forming foam D) Alcohol-resistant foam

918. What type of nozzle is most commonly used to apply aqueous film-forming foam and Class A foam? A) Aerator nozzle B) Adjustable fog nozzle C) Eductor nozzle D) Injector nozzle

921. The positive results that can be achieved in an action can be compared with the probability and severity of negative consequences. What is this process called? A) Quid pro quo B) Risk-benefit analysis C) Validated needs assessment D) Job task analysis

925. When are company officers and safety officers involved in risk-benefit analysis? A) Never; this is solely an IC function B) On a continuous basis C) Only at the beginning of an incident D) Only at the mid-incident review

927. What is one situation in which an obvious hazard is recognized and a standard solution is applied? A) Using intrinsically safe flashlights at highway accidents B) Wearing SCBA in smoky conditions C) Opening a nozzle slowly when flowing water D) Scheduling PT in the morning hours

931. What term means that a fire company arrives at a fire together, works together, and then leaves together? A) Unity of command B) Team integrity C) Span of control D) Company cohesion

1062. When does the rest phase begin for fire fighters arriving at rehabilitation? A) As soon as medical evaluation and fluid replacement are completed B) As soon as entry vital signs are completed C) As soon as they arrive at rehabilitation D) At the moment they are reassigned to rehabilitation

1143. What is one characteristic of a fog stream? A) It has a long throw for reaching distant targets. B) It wets a surface without actually cooling it. C) It creates water droplets with a very large surface area. D) It is nearly ineffective at absorbing heat.

1144. What is one advantage to a straight stream over a fog stream? A) It absorbs heat better. B) It uses less water. C) It provides more reach. D) It requires only half the pump pressure.

1146. What is a combination fire attack a combination of? A) Front and side B) Vent and no-vent C) Direct and indirect D) Small and large handline

115. How do ANI and ALI features of enhanced 9-1-1 systems perform with wireless calls? A) They work normally, the same way hard-wired phones work. B) ANI works but ALI is disabled. C) They can give the physical location of the tower relaying the call. D) ALI works nominally, but ANI gives false readings.

1270. The preferred method of evacuating nonambulatory victims in a healthcare facility is ________. A) elevators B) stairwells C) horizontal evacuation D) vertical evacuation

1274. What type of building construction is also known as heavy timber? A) Type I B) Type II C) Type IV D) Type V

1278. Emergency medical services are provided at two levels. What is one of those? A) CHF B) COPD C) BLS D) AEDF

1279. Advanced life support personnel operate as the extension of: A) the company officer. B) the fire chief. C) a physician. D) the public.

1287. Who usually decides whether an area's EMS will be handled by fire departments, EMS departments, volunteer agencies, or contractors, etc.? A) No one; it is decided differently everywhere. B) The LEPC C) State and local government officials D) The federal government

1291. Some departments train their personnel in both firefighting and EMS delivery. What is this doubling-up of training called? A) NPMU B) Dual-standard training C) Cross-training D) BKS standard

1293. Medical control can be either off-line or online. What other two words can be substituted for off-line and online, in this context? A) Reactive and proactive B) Analog and digital C) Indirect and direct D) Basic and advanced

1298. What does the T stand for in EMT-Intermediate? A) Training B) Transport C) Technician D) Tetrahedron

1306. First responder courses are typically designed to train people to provide immediate, lifesaving care such as controlling bleeding, establishing an open airway, initiating CPR, and use of: A) KOA. B) ET. C) AED. D) IV.

1309. EMS training may be offered through a fire-training academy, a vocational training center, a hospital or: A) a doctor's office. B) a nursing home. C) a community college. D) a community mental health agency.

1319. What federal agency establishes the national standard curriculum for EMS courses to follow? A) National Fire Academy B) Department of Health and Human Services C) Department of Transportation D) Department of Homeland Security

1333. After rescuers have checked and corrected a victim's airway, what should they check and correct next? A) State of consciousness B) State of shock C) Breathing D) Bleeding

1335. The skin can turn pale or blue with inadequate breathing, especially in certain body areas. What is one of those areas? A) Wrists B) Eyeballs C) Lips D) Ears

1339. What is the major artery in the neck? A) Radial B) Brachial C) Carotid D) Femoral

1340. What function do the red blood cells perform? A) They fight infection. B) They determine the person's race. C) They carry the oxygen. D) They regulate the body's temperature.

1344. What can be said about the victim vomiting during CPR? A) It is a sign CPR is working. B) It is a sign CPR is failing. C) It is common. D) It is rare.

1347. What is the usual cure for shock? A) Simply lying still for a few minutes B) Returning the body temperature to normal C) Surgical repair D) Reassurance

1350. What object is placed directly on a wound to control bleeding and prevent further contamination? A) Tourniquet B) Bandage C) Dressing D) Splint

1353. Of what relevance is the fact that some forms of tuberculosis are emerging that are resistant to drugs? A) This development is of no consequence. B) It makes the disease more expensive to treat. C) It makes the disease more dangerous. D) It makes the disease harder to detect.

1357. If the tongue of an unconscious person falls back and partially blocks the throat, what sound might the person make? A) Complaining B) Gurgling C) Snoring D) Whistling

1358. What is the larynx? A) The structure on top of the kidneys B) The place where the trachea divides into two bronchi C) The voice box D) The nasal septum

1362. What is a total lack of respirations called? A) Cheynes-Stokes respirations B) Paradoxical respirations C) Respiratory arrest D) Cardiac arrest

1364. What is one potential hazard of doing mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing? A) This procedure is not covered by the Good Samaritan laws. B) Any possible injury to the spinal cord can be aggravated. C) The rescuer could contract an infectious disease from the victim. D) This can cause the victim to choke on the epiglottis.

1369. What does a valid DNR order command rescuers to do? A) Resuscitate no matter how long the down time has been. B) Treat aggressively, contraindications not withstanding. C) Withhold resuscitative efforts. D) Take infectious disease precautions

1370. What is decapitation? A) The traumatic opening of the skull B) The herniation of the brain through the lower skull opening C) The separation of the head from the rest of the body D) The traumatic opening of the thorax, breaking the airtight seal

1372. What should rescuers do if they hear a cracking sound while performing CPR? A) Stop CPR. B) Nothing, continue on. C) Check and correct hand position. D) Roll the victim into the rescue position.

1376. What is being done when a pressure point is used to control bleeding? A) A nerve is being tricked into constricting an artery. B) A fluid dam is being created in the soft tissue. C) A major blood vessel is being compressed against a bone. D) Blood clotting factor is being forced from the tissues

1379. If rescuers find themselves among a group of people that seems to be growing larger and turning hostile, what should they do? A) Continue treating the injured; crowds will never attack emergency medical workers doing their job. B) Stop and begin a dialogue with the leader. C) Call law enforcement immediately. D) Slowly leave the area

1382. What type of respirator is required to minimize exposure to tuberculosis? A) REPA B) REAP C) HEPA D) HEAP

1386. What is the medical term for the food tube in the neck/chest? A) Trachea B) Bronchi C) Esophagus D) Larynx

1387. What technique should you use to open an airway when you suspect the victim may have a spinal injury? A) Head tilt B) Neck lift C) Jaw-thrust D) Head tilt/neck lift

1392. Confusion, accompanied by cold, clammy, sweaty, pale skin and a rapid, weak pulse are signs and symptoms of ________. A) stroke B) respiratory arrest C) shock D) cardiac arrest

1396. What is the major artery in the wrist? A) Femoral B) Carotid C) Radial D) Brachial

140. What is the correct term for the small two-way radios individual fire fighters can carry, once called walkie-talkies? A) Mobile radios B) Field packs C) Portable radios D) PASS devices

1400. What occurs when the heart stops contracting and no blood is pumped through the blood vessels? A) Shock B) Stroke C) Cardiac arrest D) Respiratory arrest

1404. What is the most common cause of shock? A) Fright B) Heat loss C) Fluid loss D) Allergic reaction

1408. Most external bleeding is controlled by ________. A) elevation B) tourniquet C) direct pressure D) pressure points

143. What is the generally accepted time for a unit to be dispatched once the dispatch center receives a call? A) 15 seconds B) 30 seconds C) 1 minute D) 2 minutes

147. What is an urgent message that takes priority over all other communications? A) Alert traffic B) Standby message C) Emergency traffic D) Rescue message

152. Within a fire department, what is the primary means of communicating at the incident scene? A) Face to face B) Runner C) Radio D) Hand signal

153. In the ICS structure, who is the one person ultimately responsible for managing an incident? A) The EO B) The planning chief C) The incident commander (IC) D) The operations chief

155. Who is the IC's point of contact for representatives from outside agencies? A) The planning director B) The communications center C) The liaison officer D) The staging chief

160. By what title is the individual in charge of a company known? A) Resource director B) Squad leader C) Company officer D) Sector manager

164. What would be the designation for the 7th floor on a high-rise? A) Sector 7 B) 6th floor C) Division 7 D) Level 6

169. If there is no officer on the first-arriving unit, who assumes command? A) No one, until an officer arrives B) The person those present choose C) The fire fighter with the greatest seniority D) Whomever the nearest responding chief officer designates over the radio

170. When are first-arriving company officers allowed to pass command? A) Only when they feel intimidated by the situation facing them B) Any time they feel that one of the other officers known to be responding is equally or better qualified C) Only when their direct involvement in operations will have a significant impact on the outcome of the incident D) Never

177. Can and should ICS be used for everyday situations? A) It cannot but should. B) It cannot and should not. C) It can and should. D) It can but should not.

179. In an ICS situation, what is the maximum number of people that one person should normally supervise? A) 12 B) 8 C) 5 D) 3

181. Which ICS position(s) must be filled at every incident? A) Command, planning, and operations only B) Command and planning only C) Command only D) None

186. What does the A stand for in IAP? A) Annual B) Advisor C) Action D) Acting

187. What ICS section is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of information relevant to the incident? A) Strategy B) Staging C) Planning D) Logistics

189. What ICS section is responsible for providing supplies, services, facilities, and materials during the incident? A) Procurement B) Provision C) Logistics D) Materiel

19. What does the S stand for in SOPs? A) Supervised B) Special C) Standard D) Strict

192. What is the term usually used for a group of companies or crews working in the same geographical area? A) Branch B) Brigade C) Division D) Regiment

194. How would an exposure on the left side of the building be designated? A) Exposure B-A B) Exposure 2-1 C) Exposure B D) Exposure 2

195. What is the term for an assembly of two to five single resources, such as different types of units, assembled to accomplish a specific task? A) Brigade B) Recon team C) Task force D) Regiment

2. Three out of four career fire fighters work in jurisdictions with a population of ________ or more. A) 2,500,000 B) 250,000 C) 25,000 D) 2500

203. Who in the incident command structure is responsible for determining the strategic incident objectives? A) Deputy incident commander B) Planning officer C) Incident commander D) Operations section chief

1148. An indirect attack is indicated when the temperature is increasing and it appears that ________ is about to happen. A) backdraft B) structural collapse C) rollaway D) flashover

1150. What is one indication during an indirect attack that the ceiling has cooled? A) Billowing steam is produced. B) Ceiling takes on blackened color. C) Whooshing sounds are heard. D) Water droplets are raining down.

1157. During a defensive firefighting operation, what priority does exposure protection take on? A) No priority; the exposures are, by definition, already lost. B) Low priority C) Medium priority; about a fifth of the resources should be directed to it. D) High priority

1161. On what types of operations are master stream devices typically used? A) Offensive only B) Modular or offensive C) Offensive or defensive D) Defensive only

1162. What is the relevance of water being divided into droplets with a very large surface area in a fog stream? A) That pattern cools surfaces without converting into steam. B) Roughly 1500 times more wetting actually occurs than with a straight stream. C) Water in this pattern penetrates fuels better. D) That pattern absorbs heat efficiently.

1164. What is one use for a fog stream besides putting water on a fire? A) Grounding a live electrical wire B) Fireground communications signals C) Freezing the thermal layering into place D) Venting smoke and heat out a window

1166. What is the most effective means of fire suppression, in most situations? A) A no-vent attack B) Exposure protection C) A staged attack D) A direct attack

1169. What is one danger with an indirect fire attack? A) A building can explode if it is not properly vented and is subjected to an over pressure of only 5 psi, which steam can do. B) Copious amounts of carbon monoxide are produced from indirect attack. C) Indirect attack does not actually accomplish anything, it only relocates the problem. D) Hot fire gases and steam can be forced down onto fire fighters, which can cause burns.

117. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requires that communications centers be able to receive calls by voice communication and what other medium? A) Morse code B) Walk-in C) Radio transmission D) Text message

1171. What is another term for a deck gun? A) Port-a-pipe B) BF monitor C) Roof monitor D) Turret pipe

1173. Before any interior attack is initiated, what should be done to the structure? A) The outside wetted B) The roof sounded C) Secondary search D) Ventilation

1177. Smoke emitting from cracks in the walls of a building on fire is a sign of ________. A) positive pressure ventilation B) fire extinguishment C) water converting to steam D) possible building collapse

1179. Portable monitors, deck guns, and ladder pipes are examples of ________. A) handlines B) ventilation tools C) hose stabilizers D) master stream devices

1183. If there are no life hazards, how should a fire in a building under construction be fought? A) Blitz B) Indirect C) Offensive D) Defensive

1188. Which of the following is NOT a hazard found on modern vehicles? A) Plastics B) Airbags C) Hydraulic pistons D) Brake drums

119. How does the Canadian 9-1-1 system differ from the system in the United States? A) Canada does not have such a system; callers must dial 7-digit numbers. B) Calls to 9-1-1 in Canada will be answered in French. C) In Canada, callers must dial 9-9-9. D) The systems are essentially the same.

1192. How should fire be fought on fully involved alternative fuel vehicles? A) 1¾" B) 2½" C) Booster line D) Unmanned master stream

1196. What is installed on propane cylinders to allow excess pressure to escape? A) Pinhole B) Primer valve C) Purge valve D) Relief valve

1200. When necessary, approach a flammable gas fire with ________. A) One 1¾" hose line, from the end B) Two 1¾" hose lines, from the end C) One 1¾" hose line, from the side D) Two 1¾" hose lines, from the side

1203. What cancer-causing material do transformers contain? A) Polyphenyl chlorinates B) Biphensyl chlorinates C) Polychlorinated vinyls D) Polychlorinated biphenyls

1207. How is the designation of "target hazard" related to the risk such a property poses to fire fighters? A) There is no consistent relationship between this designation and risk posed to fire fighters. B) Target hazards pose a decreased risk to fire fighters. C) Target hazards pose the same risk as any other property to fire fighters. D) Target hazards pose an increased risk to fire fighters.

1215. What is one item that should certainly be noted in preincident plans in the context of exterior access to a building? A) Sprinkler-system surge-suppressor retard chambers B) Smoke-detection mechanical water alarm bells C) Underground parking-facility ventilation shafts D) Fire department connections for sprinkler systems and standpipes

1216. What type of box contains keys to the building for use by fire fighters during emergency access? A) Lockout tagout B) Permit entry C) Baker box D) Lock box

1218. What is the second major consideration during size-up of a building? A) Ownership B) Internal baffling C) Finishing composition D) Use and occupancy

1232. What types of preincident plans, if any, are usually prepared for one- and two-family residential buildings, in the absence of any unusual risk factors? A) Expanded B) Standard C) Abbreviated D) None

1234. With a preincident plan, fire fighters know not only where the hydrants and exits are, but also: A) where the victims are. B) where the fire is going. C) how many fire fighters to expect. D) what hazards to anticipate.

1236. Properties that are particularly large or that pose unusual hazards have what type of designation? A) Inspection hazards B) Priority locations C) Designated locations D) Target hazards

1238. Who usually performs a preincident survey? A) An inspector B) An outside contractor C) A building and utilities representative D) One of the crews that would respond to an emergency incident at the location

1245. What is one item of information regarding any gates limiting access to a building that should be included in preincident plans? A) Whether any such gates swing toward, away, or slide pocket-style B) How high any such gates are and their clearance above the ground C) The material of construction of any such gates, including their posts and fasteners D) Whether there any gates that require keys or a code to enter

1249. What is an example of an occupancy subcategory? A) Public assembly B) Institutional C) Commercial D) Arena

1255. Large buildings may require that more than one fire hydrant be located in case of fire, and further, that the two or more hydrants be different from each other in an important way. In what way? A) Made by different manufacturers B) One standard, one metric C) At least one not in first-due area D) Fed by different water mains

1258. When considering forcible entry on a preincident plan, one should note the location of any storage place where keys might be kept. What is a common term for such a key storage place? A) Key code B) OS & Y C) Magazine D) Lock box

1264. What NFPA standard contains information on recommended practices for preincident planning? A) 1400 B) 1581 C) 1600 D) 1620

1268. The required flow rate for a building is calculated based upon the building's size, construction, contents, and ________. A) municipality B) location C) time of day D) exposures

1271. If hazardous materials are present, what is available to assist the fire fighter in identifying safe response practices for the hazardous materials? A) Hazardous materials identification sheet B) Shipping label C) Bill of lading D) Material safety data sheet

1275. What type of building construction is also known as wood frame? A) Type I B) Type II C) Type IV D) Type V

1281. How long is the typical first responder course? A) 8 hours B) 16 hours C) 24 hours D) 40 hours or more

1286. CMEs serve two purposes. One is to ensure that EMS providers are maintaining their skills. What is the other? A) To provide a mechanism for peer-based evaluation of certification and re-certification examinations B) To serve as an industry caucus for the review, revision, and suggestion of applicable laws C) To serve as a backup identity and certification check, thus helping reduce credential fraud D) To ensure that EMS providers are aware of any changes in medical procedures or protocols

129. Why might some people remain reluctant to use the 9-1-1 system and prefer to dial the old 7-digit number instead? A) There is a psychological phenomenon called indexing that makes people feel they are more in control the more information they are managing at one time. B) They may fear the 9-1-1 system is flooded and their call will be placed in queue, while a direct dial will go right through. C) Some people just do not trust something new. D) They may fear their situation is not a true emergency.

1290. In a fire department EMS system, what types of units may provide first response service? A) None B) Engine companies only C) Engine companies or truck companies only D) Engine companies, truck companies, or special EMS units

1296. Among the contents recommended for inclusion in a first responder life support kit is an occlusive dressing. What is that used for? A) Splinting B) Stopping bleeding C) Covering the eyes D) Sealing chest wounds

1299. Because much of the funding for the fire departments comes from tax dollars paid by the citizens of the community they serve, how should fire fighters view citizens? A) As teachers B) As organizers C) As inspectors D) As customers

1303. People qualified to perform BLS skills (but not ALS) are trained as either EMT-Basics or: A) Good Samaritans. B) fire medics. C) citizen bystanders. D) first responders.

1308. What is one part of EMT-Paramedic training that is not found in EMT-Basic? A) Lifting victims B) Performing CPR C) Controlling bleeding D) Administering medications

176. What is it called when representatives from several different agencies work together to command a multi-jurisdictional incident in a coordinated manner? A) Span of control B) Barr-King-Sheal command C) Operations control D) Unified command

182. What is the term for the headquarters location for an incident? A) The staging area B) The planning sector C) The forward observation point D) The command post

183. To whom do individuals on the command staff directly report? A) The staging manager B) The EO C) The planning director D) The IC

184. Where does the safety officer position occur in the ICS? A) As its own autonomous entity B) Under operations C) Under logistics D) As part of the command staff

188. What ICS section is responsible for developing the IAP? A) Tactics council B) Finance C) Strategy team D) Planning

20. What are the two levels of fire fighter certification? A) Class B and Class A B) Part IV and Part V C) Junior and Senior Fire Fighter D) Fire Fighter I and Fire Fighter II

200. When is command terminated? A) When the IC leaves, passing responsibility to a lower-ranking officer B) When the last of the suppression activities is over C) When the incident is calming and the IC deems using ICS to be no longer necessary D) When the last company leaves the scene

211. What is the term for the lowest temperature at which a liquid produces a flammable vapor? A) Fire point B) Upper flammable limit C) Lower flammable limit D) Flash point

213. How are flammability limits and explosive limits related? A) Flammability limits are used to calculate explosive limits. B) Explosive limits are used to calculate flammability limits. C) The two terms are neither mathematically nor conceptually related. D) They are interchangeable terms meaning the same thing.

217. What is the normal percentage of oxygen in the air? A) 11 B) 14.7 C) 19.5 D) 21

220. What is the fire phase called when the fire has consumed either the available fuel or oxygen and is starting to die down? A) Isothermic phase B) Overhaul phase C) Under control phase D) Decay phase

222. What is the four-sided geometric figure used to represent the four necessary elements required for a self-sustaining fire? A) The fire triangle B) The fire square C) The fire polygon D) The fire tetrahedron

226. What type of heat transfer is it when one end of a steel beam is exposed to heat and the other end begins to heat up? A) Reduction B) Radiation C) Ionization D) Conduction

227. In what direction does radiated heat energy from a fire travel? A) Straight up only B) Up at out to approximately a 30-degree angle C) Up and to leeward only D) In all directions

230. Will a gas with a vapor density of 2.6 rise, fall, or have neutral buoyancy in air? A) It depends on what gas it is. B) Rise C) Neutral D) Fall

231. What is a BLEVE? A) A type of respirator B) A type of apparatus C) A type of command D) A type of explosion

240. What is the smallest unit of matter? A) Molecule B) Compound C) Element D) Atom

244. What type of heat transfer involves the circulatory movement in a gas or fluid with differing areas of temperature owing to a variation of density and gravity? A) Convolution B) Radiation C) Conduction D) Convection

249. What term refers to the weight of a gas compared to air? A) Specific density B) Specific gravity C) Vapor gravity D) Vapor density

254. When you open a door and the smoke thins, but the smoke still fills the door, the fire is probably on what level? A) Every level B) Above the level of the door C) Same level as the door D) Below the level of the door

261. What would the observation of glass blocks in a wall tell fire fighters? A) That there is an automatic sprinkler system in that room B) That there is a skylight in that room C) That the wall has not been subjected to fire D) That the wall is not load-bearing

262. Under what conditions will gypsum burn? A) It will burn under the same conditions as wood. B) Only if fanned with room air C) Only in an atmosphere of pure oxygen D) It will not burn under any conditions.

263. What is another term for gypsum board? A) Plywood B) Paneling C) Cement board D) Sheetrock

270. What type of construction is called ordinary construction? A) Class C B) Type I C) Class A D) Type III

274. If a Type V building is not balloon-frame, then what framing system is it? A) Z-frame B) N-frame C) H-frame D) Platform-frame

277. Select the true statement about masonry materials. A) They burn about as readily as wood. B) They must be specially treated not to burn. C) They evolve poisonous gases when burned. D) They are inherently fire resistive.

279. Select the true statement about steel. A) It is not very strong in either tension or compression. B) It is very strong in tension only. C) It is very strong in compression only. D) It is very strong both in tension and compression.

375. What can be added to water extinguishers to reduce the surface area of water and thereby to aid in extinguishment of fuels such as baled cotton or fibrous materials? A) Alkali metal salt B) Alcohol C) Quick water D) Wetting agent

377. When operating a fire extinguisher the acronym PASS can be used to assist you in the steps. What does the acronym stand for? A) Point, Aim, Shoot, Stream B) Point, Arms length, Sweep, Side C) Push, Aim, Side, Side D) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

379. Rotating tools are used to assemble or disassemble parts that are connected by what means? A) Being welded B) Being tied C) Nails or rivets D) Threaded fasteners

507. What is one of the three types of information that a dispatch message should, at minimum, communicate? A) Which tactical radio frequency to use B) Who called it in C) How far involved the building is D) What type of incident it is

509. Before opening doors or exiting apparatus, fire fighters should always check for: A) air leaks. B) a green exit light. C) a patent face piece seal. D) traffic.

514. When in the sequence of tasks required at a working structure fire does controlling the utilities usually occur? A) Once overhaul is complete B) Immediately prior to overhaul C) About half way through the suppression effort D) It is one of the first tasks to be accomplished.

515. What potential hazard exists if a fire fighter strikes a live electrical wire with an axe while opening a wall? A) The axe could fuse to the wire, rendering it unusable. B) The edge on the axe could be ruined. C) The axe could deflect, cutting an unintended part of the wall. D) The fire fighter could be electrocuted.

516. When the handle of a natural gas supply line valve is in line with the pipe, what position is the valve in? A) It varies. B) Half open C) Closed D) Open

742. If a door is closed, what must the fire fighter do before entering? A) Crack open the door to check for victims near the door. B) Call out for victims. C) Announce his intention to enter. D) Feel the door for heat.

747. What is the term for the main area of the fire? A) Point of origin B) Central arm C) Fire front wing D) Seat of the fire

75. What term is used by some departments to indicate that fire fighters must work in teams of at least two and remain in constant communication with each other? A) The freelancing system B) The two-in, two-out system C) The Noah's Ark system D) The buddy system

752. What is the rule of thumb relating smoke movement to fire temperature? A) There is no rule of thumb; these characteristics are unrelated. B) The hotter the fire, the slower the smoke moves. C) Smoke moves slowly at all temperatures up to about 1350º F; above that it moves fast. D) The hotter the fire, the faster the smoke moves.

868. What type of adaptor is used to connect two female couplings to each other? A) Double wye B) Double female C) Double Siamese D) Double male

876. What hose load has the hose up on its edge and laid side-to-side in the hose bed? A) Spaghetti B) Fan-fold C) Quick-pull D) Accordion

879. What term is used to describe the amount of energy in a body or stream of water? A) Flow B) Fluid dynamics C) Hydraulics D) Pressure

883. During annual testing, at what pressure must an attack hose be tested? A) 500 B) 400 C) 350 D) 300

887. A soft suction hose connects a fire department engine to a ________. A) standpipe B) sprinkler system C) water bladder D) steamer outlet on a hydrant

891. During hose testing, what is the maximum length of the connected hose? A) 600 feet B) 500 feet C) 400 feet D) 300 feet

895. What can be used to protect a hose line being hoisted over a roof or windowsill? A) Hose ramp B) Hose clamp C) Hose jacket D) Hose roller

898. What type of hose line has a predetermined length of hose, with a nozzle already attached, and is connected do a discharge outlet on an engine? A) Hospital-load B) High-rise pack C) Fire-load D) Preconnect

902. What is the function of a standpipe system? A) Water resupply for attack engines B) Water resupply for supply engines C) Water supply for sprinkler systems in a building D) Water supply for attack lines connected inside the building

905. What advantage does a smooth-bore nozzle have over a fog-stream nozzle? A) Absorbs greater amount of heat B) Variety of stream patterns C) Finer water particles D) Longer reach

910. What is a benefit of Class A foam? A) Does not conduct electricity B) Forms unbreakable barrier on fuel spills C) Increases surface tension of water D) Reduces surface tension of water

916. Which type of foam is formulated so polar solvents do not dissolve the foam? A) Protein foam B) Fluoroprotein foam C) Aqueous film-forming foam D) Alcohol-resistant foam

926. While the danger of firefighting should never be taken for granted or thought of as routine, a fire fighter has to learn to routinely: A) live with the danger. B) overlook the danger. C) consider the danger from a probabilistic viewpoint. D) follow safe SOPs.

935. What is the term for a roll call taken by a supervisor at an emergency incident? A) Fire fighter location confirmation B) Time and location verification C) System communications check D) Personnel accountability report

939. The analysis of fire fighter fatalities and serious injuries has shown that fire fighters themselves often contribute to the deterioration of their situation. How? A) By leaving their radios behind to squeeze through a small space B) By ignoring the bell ringing on their SCBA C) By taking off their PPE in an effort to escape entrapment D) By delaying calling for help when they need it

941. A standard approach to risk-benefit analysis should be incorporated into the ________ for all fire departments. A) mission statement B) budget C) planning council D) standard operating procedures

942. Who should practice some risk analysis at all incidents? A) The IC, the company officers, the fire fighters, and the risk safety officer B) The IC, the company officers, and the fire fighters only C) The IC only D) Everyone

948. What is one reason that team efforts are imperative in the fire service? A) The need to watch all four sides when conducting operations B) The need to see, do, evaluate, and communicate all at the same time C) The inherent risk associated with all the normal activities of firefighting D) The intense physical labor involved in pulling hose or raising ladders

955. What is the board to which fire fighter personnel accountability tags are attached sometimes called? A) The big board B) The entry plate C) A turnstile D) A passport

320. Is it ever appropriate to have two different types of fire extinguisher in the same area? A) No, this sets up the possibility of opposing streams. B) No, this risks lay people selecting the wrong one. C) Yes, there may be more than one type of combustible. D) No, this is prohibited by the building code.

328. All portable fire extinguishers use what means for expelling their contents? A) Springs B) Vacuum C) Pressure D) Gravity

330. What is generally the maximum distance a CO2 extinguisher can be expected to reach? A) 32 feet B) 16 feet C) 8 feet D) 4 feet

335. Fire fighters use portable fire extinguishers to put out small fires that do not require the use of what? A) The fire department B) Protective clothing C) Hoselines D) A run report

336. Portable fire extinguishers have two primary uses. What is one? A) Defuse possible backdraft conditions B) Reach rollover gases C) Extinguish incipient fires D) Provide emergency air

35. Who inspects businesses and enforces public safety laws and fire codes? A) Fire fighter B) Fire chief C) Fire marshal D) Fire police

352. The dry chemicals in fire extinguishers work in two ways. What is one of those ways? A) They form an oxygen barrier between the air and the fuel. B) They chemically convert the fuel to a non-fuel isotope. C) They interrupt the chemical chain reactions of combustion. D) They imitate the oxygen molecules a fire needs to burn.

355. What is one disadvantage of CO2 extinguishers? A) Electrical conductivity B) Expensive chemical inside C) Short discharge range D) Messy residue

356. Class B foam extinguishers are not suitable for what type of flammable liquid fire? A) Gasoline B) Diesel fuel C) Cooking oil D) Jet A or B fuels

361. How much of a dry chemical extinguisher's full load must be used before it requires recharging? A) More than 30% B) More than 70% C) Any at all D) All of it

366. What class of fire describes flammable and combustible liquids? A) K B) A C) B D) D

369. A class B extinguisher with a rating of 40-B would be expected to extinguish what size flammable liquid surface fire? A) 40 cubic feet B) 40 cubic meters C) 40 square feet D) 40 square inches

37. Who developed the first fireplug (hydrant)? A) Ben Franklin in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania B) Ben Hastings in Boston, Massachusetts C) George Smith in New York, New York D) George Washington in Washington, DC

371. What class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and an electrical plug and socket? A) K B) B C) C D) D

374. What hazard category is represented by auto showrooms, parking garages, and retail stores? A) Severe B) Light C) Ordinary D) Extra

376. What is the weight of carbon dioxide in comparison to air? A) 0.5 B) 1.0 C) 1.5 D) 2.0

380. What kind of wrench has a closed end and is used to tighten or loosen nuts or bolts? A) Monkey wrench B) Spanner wrench C) Box-end wrench D) Pipe wrench

383. What is one example of a hand-powered hydraulic spreader tool? A) Spanner tool B) Pompier tool C) Rabbet tool D) Pitot tool

385. What makes a hammer a mallet? A) Head filled with sand or bird shot. B) Use requires both hands. C) Short handle and round head D) Small round ball on one side of head

386. In addition to cutting, what can a flat-head axe be used for that a pick-head axe cannot? A) Ventilating a roof B) Prying an outward-opening door C) Striking another tool D) Prying an inward-opening door

387. When a spring-loaded center punch is used to break tempered automobile glass, what happens to the glass? A) A pencil-size hole is made in the glass. B) The glass spiderwebs but remains intact. C) The glass shatters into small pieces. D) A round, coaster-size hole is made in the glass.

392. What tool is used to pull out a cylinder lock mounted in a wood or heavy metal door? A) Rabbet tool B) Hux bar C) K tool D) Axe

398. Which is an example of a debris-removal tool used during overhaul? A) Axe B) Halligan tool C) Shovel D) Pike pole

401. What guide should be used when cleaning power tools used in ventilation? A) The applicable NFPA standard B) The ANSI guides on tool maintenance C) The manufacturer's instructions D) Common sense and a thorough job

406. What is one example of a pry or spread tool? A) Hydrant wrench B) K tool C) Hydraulic spreader D) Axe

408. A Halligan tool incorporates a sharp pick, a flat prying surface, and a: A) serrated blade. B) piked hook. C) forked claw. D) spring-loaded center punch.

415. There are three primary types of mechanical saw: chain saw, rotary saw, and: A) jig saw. B) band saw. C) reciprocating saw. D) compound miter saw.

511. In addition to PPE, what should fire fighters working a highway incident scene wear for safety? A) Rappelling harnesses B) A penetrating whistle C) High-visibility safety vests D) A small Class B fire extinguisher

512. When fire fighters take action on their own, without regard to SOPs, the command structure, or the strategic plan, what is that behavior called? A) Size-up B) Overhaul C) Freelancing D) Backfiring

517. A typical natural gas service includes, in addition to the shut-off valve, a gas meter and: A) a remotely monitored valve position sensor. B) a remotely monitored fire sensor. C) a pressure-reducing valve. D) a key mount.

521. What is the term for those bits of information that can be reasonably assumed, predicted, or expected to occur, but which are not necessarily accurate? A) SWAGs B) Factoids C) Probabilities D) Opinions

522. What is one source of facts about a structure? A) Eyewitness accounts B) Caller information C) A preincident plan D) Generalized assumption

530. What is one indicator that fire may be behind a wall? A) Loosening fasteners B) A whistling or chirping sound C) Blistering paint D) Activation of a second smoke alarm

532. What is one of the concepts that enables an IC to predict where a fire might spread? A) Condensation B) Correlation C) Convection D) Concentration

533. An action plan to control an incident can be effective only if something can be assembled on a timely basis. What must be assembled? A) The building owners B) A unified command consensus C) The necessary resources D) The media

535. What is the first priority in protecting property? A) Minimizing water damage inflicted by the fire department B) Triaging the value of the contents of the building C) Keeping the fire from spreading beyond the area of origin D) Spreading salvage covers over the interior contents

536. How do most volunteer fire fighters receive dispatch messages? A) Telephone B) Siren or horn C) Pager D) IM

546. A gas valve that has been shut off must not be reopened until: A) the condensation droplets have stopped at the farthest orifice. B) all piping has had a chance to cool back down to room temperature. C) the system has been inspected by a qualified person. D) the bubble has returned to the window by the main valve

550. Effective size-up requires a combination of training, experience, and: A) luck. B) preparation. C) good judgment. D) serendipity.

556. What is the term for the main area of the fire? A) Point of origin B) Fire's char C) Seat of the fire D) Middle branch

558. Upon what is the attack plan based at a fire? A) Certainties B) Promises C) Probabilities D) Dissembling

560. What are a fire department's basic resources? A) Water and tools B) Tools and personnel C) Personnel and apparatus D) Apparatus and water

562. What do most fire departments have in place in case they receive a call that requires more resources than they have on hand? A) Strategic resource reserves B) De no jure declarations C) Mutual aid agreements D) Isolation strategies

564. Select the correct order of priority, from highest to lowest, for these five basic fire ground objectives: 1. Confine the fire. 2. Extinguish the fire. 3. Protect exposures. 4. Rescue victims 5. Salvage property A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4 C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 D) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

566. What NFPA standard requires all firefighters to be in their seats, with seat belts secured, whenever the fire apparatus is in motion? A) NFPA 1002 B) NFPA 1021 C) NFPA 1500 D) NFPA 1921

568. What is the type of fire attack where firefighters advance into the fire building with hoselines and attack the fire? A) Perimeter B) Progressive C) Offensive D) Defensive

572. Before beginning any forcible entry, what reminder phrase should fire fighters keep in mind? A) Two's company, three's a crew B) Without the hose the fire grows C) Try before you pry D) Break a door, hit the floor

579. What kind of tool is actually a small hydraulic spreader operated by a hand-powered pump? A) K-tool B) Air chisel C) Rabbet tool D) Hux bar

580. How is the length of bolt cutter handles related to the amount of cutting force that can be applied? A) They are not related. B) The longer the handle, the weaker the cutting force. C) The longer the handle, the greater the cutting force. D) It depends on what is being cut.

582. What kind of tool is designed specifically to cut into a lock cylinder? A) A tool B) J tool C) K tool D) PX tool

584. For what are duck-billed lock breakers designed? A) Circular burglar-alarm locks B) Keyed hasp locks C) Padlocks D) There is no such tool.

590. How much damage is caused by forcing the locks on double-hung windows? A) None; this design is not damaged at all. B) Minor damage C) Extensive damage D) It depends on whether it is the top or the bottom that is double hung.

591. How are jalousie windows normally opened and closed? A) By hand raising and lowering B) By rotating a long, plastic rod C) By turning a small hand-crank D) By pulling one side of a rope loop

606. What type of glass is in most sliding doors? A) Plate B) Laminated safety C) Tempered D) Polycarbonate

607. Under fire conditions, forcible entry through a window should not be attempted unless this is in place. A) Salvage cover B) Roof ventilation team C) Proper fire attack D) Positive-pressure fan

608. How strong is tempered glass, as compared to regular glass? A) About half as strong B) About equally strong C) About four times stronger D) About two hundred times stronger

612. What is the appropriate level of protective equipment when conducting forcible entry during fire suppression operations? A) Helmet and eye protection B) Gloves and eye protection C) Full structural firefighting PPE D) Helmet, coat, and gloves

616. What type of glass is normally used in automobile windshields? A) Annealed B) Insulated C) Laminated D) Tempered

620. The four major lock categories are padlocks, mortise locks, rim locks, and ________. A) J-locks B) K-locks C) cylindrical locks D) tumble locks

624. What is the term for one of the two main structural components that run the entire length of most ladders or ladder sections? A) Fly B) Rung C) Beam D) Cross member

630. What is another term for portable ladders? A) Modular ladders B) Stand-alone ladders C) Ground ladders D) Bangor ladders

637. When a ladder is used to gain access to a roof, at least how many rungs should show above the roofline? A) One B) Three C) Five D) Seven

639. Where does the top beam of the ladder rest in the one-fire-fighter carry? A) In the air B) In the hand C) On the shoulder D) On the crook of the elbow

643. When is a three-fire-fighter flat shoulder carry useful? A) When there are power lines nearby B) When the ground is hard C) When the ladder must be carried over short obstacles D) When the ladder is not made of aluminum

644. When a ladder is placed at the proper angle for climbing and a fire fighter is standing on a rung, how far away will the rung at shoulder height be from the fire fighter? A) One hand width B) Two hand widths C) Arm's length D) About an arm-and-a-half away; one has to lean forward to make contact.

647. To begin a variation of the one-fire-fighter rung raise, where are the butt spurs placed for a ladder longer than 14 feet? A) Against the ground only B) Against the structure only C) Against both the structure and the ground D) One is placed against the ground and one against the structure.

654. What do the beams of a ladder directly support? A) Fly B) Halyard C) Rungs D) Roof hooks

663. What part of a ladder must not be exposed to solvents? A) Rungs B) Beams C) Halyard D) Pawls

767. Within any room or space, where are the hottest gases found? A) At the lowest level B) Distributed uniformly throughout the volume C) At the highest level D) It depends on the composition of the gases.

772. Which of the three major tactical priorities in structural firefighting operations can benefit from ventilation? A) Life safety and fire containment only B) Fire containment and property conservation only C) A and B D) None

773. What type of fuel produces large quantities of black, rolling smoke that rises in a vertical column? A) Heavy wood load B) Wet wood or wood products C) Petroleum products D) Textiles, especially cotton and wool

775. What is it called when fans or other powered equipment are used to exhaust heat and smoke or to introduce clean air? A) Assisted ventilation B) Hydraulic ventilation C) Mechanical ventilation D) Combination ventilation

780. When setting a smoke ejector up in a window, in what part of the window should it be placed, or does it matter? A) In the lower part of the opening B) In the middle of the opening C) In the upper part of the opening D) It does not matter

781. Where does the water come from in hydraulic ventilation? A) Fine, internal spray nozzles in the fan casing B) A reservoir pan under the motor C) A standard fire hose line D) The stored-water tank

782. If the fire is in structural void spaces, positive-pressure ventilation should not be used until attack crews are in place and _________ is available. A) high-expansion foam B) low-expansion foam C) access to the spaces D) a thermal imaging camera

785. What is the term for the process of removing smoke, heat, and toxic gases from a building and replacing them with cooler, cleaner, more oxygen-enriched air? A) Chase B) Combustion C) Ventilation D) Convection

787. What benefit(s) can ventilation provide to fire attack crews? A) Clear smoke and remove heat B) Pull away steam C) Both A and B D) None

789. What type(s) of operation(s) is/are needed to alleviate flashover conditions? A) Cooling B) Ventilation C) Cooling and ventilation D) Additional air intake

792. What type of ventilation takes advantage of doors and windows on the same level as the fire? A) Aerobic B) Fixed C) Horizontal D) Vertical

793. When ventilating a structure, where should a ladder be placed when breaking a window? A) Above the window sill B) Below the window sill C) Leeward side of the window D) Windward side of the window

796. When making louver cuts, what is used as a fulcrum to make the louvered openings? A) Prybar B) Decking C) Roof supports D) Pike pole

8. For whom should fire fighters consider that they work? A) The fire chief B) Their immediate superior C) The tax-paying citizens D) Themselves

800. What is caused by temperature differences inside and outside a building? A) Conflagration B) Inversion C) Stack effect D) Smoke stack

805. What is the name of the smallest pipes in a water distribution system (i.e., the pipes that deliver the water to the homes and hydrants on individual streets)? A) Capillaries B) Promontory C) Distributors D) Cross mains

91. During routine SCBA checks, the pressure on the cylinder gauge must be in agreement with the regulator or remote pressure gauge within what range? A) 400 psi B) 200 psi C) 100 psi D) 50 psi

915. Which type of foam is synthetic based and has excellent vapor suppression capabilities? A) Protein foam B) Fluoroprotein foam C) Aqueous film-forming foam D) Alcohol-resistant foam

919. What foam application method should be used on pooled liquid fires on the ground? A) Bankshot (bank-down) B) Rain down C) Sweep (roll-on) D) Subsurface injection

923. If there are no lives to be saved but there is value to the property, can fire fighters be committed to an interior attack? A) Yes, as long as they do not go in so far that they are lost to sight from the outside B) No, not unless there is an obvious seat of the fire within easy reach of a point of entry C) Yes D) No

928. The NFPA 704 placard indicates the presence of hazardous materials. What shape is this placard? A) Triangle point up B) Triangle point down C) Diamond D) Rectangle

929. What is the most important reason for team integrity in firefighting operations? A) Chain of command B) Span of control C) Safety of personnel D) Unity of command

930. How should on-call volunteer fire fighters assemble upon arrival at a fire? A) As a resource group B) Into squads C) Into companies D) As individuals

933. What type of system is designed to keep track of the location and function of all personnel operating at the scene of an incident? A) Grid search B) Scalar organizational C) Personnel accountability D) Self-modulating personnel

937. In the system of accountability, what should be requested at the occurrence of tactical benchmarks, such as going from an offensive to a defensive strategy? A) A rehabilitation assignment for those coming off the fight B) A system communications check C) A PAR D) A BARKS check

946. What is the most important component of fire fighter survival? A) Planning, execution, and then reevaluation B) Evaluation, planning, and then data gathering C) To consistently follow safe operating procedures D) To always operate in teams of three or more

953. What type of system keeps track of every company or team of fire fighters working at the scene of the incident from the time they arrive until the time they are released? A) Modular B) Delegation C) Personnel accountability D) Responsibility

962. What phrase indicates an imminent fire-ground hazard, such as a structural collapse? A) Alert, alert, alert B) All call C) Emergency traffic D) Stand by

965. If a fire fighter becomes disoriented, how can the hose line be used to assist in egress? A) The hose couplings have directional arrows. B) The hose material has directional arrows. C) The female coupling is on the end of the hose nearest the apparatus. D) The male coupling is on the end of the hose nearest the apparatus.

969. A line of duty death, the death of a child, or the death of a person known to fire fighters are all examples of ________. A) critical moments B) familiar incidents C) critical incidents D) trying times

973. What is one ever-present danger during salvage? A) Water being cut off B) Failure to gain access C) Structural collapse D) Backdraft

975. During salvage, what should be done with any pictures on the walls? A) They should be left in place as they are. B) They should be left in place, but turned toward the wall. C) They should be removed and placed with the furniture. D) They should be set on the floor against the wall, facing the wall.

978. If a nozzle must be left partly open in a structure to prevent freezing in cold temperatures, what technique can help reduce water damage to the structure? A) Direct the flow along a baseboard. B) Direct the flow into a floor vent. C) Direct the flow out a window. D) Direct the flow across a floor.

979. If only one or two sprinkler heads have been activated, what technique can quickly stop the flow while keeping the rest of the system operational during overhaul? A) Closing the outside valve B) Charging the standpipe system C) Inserting a sprinkler wedge D) Reverse-charging the sprinkler system

981. If individual sprinkler heads cannot be shut off, what should be done to stop the flow of water? A) Crimp the piping in the riser. B) Open the fire department connection outside. C) Close the sprinkler control valve. D) Activate more heads, using a mechanical heat source.

984. Operating a PIV handle is similar to operating a ________. A) nozzle bale B) pump panel pull-valve C) hydrant wrench D) kitchen sink faucet

994. What should be done with smoldering mattresses to extinguish them during overhaul? A) They should be smothered with a salvage cover. B) They should be stood up and allowed to burn out. C) They should be removed outside and then soaked. D) They should be ripped open with a chainsaw or similar tool and then wet thoroughly.

996. When thrusting a pike pole tip up through a ceiling to pull it, which way should the hook on the tip face? A) Toward the fire fighter B) To either side of the fire fighter C) Away from the fire fighter D) To the left of the fire fighter only

1153. Why is it necessary to limit how low an elevation angle a portable monitor device can be set to? A) To prevent people from accidentally walking into the stream B) To keep the area around the monitor from flooding with water C) To prevent an otherwise excessive stress on the hose lines supplying it D) If set too low, the reactionary force would make the monitor unstable

12. What is the next level up from a lieutenant in the fire service? A) Corporal B) Captain C) Sergeant D) Battalion chief

16. What is another term for the rank of driver/operator? A) Lieutenant B) Engineer C) Corporal D) Sergeant

17. A rescue situation requires specialized knowledge or training in structural collapse, trench rescue, swift water rescue, confined-space rescue, etc. What is the term for a fire fighter who has this training? A) Class II Rescue Technician B) Technical Rescue Technician C) Barrel Rescue Technician D) Second Stage Rescue Technician

18. What is developed to provide definite guidelines for present and future actions? A) Analyses B) Policies C) Comparisons D) Post-incident plans

26. The fire fighter who receives training and certification in chemical identification, leak control, and decontamination is a(n) ________. A) aircraft rescue fire fighter B) hazardous material technician C) technical rescue technician D) SCUBA dive rescue technician

33. What is a way of organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into a series of smaller tasks? A) Discipline B) Division of labor C) Unity of command D) Span of control

45. What traffic laws, if any, are fire fighters responding in emergency vehicles obligated to obey? A) None of them B) All traffic laws C) Only those that authorized emergency vehicles also have to obey D) All the traffic laws except those dealing with speed limits and parking

46. If one member of a firefighting team must leave a fire building for any reason during an assignment, who else should leave? A) No one else should leave. B) The rest of the team should leave. C) At least one other person should leave. D) Exactly one other person should leave.

48. What is the term for the small magnetic boards carried by company officers as part of a personnel accountability system? A) Billboards B) Passports C) Marquees D) Mortar boards

49. During overhaul, either a safety officer or someone else should be assigned to monitor the atmosphere for the presence of what dangerous gas? A) Nitrogen oxide B) Carbon monoxide C) Di-hydrogen oxide D) Sulfur dioxide

7. Where was the first fire insurance company formed in America? A) Philadelphia, Pennsylvania B) Charleston, South Carolina C) Scranton, Pennsylvania D) Florence, South Carolina

71. Fire fighters should drink how much water for every 5 to 10 minutes of physical exertion? A) 2 to 4 ounces B) 8 to 10 ounces C) 18 to 20 ounces D) 38 to 40 ounces

73. When is freelancing acceptable on the training ground? A) Always B) Never C) Only when practicing skills already taught D) Only when experimenting with new equipment

84. A PASS device can be set off manually or will go off automatically under what circumstances? A) If the device senses one or more specific gases B) If the device is motionless for a set period of time C) If the device senses a rapid rise in temperature D) If the device is submerged for more than a few seconds

87. When should fire fighters use the bypass mode on SCBA? A) When the tank is near empty B) When the regulator malfunctions C) When the air supply is contaminated D) When the PASS device is going off

93. Special procedures must be used when filling SCBA cylinders to ensure: A) that the percentage of injected helium into the breathing air is within 3% of 11%. B) that the air being used to fill the cylinder is not contaminated. C) that the cylinder does not become too cold during filling. D) that the fill includes a hydrostatic test of the tubing.

98. When responding to domestic disputes or other scenes involving violence what should fire fighters do? A) Atempt to calm those involved in the dispute. B) Wait for law enforcement to declare the scene safe. C) Call for critical incident stress debriefing team. D) Attemp to apprehend those involved.

11. To what rank do fire fighters usually report? A) Battalion chiefs B) Commanders C) Lieutenants D) Other fire fighters

3. How old is the practice of having fire departments? A) Fire departments began in the late 1800s, some 150 years ago. B) One of many Renaissance ideas, this one is about 600 years old. C) It goes back to ancient Rome, about 2000 years ago. D) There is evidence that cave men had organized fire watches 25,000 years ago.

30. What type of company responds to and controls scenes involving spilled or leaking hazardous chemicals? A) Engine company B) Truck company C) Hazardous material company D) Chemical company

31. Who are responsible for coordinating the activities of several fire companies in a defined geographic area such as a station or district? A) Lieutenants B) Captains C) Battalion chiefs D) Assistant chiefs

4. What catastrophic fire, bigger even than the Great Chicago Fire, and burning at the same time, caused five times the loss of life and jumped 60 miles across Green Bay, Wisconsin? A) The Big and Plain Fire B) The Sicken Sky Fire C) The Peshtigo Fire D) Fire # 86

42. Those at the top of the chain of command are responsible for safety. How far down the chain of command does the responsibility for safety go? In other words, what is the lowest rank that shares the responsibility for safety? A) The sector officers B) The company officers C) The individual department members D) The incident commander

5. What were the original "hooks" of "hook-and-ladder" fame used for? A) For reaching into atmospheres too hot to enter to pull victims free B) For scaling structures in order to access second or third stories C) For pulling down burning structures to prevent extension to exposures D) For stoking the boilers on the steam engines that drove the pumps

60. From what material(s) can structural firefighting boots be constructed? A) Rubber only B) Leather only C) Rubber or leather D) Leather or polyethylene

61. What is one requirement of structural firefighting gloves? A) They must provide a positive electrical ground. B) They must have three points of flexion. C) They must meet the applicable NFPA standard. D) They must be able to be twisted and wrung dry.

62. What is the purpose of a PASS device? A) To sound an alarm if certain fire or asphyxiate gases are detected B) To warn fire fighters when their air supply is low C) To sound an alarm if a fire fighter is motionless for a set period of time D) To keep track of elapsed time in deteriorating conditions

63. Why should fire fighters make sure their PPE is dry before engaging in structural firefighting? A) Because Nomex is rendered non-flame-resistant when wet and heated B) Because the outer shell becomes brittle and tears easily when wet C) Because water trapped in the fabric can boil and cause steam burns in fire conditions D) Because water trapped in the fabric greatly enhances its thermal protection and that cuts off abruptly when the fabric dries

68. What is one essential element of safe emergency operations? A) Freelancing B) Canine operations C) Teamwork D) Heroism

69. At a minimum, how much time should fire fighters spend in physical fitness training on a daily basis? A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 1 hour D) 2 hours

72. What is the relationship between habits developed in training and habits that will be displayed on the fireground? A) Fireground habits will always be more careful and correct than those shown in training. B) Fireground habits are necessarily abbreviated and cruder than those shown in training. C) Habits developed in training will continue on the fireground. D) There is no apparent relationship between these two types of habits.

83. What is one required feature of structural firefighting boots? A) Overheat detection label B) Steel shin plate C) Reinforced toe D) Snow tread

85. What gas is produced by combustion and kills by competing with oxygen for red blood cells, thus asphyxiating the victim? A) Sulfur dioxide B) Anhydrous ammonia C) Carbon monoxide D) Methyl ethyl ketone

89. According to the applicable NFPA standard, how often must fire fighters have their SCBA face pieces fit-tested? A) Monthly B) Every 6 months C) Every 12 months D) Every 3 years

9. What principle says each fire fighter answers to only one supervisor? A) Span of responsibility B) Organizational accountability C) Unity of command D) Delegation of duty

90. What is the purpose of skip breathing? A) To enhance concentration B) To suppress nausea C) To conserve air D) To test the SCBA unit

95. Which NFPA standard provides a template for implementing a comprehensive health and safety program for fire fighters? A) 2001 B) 1901 C) 1500 D) 1001

13. Where in the rank structure are assistant chiefs? A) Above captains but below battalion chiefs B) Between battalion chiefs and district chiefs C) Between lieutenants and commanders D) Between battalion chiefs and the chief of the department

24. Which officer serves as a liaison between the incident commander (IC) and the news media? A) News officer B) Liaison officer C) Company officer D) Public information officer

27. The fire fighter who is trained in rescue, recovery, and search procedures in both water and ice conditions is a(n) ________. A) aircraft rescue fire fighter B) hazardous material technician C) technical rescue technician D) SCUBA dive rescue technician

34. The number of people whom one person can supervise effectively is known as ________. A) discipline B) division of labor C) unity of command D) span of control

38. Each fire fighter accident or injury must be investigated thoroughly for two reasons. One is to determine why it happened. What is the other? A) To determine its classification under the S.I.M.P.L.E. system B) To preclude any civil liability situation should it happen again C) To determine whether a de facto feasance occurred D) To determine how it can be avoided in the future

39. About how many fire fighter deaths in the United States occur on the fireground, compared to deaths that occur during training or during other routine duties? A) Nearly ten times as many B) About twice as many C) About half as many D) About the same number

43. What should fire fighter candidates (or trainees) do if they see something that they believe is an unsafe practice occurring on the training ground? A) Nothing; this is not the responsibility of trainees B) Go over and warn the fellow trainees involved C) Go over and attempt to reduce the hazard or danger D) Bring it to the attention of the instructors or a designated safety officer

44. Following notification of an emergency response, when should fire fighters don personal protective equipment (PPE)? A) Immediately upon dismounting the apparatus at the scene B) While on the apparatus, en route to the call C) While on the apparatus, prior to pulling out of the station D) Prior to mounting the apparatus

47. Team members working in a hazardous area should maintain contact with each other at all times through one or more of three means. Two such means of maintaining contact are visual and vocal. What is the third? A) Area B) Estimated C) Standard D) Physical

51. Who should accompany fire fighters to the rehabilitation area? A) No one B) Their company officer C) The rapid intervention crew D) The rest of their crew

59. When should the inner thermal layer be removed from a turnout coat? A) Never B) On excessively hot days during outdoor operations only C) On excessively hot days during any operations D) Only when the coat is being cleaned

6. What does the bugle on the insignia for the fire service indicate? A) Longevity B) Place of origin C) Place of assignment D) Authority

70. What authority do the safety officers have to stop any activity on the fireground that they judge to be unsafe? A) None. B) They may make non-emergency recommendations to the IC only. C) They may make emergency-traffic recommendations to the IC only. D) They have total authority to stop unsafe activity.

1197. What is added to propane to give it a distinct odor? A) Mercaptan B) Triptan C) Sulfur D) Methane

221. What is another term for fire point? A) Ignition point B) Flame point C) Flash point D) Thermal point

120. What is the term for a two-way radio that is permanently mounted in a vehicle? A) A mobile radio B) A portable radio C) A base station D) A repeater

358. What is the body of a portable fire extinguisher called? A) Bell B) Horn C) Agent D) Cylinder

367. What class of fire involves combustible metals? A) K B) A C) B D) D

1026. What is one tactic a fire department might adopt to help reduce the load on fire fighters at a high-rise fire? A) Assign three companies to do the work normally assigned to one. B) Attack the fire in waves: ten minutes on, ten minutes off. C) Temporarily suspend the two-in, two-out rule. D) Have able-bodied bystanders assist in carrying equipment up.

1029. What is one type of incident other than a fire that might impose a tremendous energy drain on fire fighters? A) A hazardous materials incident requiring fully encapsulating suits B) A medical emergency where the victim is choking C) Holding C-spine at a car crash D) An ARFF standby

103. Which of the following is NOT produced by residential or commercial fires? A) Nitrogen dioxide B) Phosgene C) Carbon monoxide D) Hydrogen cyanide

1201. What needs to happen when the gas or electrical service to a structure is turned off for firefighting operations? A) Apply lockout tag B) Apply turn off tag C) Notify utility company D) Note time

1211. Who should accompany preincident survey team members as they perform their duty? A) A representative of the property B) A representative from building codes C) A certified fire prevention inspector D) A designated public safety liaison

1033. What happens to the body's tendency to sweat inside PPE during cold weather? A) Nothing; the body still sweats, creating damp clothing in cold weather. B) The body does not sweat when the air it inhales is below 43º F. C) The body sweats, but it has no cooling effect due to insulation. D) The body sweats as usual, but the film of water retains heat rather than dissipates it.

863. Approximately how much does a 50' section of charged 2 ½" hose weigh? A) 50 lbs. B) 100 lbs. C) 150 lbs. D) 200 lbs.

1035. What should fire fighters do with their PPE in rehabilitation? A) Remove it B) Keep it on, but unfastened, except for helmets and gloves C) Keep it on, but unfastened, including helmets and gloves D) Keep it all on and fastened and remain ready to go on a moment's notice

1042. During short incidents, what type of nourishment would be appropriate for fire fighters to sustain peak performance levels? A) Low-sugar, high-protein sports bars B) Pure carbohydrates C) Water and vitamin D only D) Just a multi-vitamin supplement

1046. Fighting fires is a job that requires excellent physical conditioning to combat the rigors of heat, cold, smoke, flames, physical exertion, and: A) emotional stress. B) changes in pressure. C) working in darkness. D) rehydration.

105. What does the A stand for in CAD? A) Aided B) Automatic C) Auxiliary D) Ancillary

1058. Fire fighters wearing fully encapsulated suits must be carefully monitored for symptoms of: A) heat stress. B) cardiac arrhythmia. C) acute electrolytic seizure. D) Meniere's disorientation.

106. What does the P stand for in GPS? A) Positioning B) Potential C) Personnel D) Preventive

1063. Two quarts of fluid equals roughly 2 percent of a 200-pound fire fighter's body weight. Loss of that much body fluid can result in the impairment of: A) temperature regulation. B) hepatic detoxification. C) immunity. D) balance.

1066. Glucose helps to burn fat efficiently and: A) release energy. B) turn on anaerobic metabolism. C) turn on aerobic metabolism. D) turn off nitrogen protein complex buildup

1069. Where do saturated fats mostly come from? A) Animal products B) Long-grain cereals C) Short-grain cereals D) Nuts

1003. What term describes the process of protecting property and belongings from damage? A) Salvage B) Overhaul C) Fire prevention D) Fire extinguishment

1007. When entering a fire building, who on the team should have a battery-powered hand light? A) All team members B) Company officer C) Nozzle operator D) Company officer and nozzle operator

1009. How often should generators be tested and operationally run? A) Weekly to monthly B) Monthly to semiannually C) Semiannually D) Annually

1013. Where are post indicator valves normally located? A) Outside the building B) On water mains C) On a standpipe system D) Inside a mechanical room

1017. What is the only method to determine that there are no hidden fires? A) Open up the wall. B) Use a thermal imager. C) Look for signs of heat. D) Feel for heat.

1023. What factor plays a significant role in a fire fighter's level of endurance? A) Conditioning B) Breakfast habits C) Electrolyte activity D) Posture of repose

1189. What is the minimum size hose line fire fighters should use to fight a vehicle fire? A) 1½" B) 2½" C) 3" D) 3½"

1025. What is one aspect of high-rise fires that is especially draining of energy? A) Walking up many flights of stairs in PPE B) The thinner air at virtually any altitude above ground level C) The inevitable compromise of the HVAC system D) The barely perceptible, but vertigo-inducing sway of the building

1193. Which of the following is a hazard of a hybrid vehicle? A) High-voltage cables B) Low-voltage cables C) Sulfuric acid D) Compressed cylinders

107. What is the telecommunicator's first responsibility? A) To obtain the information that is required to dispatch the appropriate units to the correct location B) To reassure the caller that help will be forthcoming shortly and that his/her problem can be addressed C) To provide the caller with real-time, emergency instructions, such as how to perform CPR D) To ascertain the exact type of event that the caller is reporting

1072. One danger of cold exposure is hypothermia. What is another? A) Frostbite B) Coldsnap C) Embolism D) Tracheal burns

1075. At what heat stress index does the United States Fire Administration recommend establishing a rehabilitation operation? A) 90º F B) 85º F C) 80º F D) 75º F

1084. Surface fuels are involved in what type of fire? A) Ground cover B) Mixed C) Racing D) Track pattern

1095. What is the burned area of a wildland fire called? A) The black B) The harbor C) The parking lot D) The post

1100. What kind of surface area do fine fuels have relative to their volume? A) Large B) Small C) Dense D) Heavy

1105. Which burn faster, subsurface fuels or aerial fuels? A) Aerial B) Subsurface C) It depends on the outside temperature. D) They burn at the same rate, other things being equal

1110. Are light fuels or heavy fuels affected more by changes in relative humidity? A) Light are affected more. B) Heavy are affected more. C) They are equally affected. D) Neither are affected.

1111. What happens to relative humidity as the temperature cools off toward evening? A) It goes up. B) It goes down. C) It begins to vary erratically. D) Nothing; it is not affected by temperature changes

1117. One of the two primary methods for attacking a wildland fire is the flanking attack. What is the other? A) Pincer attack B) Frontal attack C) Circular attack D) Indirect attack

1123. What is the term for an area of unburned land surrounded by burned land? A) Island B) Pocket C) Palm D) Heel

1127. What can be used on a wildland or ground cover fire to absorb the fire's heat and break down, cooling the fuel? A) Compressed-air foam system B) Liquefied nitrogen C) Dry chemical D) Dry ice

1130. What NFPA standard covers protective clothing and equipment for wildland fire fighting? A) 1977 B) 1978 C) 1979 D) 1980

1134. What is the NFPA standard for wildland fire fighter professional qualifications? A) 1051 B) 1041 C) 1031 D) 1021

1138. Complete this sentence: "An incident commander should never risk the lives of fire fighters ________." A) when there are no lives to save B) unless he or she would risk his or her own C) when others' lives are already in jeopardy D) This sentence is already complete.

114. What should call-takers do if a call comes in regarding issues the fire department does not handle? A) Try to direct the caller to the appropriate agency, even providing contact information if available. B) Take the caller's information and advise him/her that this is a non-criminal offense for which there will be a small fine. C) Quickly and politely tell the caller this is not a fire department issue and hang up to free up the line. D) Transfer the call immediately to the ANP recording for inappropriate calls.

1140. How much water can large handlines flow, in gallons per minute? A) 250 or more B) About 175 C) 140 to 150 D) Exactly 125

1147. Where does a direct fire attack deliver the water? A) To the base of the fire B) To the perimeter of the burning area C) Right to the middle of the flames D) To the hottest part of the flame, just above it

1154. All fire suppression operations can be classified as either one type or another. What are the two types? A) Offensive or defensive B) Interior or exterior C) Rescue or recovery D) Proactive or reactive

1158. What is it called when two groups of fire fighters are operating hose lines against each other? A) Opposing hose lines B) Combination attack C) Offensive operation D) No-vent attack

1159. There are two hose line sizes that are used most frequently for interior fire attack. What is one of them? A) 1 ¾" B) 1 ¼" C) 1" D) ½"

1160. What water delivery device flows a minimum of 350 gallons of water per minute? A) Master stream B) Large handline C) Two-and-a-half D) Combination attack line

1163. What would describe the appearance of a solid stream? A) A continuous column of water B) A room-filling fog C) A stuttering jackhammer of water D) Two intertwined loops of water, not unlike a decorative fountain

1165. What are the two different methods of discharging water onto a fire? A) Direct and indirect B) At the base and at the flame C) Following the smoke or following the light D) In bursts or continuously

1172. What is an elevated master stream device that is mounted at the tip of an aerial ladder called? A) Ladder pipe B) Neuse pipe C) FDC D) Ground monitor

1174. What type of fire attack is used to prevent the spread of fire? A) Defensive B) Offensive C) Direct D) Indirect

1180. Smoke coming from cracks in walls and peeling or bubbling paint are indicators of a possible ________. A) concealed fire B) flashover C) self-ventilating fire D) incendiary fire

1184. What is the greatest danger to fire fighters when fighting a fire involving stacked or piled material? A) Collapse B) Heat C) Volume of water used D) Products of combustion

1185. What can be used to aid in extinguishment of smoldering fires in tightly packed combustible materials, piles, or trash containers? A) Class A foam B) Class B foam C) Class C foam D) Class D foam

1213. What should be provided on preincident plans for use in case the primary response route is blocked by a train or a raised drawbridge? A) Alternate response routes B) Radio frequencies for the train dispatcher and bridge tender C) Telephone numbers for the train dispatcher and the bridge tender D) Airport-style colored light guns to signal the engineer or tender

1214. Why would fire fighters conducting a preincident survey be interested in examining the surrounding topography of a building? A) Because it might render some sides of a building inaccessible B) Because it likely reflects the building layout on the interior C) Because the depth of the basement walls can be inferred D) Because this will determine water runoff characteristics

1219. Within the major use groups, how can a building's particular use be further classified? A) Occupancy sub-classifications B) Side by side descriptions C) Building code restrictions D) Form 31-A occupant self-report

122. What is one of a telecommunicator's most important skills? A) Communicating effectively with citizens to obtain critical information even when the citizen is highly stressed or in extreme personal danger B) Instantly recalling the essentials of the law in order to determine whether a situation being reported is illegal C) Being able to write information down as fast as it can be said verbally D) Being able to empathize with distraught callers

1225. What is the term for locations from which an engine can draft out of a static water supply source? A) Drafting sites B) Standpipes C) Source locations D) Relay origins

1229. When considering ladder placement in the context of a preincident plan, what is one hazard that may be plainly visible and relatively easy to avoid by day, but might well be invisible at night? A) Overhead power lines B) On-site guard dogs C) Reinforced masonry walls D) Parked vehicles

1233. Preincident planning should be done for certain other locations besides buildings, because of the size of the location, the number of people who may be present, and security issues. What is one such location or installation? A) Tunnel B) News stand C) Swimming pool D) School track and field

1235. What is one type of information in a preincident plan that should be instantly available? A) Hydrant locations B) Subsequently due companies C) Recency of latest inspection D) Name of most recent inspector

1239. If preincident plans are to be kept on paper, they should be stored in three-ring binders or: A) in a filing system. B) on flash cards. C) on a stack of fan-fold paper. D) as overhead transparencies.

124. What does the D stand for in CAD? A) Dispatch B) Disaster C) Department D) Decision

1246. What is defined as "the ongoing observation and evaluation of factors that are used to develop objectives, strategy, and tactics for fire suppression"? A) Size-up B) Strategy C) Action plan D) Incident

1248. What type of construction is also called "ordinary"? A) Type III B) Type I C) Type C D) Type A

1251. What is the term for the amount of combustible material and the rate of heat release associated with a building being evaluated in the context of potential exposures during a preincident survey? A) Fire load B) R rating C) Molecular weight D) Relative density

1257. If propane gas or fuel oil is stored on a property, the preincident plan should show the location and ________ of each tank. A) capacity B) manufacturer C) construction D) time since hydro

1259. When indicating possible vertical ventilation sites on a preincident plan, what is one barrier to effective vertical ventilation that can impede the process even after the roof is opened up and that should be noted on the plan? A) Multiple ceilings B) Box-joisted floors C) Glulam-constructed walls D) Rayon or orlon carpets

1261. What is the term for such hazards as hazardous materials that are stored or used on site, confined space, high voltage, etc.? A) Special hazard B) Target hazard C) Priority hazard D) Tier IV hazard

1265. High-rise buildings, hospitals, lumberyards, and schools are examples of what type of hazard classification? A) Target hazard B) High-risk hazard C) Elevated hazard D) Conflagration hazard

1269. Which of the following could be a difficulty when trying to gain access to a public assembly during an emergency? A) Occupants trying to evacuate B) Access routes C) Reduced visibility D) Hazardous materials

1272. What type of building construction is also known as fire resistive? A) Type I B) Type II C) Type IV D) Type V

1277. According to the International Association of Fire Chiefs (IAFC), how many of their member agencies provide EMS to their communities? A) Over 90% B) About 67% C) Between 40% and 50% D) About 25%

1280. What level of training is designed to be appropriate for people such as police officers, teachers, and day care providers who encounter medical emergencies as part of their jobs? A) First responders B) Standard first aid C) EMT-Intermediate D) EMT-Paramedic

1282. First responders can be certified in some states and/or nationally registered. Through what organization can they be nationally registered? A) National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians B) International Association of Fire Fighters C) Department of the Interior D) International Red Cross

1284. What aspect of diseases is covered by EMT-Paramedic training? A) Causes and treatments B) Recognition and avoidance C) Signs and symptoms D) None

1285. What is another term for continuing medical education classes? A) CEUs B) OPCs C) CPRs D) EPUs

1288. There are two primary types of EMS delivery systems within fire departments. One is called the fire department EMS system. What is the other called? A) Combination system B) Outsourcing system C) Contract system D) On-demand system

467. When considering the construction of ropes, synthetic fibers have an advantage over natural fibers in terms of strength. What is one other advantage of synthetic fibers? A) They can run the entire length of the rope. B) They dissipate any accidental electrical charge. C) They hold knots better when oily. D) They produce much less whiplash if they snap.

468. What is the second most common synthetic fiber used for life safety ropes? A) Polyester B) Rayon C) Monoester D) Teflon

472. What hardware component is often used with ropes in technical rescue? A) Carabiner B) Scaffold C) Hydraulic spreader D) Flange

474. What type of harness is used to keep a fire fighter in place on a ladder? A) Class I B) Seat C) Ogilvy D) Piton

479. What family of knots is used to attach a rope around an object? A) Hitches B) Bends C) Splices D) Coils

480. What is the running end of a rope used for? A) Lifting or hoisting B) Roping off an area C) Binding two poles together D) Throwing to someone else

483. What does a safety knot do? A) Secure the leftover working end of a rope B) Double the strength of the underlying knot C) Prevent a rope from slipping all the way out through a pulley D) Keep the point of attachment of a rope from unraveling

487. When hoisting tools, what device should be used to prevent damage to a rope when it must be dragged over rough edges, such as a roof edge? A) Edge protector B) Hose tool C) Marlin spike D) Bolster

488. What is the term for finishing a knot by tightening and removing twists, kinks, and slack from the rope? A) Dressing the knot B) Squaring the knot C) Making the knot so D) Making the knot muster

489. When hoisting a ladder, a second rope should be attached to the bottom of the ladder to help control it as it is hoisted. What is this second rope called? A) Tag line B) Mooring line C) Halyard D) Spring line

493. What must happen to a personal escape rope once it is used? A) Replaced B) Inspected C) Cleaned D) Strength tested

497. What is the term used to describe a device used to connect one rope to another rope, harness, or itself? A) Carabiner B) Flange C) Pulley D) Rope break

501. What kind of rescue takes place in a location such as a tank, silo, underground electrical vault, or storm drain? A) Confined space B) Trench C) Collapse D) Machinery

505. In what position should an axe be raised? A) Head down B) Head up C) Horizontal D) Wrapped

506. What is the first step in the process of response? A) Checking PPE B) Mounting apparatus C) Starting the engine D) Belting in

518. What is always the first step in making plans to bring an emergency situation under control? A) Size-up B) Salvage C) Forcible entry D) Ventilation

523. What is one reasonable probability an officer doing size-up might make, based on the time of day of an incident? A) Whether occupants are likely to be awake or asleep B) Whether the reported fire will in fact be a fire or a false alarm C) Whether the fire was deliberately set or accidental D) Whether an installed fire suppression system will work properly

524. What is another term for the spread of a fire to exposed buildings? A) Extension B) Attenuation C) Mitigation D) Trepidation

525. What document provides details about a building's construction, layout, contents, special hazards, and fire protection systems, for use during size-up? A) Preincident plan B) Engineer's blueprint C) Special schematic D) Private plot plan

527. On what do ladder placement, use of aerial or ground ladders, and emergency exit routes all depend? A) Building layout B) Water pressure C) Roof construction D) Time of day

537. When should fire fighters don their PPE? A) Prior to mounting the apparatus B) Immediately upon mounting the apparatus C) En route to the scene of the incident D) Immediately upon arrival at the scene

540. During operations in a traffic area, what guideline should be used to determine how quickly to close streets and block off access? A) Department SOP B) NFPA standard C) NIOSH DOT ruling D) Fire fighter individual judgment

543. What is one instance in which fire fighters might call the power company to turn off power remotely, perhaps at a power pole nearby? A) Fire fighters are using aerial ladders. B) There are fatalities confirmed inside. C) The building is of Type IV construction. D) The structure is a parking garage.

549. Size-up is based on two basic categories of information. What are they? A) Facts and probabilities B) Probabilities and assumptions C) Assumptions and guesses D) Guesses and facts

555. What form of information gathering will give the best information about the size and location of a fire? A) Direct visual observation B) Caller reports from adjacent buildings C) Caller reports from inside the building D) Computer modeling based on the smoke plume

909. Which type of nozzle is used to fight fires in inaccessible places such as attics and basements? A) Piercing nozzle B) Water curtain C) Cellar nozzle D) Plunge nozzle

223. As a solid fuel heats up, it decomposes and releases individual molecules into the atmosphere. What is this process called? A) Evaporation B) Pyrolysis C) Hydrolysis D) Crystalization

1051. What is the eventual outcome of untreated dehydration? A) Membrane permeability B) Shortness of breath C) Shock, then death D) Syncope

22. Medical requirements for fire fighters are specified in which NFPA Standard? A) 1581 B) 1582 C) 1583 D) 1584

100. What is the NFPA standard on protective clothing and equipment for wildland fire fighting?? A) 1971 B) 1977 C) 1981 D) 1982

1004. What term describes the process of finding and exposing any smoldering or hidden pockets of fire? A) Salvage B) Overhaul C) Breaching D) Forcible entry

1008. What can be set up in a doorway to assist fire fighters in locating the exit? A) Ventilation fan B) Portable lighting C) Hand tool D) Radio

1010. Salvage operations include tasks such as expelling smoke, controlling water runoff, and ________. A) turning on utilities B) covering ventilation openings C) pulling ceilings D) wetting contents

1014. What is a limitation of gasoline-powered portable pumps? A) Noise B) Carbon monoxide C) Heat D) Run time

1022. How does being well-rested, as opposed to being tired, affect endurance? A) Being well-rested actually decreases endurance. B) Being well-rested increases endurance. C) Being well-rested has no effect on endurance. D) Being well-rested has not been tested against endurance.

1027. Where is the rehabilitation center usually located at a high-rise fire? A) In an uninvolved section of the fire floor B) Two or three floors below the fire C) In the lobby of the fire building D) Outside the fire building

1031. What role does returning the body's temperature back to normal play in rehabilitation? A) It plays no role in rehabilitation, as it is a self-correcting problem. B) It is one of the primary roles of rehabilitation. C) It is indirectly addressed by fluid replenishment. D) It is there, but is the lowest priority.

1036. Should rehabilitation centers have any furniture? A) Yes, they should have a PFS, allowing for showers, privacy, office work, and communications. B) Yes, they should have chairs or cots. C) Yes, but only emergency medical litters or cots. D) No, it is not practical to have furniture in rehabilitation centers.

1037. During firefighting activity, in approximately what time frame can a fire fighter lose 2 quarts of fluid? A) In a 2-hour period B) In the time it takes to go through two bottles of air C) In the time it takes to deploy two hose lines D) In the time it takes for the second alarm to arrive

104. What is another term for communications center dispatchers? A) Call originators B) Telecommunicators C) Public interface officials D) Signals technicians

1040. What is the result if blood sugar levels drop too low in the body? A) The kidneys shut down. B) The body becomes weak and shaky. C) Fluid begins to accumulate in the lungs. D) The victim begins to hallucinate without being aware of it.

1043. What should be done about temperature stabilization in hot climates where it is no help to remove firefighting gear? A) Fire fighters should be doused in warm water. B) Climate control should be used. C) A fine mist should be used. D) Nothing can be done.

1044. Once rested, rehydrated, refueled, and rechecked in rehabilitation, what should become of fire fighters? A) They should be kept under watch for the rest of the incident. B) They should be released for reassignment. C) They should be relieved of duty. D) They should return to the station.

1045. What is the term for the condition in which air fills the stomach? A) Esophageal spasm B) Bloating C) Acid reflux D) Fluid retention

150. Does ICS allow for lower-ranking people to be assigned to higher-level tasks? A) No; persons on the fireground cannot be assigned to a position that outranks their normal duty rank. B) Yes; the best-qualified person for a given task should be assigned to that role regardless of rank. C) Yes; but only in the staging sector, where a non-officer may direct the movements of a company via orders to its officer. D) No; it is not acceptable to have someone who is both superior and subordinate to another based on two concurrent rankings.

151. In most situations, people can only supervise up to a certain number of people. What number? A) 3 B) 7 C) 12 D) 18

154. Where should the command post be located? A) On either front corner of the building B) In a nearby, protected location C) At the forward observation limit D) Behind the structure

156. By what title of rank are the heads of the four major functional components of the ICS known? A) Director B) Chief C) Manager D) Officer

157. Which ICS section is responsible for the management of all actions that are directly related to controlling the incident? A) Logistics B) Operations C) Tactics D) Planning

159. Which ICS section is responsible for the accounting and financial aspects of an incident, as well as any legal issues that may arise? A) Legal/Accounting B) Finance/Administration C) Planning D) Logistics

161. What term usually refers to companies or crews working on the same task or objective, although not necessarily in the same location? A) Task B) Group C) Regiment D) Project team

162. What is a branch-level supervisor called? A) A branch chief B) A branch director C) A branch manager D) A branch officer

163. What is the term for areas adjacent to a building? A) Rotundas B) Exposures C) Sectors D) Stages

167. What type of fire service personnel would normally be assigned the role of operations section chief? A) Usually the company officer of the second-due engine company B) A chief officer with a strong background in operations C) An instructor or inspector who does not usually respond to routine calls D) Usually the last-arriving truck company officer

168. Under what circumstances is the first-arriving officer at a scene in charge, according to the ICS paradigm? A) When the first-arriving unit is an engine company only B) Under all circumstances C) Under no circumstances D) As long as the first-arriving unit is not an engine company

172. Can command ever be transferred down to a lower-ranking individual? A) Yes, this is a popular on-the-job test scenario for junior officers. B) Yes, when the situation is under control. C) No, not unless the IC becomes incapacitated and no one of equal or higher rank is available. D) No, command can never be transferred to a lower-ranking individual.

173. As more companies arrive at an incident, what is one reason the command structure must expand? A) To employ the arriving officers B) To maintain span of control C) To allow unity of command D) To counter the formation of sectorization

174. When did efforts begin to establish an incident command system? A) World War II B) The 1970s C) The mid 1980s D) The late 1990s

178. What principle requires each person to have only one direct supervisor? A) Management by objectives B) Unity of command C) Barr-King-Siegel D) Directed leadership

180. ICS has often been characterized as an organizational toolbox. What is the point of making this comparison? A) That all subordinates are really tools to be used for a purpose B) That only the tools needed for the specific incident are used C) That people are only there if they can contribute to the solution of the problem D) That people, like tools, are the same in essence but different in particulars

193. Among the entities division and group, which supervisor outranks which? A) Divisions outrank groups. B) They are all of equal rank. C) Groups outrank divisions. D) Whichever is assigned first is the higher rank.

197. If someone is designated as a director, what type of ICS grouping is that person supervising? A) Section B) Branch C) Division D) Company

202. What type of command structure brings representatives of different agencies together to work on one plan and ensures all actions are fully coordinated? A) Single command B) Unified command C) Strategic command D) Objective command

205. The three basic ingredients required to create a fire include fuel and oxygen. What is the third? A) Wood B) Heat C) Positive air pressure D) Venting

206. What state must a fuel be in for combustion to take place? A) Solid or vapor only B) Vapor only C) Solid only D) Solid, liquid, or vapor

210. What is the transfer of heat energy in the form of invisible waves called? A) Conduction B) Radiation C) Convolution D) Shimmer

212. What is the vapor density of air? A) 0.0 B) 1.0 C) 14.7 D) 21.7

218. What danger is suggested by the observation of smoke puffing in and out of a structure? A) Impending structural collapse B) The presence of backdraft conditions C) Weak structural roofing members D) Untempered, unreinforced glazing in windows

226. Private water-supply systems may supply both the sprinkler system and the private hydrants. What is the potential problem if fire fighters use these private hydrants during a fire? A) There might be a lawsuit due to permission issues. B) Their use might compromise the sprinkler system. C) They are prohibited by law from having five-sided valve nuts. D) They are prohibited by law from having AFS threads on discharges.

229. At this temperature, a fuel-air mixture will ignite spontaneously. A) The flame point B) The ignition temperature C) The flash point D) The temperature of pyrolysis

232. What class of fire is it if flammable liquids are involved? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class D

233. What makes a fire a Class C fire? A) Involvement of hydrocarbons B) Energized electrical equipment C) Kitchen deep-fat fryer D) Flammable gas

238. What is an endothermic reaction? A) One that expands faster than the speed of sound B) One that absorbs heat C) One that occurs without oxygen D) One that evolves CO

242. What is the term for a rapid chemical process in which the combination of a substance with oxygen produces heat and light? A) Oxidation B) Combustion C) Pyrolysis D) Conflagration

247. What is the term for when the temperature in a room reaches a point where the combustible contents of the room ignite all at once? A) Free burn B) Flashover C) Fully developed D) Flagration

251. What is the term for high-volume, high-velocity, turbulent, ultra-dense black smoke? A) Turbulent fire B) Black fire C) Endothermic fire D) Laminar fire

253. You open a door and the smoke rises and the opening clears out; fresh air is being pulled into the building. The fire is probably on what level? A) Every level B) Above the level of the door C) Same level as the door D) Below the level of the door

255. What term refers to how a building is used? A) Ownership B) Occupancy C) Design type D) Residence

256. The four characteristics of building materials under fire include thermal conductivity, decrease in strength with increased temperature, and rate of thermal expansion. What is the fourth? A) Polymerizability B) Combustibility C) Portability D) Stability

257. What does a CMU contain? A) Void space B) Steel reinforcing rods C) Joinery instructions D) Explosives

260. A steel beam is bending under fire. Of what is this a warning? A) Nothing; this is normal and it will bend back when it cools. B) Imminent failure C) Imminent ignition D) Underway release of toxic ferrous oxalate

265. What is one application that uses laminated wood instead of solid lumber? A) Short, straight beams B) Curved beams C) Stair tread risers D) Stair treads

266. What is the term for the chemical change that occurs to wood when it is heated, causing it to decompose? A) Delamination B) Pyrolysis C) Reduction D) Oxidization

267. With what can wood be impregnated to make it more difficult to ignite and slower burning? A) Aluminum oxide B) Mineral salts C) Mineral spirits D) Nothing

271. A Type III building has two different fire loads. One is the contents. What is the other? A) Shipping deliveries B) The combustible building materials C) The normally abutting exposures D) The interior atria

272. What type of construction is heavy timber? A) Class B B) Type IV C) Class D D) Type II

273. What is Type V construction? A) Fire resistive B) Wood frame C) All masonry D) Masonry and synthetics

275. What is the measure of whether a material will burn? A) Conductivity B) Combustibility C) Thermability D) Reducibility

288. How is the density of wood related to its ease of ignition? A) The denser it is, the easier it is to ignite. B) The denser it is, the harder it is to ignite. C) These two characteristics are unrelated. D) The optimal density is 1.7, and wood becomes harder to ignite the further its density is from that value.

289. What will burn in Type I and Type II buildings? A) Nothing whatsoever B) The contents only C) The structural components only D) Both the structural components and the contents

293. What is one design feature, found in Type III construction but missing in Type IV, that is actually a disadvantage from a fire service perspective? A) Wood floors B) Concealed spaces C) Visible rafters D) Pillaster supports

294. What type of construction has exterior wall studs continuous from basement to roof? A) Open-channel B) Balloon-frame C) Direct-shaft D) Vertical-base

296. If heated to a temperature of 1000ºF, how far will a steel beam elongate per 10 feet? A) ½ inch B) 1 inch C) 2 inches D) 3 inches

300. What is the term used to describe the weight of the building? A) Foundation B) Dead load C) Live load D) Free load

304. The strength of a truss depends on both its members and the ________ between them? A) Length B) Connections C) Width D) Height

311. What is one extinguishing agent that will not conduct electricity? A) Carbon tetrachloride B) Carbon dioxide C) Aluminum powder D) Water with class A foam added

312. The classification system for fire extinguishers uses which two types of symbols? A) Bar code and letters B) Letters and numbers C) Numbers and dots D) Dots and bar code

314. Identify the significance of the C in the following fire extinguisher rating: 2-A:10-B:C. A) It means that the agent contained therein is of the cyanoacrylate-base family. B) It means that this extinguisher can be used on energized electrical equipment. C) The lack of a number following the C means it is not suitable for use on any electrical fire. D) It means that the agent contained therein is of the carbon-tetrachloride base family.

315. Why would a fire extinguisher class icon have a red slash through it? A) Because using the extinguisher on that class of fire would be ineffective B) Because using the extinguisher on that class of fire would create additional risk C) Because the use of that type of extinguisher on that class has not been tested D) Because it is illegal to use that type of extinguisher on that class of fire for environmental reasons

318. Light hazard environments usually contain a limited amount of combustibles of what class? A) D B) A C) M D) B

323. Why is it dangerous to apply a stream of water to energized electrical equipment? A) Burning electricity intensifies when struck by water. B) Water can conduct electricity back to the extinguisher. C) Electricity extracts the oxygen from the water and uses it as more fuel. D) Cyanide gas is evolved when water hits electricity.

324. Why can dry chemical extinguishers be used on class C fires? A) Dry chemicals are chemically similar to water. B) Dry chemicals do not conduct electricity. C) Dry chemicals never actually touch the fuel. D) Dry chemicals are themselves electrically static.

326. What is the term for water-soluble flammable liquids such as alcohols, acetone, and others? A) Volatile fuels B) Polar solvents C) Flammable surfactants D) Three-dimensional liquids

329. What residue does a CO2 fire extinguisher leave when discharged? A) Powdered carbon dioxide B) It does not leave any residue. C) Selenium oxide D) Simple salt

339. How are fires and fire extinguishers grouped? A) Both are grouped into types. B) Both are grouped into classes. C) Fires are grouped into classes and extinguishers into types. D) Extinguishers are grouped into classes and fires into types

343. What is the safest and surest way to extinguish a class C fire? A) Drench it with copious amounts of water. B) Turn off the power and treat it as a class A or B fire. C) Smother it with a treated carbon fire blanket. D) Evacuate the air in the location of the fire.

346. According to NFPA 10, the maximum floor area that can be protected by each extinguisher depends on: A) the water supply. B) the occupancy type. C) the skill of the user. D) the building's history of fire.

348. For an area to qualify for the classification of light hazard, most of the combustibles present must meet one of two requirements. What is one of those? A) They must be extinguishable by a portable fire extinguisher. B) They must be arranged so that a fire is unlikely to spread. C) They must be composed of intrinsically safe elements. D) They must not react hypergolically to each other.

350. What is the substance called that is contained in a portable fire extinguisher and puts out the fire? A) Propellant B) Extinguishing agent C) Dry charge D) Anhydrous material

359. What motion best accomplishes the removal of the pin and tamper seal from a portable fire extinguisher? A) Slow, steady pull B) Twisting motion C) Side-to-side motion D) Push, then pull

363. Does it matter which type of dry powder extinguisher is used on which type of burning metal? A) Yes, each type of metal is marked with which type of dry powder to use in case of fire. B) Yes, each dry powder extinguisher is marked with what types of metal it can handle. C) No, one dry powder extinguisher will work on any kind of metal. D) No, one type of metal will respond to any type of dry powder.

365. What is an advantage of portable fire extinguishers? A) Versatility B) Portability C) Amount of agent D) Stand-off distance from fire

370. What class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and gasoline can? A) A B) B C) C D) D

373. What NFPA standard lists the requirements for placing and mounting portable fire extinguishers? A) NFPA 5 B) NFPA 10 C) NFPA 15 D) NFPA 20

395. What type of ventilation occurs when clean air is blown into a structure to force fire gases out? A) Outside-in B) Positive pressure C) Cyclic replacement D) First in, first out

396. What does vertical ventilation require that horizontal ventilation does not? A) Positive-pressure fans B) Holes in the roof or highest part of the building C) Negative-pressure fans D) Airtightness everywhere but the vent opening

400. How often should power equipment be tested? A) Daily B) Frequently C) Infrequently D) Rarely

404. What is one of the most common of the rotating tools? A) Pike pole B) Screwdriver C) Pick-headed axe D) Flat-headed axe

407. What tool is designed to pull the lock cylinder out of a door? A) Clements hook B) K tool C) Adze D) Spring-loaded center punch

416. Can cutting torches cut steel or only weaker metals? A) No, they cannot cut steel. B) Yes, they can cut steel. C) Yes, they can cut steel, but only if it is less than .018 inches thick. D) Yes, they can cut steel, but only if a titanium flux is used concurrently.

418. What two tools are often used in combination to pry a door open? A) Sledge hammer and flat-head axe B) Flat-head axe and Halligan tool C) Halligan tool and rotary saw D) Rotary saw and reciprocating saw

419. What tool should always accompany interior firefighting teams? A) Hack saw B) Hand light C) K tool D) Adze

420. How do the basic hand tools that a search team should carry differ from those an interior firefighting team should carry? A) They are two entirely different tool sets. B) The same tool set should be carried by each. C) They both use the same striking tools, but different prying tools. D) They both use the same prying tools, but only the search team needs striking tools.

423. What is the main mechanical device used in negative-pressure ventilation? A) Axe B) Fan C) Single pulley D) Block and tackle

425. When it is necessary to have an opening in the roof, what is the rule of thumb if there are existing openings such as skylights or hatches? A) Stay away from them at all costs. B) Use them first, if possible. C) Make no openings closer than 25 feet to any of them. D) Make no openings in a direct line between two or more of them.

428. After cleaning, what is the anti-rust procedure for metal tools? A) Apply a light coating of benzene. B) Dry them thoroughly. C) Coat them with a thin layer of soap. D) Rub a little dirt onto the metal surfaces.

432. When is utility rope used? A) When it will not be necessary to tie any knots in the rope B) When it is not necessary to support the weight of a person C) When there is no chance of introducing a shock load to the rope D) When the rope will be used to bind rather than support a load

442. About how much of a kernmantle rope's strength is provided by the mantle? A) 15% B) 30% C) 45% D) 60%

460. How should a pike pole be hoisted? A) Pike down B) Pike up C) In a case D) With the pike wrapped

466. What is one cause of deterioration in natural fiber ropes? A) Storage against metal B) Mildew C) Storage against wood D) Polymerization

469. What is one material that is especially well-suited for water rescue rope? A) Polyvinyl chloride B) Polypropylene C) Synthetic silk D) Polyvinyl ester

470. Other than rope, what is one other application that utilizes the kernmantle design? A) Spark plug cables B) The cables of a suspension bridge C) The curly cord of telephone receivers D) Bungee jumping elastic rope

486. What is one way to tie a clove hitch? A) To the left B) In the open C) With the head D) Mountain style

491. What weight is a one-person life safety rope designed to bear? A) 200 pounds B) 300 pounds C) 400 pounds D) 600 pounds

494. What is the main difference between a twisted rope and a braided rope? A) Color B) Inner core C) Material D) Diameter

498. What class of harness is used to support a firefighter in a rescue situation? A) I B) II C) III D) IV

50. What part of the body should be used for a heavy lift? A) The waist B) The legs C) The back D) The shoulder girdle

502. What can be used to clean synthetic ropes? A) Bleach/water B) Soap/water C) Simple Green/water D) Ammonia/water

508. What burden of responsibility does the driver of an emergency vehicle on a response bear for the safe operation of that vehicle? A) None; the driver is exempt from legal responsibility under the same statutes that protect police officers from civil actions. B) The driver is legally responsible for the safe operation of the vehicle. C) The driver is responsible for making "reasonable efforts" to conduct the vehicle in a safe manner. D) The driver is not legally responsible, but is considered morally responsible.

513. A personnel accountability system tracks which fire fighters are assigned to each vehicle, and it also tracks: A) when each fire fighter arrives. B) each crew's assignment. C) intra-crew communications. D) post-dispatch caller information.

531. What is the term for a report that company officers might prepare for the IC that provides the results of an inspection and exploration of a specific area? A) Exposure report B) Reconnaissance report C) Field command report D) Freelancing situation report

534. Upon what is the incident action plan based? A) Measured uncertainties B) Information gathered during size-up C) Projected initial fire history D) Principles of thermodynamics

538. Hearing protection worn on responding apparatus often has a feature that enhances conversation among responding fire fighters, officers, and dispatch. What feature? A) Color coding B) A radio intercom C) Buzzer signals D) A small voice hole

539. What exemptions or privileges do fire fighters have from traffic laws when responding in their own vehicles? A) The same as emergency vehicles B) This varies by jurisdiction. C) None; they are just like any other private car. D) They may speed, but that is all.

541. How is the activity of freelancing regarded? A) Inspirational B) Unacceptable C) Commendable D) Inconsequential

934. What happens to the personnel accountability passports at the scene of an incident? A) They are carried by the company officer in the left coat pocket. B) They are left with a designee at the command post or hazardous area entry point. C) They are carried by the company officer in the right coat pocket. D) They are carried by the company officer in a chest pouch hung around the neck.

936. What do company officers do when the IC requests a personnel accountability report (PAR)? A) Take all the members of that company over to rehab B) Physically verify that all assigned members are present C) Release the members of their company for reassignment D) Meet at the command post for a review of in-progress tactics and strategy

938. After company officers carry out a PAR, per order of the IC, what do they do next? A) Continue with previous assignment B) Report the results to the IC C) Send the passport to the CP by runner D) Send a runner to the CP to retrieve the passport

944. What should company officers do if they believe there is a change in the balance of risk to benefit during an incident? A) Make on-the-spot changes as they see necessary. B) Report their observations and recommendations to the IC. C) Convene a company officer risk analysis pool. D) Nothing; this is solely an IC function.

947. It has been shown that, under great pressure, most people will revert to ________. A) panic B) habit C) common sense D) following orders

949. How are individual companies assigned tasks on the fireground? A) The individuals in the company are assigned individual tasks. B) The company as a whole is assigned a task through the company officer. C) The company as a whole is assigned tasks by the IC directly. D) Individuals are assigned tasks singly by the company officer.

951. If one member of a company needs rehabilitation, who else from the company goes? A) Just those others who need it B) All members of the company C) One other person D) No one; the rule is one at a time in rehabilitation

952. Should each team of fire fighters carry a portable radio? A) Yes, but only if they are going to be out of shouting distance from their company officer B) Yes C) No D) No, not unless they are going into an intrinsically safe environment

954. What is one common method used to attach individual fire fighters' personnel accountability tags to the board on the apparatus? A) Torx-head screw B) Velcro™ C) Snap bands D) Square-head screw

957. What does the R stand for in PAR? A) Relief B) Report C) Reassignment D) Role

960. What is the term for a temporary location that provides refuge while awaiting rescue or finding a method of self-rescue from an extremely hazardous situation? A) An in-place shelter B) A safe haven C) A secure room D) An ante room

964. What is the OSHA standard that mandates the use of backup teams at incidents where operations are conducted in an IDLH atmosphere? A) 1910.120 B) 1910.134 C) 1910. 471 D) 1910.472

968. What is the term for the process of reducing the effects of fatigue during an emergency operation? A) Refurbishment B) Rehabilitation C) Restoration D) Relaxation

972. The most common form of CISM is ________. A) medical intervention B) peer defusing C) ministerial defusing D) psychiatric intervention

976. For what application might it be preferable to use long rolls of construction-grade polyethylene film instead of salvage covers? A) A gathering of furniture in the middle of the room B) A long retail display counter C) A twenty-gallon fish tank D) A vertical surface

986. What is one limitation of backpack water vacuums? A) They cannot pull water up from the floor. B) They cannot be worn with SCBA. C) They can only be used once. D) They are illegal in many places.

988. A fire cannot be considered fully extinguished until _______ is complete. A) primary search B) overhaul C) secondary search D) cause determination

989. What sort of personal protective equipment should fire fighters wear during overhaul? A) Level A or B entry suits B) Full PPE with SCBA C) Turnout gear without SCBA D) Regular uniform clothing

990. Relative to the overhaul process, when should fire investigators ideally begin their work at a fire scene? A) After overhaul is complete B) Before overhaul starts C) Any time other than when overhaul operations are occurring D) Concurrently with overhaul

992. To what does a thermal imaging device respond? A) Movement B) Differences in temperature C) The presence of bioactive material D) The absence of heat

995. What size hose line is usually adequate for overhaul operations? A) ¾" B) 1 ½" or 1 ¾" C) 1 ¼" only D) 2 ½" or larger

999. What is one limitation of inverters? A) They can only operate for a few minutes at a time before requiring a ten-minute cooling off period. B) They cannot provide enough power to run high-draw appliances, such as ventilation fans. C) They jam any nearby radio traffic. D) Their voltage output is notoriously erratic, which can damage electronics.

1053. Rehabilitation should consist of three activities, one of which is taking a short break. What is another? A) Cooling down B) Walking C) Eating D) Lying down

1054. Will it be necessary to implement all the components of a rehabilitation center for every incident? A) Yes, every incident must include all components for training and habit formation. B) Yes, every incident, no matter how seemingly minor, drains enormous resources from the human body. C) No, some minor incidents may require only part of the whole process. D) No, non-fire incidents, no matter how extended, do not call for rehabilitation.

1267. Theaters, churches, and restaurants are examples of the occupancy subcategories of the ________ major use classification. A) institutional B) commercial C) public assembly D) retail

1000. What is one hazard to be managed when running an electrical generator in an enclosed space? A) They are prohibitively noisy. B) They can walk, like an out-of-balance washing machine. C) They produce carbon monoxide. D) If not properly ventilated, they can overheat and catch fire.

1001. How many watts can an apparatus-mounted generator produce? A) Around 2500 B) Between 7500 and 10,000 C) 20,000 or more D) At least 150,000

1005. The lighting and power equipment used on an emergency scene generally operate at ________. A) 110-volt DC B) 220-volt DC C) 110-volt AC D) 220-volt AC

101. What is the NFPA standard on open-circuit self-contained breathing apparatus? A) 1971 B) 1977 C) 1981 D) 1982

1011. When should a sprinkler system be shut down? A) When fire fighters arrive B) When overhaul is complete C) When the IC declares the fire under control D) When fire crews are returning to the station

1015. What technique can fire fighters use to limit smoke damage? A) Allow smoke to settle, then vacuum B) Use hand lines to knock down smoke C) Ventilation D) Hanging salvage covers in doorways

1019. What is the relationship between fire fighters being tired and/or dehydrated and their risk of injury or collapse? A) Their risk of both decreases as they become tired and/or dehydrated. B) Their risk of injury increases and their risk of collapsing decreases. C) Their risk of both increases as they become tired and/or dehydrated. D) Their risk of injury decreases and their risk of collapse increases.

1021. Up to how much fluid can fire fighters lose in an hour of action? A) 10 ounces B) 1 pint C) 2 quarts D) 5/6 of the entire normal body volume

1024. At what types of incidents should the concept of rehabilitation be addressed? A) Extended fire incidents only B) All extended incidents only C) At all types of incidents D) At fires only

1028. Who plans ahead to make sure there is a fresh or rested crew ready to rotate with a crew that needs rehabilitation? A) The staging officer B) The company officer C) The incident commander D) The logistics section chief

1030. What is an example of an incident that might require emergency personnel to be present and active for an extended period of time? A) Heart attack in a crowded, public place B) Bonfire without a permit during the night C) Long-duration search-and-rescue D) ARFF standby for possible hot brakes

1039. Because they contain ________, drinks like colas, coffee, and tea should be avoided as rehabilitation fluid-replacement drinks. A) aspartame B) nicotine C) caffeine D) tannin

1049. How much can PPE weigh? A) Up to 8 pounds, total B) Between 12 and 18 pounds C) 40 pounds or more D) Up to 100 pounds

1064. How reliable is the sensation of thirst as an indicator of body dehydration? A) Reliable: it is the most reliable indicator there is, and it is highly accurate. B) Not reliable: it both over-reports and prematurely reports the actual state of dehydration. C) Not reliable: it does not begin to signal until the body is already dehydrated. D) Not reliable: it exaggerates the actual state of dehydration

1067. What happens if the blood glucose level is too high? A) The kidneys shut down. B) Liver enzyme rises dangerously. C) The body becomes sluggish. D) The person faints without warning.

1070. During extended incidents, what type of nourishment should fire fighters have? A) High-energy, high-sugar sports bars B) Bananas or shellfish and bread C) A relatively complete meal D) Just a multivitamin

1073. What characteristic of fire fighters is evaluated by CISM team members? A) Blood chemistry B) Medical history C) Emotional state D) Cardiovascular condition

1077. The four components of revitalization are rest, fluid replacement, nutrition, and ________. A) Medication B) Air replenishment C) Temperature stabilization D) Equipment maintenance

1078. Which of the fire triangle elements is not needed for wildland fires to burn? A) Oxygen is not required. B) Fuel is not required. C) They are all required. D) None are required.

1079. How are wildland fuels classified? A) Living or dead B) Organic or inorganic C) Fine or heavy D) Light or dark

1085. How high up do fuels have to be in order to be considered aerial fuels? A) More than 25 feet B) More than 12 feet C) More than 6 feet D) More than 2 feet

109. Determining exactly which units to send to a call depends on the location of the incident and: A) the time since last response (TSLR) of the nearest units. B) the time lapse between call receipt and dispatch. C) the classification of the incident. D) the identity of the caller.

110. What type of system(s) do fire departments use to dispatch to the units? A) They use a dedicated telephone trunk line system only. B) They use standard telephone service in the community only. C) They use different systems ranging from telephone to radio. D) They use encrypted, reserved-band short-wave radio only.

1103. What is another term for surface fuels? A) Covering B) Blow-down C) Ground D) Fall-down

1104. What is another word for aerial fuels? A) Raised fuels B) Jump fuels C) Canopy fuels D) Free fuels

1107. There are three categories of wildland fire causes. What is one? A) Proximal B) Indirect C) Natural D) Chemical

1112. Topography refers to changes in the elevation of land, but it also includes: A) rate of precipitation. B) tectonic plate activity. C) natural and man made features. D) population and inhabitation information.

1113. What is the traveling edge of a wildland fire called? A) The foot of the fire B) The face of the fire C) The head of the fire D) The step of the fire

1119. What is the most common type of wildland fire? A) Brush B) Forest C) Ground cover D) Grass

112. What is the usual response when a caller disconnects before full information can be gathered and the dispatcher cannot reconnect by calling the caller back? A) Log the incident and wait for the caller to call back. B) Send a full complement of responders, including police, EMS, and fire. C) Send a police unit to check on the caller. D) Lock the caller's phone line so that the next time it is picked up it will again ring to the 9-1-1 center.

1120. Which federal government agency is responsible for coordinating firefighting activities at large incidents and incidents that occur on federal lands? A) US Department of Agriculture B) Federal Emergency Management Agency C) U.S. Forest Service D) National Fire Academy

1121. The three types of factors that can ignite wildland and ground fires are natural, accidental, and ________. A) provisional B) accumulative C) intentional D) phenomenal

1125. What is used to extinguish most ground cover fires? A) CAFS B) Aircraft C) Backpack pumps D) Backfires

1128. If a wildland or ground cover fire is too dangerous for a direct attack, what type of fire attack should be used? A) Head B) Pincer C) Indirect D) Flanking

113. What does the ANI feature of enhanced 9-1-1 do? A) Provide the caller's identity B) Lock the caller's phone open C) Show the caller's phone number D) Provide access to real-time language translation

1132. As a last resort, what can fire fighters do to protect themselves if being overrun by a wildland fire? A) Dig a hole B) Climb a tree C) Deploy fire shelter D) Take cover in heavy brush

1135. From where are defensive firefighting operations conducted? A) Interior B) Roof C) Exterior D) Staging area

1136. When a certain kind of firefighting attack is successful, the fire can be controlled with the least amount of property damage. What kind of attack is this? A) Courtyard B) Combination C) Offensive D) No-vent

1137. How can the practice of having one team of fire fighters conducting offensive operations and another team of fire fighters conducting defensive operations on the same building at the same time be characterized? A) As a model practice B) As unremarkable C) As extremely dangerous D) As appropriate when more than two rooms are involved but not otherwise

1142. What is the largest flow in gallons per minute that a master stream device can generate? A) 1000 B) About 1400 C) 2000 or more D) 10,000 or more

1151. Under what circumstances should master stream devices be directed into buildings where fire fighters are operating inside? A) Only when the whereabouts of every person inside is known to the master stream operator B) Only when the fire is clearly getting the better of the inside crew C) Under no circumstances D) Under any circumstances

1155. In what kind of operation is the objective for fire fighters to get close enough to the fire to apply extinguishing agents at close range? A) Intervention B) Exposure protection C) Offensive D) Reactive

116. What are TDD and TTY? A) Location finders on so-called smart, enhanced 9-1-1 B) Routers that allow calling the 9-1-1 system in another city C) Devices to help hearing-impaired people use telephones D) Chips that go into personal digital assistants (PDAs) and personal computers respectively, to allow them to call 9-1-1

1167. In a direct fire attack, how is the water actually discharged onto the fuel? A) Continuously toward the same target B) In a sweeping motion extending out several feet from each side of the fire C) Directed onto the base of the fire D) In a circular pattern directed toward the ceiling

1170. Are master streams used for offensive or defensive operations? A) Both B) Offensive only C) Defensive only D) Neither

1176. When directing the flow of water from the nozzle during a combination attack, where should the flow of water first be directed? A) Lower left corner of the fire B) Lower right corner of the fire C) Upper left corner of the fire D) Upper right corner of the fire

1178. What is the minimum number of firefighters needed to advance and maneuver a 2½" handline inside a building? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

1182. Where should additional equipment be staged on a high-rise fire? A) Floor above the fire floor B) On the ground floor C) Floor below fire floor D) On the fire floor

1187. Which of the following is a common hazard of confined spaces? A) Low combustible gas level B) Constrained movement C) Low oxygen level D) High oxygen level

1191. What hazards do batteries present to fire fighters? A) Hydrochloric acid B) Hydrofluoric acid C) Sulfuric acid D) Pentaic acid

1195. A burning liquid that is dripping, spraying, or flowing over the edge of a container is known as a ________ fire. A) one-dimensional B) two-dimensional C) three-dimensional D) four-dimensional

1199. The best method to prevent a BLEVE is to direct the heavy stream of water ________. A) on the relief valve B) at the end of the container C) at the point of flame impingement D) below the point of flame impingement

1202. What type of extinguishing agent should be used on electrical equipment fires? A) Class A B) Class B C) Class C D) Class D

1206. In addition to their use in actual emergencies, preincident plans can also be useful as aids in ________. A) budget development B) personnel selection C) training activities D) law enforcement

1208. What is the term for a large fire involving multiple structures? A) Pilaster B) Port cochere C) Conflagration D) Enfilade

121. What does the PTT button on a two-way radio do? A) Mute background radio noise B) Enable communications with the hearing-impaired C) Cause the radio to transmit D) Send out a distress signal and location

1222. What is the primary role of a fire alarm system? A) Notify the fire department B) Hold the fire in check C) Alert occupants D) Summon help

1224. Areas where flammable liquids are used or stored may have sophisticated installed fire suppression systems. What is one of the types of such systems? A) Hydrogenated hydrocarbon B) Water mist C) Foam D) CCl4

1228. If electricity is supplied to a building by underground cables, the shutoff may be in the basement of the building or in: A) a remote utility-controlled switching house. B) an indicating pole switch similar to a PIV. C) an underground vault. D) the reception area.

1240. Should a preincident survey be conducted with the knowledge and/or cooperation of the property owner or occupant? A) Yes, they must know, but they do not necessarily have to cooperate. B) No, they need not know, but they must certainly cooperate. C) Yes, a survey should include both their knowledge and cooperation. D) No, a survey requires neither their knowledge nor their cooperation.

1242. How should a preincident survey be conducted? A) In a situation-unique fashion, while following a uniform format B) In a systematic fashion, while developing the situation-unique format C) In a systematic fashion, following a uniform format D) In a situation-unique fashion, while developing the situation-unique format

1243. Completed drawings in preincident plans should use map symbols that are both easily understood and: A) technical. B) abbreviated. C) standard. D) reproducible

1247. Preincident surveys should identify the locations of building features designed to stop the spread of fire. What is one such feature? A) Common cocklofts B) Open stairwells between floors C) Firewalls D) Trusses

1253. Installing standpipes in a building eliminates the need to do something that would be necessary otherwise, in case of fire. What need is eliminated by standpipes? A) To bring self-contained air bottles inside B) To have an RIT standing by outside C) To stretch hose from the engine up to the fire floor D) To have a sprinkler system

1254. What indicates the type and location of the device that has set off the fire alarm in a building? A) Distribution panel B) Secondary reporting panel C) Annunciator panel D) Grid indicator panel

1263. The most critical information found on a preincident plan is life hazards and ________. A) detection system B) standpipe system C) hydrant locations D) building materials

207. As electricity flows through a wire, what relationship, if any, is there between the resistance in the wire and any heat produced by the current? A) There is no relationship between these two quantities. B) The further the resistance is from the optimum of 1.0, in either direction, the greater the heat produced. C) The greater the resistance, the more heat is produced. D) The greater the resistance, the less heat is produced.

208. What is one of the toxic gases often present in smoke? A) Zinc oxide B) Nitrogen sulfide C) Hydrogen cyanide D) Sodium hydroxide

209. What is the term for the transfer of heat in a material directly from one molecule to another? A) Induction B) Reduction C) Conduction D) Production

214. What class of fire involves ordinary combustibles such as wood and paper? A) Class C B) Type I C) Class A D) Type III

216. What new class of fire involves combustible cooking media, such as oils and grease? A) Class C B) Class D C) Class K D) Class O

235. What phase of fire is introduced by flashover? A) The second phase B) The incipient phase C) The fully developed phase D) The denouement phase

236. What is the best way to prevent a backdraft? A) Close all doors and windows after making entry. B) Use only straight or solid streams on hose lines. C) Make a ventilation opening at a high level. D) Delay entry until the fire darkens down.

239. What creates mechanical energy? A) Engines B) Motors C) Friction D) Motion

243. What is the term for the decomposition of a material brought about by heat in the absence of oxygen? A) Oxidation B) Combustion C) Pyrolysis D) Conflagration

248. What is the term for the lowest temperature at which a liquid produces enough vapor to sustain a continuous fire? A) Volatility B) Flash point C) Flame point D) Flame over

252. When you open a door and the smoke exits through the top half of the door and clean air enters through the bottom half, the fire is probably on what level? A) Every level B) Above the level of the door C) Same level as the door D) Below the level of the door

258. What is it called when trapped moisture in concrete is heated to steam and expands, causing parts of the concrete to break away? A) Delamination B) Depolymerizing C) Spalling D) Spation

259. What does steel do under intense heat? A) Contract B) Harden C) Elongate D) Become galvanized

268. What is the term for plastics that will melt under fire conditions? A) Thermodynamic B) Thermosupple C) Thermoplastic D) Isothermal

269. Type I buildings usually use reinforced concrete and ________ in their construction. A) treated-wood frame B) lightweight-aluminum frame C) protected-steel frame D) unprotected-concrete frame

276. Mortar is made by mixing sand, lime, water, and: A) potter's clay. B) diatomaceous earth. C) Portland cement. D) sodium hydroxide.

278. What substance is prone to spall under fire conditions? A) Steel B) Iron C) Concrete D) Fiberglass

283. What effect does wire in tempered glass have on the glass under fire conditions? A) It keeps the pieces together when it breaks. B) It keeps it from smoking up. C) It keeps it from breaking. D) It makes it melt instead of shatter.

284. What is another term for gypsum board? A) Panel insulation B) Plywood C) Drywall D) Poster

291. Type III construction is normally limited in height. What is usually the maximum height of a Type III building? A) One story B) Two stories C) Four stories D) Eight stories

292. What is Type IV construction? A) Wood frame B) Masonry on synthetics C) Heavy timber D) Synthetics

297. What type of barrier is used to prevent the spread of fire from one side of the wall to the other? A) Barrier wall B) Load-bearing wall C) Fire wall D) Tempered wall

301. What is the term used to describe the weight of the building's contents? A) Foundation B) Dead load C) Live load D) Free load

305. Fire-prevention programs encourage citizens to keep fire extinguishers in their homes, especially: A) in the garage. B) in the bedrooms. C) in the kitchen. D) near the exits

306. Besides putting out incipient fires, what is another use for portable fire extinguishers? A) Wetting exposures to keep them from igniting from radiated heat B) Controlling large flammable liquids fires that are not yet dammed or diked C) Controlling fires where traditional methods of suppression are not recommended D) Serving as an alternate forcible entry device through standard wooden residential doors

308. What class of fire involves ordinary combustibles, such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber, and some plastics? A) C B) B C) A D) 1

427. Who should do the routine servicing of power equipment? A) The driver/operator B) The fire fighters C) A qualified shop D) The entire squad

429. What is the term for the special wrench used to tighten or loosen couplings on fire hose? A) Monkey wrench B) Hose wrench C) Spanner wrench D) Pipe wrench

431. There are two primary types of rope in the fire service, each dedicated to a distinct function. What is one of the types? A) Pulling rope B) Knot-tying rope C) Life safety rope D) Anti-slip rope

433. What is the term for a rope that is intended to be used by a fire fighter only for self-rescue from an extreme situation? A) PELSR B) Personal bail rope C) Personal escape rope D) Personal rescue rope

435. How should fire fighters be able to recognize the category of a rope? A) From the tag on the mill end of the rope B) From the paperwork that came with the rope C) From the appearance and markings of the rope D) They cannot be expected to make this distinction

436. With natural fiber ropes, the fibers are twisted together to form a structure. What is this structure called? A) A braid B) A plait C) A strand D) A pearl

439. What is the most common synthetic fiber used in life safety rope? A) Hemp B) Teflon C) Nylon D) Viny

446. What is the usual method of choice for drying ropes? A) Use of mechanical drying device B) In-the-bag drying C) Air drying D) Stretching rope very taut

447. When inspecting a kermantle rope, what finding should alert fire fighters to possible damage in the rope? A) Color change of the kern B) Apparent intactness of the mantle C) Depressions of the kern D) Color change of the stress threading in the mantle

449. What is one of the questions to consider when inspecting life safety ropes? A) Has the rope ever parted under load? B) Has the rope been inactive for more than three months? C) Has the rope been exposed to shock loads? D) Is the rope routinely used as barrier rope at scenes?

450. When placing a life safety rope into a bag for storage, what knot should be tied in the end of the rope that is going into the bag first? A) Monkey's fist B) Full sheepshank C) Figure eight on a bight D) Anchorman's tri-loop

453. What knot feature is formed by making a circle in a rope? A) Cinch B) Snub C) Loop D) Coil

454. What is another term for a safety knot? A) Rescue knot B) Finishing knot C) Overhand knot D) Double hitch

459. What is another term for a sheet bend? A) Sheep shank B) Marlin spike C) Becket bend D) Sheet cleat

463. When can utility rope be used in situations that call for life safety rope? A) Only if the total load is under 750 lbs B) Only for lowering without shock load C) Never D) Any time

471. What sort of core does a dynamic kernmantle rope have? A) Reversing-strand, low-friction B) Parallel-strand, intrinsically stable C) Overlapping or woven, shock-absorber D) Woven-strand, hook-and-eye

473. What is the term for a piece of rescue or safety equipment made of webbing and worn by a person to secure the person to a rope or to a solid object? A) Cinch line B) Cat's cradle C) Harness D) Piton

475. What type of detergent should be used on ropes? A) Either pumice-based or lye-based only B) Polar only C) Mild only D) None ever

476. When inspecting a kernmantle rope by feel, what would a depression in the kern feel like? A) Crackling or crepitus B) Hotter spot than the rest C) Flat spot or lump D) Oily spot

477. What usually must be done with a life safety rope that can no longer be used? A) It must be relegated to personal escape rope. B) It must be returned to the manufacturer. C) It must be destroyed. D) It must be repaired.

482. What knot feature is formed in a rope by making a loop then bringing the two ends of the rope parallel to each other? A) Slip B) Cinch C) Round turn D) Half hitch

484. What knot is used to keep the hoisting rope aligned with the handle of a tool being hoisted? A) Half sheepshank B) Directional figure eight C) Half hitch D) Double bight

490. What NFPA standard covers the criteria for design, construction, and performance of life safety rope and related equipment? A) 1981 B) 1982 C) 1983 D) 1984

495. The terms used to describe how a rope reacts to an applied load are dynamic and ________. A) vibrant B) fixed C) static D) inert

499. What class of harness is the most secure and is often used to support a firefighter who is being raised or lowered on a life safety rope? A) I B) II C) III D) IV

503. What knot is used to secure the end of the rope to an object? A) Clove hitch B) Sheet bend C) Bowline D) Square

510. What is one type of device that should be placed to warn traffic at emergency highway or roadway scenes? A) Smudge pots B) Flagman C) Traffic cones D) Traffic saw horses

673. How are the fire fighters arranged in the three-fire-fighter flat-ladder carry? A) All three fire fighters are on the same side of the ladder. B) The front and middle person are on the left side, and the rear person is on the right. C) The front and rear person are on one side, and the middle person is on the other. D) The front and middle person are on the right side and the rear person is on the left.

677. What should be done with the excess halyard before tying it off once an extension ladder is placed and extended? A) It should be shortened using a sheepshank. B) It should be coiled on the ground under the ladder. C) It should be wrapped around two rungs of the ladder. D) It should be wound around the bottom rung of the ladder.

682. What type of lift can be used to lower a rescuer into a trench or manhole or to raise a victim safely from a below grade site? A) Ladder beam B) Ladder pod C) Ladder gin D) Ladder truss

686. What NFPA standard sets the minimum performance standards for apparatus referred to as either "aerial ladders" or "elevating platforms"? A) 1868 B) 1900 C) 1901 D) 1932

694. Can a thermal imaging device see a person in the dark? A) Yes, but only if the person is wearing a special thermally active suit. B) No, not unless the person's clothing is on fire. C) Yes. D) No.

697. What exception is there to the two-in/two-out rule? A) None; there are no exceptions allowed. B) It can be waived if not enough people are on hand to enact. C) It can be waived in a life-threatening situation where immediate action can save a life. D) Entering fire fighters can waive this rule.

702. What is one attractive feature of the fire fighter drag? A) It requires no equipment to carry out. B) It can be done in a toxic environment without SCBA. C) It can be used when the victim is heavier than the rescuer. D) It works just as well as a water-rescue technique.

703. What piece of equipment should be used whenever possible when removing a victim from a vehicle? A) Hydraulic ram B) Figure-8 sling C) Long backboard D) Spring-loaded center punch

704. All ladder rescues should be performed with a certain number of fire fighters whenever possible. How many? A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1

706. How should the body of someone who has died be moved? A) In the same manner as any other person B) In a body bag only C) In a body bag and on a backboard D) By mechanical conveyance only

714. In what type of search pattern do fire fighters turn right upon entry to a room then turn left at each corner around the room? A) Australian search B) Regression search C) Right-hand search D) Standard spiral search

715. In the two-part marking system for indicating which rooms have been searched, what symbol means a search is presently underway in a particular room? A) A circle with no line through it B) A one-headed arrow pointing up or right C) A slash; one line of the letter X D) A horizontal line with no slash through it

716. What adjunct equipment should be used when fire fighters must search an area that is too big to cover while keeping contact with the perimeter walls? A) Search dogs B) Search bots C) Search ropes D) Search sleds

719. Where does the victim's arm go in the one-person walking assist? A) Around the rescuer's waist B) Linked in the rescuer's arm C) Around the rescuer's neck D) Across the victim's chest

729. The size-up process should include a specific evaluation of search and rescue factors such as number of occupants, location, degree of risk, and ________. A) age of victims B) type of fire attack C) ability to self evacuate D) coordination with ventilation crew

733. In the two-part marking system for indicating which rooms have been searched, what symbol means a search is complete? A) A circle with no line through it B) A one-headed arrow pointing up or right C) An X D) A horizontal line with no slash through it

737. What is a drawback of the two-person seat carry? A) Difficult to maintain victim's weight B) Difficult to travel long distances C) Difficult to move through doors D) Time consuming

741. During a fire, where is a missing child likely to be located? A) On the roof B) In the garage C) Hiding in a closet D) At the front door

753. What type of ventilation involves openings in roofs or floors so that heat, smoke, and toxic gases escape the structure in a vertical direction? A) Horizontal B) Mechanical C) Vertical D) Negative-pressure

754. In a horizontal ventilation situation, which windows should be opened first? A) Windward B) Crosswind C) Leeward D) Largest

755. What should fire fighters use to break glass in windows? A) Helmet B) Double-gloved fist C) Hand tool such as a Halligan tool D) Piece of wood such as a table leg

756. What potential ventilation hazard do thermopane windows make more likely? A) Rollover B) Negative pressure C) Backdraft D) Paradoxical ventilation

758. Do HVAC systems help or hinder in ventilation operations? A) They help and should be used. B) They hinder and should be shut down immediately. C) It depends on the system. D) They can be used to extract, but not to introduce fresh air.

809. What is a quick way to determine whether a dry-barrel hydrant is still draining, prior to replacing the discharge outlet cap? A) Place a hand on the stem nut and feel for vibration. B) Look for a continuing trickle from the discharge outlet. C) Place a hand against the opening and feel for suction. D) Observe the water level in the window slit.

813. When water is not moving, what kind of energy does it have? A) Residual B) Pent-up C) Potential D) Stagnant

814. What is the term for the amount of pressure in a water distribution system during a period of normal consumption? A) Consumer pressure B) Civil use pressure C) Normal operating pressure D) Standard temperature and pressure (STP)

815. What is considered the realistic minimum usable residual pressure, in psi, when conducting firefighting operations from a water distribution system? A) 80 B) 40 C) 20 D) 0

824. The required size of a water main is based upon the amount of water needed for normal consumption and ________. A) industrial needs B) storage tank size C) fire protection needs D) business needs

830. When color-coding fire hydrants, what color would the bonnet be on a hydrant flowing 1000-1499 gpm? A) Red B) Orange C) Green D) Light-blue

833. The flow or quantity of water moving is measured in ________. A) friction loss B) kilopascals C) gallons per minute D) pounds per square inch

836. The quantity of water flowing through an opening during a hydrant test is called ________ pressure. A) static B) elevation C) flow D) residual

840. When referring to hose, what does the L stand for in LDH? A) Limited B) Left-hand C) Large D) Light

842. What type of hose couplings are the same and do not have male or female ends? A) Ramos B) Washerless C) Storz D) Lug and pin

847. What is the function of hard-suction hose? A) Connecting to distant municipal hydrants B) Connecting to another pumper in relay C) Drafting water from a static source D) Supplying a master stream device

852. What type of valves are opened or closed by rotating a handle a quarter turn? A) Gate B) Siamese C) Butterfly D) Post-indicating

858. What hose load has the hose up on its edge and placed around the perimeter of the hose bed in a U shape? A) A U-load B) A C-load C) A horseshoe load D) A center pull load

860. What function does the inner jacket of a jacketed fire hose serve? A) It is the tensile strength layer. B) It is the radial strength layer. C) It is the waterproof layer. D) It is the low-friction flow-assist layer.

864. What is a typical number of feet of supply hose for a fire engine to carry? A) 4000 to 5000 B) 2000 to 2500 C) 750 to 1250 D) 250 to 500

866. What device splits one hose stream into two hose streams? A) Siamese B) Hose splitter C) Wye D) Diverter

871. How does a doughnut hose roll differ from a straight hose roll? A) Both couplings are in the middle. B) The two couplings are connected. C) Both couplings are on the outside. D) The two couplings are omitted.

874. In a ________ lay, the hose is laid out from the fire to the hydrant, rather than from the hydrant to the fire. A) synchronized B) defensive C) reverse D) short

878. What term is used to describe the properties of energy, pressure, and water flow as related to fire suppression? A) Fluid dynamics B) Friction loss C) Hydraulics D) Fluidamics

882. What type of hose ranges in size from 3 ½" to larger? A) Small B) Medium C) Large D) Master

886. What feature of hose couplings is used to aid in the coupling and uncoupling of hose? A) Storz lugs B) Wrench lugs C) Rocker lugs D) Spanner lugs

890. If a defect is identified on a hose during an inspection, what is one of the steps to be taken? A) Tag and reload the hose. B) Clean and reload the hose. C) Tag the hose and mark the defect. D) Mark the defect and recheck it during the next operation

894. What is the difference between a gated wye and a water thief? A) Addition of a 1 ½" outlet B) Internal water separator C) Addition of a 2 ½" outlet D) Addition of a regulator

897. When performing a flat hose load for a forward lay, which end of the hose is first to be loaded? A) Middle B) Female C) Male D) No such load

901. How should a hose line be advanced up a ladder? A) Flowing water B) Charged C) Uncharged D) Disconnected

904. Which group of nozzles flow the most gallons per minute? A) Low-volume nozzles B) Handline nozzles C) Master stream nozzles D) Booster line nozzles

10. What is generally considered the upper limit of span of control? A) 25 B) 13 C) 8 D) 5

1002. Portable fire-ground lights can range from 300 watts upward. What is the upper range, in watts? A) 500 B) 750 C) 1000 D) 1500

1006. What is the name of the device that interrupts the current when there is a problem with an electrical ground? A) GRI B) ECI C) GCI D) GFI

1012. Where are outside stems and yokes normally located? A) Outside the building B) On water mains C) On a standpipe system D) Inside a mechanical room

1016. What method can be used to fix a small tear in a salvage cover? A) Cut off the area with the tear. B) Glue the material. C) Destroy the salvage cover. D) Duct tape the tear.

1018. A common saying in the fire service is to, "Take care of yourself ________, take care of the rest of your team ________, and take care of the people involved in the incident ________". What are the fill-in words, in order? A) last, second, first B) casually, seriously, urgently C) after, during, before D) first, second, third

102. What is the NFPA standard on personal alert safety systems? A) 1971 B) 1977 C) 1981 D) 1982

1020. What normal body-cooling mechanism is lost when wearing PPE? A) Radiation from the head B) Radiation from the body C) Internal cooling from ingestion D) Evaporation of perspiration

1032. If evaporative cooling is reduced by high humidity, what effect does this have on fire fighters? A) It has no effect on fire fighters, but it does affect the speed of hazardous materials chemical reactions. B) It allows fire fighters to cool more rapidly, because the perspiration is kept in a liquid state longer. C) It reduces the fogging on the inside of SCBA facemasks, allowing for clearer vision. D) It makes it more difficult for the body to regulate its internal temperature.

1034. What is the main part of the rehabilitation process? A) Reassimilation B) Reinvigoration C) Reinitiation D) Revitalization

1038. What are electrolytes? A) Detectable neurological activities in the brain B) The chemicals by which nerves propagate their pulses C) Small, positively charged ions in the blood that regulate pH D) Certain salts and other chemicals dissolved in body fluids

1041. What is another term for proteins? A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Unsaturated fats D) Amino acids

1145. Which type of nozzle moves more air and is therefore more likely to disrupt the thermal balance? A) Solid B) Straight C) Cellar D) Fog

1047. How is rehabilitation related to the overall emergency effort? A) It is not related to the overall emergency effort at all. B) It is an ancillary function only, and takes place only when the overall emergency is under control. C) It works against the overall emergency effort and should be avoided if possible. D) It is part of the overall emergency effort.

1050. Why does PPE prevent the perspiration of fire fighters from evaporating? A) PPE prevents perspiration. B) PPE absorbs perspiration. C) PPE acts as its own thermal transfer medium. D) PPE acts as a vapor barrier.

1056. What is one aspect of a hazardous materials incident that adds to the physical exertion required of fire fighters? A) Some undetectable poisonous materials work by sapping the strength. B) At hazardous materials scenes, everyone is required to move in double-time. C) Many more heavy hoselines are in play than at a standard fire. D) The rehabilitation site may be a considerable distance from the scene.

1060. When possible, how should fire fighters be assigned to rehabilitation? A) They should be sent on an individual basis. B) No more than two from any one company should be sent at once. C) They should not be assigned; they should go when they feel the need. D) They should be assigned as whole companies.

1061. How should fire fighters be released from rehabilitation? A) They should be released as each individual feels fit. B) They should be released at five minute intervals. C) They should be released when their vital signs are normal. D) The whole company should be released as a unit.

1065. Once a fire fighter loses an initial 2 quarts of water, how long will the body require to recover? A) 3 or 4 minutes B) Up to 10 minutes C) Up to 30 minutes D) 1 to 2 hours

1068. What is the only fuel that the body can use readily during high-intensity physical activities such as firefighting? A) Salts B) Pure sugar C) Nitrates D) Carbohydrates

1074. What is one cause of bloating? A) Drinking fluids that are too cold B) Drinking on an empty stomach C) Drinking while still out of breath D) Drinking too much too quickly

108. What does the A stand for in PSAP? A) Alerting B) Activating C) Auxiliary D) Answering

1080. What type of fuel is ground duff? A) Heavy B) Dense C) Sparse D) Fine

1081. What type of fuel is usually the main type of fuel present in ground cover fires? A) Coarse B) Light C) Heavy D) Fine

1083. How hard is it to locate and extinguish burning subsurface fuels? A) Easy to locate and easy to extinguish B) Easy to locate and hard to extinguish C) Hard to locate and easy to extinguish D) Hard to locate and hard to extinguish

1092. What happens to the relative humidity as the temperature warms up during the day? A) It goes up. B) It goes down until it reaches optimum, then it goes up. C) Nothing; it is not affected by temperature change. D) It goes down.

1093. What effect does a built barrier, such as a highway, have on a wildland fire? A) It gives the fire a sudden surge as it jumps over. B) It adds a hydrocarbon fuel to the fire. C) It usually has no measurable effect. D) It makes it easier to contain the fire.

1094. With wind changes, a wildland fire can develop a long, narrow extension that projects out from the head of the fire. What is this extension called? A) Rod B) River C) Header D) Finger

1096. What is the combination hoe and rake tool called? A) Ramos rake B) Forestry hoe C) Wilt bar D) McLeod tool

1097. Where is a direct attack on a wildland fire mounted? A) On either flank B) On its windward flank C) From the unburned area toward the heel D) On its leading edge

1098. For what type of fires is vegetation the primary fuel? A) Neither wildland nor ground B) Ground only C) Wildland only D) Both wildland and ground

1099. What is the term for the partly decomposed organic material on a forest floor? A) Organophosphate B) Chippings C) Brush mash D) Ground duff

1101. Do fires spread more quickly in fine fuels or in heavy timber and brush? A) Heavy timber and brush B) It depends on the quantity. C) It depends on the heat. D) Fine fuels

1102. What type of fuel includes large brush, heavy timber, stumps, branches, and dead timber on the ground? A) Atypical B) Moderate C) Median D) Heavy

1114. Why is a pocket dangerous for fire fighters? A) Because of the running water that defines it B) Because nothing can survive in a pocket, even with protection C) Because there is no air there D) Because it is an unburned area surrounded on three sides by fire

1115. What is the unburned part of a wildland fire area called? A) Zone B) Dude C) Wood D) Green

1122. What is the term for the location where a wildland or ground fire begins? A) Heel B) Island C) Pocket D) Area of origin

1126. What method of fire extinguishment is used most commonly during overhaul of wildland and ground cover fires? A) Removing fuel B) Cooling C) Wetting D) Smothering

1129. What type of wildland fire apparatus is designed to transport water to the scene of a wildland fire? A) Structural apparatus B) Brush truck C) Tiller D) Water tanker

1133. What is the term used to describe development occurring in wildland areas where undeveloped land with vegetative fuels is mixed with human-made structures? A) Rural-urban interface B) Rural development C) Wildland enhancement D) Wildland-urban interface

1141. Under what circumstances can one fire fighter control a large handline? A) Under no circumstances B) Under any circumstances C) When the nozzle pressure is at 125 psi or more D) When it is well-anchored

131. What should telecommunicators do if a caller begins shouting or becomes argumentative? A) Hang up immediately; public safety personnel are not required to receive abuse. B) Sternly advise the caller to calm down and behave properly. C) Engage the caller on his/her own terms; often a good exchange of anger relieves the fear and stress of the caller. D) Remain calm and professional.

1313. In a fire department EMS system, at what level of training are the first response and transport services provided? A) Both are ALS B) Both are BLS C) First response is ALS and transport is BLS D) Either one can be BLS or ALS

1320. What is an advantage of having medical first response as part of the EMS system residing in the fire department? A) Better training B) Additional equipment C) Extra funding D) Injured firefighter can receive immediate care.

1324. By what term are HIV, HBV, and HBC known, collectively? A) Chemical warfare agents B) Cancers C) White blood cells D) Bloodborne pathogens

1325. HIV is transmitted by direct contact between a break in the skin and one of three body substances from a person who is HIV+. What is one of those substances? A) Saliva B) Tears C) Urine D) Vaginal secretions

1328. Where does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place? A) Heart B) Kidneys C) Brain D) Lungs

1336. What is the most common airway obstruction? A) A piece of meat B) A non-food object C) Vomitus D) The tongue

134. How common are calls from wireless phones as compared to those from land lines? A) Still very rare compared to hardwired phones B) No longer rare, but still far fewer C) Wireless calls are now three times as common as hardwired calls. D) They are about equally common.

1341. What is the term for the discoloring of the parts of a deceased person's body closest to the ground? A) Port mortem coagulation B) Death rattle C) Myasthenia gravis D) Dependent lividity

1343. What is one sign of effective CPR? A) The victim's skin takes on a grey/blue color. B) A gurgling sound is heard in the victim's throat with each exhalation. C) The victim vomits. D) The victim's pupils constrict when exposed to light.

1349. What should be done with an amputated body part that is at the scene? A) It should be bandaged against the part of the body where it belongs. B) It should be frozen and sent separately to the hospital after the victimvictim. C) It should be left in place and marked where it was found. D) It should be put in a clean plastic bag, kept cool, and transported with the victim.

1351. What is the relationship between HIV and AIDS? A) HIV and AIDS are two different diseases entirely. B) HIV and AIDS are two different names for the same thing. C) AIDS is the virus that causes HIV. D) HIV is the virus that causes AIDS.

1355. After how many minutes without oxygen do brain cells usually begin to die? A) 20 to 30 B) 12 to 15 C) 8 to 10 D) 4 to 6

1360. How does the relationship between an adult's head and an adult's body compare to the relationship between the head and body of a child or infant? A) An adult's head is proportionately larger than either. B) An adult's head is proportionately the same size as those of both children and infants. C) An adult's head is proportionately smaller than a child's but larger than an infant's. D) An adult's head is proportionately smaller than either

1383. Who determines the required immunizations for fire fighters? A) Fire chief B) EMS supervisor C) Personal doctor D) Medical director

1388. Which of the following is a method to keep an airway open for a victim who is breathing and has no trauma? A) Trendelenburg B) Supine C) Reclined D) Recovery

1393. When performing the Heimlich maneuver, where does the fire fighter place the thumb side of the fist? A) On the belly button B) Below the belly button C) On the xiphoid D) Midway between belly button and xiphoid

1397. What is the major artery in the arm? A) Femoral B) Carotid C) Radial D) Brachial

1401. What is the term for the stiffening of muscles occurring hours after death? A) Decomposition B) Humus erectus C) Lividity D) Rigor mortis

1405. With what type of bleeding does the blood ooze out? A) Venous B) Arterial C) Cardiary D) Capillary

1409. If direct pressure does not stop the bleeding, what should you do next? A) Pneumatic anti-shock garment B) Pressure points C) Tourniquet D) Elevation

144. What type of device can a person requesting assistance use to connect directly to a telecommunicator? A) TDD B) Fire alarm box C) Code box D) Call box

148. Key components of an incident command system (ICS) include planning, supervision, and: A) attribution. B) machination. C) perambulation. D) communications.

149. For what types and sizes of incident is the ICS designed? A) Multi-agency only, medium or large size B) Multi-agency only, any size C) Single agency only, large size D) All types and all sizes

166. If an IC requested three EMS strike teams, what would be dispatched? A) Three EMS supervisors B) Three first-alarm assignments accompanied by EMS C) Three high-angle rescue teams with equipment and vehicles D) Fifteen ambulances and three strike team leaders

171. When a higher-ranking officer arrives on scene, is that higher-ranking officer obligated to assume command from an existing IC who is of lower rank? A) Yes, this must always take place. B) No, this is expressly forbidden; lower ranking officers are to be left in position. C) Yes, this should occur in Class II or III hazardous materials situations; not otherwise. D) Some departments require this, while others leave it to the higher-ranking officer's discretion.

175. What organization developed the first incident command system? A) NFPA B) Saint John Ambulance C) USAR D) FIRESCOPE

280. Failure of a steel structure is dependent on three factors, including the mass of the steel components and the loads placed upon them. What is the third? A) The cladding or lack of cladding of the concrete floors B) The amount of oxygen being drawn over the steel C) The nature of the other materials in the structure D) The methods used to connect the steel pieces

285. What is plasterboard commonly used for? A) Sub-flooring sheathing B) Roof facia and soffits C) Roof sheathing layer D) Interior walls and ceilings

287. To what is the rate of combustion of wood directly related? A) The age of the wood B) The volume of the ignition fuel supply C) The grain type of the wood D) The surface area of the wood

290. What is the term that means Type II construction? A) Ordinary B) Extra hazard C) Fire retardant D) Noncombustible

298. What is the most effective method of protecting lives and property in Type V construction? A) Heat detectors B) Smoke detectors C) Fire barriers D) Automatic sprinklers

302. Which of the following is NOT a primary design used to construct roofs? A) Pitched B) Curved C) Flat D) Cone

307. What is one advantage of portable fire extinguishers over hoselines? A) They pack more suppression punch. B) They have controllable rates of flow. C) They do not run out as quickly. D) They are quicker to deploy and use.

310. What class of fire would involve energized building wiring, fuse boxes, transformers, or generators? A) F B) E C) D D) C

313. Which classes of fire extinguisher include a number in their classification? A) B and C B) C and M C) M and A D) A and B

316. When determining what risk class to assign a certain building area, what two factors contribute? A) Direction and density of pedestrian traffic flow B) Elevation and configuration of the given area C) Volume and pressure capacity of sprinklers D) Amount and type of combustibles present

317. For an area to qualify as a light hazard, the majority of materials must meet one of two requirements. What is one of those? A) They must be necessary for the work of the area. B) They must be UL listed. C) They must have ignition temperatures in excess of 451º F. D) They must be noncombustible.

321. All fires require three basic ingredients, one of which is fuel. What is another? A) Nitrogen B) Surfactant C) Water D) Heat

322. What is another word for when a material begins to burn? A) Flash point B) Evolution temperature C) Liquefaction temperature D) Ignition point

325. What is one chemical used as a dry chemical extinguishing agent? A) Ammonium nitrate B) Tri-nitro toluene C) Methyl isocyanate D) Ammonium phosphate

327. How is the numerical rating of class K extinguishers assigned? A) On the basis of square feet of burning fuel extinguished by an expert B) On the basis of square feet of burning fuel extinguished by a lay person C) On the basis of a mathematical formula and the net weight of agent D) There is no such rating assigned.

331. The horns of some older carbon dioxide extinguishers are made of a substance that both negates their class C rating and makes them dangerous for use on class C fires. What substance are those older horns made of? A) Bone B) Clay C) Wood D) Metal

332. Why is the use of halon agents strictly controlled? A) It is mutagenic. B) It is carcinogenic. C) It pollutes ground water. D) It damages the ozone layer.

333. Bromochlorodifluoromethane, although a big word, should be recognized by fire fighters as a certain type of extinguishing agent. What agent? A) Carbon tet B) MetalX C) CO2 D) Halon 1211

334. What is the relationship between dry powder and dry chemical extinguishing agents? A) They are two different names for the same substance with the same application. B) Dry chemical is one of the many types of dry powder. C) Dry powder is one of the many types of dry chemical. D) They are entirely different substances with entirely different applications.

337. How difficult would it be for a trained person to extinguish a fire in a wastebasket, with a suitable portable fire extinguisher? A) It would be hard, and success is unlikely. B) It would be touch and go; the outcome is unpredictable. C) It would be tough, but would likely succeed. D) It would be easy.

340. What one characteristic makes an extinguishing agent suitable for fighting class C fires? A) It must absorb more heat that water does. B) It must absorb only minimal heat. C) It must not catalyze a polymer reaction. D) It must not conduct electricity.

341. What happens if normal extinguishing agents are tried on class D fires? A) Typically nothing happens at all. B) They put out the fire but produce poisonous gases. C) They work, but only when delivered at great pressure. D) They may react violently, even explosively.

342. How many gallons of water are contained in a class A fire extinguisher with a numerical rating of 2? A) 1.0 B) 1.5 C) 2.0 D) 2.5

344. Fire extinguishers are rated for their ability to control a specific type of fire and their: A) ease of use. B) reach of agent. C) overall weight. D) ability to prevent rekindling.

349. What hazard category is represented by woodworking shops, service or repair facilities for cars, and cooking areas with deep fryers? A) Severe B) Consumer C) Regular D) Extra

353. At what temperature are dry chemicals subject to freezing? A) At the same temperature as fresh water B) At the same temperature as salt water C) At the same temperature as n-heptane D) They are not subject to freezing.

382. With a pry bar, the bar acts as a ________ to multiply the amount of force the person could otherwise apply. A) ratchet B) gear C) spring D) lever

391. When should fire fighters start to think about what tools they might need for a given call? A) Only when a specific need for a specific tool occurs B) During suppression activities C) During forcible entry D) During response

394. What does the R stand for in RIC? A) Responder B) Response C) Radiant D) Rapid

402. After use, all hand tools should be completely cleaned, inspected, and: A) tested. B) oiled. C) weighed. D) recorded.

403. The practice of painting tools should be avoided. Why? A) Paint can suddenly reach ignition temperature in a fire and burn fire fighters. B) Paint adds weight to the tool, and that can make a difference under strenuous conditions. C) Paint, when heated, emits the same gases as accelerants which could confuse investigators. D) Paint can hide defects or visible damage.

409. What is one frequent use for a hydraulic spreader? A) Ventilation B) Freeing stuck elevators C) Raising a garage door D) Vehicle extrication

412. What is one use for a spring-loaded center punch? A) To start a K tool B) To strike a Halligan tool C) To free a stuck garage door D) To break tempered automobile glass

413. What are "the irons"? A) Any tool with a heavy strike head B) Any tool made entirely of metal C) A hydrant wrench and a set of spanners D) A flat-head axe and a Halligan tool

414. Handsaws include hacksaws, carpenter's handsaws, keyhole saws, and: A) bandsaws. B) reciprocating saws. C) lanier saws. D) coping saws.

424. What is the easiest, quickest, and often the most effective way to ventilate interior spaces in a building? A) Break non-opening windows B) Break windows that open C) Cut a hole in the ceiling D) Open interior doors

430. What phase of a fireground operation involves the initial observation and evaluation of factors used to determine the strategy and tactics to be employed? A) Evaluation B) Investigation C) Informational D) Response/Size-up

434. What is the term for a rope used on an extension ladder to raise a fly section? A) Running line B) Hoisting sheet C) Extension rope D) Ladder halyard

437. Under what conditions do natural fiber ropes deteriorate with age? A) Only if stored wet B) Only if allowed to mildew C) Only if run over rough surfaces D) They deteriorate even if stored properly.

440. What is the lightest of the synthetic fibers? A) Polyethylene B) Polybutylene C) Polypentylene D) Polypropylene

443. What is one type of harness? A) Jacob B) Invertible C) Open D) Chest

452. What is the term for that part of a rope used for forming a knot? A) Whipping end B) Overhand C) Underhand D) Working end

456. Will a correctly tied safety knot slide on the standing part of the rope? A) No, it will not slide. B) No, it does not touch the standing part of the rope. C) Yes, but only in the tightening direction. D) Yes, it will slide.

478. What is it called when a rope is suddenly put under unusual tension? A) Rope hammer B) Dynamic loading C) Dynamic hammer D) Shock loading

481. What is formed by reversing the direction of a rope to form a "U" bend with two parallel ends? A) Splice B) Cord C) Plait D) Bight

485. What knot is used to attach a rope firmly to a round object such as a tree or fence post? A) A pole knot B) An overhead knot C) A cordon hitch D) A clove hitch

492. What weight is a two-person life safety rope designed to bear? A) 200 pounds B) 300 pounds C) 400 pounds D) 600 pounds

496. The breaking strength of a rope is determined by the material, diameter, and ________. A) creel B) bridge C) covering D) type of construction

500. What term describes a second line that is attached to a rescuer and that serves as a backup if the main line fails? A) Tag B) Lifeline C) Tether D) Belay

504. What type of knot is used to tie two ropes of unequal size? A) Bowline B) Clove hitch C) Square D) Becket bend

519. An on-going size-up must consider the impact fire fighters are having on the problem, any changing circumstances at the incident, and: A) how the incident came into being. B) who will be held responsible for creating this incident. C) what sort of time line might be needed to clean it all up. D) the effectiveness of the initial plan.

520. The size-up process requires a certain type of approach to managing information. What type of approach? A) Modular B) Impressionistic C) Summary D) Systematic

526. What type of construction, found on some older wooden buildings, provides a path for rapid fire extension? A) Side split B) Bungalow C) Slate roof D) Balloon-frame

528. Where, relative to an apartment on fire, would a person be in the most immediate danger? A) In the apartment directly underneath the one on fire B) In the lowest apartment in a vertical column with the one on fire C) In any of the apartments on the same floor as the one on fire D) In the apartment directly above the one on fire

529. In obscured visibility conditions, the direction of the seat of the fire may sometimes be deduced by a sensation of heat coming from a certain direction or by what clue? A) A puff of air through the smoke B) A feeling of wetness on the surfaces C) A vibration in the floor D) A crackling sound

551. What is a potential source of good information about a building, other than a preincident plan? A) Bystander observations B) Generalized assumptions C) Early news reports D) Maintenance personnel

552. High heat will affect fire fighters' performance and may cause heat casualties. What other weather phenomenon will have an effect? A) Low barometric pressure B) High barometric pressure C) Inversion D) Humidity

559. When evaluating the potential for collapse of a burning structure, its construction must be considered, as well as the location and intensity of the fire and: A) how many people may be inside. B) what water pressure is available. C) whether it is sprinklered. D) how long it has been burning.

569. What is the type of fire attack where firefighters attack the fire with heavy streams from outside the fire building? A) Perimeter B) Progressive C) Offensive D) Defensive

575. What type of tool is a pick-head axe? A) All-purpose B) Combination C) Striking D) Cutting

578. In the crowbar family there is also the pry bar and the: A) Dees bar. B) Wilt bar. C) Little bar. D) tHux bar.

592. To what does the term forcible entry apply? A) Structures, vehicles, and vessels B) Structures and vehicles only C) Vehicles and vessels only D) Structures only

596. The flat-head axe is often used with another tool. The two tools together have a common nickname. What is it? A) Church keys B) Burglar bars C) Braces D) Irons

597. What is another term for a sledgehammer? A) Adz B) Picket C) Ball peen D) Maul

598. What is the term for a small opening that allows better tool access in forcible entry? A) A maw B) A detent C) An auger D) A bite

599. What tool has multiple applications, including cutting and forcing open doors and windows, and includes an adz, a pick, and a claw? A) K-tool B) Ball peen hammer C) Tiger's claw D) Pry axe

600. What type of circular saw blade is specially designed to cut through hard surfaces or wood? A) Zinc-plated B) Kerf-bladed C) Alternating-tooth D) Carbide-tipped

603. What other tool(s) is/are needed with a K tool? A) No other tools are needed. B) A clamping tool C) A clamping tool and a pry bar D) A pry bar and a flathead axe

609. What type of window is made of adjustable sections of tempered glass in a metal frame that overlap each other when closed? A) Jimmy B) Jake C) Jointed D) Jalousie

613. What type of cutting blade can be damaged by gasoline vapors? A) Carbide tip cutting B) Wood cutting C) Plastic cutting D) Metal cutting

617. What type of glass is normally used in side and rear windows in automobiles and commercial doors ? A) Annealed B) Insulated C) Laminated D) Tempered

621. What must be considered before breaching a wall? A) Height B) Size of opening C) Materials D) Load-bearing

626. What is the very top of a ladder called? A) Fly B) Top plate C) Claw D) Tip

627. What are butt spurs on a ladder? A) Small, sharp protrusions that snag the hips B) The teeth of the cam system that extends the fly sections C) Bumps and dents that occur on the foot pad as a result of use D) Spikes on the base that keep it from slipping

631. What purpose do the hooks of a roof ladder serve? A) They dig into the ground to keep the ladder from slipping. B) They grip the eave of the roof to keep the ladder from slipping. C) They serve as safe attachment points for fire fighters and equipment. D) They secure the tip of the ladder to the peak of a pitched roof.

633. Ground ladders must be cleaned periodically even if not used at a scene. Why? A) Their heat-resistant treatment attracts dust. B) They build up an ionic charge that attracts dirt out of the air. C) Normal atmospheric moisture reacts with the surface, causing a thin film to develop. D) They accumulate road grime from being on the apparatus.

634. How often should ladder service testing be done? A) Monthly B) Quarterly C) Semi-annually D) Annually

635. What is another hazard associated with raising a ladder and having it hit something, other than the electrical hazard of it hitting power lines? A) The ladder can experience structural damage without showing any sign. B) An extended ladder can collapse suddenly, causing possibly devastating guillotine-like injuries. C) A ladder strike can shock-load the halyard, which may not become evident until it fails under load. D) The sudden change in momentum can cause fire fighters to lose control of it and drop it.

636. What is the weight limit, in pounds, that most portable ladders can support? A) 300 B) 450 C) 600 D) 750

640. When a roof ladder is being carried, which end should be facing forward? A) It does not matter. B) The tip end if the ladder is less than 14 feet long, otherwise the butt end C) The butt end D) The tip end

650. What is the best method for securing a ladder? A) Secure it in the middle, capturing some of both sections. B) Secure the tip. C) Secure the base. D) Secure both the tip and the base.

651. Before climbing an extension ladder, fire fighters should make sure the halyard is tied and the: A) rungs are perpendicular. B) fly is tied to the bed. C) base is chocked. D) dogs are locked.

658. What is the term for non-aerial ladders? A) Articulating ladders B) Bangor ladders C) Pompier ladders D) Portable ladders

664. What is the proper climbing angle for a ladder? A) 30º B) 45º C) 60º D) 75º

665. What is the term for keeping a ladder from slipping by applying one's weight to the underside of it? A) Legging B) Fixing C) Heading D) Heeling

668. Most straight ladders and roof ladders of a certain length or less can be carried safely by one fire fighter. What is this length, in feet? A) 12 B) 14 C) 16 D) 18

675. When a ladder is placed at the correct angle for climbing, what is the ratio of ladder reach (vertical height attained) to distance of the butt of the ladder from the building? A) 7:2 B) 6:2 C) 5:1 D) 4:1

676. What type of ladder raise is usually used when the ladder can be raised perpendicular to the target surface? A) Hand raise B) Periscope raise C) Drawbridge raise D) Rung raise

679. Before climbing a ladder, fire fighters should make sure it is either tied or: A) chocked. B) grounded. C) rotated. D) heeled.

683. What term describes the top or bottom section of a trussed beam? A) Dawg B) Block C) Rung D) Rail

687. What is the NFPA standard on use, maintenance, and service testing of in-service fire department ground ladders? A) 1868 B) 1900 C) 1901 D) 1932

689. What is one basis for making search assignments? A) Grid location B) Floor texture C) Dead reckoning D) Stairway locations

691. Adults who try to escape a fire on their own are often found in one of two locations. What is one of those? A) In the attic B) In a closet C) In the middle of a room D) Near a door

692. What is another term for a clockwise search of a room? A) Forward search B) Carolina search C) Split search D) Left-hand search

698. What condition is the victim in when the exit assist is appropriate? A) Unresponsive, and unable to walk B) Unresponsive, but able to walk C) Responsive, but unable to walk D) Responsive, and able to walk

699. When is the two-person chair carry particularly useful? A) Across open fields B) Going under low obstacles C) In elevators D) In narrow corridors

701. Which of the following provides a faster removal from a dangerous area? A) Clothes drag B) Blanket drag C) Lower extremities drag D) Webbing sling drag

709. What kind of analysis is it when the IC weighs the potential danger to fire fighters against the likelihood of saving someone inside? A) Little-lot B) Life-safety C) Probability-certainty D) Risk-benefit

712. What phrase is used to report that the primary search has been completed? A) Mitigation complete B) Scan done over C) Pan search complete D) Primary all clear

713. How can fire fighters performing a primary search extend their reach? A) They cannot. B) By breaking contact with the wall or their partner C) By throwing objects encountered, such as pillows D) By sweeping out with a tool

724. How many fire fighters are necessary to fully execute a long-backboard rescue? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four or more

725. When rescuing a conscious person from a window using a ladder, where does the second fire fighter stand? A) On the bottom rung of the ladder B) About six rungs down from the top C) About three rungs down from the top D) One rung below the windowsill

730. What priorities are used as a basis for assignment of search teams? A) Rescue those trapped, followed by those not trapped. B) Rescue those not trapped, followed by those trapped. C) Rescue those in less danger, followed by those in more danger. D) Rescue those in immediate danger, followed by those in less danger.

734. On what principle does a thermal image camera operate? A) Organic versus inorganic materials B) Color differentials C) Light enhancement D) Temperature differences

738. What is the only way to confirm everyone has safely evacuated a building? A) Question occupants. B) Conduct a head count. C) Question witnesses. D) Conduct a thorough search.

757. What is one problem with using doorways as ventilation openings? A) Doors can shut, no matter how well they are propped open. B) Because they are taller than they are wide, a venturi sets up, negating the effect. C) They admit too much air, sending the ventilation process out of control. D) This compromises entry and exit for human use.

765. What are smoke, heat, and toxic gases called collectively? A) Hydrocarbons B) Fuel gas fragments C) Halogenated products D) Products of combustion

768. What is the term for the transfer of heat through a circulating medium of liquid or gas? A) Conduction B) Radiation C) Condensation D) Convection

769. What sort of an air movement is likely on a hot day in an air-conditioned tall building and is due solely to atmospheric conditions? A) Updraft B) Accelerated uniform volume saturation C) Inhibited uniform volume saturation D) Downdraft

774. What is the phenomenon called in which smoke hangs low to the ground on a cool damp day with very little wind? A) Thermal layering B) Cold smoke effect C) Inverse stack effect D) Smoke inversion

779. What is it called if air is immediately drawn back into the building because of an incompletely sealed smoke ejector? A) Secondary convection B) Paradoxical ventilation C) Reciprocal ventilation D) Churning

786. What is the term for a sudden explosive ignition of fire gases that occurs when oxygen is introduced into a superheated space? A) Mushrooming B) Rollover C) Flashover D) Backdraft

788. Where should a ventilation opening be placed for potential backdraft conditions? A) Lowest point of the building B) Nearest door C) Nearest window D) As high as possible in the building

797. What type of ventilation openings can be used to stop fire spread in long narrow buildings, such as strip malls? A) Peak B) Louvered C) Triangular D) Trench

801. What is the preferred method to ventilate a large building? A) All windows on windward and leeward sides B) Peak cut C) Trench cut D) Small compartments at a time

804. What is the recommended minimum pressure, in psi, for water coming from a fire hydrant? A) 115 B) 80 C) 50 D) 20

810. Sometimes the bonnet of a hydrant is color-coded. What do these color codes indicate? A) The size of the discharges B) Whether they are wet-barrel or dry C) Whether they have ANSI threads or SIMI D) The available flow from the hydrant

811. Hydrants should be checked periodically. What is the minimum acceptable interval between such checks? A) Every five years B) Triannually C) Biannually D) Annually

816. How close must a fire engine be able to get to a static water source in order to be able to draft directly from it? A) There is no physical limit. B) 250 feet C) 50 feet D) 20 feet

819. What is the top end of the capacity range, in gallons, of typical portable water tanks? A) 1500 B) 2000 C) 3500 D) 5000

821. If a portable tank is self-expanding, fire fighters may need to hold on to the ________while the tank is being filled. A) frame B) check rope C) distributor D) collar

825. In a well-designed water distribution system, what type of pattern do the water mains follow? A) Dead end B) Dual C) Loop D) Grid

826. What size fire hose are the outlets on fire hydrants sized to fit? A) 1" B) 1 ½" C) 1 ¾" D) 2 ½"

831. When color-coding fire hydrants, what color would the bonnet be on a hydrant flowing 1500 gpm and higher? A) Red B) Orange C) Green D) Light-blue

837. The amount of pressure remaining in a water distribution system when water is flowing is called ________ pressure. A) static B) elevation C) flow D) residual

839. What should fire fighters do to avoid water hammer? A) Open and close hydrants and nozzles sharply. B) Never open a hydrant and a nozzle at the same time. C) Never close a hydrant and a nozzle at the same time. D) Open and close hydrants and nozzles slowly.

844. What is the hose diameter used by most fire departments for heavy interior attack? A) 3 ¼" B) 3" C) 2 ¾" D) 2 ½"

850. What type of appliance is used to attach a smaller hose to a larger one? A) An adaptor B) An engager C) A distributor D) A reducer

851. What description best fits a hose jacket? A) Soft rubber sheet B) Stiff canvas patch C) Wound plastic coil D) Split metal cylinder

855. What is it called when an engine secures hose to a hydrant on the way in and lays supply line until it reaches its attack position? A) A water manifold B) A water thief C) An offensive attack D) A forward (straight) lay

857. What is it called when supply hose beds on apparatus contain two different sections, usually loaded with dissimilar hose? A) A two-stage load B) A Detroit load C) A baffle bed D) A split hose bed

861. What are the wrenches that are used to tighten and loosen hose couplings called? A) Hydrant wrenches B) The irons C) Hose tools D) Spanner wrenches

956. What does depositing the personnel accountability passport with the entry officer or command post indicate? A) That those fire fighters are available for assignment B) That those fire fighters have arrived on scene C) That those fire fighters have been released from the scene D) That those fire fighters are inside the hazard area

958. To verify the status of company members, what kind of contact must the company officer maintain with them? A) Physical or aural B) Aural or radio C) Radio or visual D) Visual or physical

959. What radio language is used to report a fire fighter in trouble and requiring immediate assistance? A) Signal 24 B) Ten thirty-three C) Help man down D) Mayday

96. What team is established and positioned outside the hazardous area to provide emergency assistance to crews working inside the hazardous area? A) Rescue integration crew B) Reserve implementaion crew C) Rapid integration crew D) Rapid intervention crew

961. Who has the responsibility to account for all fire fighters involved on an emergency incident? A) Company officer B) Safety officer C) Fire fighter D) IC

966. When rescuing a downed fire fighter, what is the first step once the fire fighter is reached? A) Remove mask and check downed fire fighter's breathing. B) Give your mask to the downed fire fighter. C) Package the downed fire fighter on a backboard. D) Assess the downed fire fighter's condition.

970. What program helps prevent reactions to critical incidents from having a negative impact on a fire fighter's work or home life? A) CIST B) MISM C) CART D) CISM

977. What is the term for a long section of protective material used to cover a section of flooring or carpet? A) Skid strip B) Running mat C) Salvage carpet D) Floor runner

980. What technique is needed to use a sprinkler wedge to stop an activated sprinkler? A) Insert one wedge into the deflector and hammer it into place with a helmet. B) Insert one wedge into the orifice and tap it into place with the palm of the hand. C) Insert one wedge into the orifice and one into the deflector, then deform them to touch by hammering sharply. D) Insert one wedge from either side between the orifice and the deflector and push them together.

982. What should fire fighters take with them if sent to shut off a main sprinkler control valve without the necessary key? A) An Allen wrench B) A pipe wrench C) A crow bar D) Bolt cutters

983. Which way does the wheel on an OS&Y valve turn to close the valve? A) It depends whether the system is on city water or private. B) Counterclockwise C) It depends on the valve color. D) Clockwise

985. What can be used to make a water chute quickly? A) LDH B) Drop tank C) Roll of carpet D) Salvage cover

991. What should fire fighters do if, during overhaul, they observe something suspicious, particularly something suggestive of arson? A) Make a mental note of the findings and circumstances and report to investigators later. B) Make a written note of the findings and circumstances and turn it in to investigators later. C) Continue working; overhaul operations cannot hide evidence from investigators. D) Stop operations until investigators can examine what the fire fighters found.

993. During overhaul, what should be available to douse any hot spots or flare-ups that occur? A) Class A fire extinguisher B) Pike pole and Halligan bar C) Thermal blanket D) Charged hose line

36. Which national organization writes U.S. codes and standards dealing with fire protection?

NFPA

1. What style of leadership does the fire department use?

Paramilitary

28. What is developed to provide specific information on the actions that should be taken to accomplish a certain task?

Standard Operating Procedures

81. Fire helmets have an inner liner for added ________ protection. A) thermal B) chemical C) radioactive D) acoustical

66. Approximately how many fire fighters are killed in the line of duty each year in the United States? A) 10 B) 100 C) 1000 D) 10,000

79. What radio message is appropriate if a fire fighter on the fireground is discovered to be in heat stroke? A) None B) Mayday C) Rehabilitation request D) Advisory to officer

64. NFPA 1001 requires fire fighters to don personal protective clothing within a specified time. What time? A) 30 seconds B) 45 seconds C) 60 seconds D) 75 seconds

76. What is the minimum number of fire fighters required to make up a firefighting team? A) 6 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

23. The individual who is responsible for the management of all incident operations is the ________. A) driver/operator B) safety officer C) incident commander D) fire chief

78. When may a fire apparatus be driven over a downed power line? A) Any time B) Only if it is not raining C) Only if it can be done in such a way that no two tires ever touch the downed line at the same time D) Never

86. How does the realistic use time of an SCBA compare to its rated use time? A) The rated time is considerably less than the realistic use time. B) The rated time is somewhat less than the realistic use time. C) The two times are usually very close. D) The realistic time is considerably less than the rated time.

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