Med Surg Ch. 30 PVD

A client complains of leg pain brought on by walking several blocks — a symptom that first arose several weeks earlier. The client's history includes diabetes mellitus and a two-pack-per-day cigarette habit for the past 42 years. The physician diagnoses intermittent claudication and orders pentoxifylline (Trental), 400 mg three times daily with meals. Which instruction concerning long-term care should the nurse provide?

"Practice meticulous foot care." Intermittent claudication and other chronic peripheral vascular diseases reduce oxygenation to the feet, making them susceptible to injury and poor healing. Therefore, meticulous foot care is essential. The nurse should teach the client to bathe his feet in warm water and dry them thoroughly, cut the toenails straight across, wear well-fitting shoes, and avoid taking medications without the approval of a physician. Because nicotine is a vasoconstrictor, this client should stop smoking, not just consider cutting down. Daily walking is beneficial to clients with intermittent claudication. To evaluate the effectiveness of the therapeutic regimen, this client should see the physician regularly, not just when complications occur.

A nurse is providing education about maintaining tissue integrity to a client with peripheral arterial disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for clarification?

"Shoes made of synthetic material are best for my feet." The client should wear leather shoes with an extra-depth toebox. Synthetic shoes do not allow air to circulate.

A patient is suspected to have a thoracic aortic aneurysm. What diagnostic test(s) does the nurse anticipate preparing the patient for? (Select all that apply.)

-Computed tomography -Transesophageal echocardiography -X-ray Diagnosis of a thoracic aortic aneurysm is principally made by chest x-ray, computed tomography angiography (CTA), and transesophageal echocardiography (TEE).

The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected acute venous insufficiency. What clinical manifestations would indicate this condition to the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

-Cool and cyanotic skin -Sharp pain that may be relieved by the elevation of the extremity -Full superficial veins Postthrombotic syndrome is characterized by chronic venous stasis, resulting in edema, altered pigmentation, pain, and stasis dermatitis. The patient may notice the symptoms less in the morning and more in the evening. Obstruction or poor calf muscle pumping in addition to valvular reflux must be present for the development of severe postthrombotic syndrome and stasis ulcers. Superficial veins may be dilated.

Which of the following are alterations noted in Virchow's triad? Select all that apply.

-Stasis of blood -Vessel wall injury -Altered coagulation Three factors, known as Virchow's triad, are believed to play a significant role in the development of venous thrombosis. They are stasis of blood, vessel wall injury, and altered coagulation. Edema and tenderness are clinical manifestations of venous thrombosis, but are not part of the triad.

The physician prescribed a Tegapore dressing to treat a venous ulcer. What should the nurse expect that the ankle-brachial index (ABI) will be if the circulatory status is adequate?

0.50 After the circulatory status has been assessed and determined to be adequate for healing (ABI of more than 0.5) (Mosti, Iabichella, & Partsch, 2012), surgical dressings can be used to promote a moist environment.

When administering heparin anticoagulant therapy, the nurse needs to make certain that the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is within the therapeutic range of:

1.5 to 2.5 times the baseline control. A normal PTT level is 21 to 35 seconds. A reading of more than 100 seconds indicates a significant risk of hemorrhage.

The nurse is monitoring a patient who is on heparin anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse determine the therapeutic range of the international normalized ratio (INR) should be?

2.0-3.0 Oral anticoagulants, such as warfarin, are monitored by the PT or the INR. Because the full anticoagulant effect of warfarin is delayed for 3 to 5 days, it is usually administered concurrently with heparin until desired anticoagulation has been achieved (i.e., when the PT is 1.5 to 2 times normal or the INR is 2.0 to 3.0) (Holbrook et al., 2012).

When caring for a patient who has started anticoagulant therapy with warfarin (Coumadin), the nurse knows that therapeutic benefits will not occur for:

3 to 5 days. It takes 3 to 5 days for a therapeutic international normalized ratio (INR) to be achieved. Therefore, Coumadin is given concurrently with heparin until a therapeutic level is established, usually within 72 hours.

Beginning warfarin concomitantly with heparin can provide a stable INR by which day of heparin treatment?

5 Beginning warfarin concomitantly with heparin can provide a stable INR by day 5 of heparin treatment, at which time the heparin maybe discontinued.

In a client with a bypass graft, the distal outflow vessel must have at least what percentage patency for the graft to remain patent?

50 The distal outflow vessel must be at least 50% patent for the graft to remain patent.

A nursing instructor is discussing the diagnosis of intermittent claudication with students. To determine whether the students understand the pathophysiology of the disease, the instructor asks, "What percentage of the arterial lumen must be obstructed before intermittent claudication is experienced?" What answer should the students give?

50 Typically, about 50% of the arterial lumen or 75% of the cross-sectional area must be obstructed before intermittent claudication is experienced.

Which of the following medications is considered a thrombolytic?

Alteplase Alteplase is considered a thrombolytic, which lyses and dissolves thrombi. Thrombolytic therapy is most effective when given within the first 3 days after acute thrombosis. Heparin, Coumadin, and Lovenox do not lyse clots.

A nurse is changing a dressing on an arterial suture site. The site is red, with foul-smelling drainage. Based on these symptoms, the nurse is aware to monitor for which type of aneurysm?

Anastomotic An anastomotic aneurysm occurs as a result of infection at arterial suture or graft sites. Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding between the intimal and medial layers of the arterial wall. Saccular aneurysms collect blood in the weakened outpouching. In a false aneurysm, the mass is actually a pulsating hematoma.

Which aneurysm occurs as a result of infection at arterial suture or graft sites?

Anastomotic An anastomotic aneurysm occurs as a result of infection, arterial wall failure, and suture or graft failure. Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding between the intimal and medial layers of the arterial wall. Saccular aneurysms collect blood in the weakened outpouching. In a false aneurysm, the mass is actually a pulsating hematoma.

Which of the following assessment results is considered a major risk factor for PAD?

BP of 160/110 mm Hg Hypertension is considered a major risk factor for PAD. Blood pressure should be less than 130/90 mm Hg. The other laboratory results are within the recommended range of normal to high normal.

A client with suspected lymphoma is scheduled for lymphangiography. The nurse should inform the client that this procedure may cause which harmless temporary change?

Bluish urine Lymphangiography may turn the urine blue temporarily; it doesn't alter stool color. For several months after the procedure, the upper part of the feet may appear blue, not red. Lymphangiography doesn't affect the soles.

Health teaching includes advising patients on ways to reduce PAD. The nurse should always emphasize that the strongest risk factor for the development of atherosclerotic lesions is:

Cigarette smoking. Nicotine decreases blood flow, increases heart rate and blood pressure, and increases the risk for clot formation by increasing platelet aggregation. Smokers have a four-fold higher risk of developing pain from arterial disease than nonsmokers. Carbon monoxide, produced by burning tobacco, combines with hemoglobin more readily than oxygen, thus depriving tissues of oxygen.

The nurse assesses a patient with hip pain related to intermittent claudication. She knows that the area of arterial narrowing is the:

Common iliac artery. The location of the claudication occurs in muscle groups distal to the diseased vessel. Hip or buttock pain may result from reduced blood flow from the common iliac artery.

A health care provider wants a cross-sectional image of the abdomen to evaluate the degree of stenosis in a patient's left common iliac artery. The nurse knows to prepare the patient for which of the following?

Computed tomography angiography (CTA) A CTA is used to visualize arteries and veins and help assess for stenosis and occlusion.

A client is hospitalized for repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. The nurse must be alert for signs and symptoms of aneurysm rupture and thus looks for which of the following?

Constant, intense back pain and falling blood pressure Indications of a rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm include constant, intense back pain; falling blood pressure; and decreasing hematocrit.

Which aneurysm results in bleeding into the layers of the arterial wall?

Dissecting Dissection results from a rupture in the intimal layer, resulting in bleeding between the intimal and medial layers of the arterial wall. Saccular aneurysms collect blood in the weakened outpouching. In a false aneurysm, the mass is actually a pulsating hematoma. An anastomotic aneurysm occurs as a result of infection at arterial suture or graft sites.

A client with venous insufficiency asks the nurse what they can do to decrease their risk of complications. What advice should the nurse provide to clients with venous insufficiency?

Elevate the legs periodically for at least 15 to 20 minutes. The nurse should advise the client to periodically elevate the legs for at least 15 to 20 minutes. Avoiding foods with iodine or refraining from sexual activity for a week does not relate to venous insufficiency.

Which statement is accurate regarding Reynaud disease?

Episodes may be triggered by unusual sensitivity to cold. Episodes of Reynaud disease may be triggered by emotional factors or by unusual sensitivity to cold. The disease is most common in women between 16 and 40 years of age. It is generally unilateral and affects only one or two digits.

Providing postoperative care to a patient who has percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA), with insertion of a stent, for a femoral artery lesion, includes assessment for the most serious complication of:

Hemorrhage. All choices are serious and require medical/surgical intervention. However, hemorrhage is the most serious complication that requires immediate attention.

A client who underwent total hip replacement exhibits a red, painful area on the calf of the affected leg. What test validates presence of thromboembolism?

Homans' A positive Homans' sign, or pain in the calf elicited upon flexion of the ankle with the leg straight, indicates the presence of a thrombus. Testing for Romberg's sign assesses cerebellar function. Phalen's test assesses carpal tunnel syndrome. The Rinne test compares air and bone conduction in both ears to screen for or confirm hearing loss.

A client is receiving enoxaparin and warfarin therapy for a venous thromboembolism (VTE). Which laboratory value indicates that anticoagulation is adequate and enoxaparin can be discontinued?

International normalized ratio (INR) is 2.5. Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin are monitored by PT or the INR. Because the full anticoagulant effect of warfarin is delayed for 3 to 5 days, it is usually administered concurrently with heparin until desired anticoagulation has been achieved (i.e., when the PT is 1.5 to 2 times normal or the INR is 2.0 to 3.0)

Which term refers to enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes?

Lymphadenitis Acute lymphadenitis is demonstrated by enlarged, red, and tender lymph nodes. Lymphangitis is acute inflammation of the lymphatic channels. Lymphedema is demonstrated by swelling of tissues in the extremities because of an increased quantity of lymph that results from an obstruction of lymphatic vessels. Elephantiasis refers to a condition in which chronic swelling of the extremity recedes only slightly with elevation.

A client is diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease. Review of the client's chart shows an ankle-brachial index (ABI) on the right of 0.45. This indicates that the right foot has which of the following?

Moderate to severe arterial insufficiency Normal people without arterial insufficiency have an ABI of about 1.0. Those with an ABI of 0.95 to 0.5 have mild to moderate arterial insufficiency. Those with an ABI of less than 0.50 have ischemic rest pain. Those with tissue loss have severe ischemia and an ABI of 0.25 or less.

Aortic dissection may be mistaken for which of the following disease processes?

Myocardial infarction (MI) Aortic dissection may be mistaken for an acute MI, which could confuse the clinical picture and initial treatment. Aortic dissection is not mistaken for stroke, pneumothorax, or angina.

A nurse is assessing a client's right lower leg, which is wrapped with an elastic bandage. Which signs and symptoms suggest circulatory impairment?

Numbness, cool skin temperature, and pallor Signs and symptoms of impaired circulation include numbness and cool, pale skin. Signs of localized infection may include swelling, drainage, redness, and warm skin. Signs of adequate circulation include normal sensation and warm skin with normal return of skin color after blanching.

Which risk factor is related to venous stasis for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE)?

Obesity Obesity is a risk factor for DVT and PE related to venous stasis. Trauma, pacing wires, and surgery are related to endothelial damage as a risk factor for DCAT and PE.

A patient with impaired renal function is scheduled for a multidetector computer tomography (MDCT) scan. What preprocedure medication may the nurse administer to this patient?

Oral N-acetylcysteine Patients with impaired renal function scheduled for MDCT may require preprocedural treatment to prevent contrastinduced nephropathy. This may include oral or IV hydration 12 hours preprocedure; administration of oral N-acetylcysteine, which acts as an antioxidant; and/or administration of sodium bicarbonate, which alkalinizes urine and protects against free radical damage (Rundback, Nahl, & Yoo, 2011).

While receiving heparin to treat a pulmonary embolus, a client passes bright red urine. What should the nurse do first?

Prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Frank hematuria indicates excessive anticoagulation and bleeding — and heparin overdose. The nurse should discontinue the heparin infusion immediately and prepare to administer protamine sulfate, the antidote for heparin. Decreasing the heparin infusion rate wouldn't prevent further bleeding. Although the nurse should continue to monitor PTT, this action should occur later. An I.V. infusion of D5W may be administered, but only after protamine has been given.

A physician orders blood coagulation tests to evaluate a client's blood-clotting ability. The nurse knows that such tests are important in assessing clients at risk for thrombi, such as those with a history of atrial fibrillation, infective endocarditis, prosthetic heart valves, or myocardial infarction. Which test determines a client's response to oral anticoagulant drugs?

Prothrombin time (PT) PT determines a client's response to oral anticoagulant therapy. This test measures the time required for a fibrin clot to form in a citrated plasma sample following addition of calcium ions and tissue thromboplastin and compares this time with the fibrin-clotting time in a control sample. The physician should adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed, to maintain PT at 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Bleeding time indicates how long it takes for a small puncture wound to stop bleeding. The platelet count reflects the number of circulating platelets in venous or arterial blood. PTT determines the effectiveness of heparin therapy and helps physicians evaluate bleeding tendencies. Physicians diagnose appoximately 99% of bleeding disorders on the basis of PT and PTT values.

A nurse should be prepared to manage complications following abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. Which complication is most common?

Renal failure Renal failure commonly occurs if clamping time is prolonged, cutting off the blood supply to the kidneys. Hemorrhage and shock are the most common complications before abdominal aortic aneurysm resection, and they occur if the aneurysm leaks or ruptures. Graft occlusion and enteric fistula formation are rare complications of abdominal aortic aneurysm repair.

A physician admits a client to the health care facility for treatment of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. When planning this client's care, which goal should the nurse keep in mind as she formulates interventions?

Stabilizing heart rate and blood pressure and easing anxiety For a client with an aneurysm, nursing interventions focus on preventing aneurysm rupture by stabilizing heart rate and blood pressure. Easing anxiety also is important because anxiety and increased stimulation may raise the heart rate and boost blood pressure, precipitating aneurysm rupture. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm is typically hypertensive, so the nurse should take measures to lower blood pressure, such as administering antihypertensive agents, as ordered, to prevent aneurysm rupture. To sustain major organ perfusion, the client should maintain a mean arterial pressure of at least 60 mm Hg. Although the nurse must assess each client's mobility individually, most clients need bed rest when initially attempting to gain stability.

A nurse is providing education about the prevention of arterial constriction to a client with peripheral arterial disease. Which of the following includes priority information the nurse would give to the client?

Stop smoking. Nicotine from tobacco products causes vasospasm and can thereby dramatically reduce circulation to the extremities. When the client elevates the feet above the heart level, the heart must work against gravity to supply blood to the feet. Antiembolytic stocking are helpful for venous return to the heart, but constriction is not helpful for lack of arterial blood flow. Crossing the legs for more than a few minutes at a time compresses arteries and decreases blood supply to the legs and feet.

On a routine visit to the physician, a client with chronic arterial occlusive disease reports that he's stopped smoking after 34 years. To relieve symptoms of intermittent claudication, a condition associated with chronic arterial occlusive disease, which additional measure should the nurse recommend?

Taking daily walks Taking daily walks relieves symptoms of intermittent claudication, although the exact mechanism is unclear. Anaerobic exercise may make these symptoms worse. Clients with chronic arterial occlusive disease must reduce daily fat intake to 30% or less of total calories. The client should limit dietary cholesterol because hyperlipidemia is associated with atherosclerosis, a known cause of arterial occlusive disease. However, HDLs have the lowest cholesterol concentration, so this client should eat, not abstain from, foods that raise HDL levels.

A pregnant client who developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her right leg is receiving heparin I.V. on the medical floor. Physical therapy is ordered to maintain her mobility and prevent additional DVT. A nursing assistant working on the medical unit helps the client with bathing, range-of-motion exercises, and personal care. Which collaborative multidisciplinary considerations should the care plan address?

The client is at risk for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia; therefore, the care plan should include reporting evidence of bleeding or easy bruising. Feedback about possible bleeding and bruising from physical therapy and other caregivers should be incorporated into the care plan to ensure safety and optimal outcomes. Using a sequential compression device, mandating strict bed rest, and reporting signs of DVT don't incorporate collaborative care. Reporting signs of premature labor doesn't address the consequences of thrombocytopenia, which may occur with I.V. heparin therapy.

A client with venous insufficiency develops varicose veins in both legs. Which statement about varicose veins is accurate?

The severity of discomfort isn't related to the size of varicosities. Clients with varicose veins commonly complain of aching, heaviness, itching, moderate swelling, and unsightly appearance of the legs. However, the severity of discomfort is hard to assess and seems unrelated to the size of varicosities. Varicose veins are more common in women than in men. Primary varicose veins typically result from a congenital or familial predisposition that makes the vein wall less elastic; secondary varicosities occur when trauma, obstruction, DVT, or inflammation damages valves. Sclerotherapy, in which a sclerosing agent is injected into a vein, is used to treat varicose veins; it doesn't cure them.

The most important factor regulating the caliber of blood vessels, which determines resistance to flow, is:

The sympathetic nervous system. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes vasoconstriction thus regulating blood flow. Norepinephrine is the responsible neurotransmitter.

The nurse is assessing a hospital client who has low albumin levels due to liver disease. What assessment finding should the nurse attribute to the client's low albumin levels?

There is severe edema to the client's legs and abdomen. Albumin helps to keep fluids within the vascular space. Deficiencies, as a result, cause the release of fluid into interstitial spaces, causing edema. Hypoalbuminemia does not cause excessive bleeding, reduced energy or respiratory difficulties.

Which of the following is the most common site for a dissecting aneurysm?

Thoracic area The thoracic area is the most common site for a dissecting aneurysm. About one-third of patients with thoracic aneurysms die of rupture of the aneurysm.

The nurse is caring for a patient with venous insufficiency. What should the nurse assess the patient's lower extremities for?

Ulceration Venous ulceration is the most serious complication of chronic venous insufficiency and can be associated with other conditions affecting the circulation of the lower extremities. Cellulitis or dermatitis may complicate the care of chronic venous insufficiency and venous ulcerations.

A home health nurse is seeing an elderly male client for the first time. During the physical assessment of the skin on the lower legs, the nurse notes edema, brown pigmentation in the gater area, pedal pulses, and a few irregularly shaped ulcers around the ankles. From these findings, the nurse knows that the client has a problem with peripheral circulation. Which of the following does the nurse suspect?

Venous insufficiency Symptoms of venous insufficiency include present pedal pulses, edema, pigmentation in gater area, and a reddish blue color. Ulcers caused by venous insufficiency will be irregular in shape and usually located around the ankles or the anterior tibial area. Characteristics of arterial insufficiency ulcers include location at the tips of the toes, great pain, and circular shape with a pale to black ulcer base.