Med Surg Exam 3 : Combo

A client with pelvic inflammatory disease is seen by the nurse 72 hours after starting oral antibiotics. Which finding leads the nurse to take immediate action?

Chills and a temperature of 101 F

The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease has prepared a plan of care that would include what goal?

Promoting effective communication

An older adult has encouraged her husband to visit their primary care provider, stating that she is concerned that he may have Parkinson's disease. Which of the wife's descriptions of her husband's health and function is most suggestive of Parkinson's disease?

"Lately he seems to move far more slowly than he ever has in the past."

How should routine precautions should be implemented in acute care settings when caring for people with COVID-19? For all patients at all times in all healthcare settings

- Risk assessments - Adhere to respiratory hygiene (masks) - Adhere to hand hygiene

Wwhen should airborne precautions should be used in acute care settings when caring for people with COVID-19? When preforming aerosol-generating medical procedures (AGMPs)

- Wear a respirator and face/eye protection by all heath care workers in the room where the AGMP is occurring (also be mindful of care that may cause "splash" , ie emptying a bed pan)

What contact and droplet precautions should be used in acute care settings when caring for people with COVID-19?

- Wear gloves and a long sleeved gown upon entering a patient's room or designated space - Wear facial protection (shield, googles, mask) when within 2 meters of a patient with suspected of confirmed COVID-19 infection

A nurse educator is discussing neoplasms with a group of recent graduates. The educator explains that the effects of neoplasms are caused by the compression and infiltration of normal tissue. The physiologic changes that result can cause what pathophysiologic events? (Select all that apply)

-Increased ICP -Focal neurologic signs -Altered pituitary function -Cerebral edema

A family member of a patient diagnosed with Huntington disease calls you at the clinic. She is requesting help from the Huntington's Disease Society of America. What kind of help can this patient and family receive from this organization Information about this disease? (Select all that apply)

-Information about the disease -Referrals -Public education

A patient with an inoperable brain tumor has been told that he has a short life expectancy. On what aspects of assessment and care should the home health nurse focus? (Select all that apply)

-Pain control -Management of treatment complications -Assistance with self-care -Administration of treatments

6. A diagnosis of AIDS is made when an HIV-infected patient has a. a CD4+ T cell count below 200/µL. b. a high level of HIV in the blood and saliva. c. lipodystrophy with metabolic abnormalities. d. oral hairy leukoplakia, an infection caused by Epstein-Barr virus.

6. Correct answer: a AIDS is diagnosed when an individual with HIV infection meets one of several criteria; one criterion is a CD4+ T cell count below 200 cells/L. Other criteria are listed in Table 14-

1. Emerging and reemerging infections affect health care by (select all that apply) a. reevaluating vaccine practices. b. revealing antimicrobial resistance. c. limiting antibiotics to those with life-threatening infection. d. challenging researchers to discover new antimicrobial therapies.

1. Correct answers: a, b, d An emerging infection is an infectious disease whose incidence has increased in the past 20 years or threatens to increase in the immediate future. Reemerging infections are those infections that were previously controlled but have resurfaced. The most common reason for reemerging infectious is low vaccination rates. Ways in which emerging and reemerging infectious have affected the health care system include revising vaccine recommendations for previously controlled infections (e.g., pertussis and measles); discovery of antimicrobial-resistant organisms; and creation of new antiinfective agents to combat new organisms or antimicrobial-resistant infections.

10. The patient is receiving donepezil (Aricept), lorazepam (Ativan), risperidone (Risperdal), and sertraline (Zoloft) for the management of AD. What benzodiazepine medication is being used to help manage this patient's behavior? a. Sertraline (Zoloft) b. Donepezil (Aricept) c. Lorazepam (Ativan) d. Risperidone (Risperdal)

10. c. Lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine used to manage behavior with AD. Sertraline (Zoloft) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used to treat depression. Donepzil (Aricept) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used for decreased memory and cognition. Risperidone (Risperdal) is an antipsychotic used for behavior management.

A 23-year-old female was admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotic treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease. The provider has ordered cefazolin (Ancef) to be administered every 8 hours. At what rate should the nurse infuse the medication if the pharmacy provides 1 g of the medication in 50 mL of 0.9% NaCl to infuse in 30 minutes? (Record your answer using a whole number.) mL/hr

100 mL/hr

11. Which strategy can the nurse teach the patient to eliminate the risk of HIV transmission? a. Using sterile equipment to inject drugs b. Cleaning equipment used to inject drugs c. Taking lamivudine (Epivir) during pregnancy d. Using latex or polyurethane barriers to cover genitalia during sexual contact

11. Correct answer: a Rationale: Access to sterile equipment is an important risk-elimination tactic. Some communities have needle and syringe exchange programs (NSEPs) that provide sterile equipment to users in exchange for used equipment. Cleaning equipment before use is a risk-reducing activity. It decreases the risk when equipment is shared, but it takes time, and a person in drug withdrawal may have difficulty cleaning equipment. Lamivudine alone is not appropriate for treatment in pregnancy. Barrier methods reduce but do not eliminate risk.

11. What N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist is frequently used for a patient with AD who is experiencing decreased memory and cognition? a. Trazodone (Desyrel) b. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) c. Rivastigmine (Exelon) d. Memantine (Namenda)

11. d. Memantine (Namenda) is the N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist frequently used for AD patients with decreased memory and cognition. Trazodone (Desyrel) is an atypical antidepressant that may help with sleep problems. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is an antipsychotic medication used for behavior management. Rivastigmine (Exelon) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used for decreased memory and cognition.

12. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help an HIV-infected patient adhere to a treatment regimen? a. "Set up" a drug pillbox for the patient every week. b. Give the patient a video and a brochure to view and read at home. c. Tell the patient that the side effects of the drugs are bad but that they go away after a while. d. Assess the patient's routines and find adherence cues that fit into the patient's life circumstances.

12. Correct answer: d Rationale: The best approach to improve adherence to a treatment regimen is to learn about the patient's life and assist with problem solving within the confines of that life.

12. A patient with AD in a long-term care facility is wandering the halls very agitated, asking for her "mommy" and crying. What is the best response by the nurse? a. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way?" b. Tell the patient, "Let's go get a snack in the kitchen." c. Ask the patient, "Wouldn't you like to lie down now?" d. Tell the patient, "Just take some deep breaths and calm down."

12. b. Patients with moderate to severe AD frequently become agitated but because their short-term memory loss is so pronounced, distraction is a very good way to calm them. "Why" questions are upsetting to them because they don't know the answer and they cannot respond to normal relaxation techniques.

13. The sister of a patient with AD asks the nurse whether prevention of the disease is possible. In responding, the nurse explains that there is no known way to prevent AD but there are ways to keep the brain healthy. What is included in the ways to keep the brain healthy (select all that apply)? a. Avoid trauma to the brain. b. Recognize and treat depression early. c. Avoid social gatherings to avoid infections. d. Do not overtax the brain by trying to learn new skills. e. Daily wine intake will increase circulation to the brain. f. Exercise regularly to decrease the risk for cognitive decline

13. a, b, f. Avoiding trauma to the brain, treating depression early, and exercising regularly can maintain cognitive function. Staying socially active, avoiding intake of harmful substances, and challenging the brain to keep its connections active and create new ones also help to keep the brain healthy.

14. The son of a patient with early-onset AD asks if he will get AD. What should the nurse tell this man about the genetics of AD? a. The risk of early-onset AD for the children of parents with it is about 50%. b. Women get AD more often than men do, so his chances of getting AD are slim. c. The blood test for the ApoE gene to identify this type of AD can predict who will develop it. d. This type of AD is not as complex as regular AD, so he does not need to worry about getting AD.

14. a. The risk of early-onset AD for the children of parents with it is 50%. Women do get AD more often than men but that is more likely related to women living longer than men than to the type of AD. ApoE gene testing is used for research with late-onset AD but does not predict who will develop the disease. Late-onset AD is more genetically complex than early-onset AD and is more common in those over age 60 but because his parent has early-onset AD he is at a 50% risk of getting it.

15. A patient with moderate AD has a nursing diagnosis of impaired memory related to effects of dementia. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient? a. Post clocks and calendars in the patient's environment. b. Establish and consistently follow a daily schedule with the patient. c. Monitor the patient's activities to maintain a safe patient environment. d. Stimulate thought processes by asking the patient questions about recent activities

15. b. Adhering to a regular, consistent daily schedule helps the patient to avoid confusion and anxiety and is important both during hospitalization and at home. Clocks and calendars may be useful in early AD but they have little meaning to a patient as the disease progresses. Questioning the patient about activities and events they cannot remember is threatening and may cause severe anxiety. Maintaining a safe environment for the patient is important but does not change the disturbed thought processes.

19. Delegation Decision: The RN in charge at a long-term care facility could delegate which activities to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) (select all that apply)? a. Assist the patient with eating. b. Provide personal hygiene and skin care. c. Check the environment for safety hazards. d. Assist the patient to the bathroom at regular intervals. e. Monitor for skin breakdown and swallowing difficulties.

19. a, b, d. All caregivers are responsible for the patient's safety. Basic care activities, such as those associated with personal hygiene and activities of daily living (ADLs) can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). The RN will perform ongoing assessments and develop and revise the plan of care as needed. The RN will assess the patient's safety risk factors, provide education, and make referrals. The licensed practical nurse (LPN) could check the patient's environment for potential safety hazards.

2. Which statement accurately describes dementia? a. Overproduction of β-amyloid protein causes all dementias. b. Dementia resulting from neurodegenerative causes can be prevented. c. Dementia caused by hepatic or renal encephalopathy cannot be reversed. d. Vascular dementia can be diagnosed by brain lesions identified with neuroimaging.

2. d. The diagnosis of vascular dementia can be aided by neuroimaging studies showing vascular brain lesions along with exclusion of other causes of dementia. Overproduction of β-amyloid protein contributes to Alzheimer's disease (AD). Vascular dementia can be prevented or slowed by treating underlying diseases (e.g., diabetes mellitus, cardiovascular disease). Dementia caused by hepatic or renal encephalopathy potentially can be reversed.

20. A 72-year-old woman is hospitalized in the intensive care unit (ICU) with pneumonia resulting from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She has a fever, productive cough, and adventitious breath sounds throughout her lungs. In the past 24 hours her fluid intake was 1000 mL and her urine output was 700 mL. She was diagnosed with early-stage AD 6 months ago but has been able to maintain her activities of daily living (ADLs) with supervision. Identify at least six risk factors for the development of delirium in this patient. (Fill in the blanks.) a. b. c. d. e. f.

20. a. Age; b. infection; c. hypoxemia (lung disease); d. intensive care unit (ICU) hospitalization (change in environment, sensory overload); e. preexisting dementia; f. dehydration. Also: hyperthermia and potentially medications to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia.

21. A 68-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with multiple blunt trauma following a one-vehicle car accident. He is restless; disoriented to person, place, and time; and agitated. He resists attempts at examination and calls out the name "Janice." Why should the nurse suspect delirium rather than dementia in this patient? a. The fact that he wouldn't have been allowed to drive if he had dementia b. His hyperactive behavior, which differentiates his condition from the hypoactive behavior of dementia c. The report of emergency personnel that he was noncommunicative when they arrived at the accident scene d. The report of his family that although he has heart disease and is "very hard of hearing," this behavior is unlike him

21. d. Delirium is an acute problem that usually has a rapid onset in response to a precipitating event, especially when the patient has underlying health problems, such as heart disease and sensory limitations. In the absence of prior cognitive impairment, a sudden onset of confusion, disorientation, and agitation is usually delirium. Delirium may manifest with both hypoactive and hyperactive symptoms.

23. When caring for a patient in the severe stage of AD, what diversion or distraction activities would be appropriate? a. Watching TV b. Playing games c. Books to read d. Mobiles or dangling ribbons

23. d. In the severe stage of AD, the patient is at a developmental level of 15 months or less; therefore appropriate distractions would be infant toys. Watching TV and playing games are more appropriate in the mild stage. Books to read would need to be at developmentally appropriate levels to be used as a diversion.

A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has ascending paralysis and is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. Which strategy should the nurse incorporate in the plan of care to help the client cope with this illness? 1.Giving client full control over care decisions and restricting visitors 2.Providing positive feedback and encouraging active range of motion 3.Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation 4.Providing intravenously administered sedatives, reducing distractions, and limiting visitors

3 Rationale:The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome experiences fear and anxiety from the ascending paralysis and sudden onset of the disorder. The nurse can alleviate these fears by providing accurate information about the client's condition, giving expert care and positive feedback to the client, and encouraging relaxation and distraction. The family can become involved with selected care activities and provide diversion for the client as well.

3. Transmission of HIV from an infected individual to another most commonly occurs as a result of a. unprotected anal or vaginal sexual intercourse. b. low levels of virus in the blood and high levels of CD4+ T cells. c. transmission from mother to infant during labor and delivery and breastfeeding. d. sharing of drug-using equipment, including needles, syringes, pipes, and straws.

3. Correct answer: a Unprotected sexual contact (semen, vaginal secretions, or blood) with a partner infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the most common mode of HIV transmission.

3. A patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) dementia has manifestations of depression. The nurse knows that treatment of the patient with antidepressants will most likely do what? a. Improve cognitive function b. Not alter the course of either condition c. Cause interactions with the drugs used to treat the dementia d. Be contraindicated because of the central nervous system (CNS)-depressant effect of antidepressants

3. a. Depression is often associated with AD, especially early in the disease when the patient has awareness of the diagnosis and the progression of the disease. When dementia and depression occur together, intellectual deterioration may be more extreme. Depression is treatable and use of antidepressants often improves cognitive function.

The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which past medical history finding makes the client most at risk for this disease? 1.Meningitis or encephalitis during the last 5 years 2.Seizures or trauma to the brain within the last year 3.Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord during the last 2 years 4.Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month

4 Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is a clinical syndrome of unknown origin that involves cranial and peripheral nerves. Many clients report a history of respiratory or gastrointestinal infection in the 1 to 4 weeks before the onset of neurological deficits. On occasion, the syndrome can be triggered by vaccination or surgery. Strategic Words

The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which past medical history finding makes the client most at risk for this disease? 1.Meningitis or encephalitis during the last 5 years 2.Seizures or trauma to the brain within the last year 3.Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord during the last 2 years 4.Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month

4 Rationale:Guillain-Barré syndrome is a clinical syndrome of unknown origin that involves cranial and peripheral nerves. Many clients report a history of respiratory or gastrointestinal infection 1 to 4 weeks before the onset of neurological deficits. On occasion, the syndrome can be triggered by vaccination or surgery.

The nurse is admitting a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome to the nursing unit. The client has ascending paralysis to the level of the waist. Knowing the complications of the disorder, the nurse should bring which most essential items into the client's room? 1.Nebulizer and pulse oximeter 2.Blood pressure cuff and flashlight 3.Flashlight and incentive spirometer 4.Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray

4 Rationale:The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at risk for respiratory failure because of ascending paralysis. An intubation tray should be available for use. Another complication of this syndrome is cardiac dysrhythmias, which necessitates the use of electrocardiographic monitoring. Because the client is immobilized, the nurse should assess for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism routinely. Although items in the incorrect options may be used in care, they are not the most essential items from the options provided.

The nurse is admitting a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome to the nursing unit. The client has complaints of inability to move both legs and reports a tingling sensation above the waistline. Knowing the complications of the disorder, the nurse should bring which most essential items into the client's room? 1.Nebulizer and pulse oximeter 2.Blood pressure cuff and flashlight 3.Nasal cannula and incentive spirometer 4.Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray

4 Rationale:The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at risk for respiratory failure because of ascending paralysis. An intubation tray should be available for use. Another complication of this syndrome is cardiac dysrhythmias, which necessitates the use of electrocardiographic monitoring. Because the client is immobilized, the nurse should assess for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism routinely. Although items in the incorrect options may be used in care, they are not the most essential items from the options provided.

4. During HIV infection a. reverse transcriptase helps HIV fuse with the CD4+ T cell. b. HIV RNA uses the CD4+ T cell's mitochondria to replicate. c. the immune system is impaired predominantly by the eventual widespread destruction of CD4+ T cells. d. a long period of dormancy develops during which HIV cannot be found in the blood and there is little viral replication.

4. Correct answer: c Immune dysfunction in HIV disease is caused predominantly by damage to and destruction of CD4+ T cells (i.e., T helper cells or CD4+ T lymphocytes).

4. For what purpose would the nurse use the Mini-Mental State Examination to evaluate a patient with cognitive impairment? a. It is a good tool to determine the etiology of dementia. b. It is a good tool to evaluate mood and thought processes. c. It can help to document the degree of cognitive impairment in delirium and dementia. d. It is useful for initial evaluation of mental status but additional tools are needed to evaluate changes in cognition over time.

4. c. The Mini-Mental State Examination is a tool to document the degree of cognitive impairment and it can be used to determine a baseline from which changes over time can be evaluated. It does not evaluate mood or thought processes but can detect dementia and delirium and differentiate these from psychiatric mental illness. It cannot help to determine etiology.

5. Which statements accurately describe HIV infection (select all that apply)? a. Untreated HIV infection has a predictable pattern of progression. b. Late chronic HIV infection is called acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). c. Untreated HIV infection can remain in the early chronic stage for a decade or more. d. Untreated HIV infection usually remains in the early chronic stage for 1 year or less. e. Opportunistic diseases occur more often when the CD4+ T cell count is high and the viral load is low.

5. Correct answers: a, b, c The typical course of untreated HIV infection follows a predictable pattern. However, treatment can significantly alter this pattern, and disease progression is highly individualized. Late chronic infection is another term for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The median interval between untreated HIV infection and a diagnosis of AIDS is about 11 years.

5. During assessment of a patient with dementia, the nurse determines that the condition is potentially reversible when finding out what about the patient? a. Has long-standing abuse of alcohol b. Has a history of Parkinson's disease c. Recently developed symptoms of hypothyroidism d. Was infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) 10 years ago

5. c. Hypothyroidism can cause dementia but it is a treatable condition if it has not been long standing. The other conditions are causes of irreversible dementia.

6. The husband of a patient is complaining that his wife's memory has been decreasing lately. When asked for examples of her memory loss, the husband says that she is forgetting the neighbors' names and forgot their granddaughter's birthday. What kind of loss does the nurse recognize this to be? a. Delirium b. Memory loss in AD c. Normal forgetfulness d. Memory loss in mild cognitive impairment

6. d. In mild cognitive impairment people frequently forget people's names and begin to forget important events. Delirium changes usually occur abruptly. In Alzheimer's disease the patient may not remember knowing a person and loses the sense of time and which day it is. Normal forgetfulness includes momentarily forgetting names and occasionally forgetting to run an errand.

7. Screening for HIV infection generally involves a. detecting CD8+ cytotoxic T cells in saliva. b. laboratory analysis of saliva to detect CD4+ T cells. c. analysis of lymph tissues for the presence of HIV RNA. d. laboratory analysis of blood to detect HIV antigen or antibody.

7. Correct answer: d Rationale: The most useful screening tests for HIV detect HIV-specific antibodies and/or antigen.

7. The wife of a patient who is manifesting deterioration in memory asks the nurse whether her husband has AD. The nurse explains that a diagnosis of AD is usually made when what happens? a. A urine test indicates elevated levels of isoprostanes b. All other possible causes of dementia have been eliminated c. Blood analysis reveals increased amounts of β-amyloid protein d. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain indicates brain atrophy

7. b. The only definitive diagnosis of AD can be made on examination of brain tissue during an autopsy but a clinical diagnosis is made when all other possible causes of dementia have been eliminated. Patients with AD may have β-amyloid proteins in the blood, brain atrophy, or isoprostanes in the urine but these findings are not exclusive to those with AD.

8. HIV antiretroviral drugs are used to a. cure acute HIV infection. b. decrease viral RNA levels. c. treat opportunistic diseases. d. decrease pain and symptoms in terminal disease.

8. Correct answer: b Rationale: The goals of drug therapy in HIV infection are to (1) decrease the viral load, (2) maintain or raise CD4+ T cell counts, and (3) delay onset of HIV infection-related symptoms and opportunistic diseases.

9. Opportunistic diseases in HIV infection a. are usually benign. b. are generally slow to develop and progress. c. occur in the presence of immunosuppression. d. are curable with appropriate drug interventions.

9. Correct answer: c Rationale: Management of HIV infection is complicated by the many opportunistic diseases that can develop as the immune system deteriorates (Table 14-10).

9. What is one focus of collaborative care of patients with AD? a. Replacement of deficient acetylcholine in the brain b. Drug therapy for cognitive problems and undesirable behaviors c. The use of memory-enhancing techniques to delay disease progression d. Prevention of other chronic diseases that hasten the progression of AD

9. b. Because there is no cure for AD, collaborative management is aimed at controlling the decline in cognition, controlling the undesirable manifestations that the patient may exhibit, and providing support for the family caregiver. Anticholinesterase agents help to increase acetylcholine (ACh) in the brain but a variety of other drugs are also used to control behavior. Memoryenhancing techniques have little or no effect in patients with AD, especially as the disease progresses. Patients with AD have limited ability to communicate health symptoms and problems, leading to a lack of professional attention for acute and other chronic illnesses.

2. When teaching a patient infected with HIV regarding transmission of the virus to others, which statement made by the patient would indicate a need for further teaching? A. "I will need to isolate any tissues I use so as not to infect my family." B. "I will notify all of my sexual partners so they can get tested for HIV." C. "Unprotected sexual contact is the most common mode of transmission." D. "I do not need to worry about spreading this virus to others by sweating at the gym."

A HIV is not spread casually. The virus cannot be transmitted through hugging, dry kissing, shaking hands, sharing eating utensils, using toilet seats, or attending school with an HIV-infected person. It is not transmitted through tears, saliva, urine, emesis, sputum, feces, or sweat.

17. A patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and the viral load is reported as undetectable. What patient teaching should be provided by the nurse related to this laboratory study result? A. The patient has the virus present and can transmit the infection to others. B. The patient is not able to transmit the virus to others through sexual contact. C. The patient will be prescribed lower doses of antiretroviral medications for 2 months. D. The syndrome has been cured, and the patient will be able to discontinue all medications.

A In human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections, viral loads are reported as real numbers of copies/μL or as undetectable. "Undetectable" indicates that the viral load is lower than the test is able to report. "Undetectable" does not mean that the virus has been eliminated from the body or that the individual can no longer transmit HIV to others.

4. The nurse teaches the staff ensuring that standard precautions should be used when providing care for which type of patient? A. All patients regardless of diagnosis B. Pediatric and gerontologic patients C. Patients who are immunocompromised D. Patients with a history of infectious diseases

A Standard precautions are designed for all care of all patients in hospitals and health care facilities.

11. An older adult patient is brought to the primary health care provider by an adult child reporting confusion. What testing should the nurse anticipate obtaining from this patient? A. Urinalysis B. Sputum culture C. Red blood cell count D. White blood cell count

A The developments of urinary tract infections commonly contribute to atypical manifestations such as cognitive and behavior changes in older adults. Sputum culture, red blood cell count, and white blood cell count may be done, but the first step would be to assess for a possible urinary tract infection.

8. A patient has been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. What rationale for taking more than one antiretroviral medication should the nurse give to the patient to improve compliance? A. Viral replication will be inhibited. B. They will decrease CD4+ T cell counts. C. It will prevent interaction with other drugs. D. More than one drug has a better chance of curing HIV.

A The major advantage of using several classes of antiretroviral drugs is that viral replication can be inhibited in several ways, making it more difficult for the virus to recover and decreasing the likelihood of drug resistance that is a major problem with monotherapy. Combination therapy also delays disease progression and decreases HIV symptoms and opportunistic diseases. HIV cannot be cured. CD4+ T-cell counts increase with therapy. There are dangerous interactions with many antiretroviral drugs and other commonly used drugs.

12. A patient who is infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is being taught by the nurse about health promotion activities such as good nutrition; avoiding alcohol, tobacco, drug use, and exposure to infectious agents; keeping up to date with vaccines; getting adequate rest; and stress management. What is the rationale behind these interventions that the nurse knows? A. Delaying disease progression B. Preventing disease transmission C. Helping to cure the HIV infection D. Enabling an increase in self-care activities

A These health promotion activities along with mental health counseling, support groups, and a therapeutic relationship with health care providers will promote a healthy immune system, which may delay disease progression. These measures will not cure HIV infection, prevent disease transmission, or increase self-care activities.

A 19-year-old college student seeks information from the schools nurse about how to avoid sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) without abstinence as a choice. Which statement by the nurse is best?

A vaccine can prevent genital warts caused by some strains of the human papilloma virus (HPV).

NCLEX review questions: Which statement by the wife of a patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) demonstrates an accurate understanding of her husband's medication regimen? A) "I'm really hoping his medications will slow down his mental losses." B) "We're both holding out hope that this medication will cure his disease." C) "I know that this won't cure him, but we learned that it might prevent a bodily decline while he declines mentally." D) "I learned that if we are vigilant about his medication schedule, he may not experience the physical effects of his disease."

A) "I'm really hoping his medications will slow down his mental losses." Rationale: There is presently no cure for Alzheimer's disease, and drug therapy aims at improving or controlling decline in cognition. Medications do not directly address the physical manifestations of AD.

NCLEX review questions: For which patient should the nurse prioritize an assessment for depression? A) A patient in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease B) A patient who is in the final stages of Alzheimer's disease C) A patient experiencing delirium secondary to dehydration D) A patient who has become delirious following an atypical drug response

A) A patient in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease Rationale: Patients in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease are particularly susceptible to depression, since the patient is acutely aware of his or her cognitive changes and the expected disease trajectory. Delirium is typically a shorter-term health problem that does not typically pose a heightened risk of depression.

NCLEX review questions: The patient is having some increased memory and language problems. What diagnostic tests will be done before this patient is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease (select all that apply)? A) Urinalysis B) MRI of the head C) Liver function tests D) Neuropsychologic testing E) Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine

A) Urinalysis B) MRI of the head C) Liver function tests D) Neuropsychologic testing E) Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine Rationale: Because there is no definitive diagnostic test for Alzheimer's disease, and many conditions can cause manifestations of dementia, testing must be done to eliminate any other causes of cognitive impairment. These include urinalysis to eliminate a urinary tract infection, an MRI to eliminate brain tumors, liver function tests to eliminate encephalopathy, BUN and serum creatinine to rule out renal dysfunction, and neuropsychologic testing to assess cognitive function.

18. What should the nurse teach the patients in the assisted living facility to decrease their risk for antibiotic-resistant infection (select all that apply.)? A. Wash hands frequently. B. Take antibiotics as prescribed. C. Take the antibiotic until it is gone. D. Take antibiotics to prevent illnesses like colds. E. Save leftover antibiotics to take if needed later.

A, B, C To decrease the risk for antibiotic-resistant infections, people should wash their hands frequently, follow the directions when taking the antibiotics, finish the antibiotic, do not request antibiotics for colds or flu, do not save leftover antibiotics, or take antibiotics to prevent an illness without them being prescribed by a health care provider.

The day shift nurse at the long-term care facility learns that a patient with dementia experienced sundowning late in the afternoon on the previous two days. Which action should the nurse take? a. Keep blinds open during the daytime hours. b. Provide hourly orientation to time and place. c. Have the patient take a brief mid-morning nap. d. Move the patient to a quieter room late in the afternoon.

ANS: A A likely cause of sundowning is a disruption in circadian rhythms and keeping the patient active and in daylight will help reestablish a more normal circadian pattern. Moving the patient to a different room might increase confusion. Taking a nap will interfere with nighttime sleep. Hourly orientation will not be helpful in a patient with dementia

A male patient with a metastatic brain tumor is having a generalized seizure and begins vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

Turn the patient on his side. The nurse's first response should be to place the patient on his side to prevent him from aspirating emesis

The nurse is administering a mental status examination to a 48-year-old patient who has hypertension. The nurse suspects depression when the patient responds to the nurse's questions with a. "Is that right?" b. "I don't know." c. "Wait, let me think about that." d. "Who are those people over there?"

ANS: B Answers such as "I don't know" are more typical of depression than dementia. The response "Who are those people over there?" is more typical of the distraction seen in a patient with delirium. The remaining two answers are more typical of a patient with mild to moderate dementia.

Which nursing action will be most effective in ensuring daily medication compliance for a patient with mild dementia? a. Setting the medications up monthly in a medication box b. Having the patient's family member administer the medication c. Posting reminders to take the medications in the patient's house d. Calling the patient weekly with a reminder to take the medication

ANS: B Because the patient with mild dementia will have difficulty with learning new skills and forgetfulness, the most appropriate nursing action is to have someone else administer the drug. The other nursing actions will not be as effective in ensuring that the patient takes the medications.

A 56-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment (MCI).Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Suggest a move into an assisted living facility. b. Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments. c. Ask family members to supervise the patient's daily activities. d. Discuss the preventive use of acetylcholinesterase medications.

ANS: B Ongoing monitoring is recommended for patients with MCI. MCI does not interfere with activities of daily living, acetylcholinesterase drugs are not used for MCI, and an assisted living facility is not indicated for MCI.

A patient who has severe Alzheimer's disease (AD) is being admitted to the hospital for surgery. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Encourage the patient to discuss events from the past. b. Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care. c. Reorient the patient to the date and time every 2 to 3 hours. d. Provide the patient with current newspapers and magazines.

ANS: B Providing a consistent routine will decrease anxiety and confusion for the patient. Reorientation to time and place will not be helpful to the patient with severe AD, and the patient will not be able to read. The patient with severe AD will probably not be able to remember events from the past.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with moderate dementia who had an appendectomy 2 days ago? a. Provide complete personal hygiene care for the patient. b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. c. Reposition the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown. d. Place suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration.

ANS: B The patient with moderate dementia will have problems with short- and long-term memory and will need reminding about the hospitalization. The other interventions would be used for a patient with severe dementia, who would have difficulty with swallowing, self-care, and immobility.

A patient who has severe Alzheimer's disease (AD) is being admitted to the hospital for surgery. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Encourage the patient to discuss events from the past. b. Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care. c. Reorient the patient to the date and time every 2 to 3 hours. d. Provide the patient with current newspapers and magazines.

ANS: B Providing a consistent routine will decrease anxiety and confusion for the patient.

Which nursing actions could the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) who is part of the team caring for a patient with Alzheimer's disease (select all that apply)? a. Develop a plan to minimize difficult behavior. b. Administer the prescribed memantine (Namenda). c. Remove potential safety hazards from the patient's environment. d. Refer the patient and caregivers to appropriate community resources. e. Help the patient and caregivers choose memory enhancement methods. f. Evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed enteral feedings on patient nutrition.

ANS: B, C LPN/LVN education and scope of practice includes medication administration and monitoring for environmental safety in stable patients. Planning of interventions such as ways to manage behavior or improve memory, referrals, and evaluation of the effectiveness of interventions require registered nurse (RN)-level education and scope of practice.

The spouse of a 67-year-old male patient with early stage Alzheimer's disease (AD) tells the nurse, "I am exhausted from worrying all the time. I don't know what to do." Which actions are best for the nurse to take next (select all that apply)? a. Suggest that a long-term care facility be considered. b. Offer ideas for ways to distract or redirect the patient. c. Teach the spouse about adult day care as a possible respite. d. Suggest that the spouse consult with the physician for antianxiety drugs. e. Ask the spouse what she knows and has considered about dementia care options.

ANS: B, C, E The stress of being a caregiver can be managed with a multicomponent approach. This includes respite care, learning ways to manage challenging behaviors, and further assessment of what the spouse may already have considered for care options. The patient is in the early stages and does not need long-term placement. Antianxiety medications may be appropriate, but other measures should be tried first.

Which nursing action will be most effective in ensuring daily medication compliance for a patient with mild dementia? a. Setting the medications up monthly in a medication box b. Having the patient's family member administer the medication c. Posting reminders to take the medications in the patient's house d. Calling the patient weekly with a reminder to take the medication

ANS: B-Having the patient's family member administer the medication Because the patient with mild dementia will have difficulty with learning new skills and forgetfulness, the most appropriate nursing action is to have someone else administer the drug.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with moderate dementia who had an appendectomy 2 days ago? a. Provide complete personal hygiene care for the patient. b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. c. Reposition the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown. d. Place suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration.

ANS: B-Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. The patient with moderate dementia will have problems with short- and long-term memory and will need reminding about the hospitalization. The other interventions would be used for a patient with severe dementia, who would have difficulty with swallowing, self-care, and immobility.

A 56-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic is diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment (MCI).Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Suggest a move into an assisted living facility. b. Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments. c. Ask family members to supervise the patient's daily activities. d. Discuss the preventive use of acetylcholinesterase medications.

ANS: B-Schedule the patient for more frequent appointments

When administering a mental status examination to a patient with delirium, the nurse should a. wait until the patient is well-rested. b. administer an anxiolytic medication. c. choose a place without distracting stimuli. d. reorient the patient during the examination.

ANS: C Because overstimulation by environmental factors can distract the patient from the task of answering the nurse's questions, these stimuli should be avoided. The nurse will not wait to give the examination because action to correct the delirium should occur as soon as possible. Reorienting the patient is not appropriate during the examination. Antianxiety medications may increase the patient's delirium.

When administering the Mini-Cog exam to a patient with possible Alzheimer's disease, which action will the nurse take? a. Check the patient's orientation to time and date. b. Obtain a list of the patient's prescribed medications. c. Ask the person to use a clock drawing to indicate a specific time. d. Determine the patient's ability to recognize a common object such as a pen.

ANS: C In the Mini-Cog, patients illustrate a specific time stated by the examiner by drawing the time on a clock face. The other actions may be included in assessment for Alzheimer's disease, but are not part of the Mini-Cog exam.

The nurse's initial action for a patient with moderate dementia who develops increased restlessness and agitation should be to a. reorient the patient to time, place, and person. b. administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan). c. assess for factors that might be causing discomfort. d. assign unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay in the patient's room.

ANS: C Increased motor activity in a patient with dementia is frequently the patient's only way of responding to factors like pain, so the nurse's initial action should be to assess the patient for any precipitating factors. Administration of sedative drugs may be indicated, but this should not be done until assessment for precipitating factors has been completed and any of these factors have been addressed. Reorientation is unlikely to be helpful for the patient with moderate dementia. Assigning UAP to stay with the patient may also be necessary, but any physical changes that may be causing the agitation should be addressed first.

A 68-year-old patient is diagnosed with moderate dementia after multiple strokes. During assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect to find a. excessive nighttime sleepiness. b. difficulty eating and swallowing. c. loss of recent and long-term memory. d. fluctuating ability to perform simple tasks.

ANS: C Loss of both recent and long-term memory is characteristic of moderate dementia. Patients with dementia have frequent nighttime awakening. Dementia is progressive, and the patient's ability to perform tasks would not have periods of improvement. Difficulty eating and swallowing is characteristic of severe dementia.

A 71-year-old patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) who is being admitted to a long-term care facility has had several episodes of wandering away from home. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Reorient the patient several times daily. b. Have the family bring in familiar items. c. Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. d. Ask the patient why the wandering episodes have occurred.

ANS: C Patients at risk for problems with safety require close supervision. Placing the patient near the nurse's station will allow nursing staff to observe the patient more closely. The use of "why" questions can be frustrating for patients with AD because they are unable to understand clearly or verbalize the reason for wandering behaviors. Because of the patient's short-term memory loss, reorientation will not help prevent wandering behavior. Because the patient had wandering behavior at home, familiar objects will not prevent wandering.

An African-American female with blisters on the vagina is being treated with acyclovir (Zovirax) for genital herpes. She is angry at her partner for transmitting the infection. Which action by the nurse is best?

Be sensitive to the clients feelings and refer her to a support group.

A patient is being evaluated for Alzheimer's disease (AD). The nurse explains to the patient's adult children that a. the most important risk factor for AD is a family history of the disorder. b. new drugs have been shown to reverse AD dramatically in some patients. c. a diagnosis of AD is made only after other causes of dementia are ruled out. d. the presence of brain atrophy detected by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will confirm the diagnosis of AD.

ANS: C The diagnosis of AD is usually one of exclusion. Age is the most important risk factor for development of AD

Which hospitalized patient will the nurse assign to the room closest to the nurses' station? a. Patient with Alzheimer's disease who has long-term memory deficit b. Patient with vascular dementia who takes medications for depression c. Patient with new-onset confusion, restlessness, and irritability after surgery d. Patient with dementia who has an abnormal Mini-Mental State Examination

ANS: C This patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with delirium. The patient is at risk for safety problems and should be placed near the nurses' station for ongoing observation. The other patients have chronic symptoms that are consistent with their diagnoses but are not at immediate risk for safety issues.

A 71-year-old patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) who is being admitted to a long-term care facility has had several episodes of wandering away from home. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Reorient the patient several times daily. b. Have the family bring in familiar items. c. Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. d. Ask the patient why the wandering episodes have occurred.

ANS: C-Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. Patients at risk for problems with safety require close supervision. Placing the patient near the nurse's station will allow nursing staff to observe the patient more closely

After change-of-shift report on the Alzheimer's disease/dementia unit, which patient will the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has not had a bowel movement for 5 days b. Patient who has a stage II pressure ulcer on the coccyx c. Patient who is refusing to take the prescribed medications d. Patient who developed a new cough after eating breakfast

ANS: D A new cough after a meal in a patient with dementia suggests possible aspiration and the patient should be assessed immediately. The other patients also require assessment and intervention, but not as urgently as a patient with possible aspiration or pneumonia.

A 72-year-old female patient is brought to the clinic by the patient's spouse, who reports that she is unable to solve common problems around the house. To obtain information about the patient's current mental status, which question should the nurse ask the patient? a. "Are you sad?" b. "How is your self-image?" c. "Where were you were born?" d. "What did you eat for breakfast?"

ANS: D-"What did you eat for breakfast?" This question tests the patient's short-term memory, which is decreased in the mild stage of Alzheimer's disease or dementia

The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington disease who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of malnutrition. What independent nursing action should be implemented in the patient's plan of care?

Apply deep, gentle pressure around the patient's mouth to aid swallowing and administer phenothiazines

A male client is diagnosed with primary syphilis. Which question by the nurse is a priority at this time?

Are you allergic to penicillin?

6. The patient is diagnosed with vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) infection in a surgical wound. What infection precautions should the nurse use to best prevent transmission of the infection to others? A. Droplet precautions B. Contact precautions C. Airborne precautions D. Standard precautions

B Contact precautions are used to minimize the spread of pathogens that are acquired from direct or indirect contact. Droplet precautions are used with pathogens that are spread through the air at close contact and that affect the respiratory system or mucous membranes (e.g., influenza, pertussis). Airborne precautions are used if the organism can cause infection over long distances when suspended in the air (e.g., tuberculosis, rubeola). Standard precautions are used with all patients and included in the transmission-based precautions above.

1. The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What does the nurse explain to the patient the criteria for diagnosis is based on? A. Presence of HIV antibodies B. CD4+ T cell count below 200/µL C. Presence of oral hairy leukoplakia D. White blood cell count below 5000/µL

B Diagnostic criteria for AIDS include a CD4+ T-cell count below 200/µL or the development of specified opportunistic infections, cancers, wasting syndrome, or dementia. The other options may be found in patients with HIV disease but do not define the advancement of HIV infection to AIDS.

13. The nurse is teaching a group of young adults who live in a dormitory about the prevention of antibiotic-resistant infections. What should be included in the teaching plan? A. Save leftover antibiotics for future uses. B. Hand washing can prevent many infections. C. Antibiotics are indicated for preventing most colds. D. Stop taking prescribed antibiotics when symptoms improve.

B Hand washing is the single most important action to prevent infections. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not colds and flu caused by viruses. Patients should complete the entire prescription of antibiotics to prevent the development of resistant bacteria. Antibiotics should not be taken to prevent infections unless they are given prophylactically before undergoing certain surgeries and dental work.

3. The nurse has experienced a recent increase in the incidence of hospital care-associated infections (HAIs) on the unit. Which nursing action should be prioritized in the response to this trend? A. Use of gloves during patient contact B. Frequent and thorough hand washing C. Prophylactic, broad-spectrum antibiotics D. Fitting and appropriate use of N95 masks

B Hand washing remains the mainstay of the prevention of HAIs. Gloves, masks, and antibiotics may be appropriate in specific circumstances, but none of these replaces the central role of vigilant, thorough hand washing between patients and when moving from one task to another, even with the same patient.

9. A nurse was accidently stuck with a needle used on a patient who is infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After reporting the incident, what care should this nurse first receive? A. Personal protective equipment B. Combination antiretroviral therapy C. Counseling to report blood exposures D. A negative evaluation by the manager

B Postexposure prophylaxis with combination antiretroviral therapy can significantly decrease the risk of infection. Personal protective equipment should be available, although it may not have stopped this needle stick. The needle stick has been reported. The negative evaluation may or may not be needed but would not occur first.

10. A parent does not want their child to have any extra immunizations for diseases that no longer occur. What teaching about immunization should the nurse provide this mother? A. There is currently no need for those older vaccines. B. There is a reemergence of some of the infections, such as pertussis. C. There is no longer an immunization available for some of those diseases. D. The only way to protect your child is to have the federally required vaccines.

B Teaching the parent that some of the diseases are reemerging and the damage they can do to her child gives the mother the information to make an informed decision. The immunizations still exist and do protect individuals.

NCLEX review questions: A 59-year-old female patient, who has frontotemporal lobar degeneration, has difficulty with verbal expression. One day she walks out of the house and goes to the gas station to get a soda but does not understand that she needs to pay for it. What is the best thing the nurse can suggest to this patient's husband to keep the patient safe during the day while the husband is at work? A) Assisted living B) Adult day care C) Advance directives D) Monitor for behavioral changes

B) Adult day care Rationale: To keep this patient safe during the day while the husband is at work, an adult day care facility would be the best choice. This patient would not need assisted living. Advance directives are important but are not related to her safety. Monitoring for behavioral changes will not keep her safe during the day.

NCLEX review questions: When providing community health care teaching regarding the early warning signs of Alzheimer's disease, which signs should the nurse advise family members to report (select all that apply)? A) Misplacing car keys B) Losing sense of time C) Difficulty performing familiar tasks D) Problems with performing basic calculations E) Becoming lost in a usually familiar environment

B) Losing sense of time C) Difficulty performing familiar tasks D) Problems with performing basic calculations E) Becoming lost in a usually familiar environment Rationale: Difficulty performing familiar tasks, problems with performing basic calculations, losing sense of time, and becoming lost in a usually familiar environment are all part of the early warning signs of Alzheimer's disease. Misplacing car keys is a normal frustrating event for many people.

NCLEX review questions: The patient has been diagnosed with the mild cognitive impairment stage of Alzheimer's disease. What nursing interventions should the nurse expect to use with this patient? A) Treat disruptive behavior with antipsychotic drugs. B) Use a calendar and family pictures as memory aids. C) Use a writing board to communicate with the patient. D) Use a wander guard mechanism to keep the patient in the area.

B) Use a calendar and family pictures as memory aids. Rationale: The patient with mild cognitive impairment will have problems with memory, language, or another essential cognitive function that is severe enough to be noticeable to others but does not interfere with activities of daily living. A calendar and family pictures for memory aids will help this patient. This patient should not yet have disruptive behavior or get lost easily. Using a writing board will not help this patient with communication.

20. A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with fever, swollen lymph glands, sore throat, headache, malaise, joint pain, and diarrhea. What nursing actions will help identify the need for further assessment of the cause of this patient's manifestations (select all that apply.)? A. Assessment of lung sounds B. Assessment of sexual behavior C. Assessment of living conditions D. Assessment of drug and syringe use E. Assessment of exposure to an ill person

B, D With these symptoms, assessing this patient's sexual behavior and possible exposure to shared drug equipment will identify if further assessment for the HIV virus should be made or the manifestations are from some other illness (e.g., lung sounds and living conditions may indicate further testing for TB).

A patient who was diagnosed with Parkinson's disease several months ago recently began treatment with levodopa-carbidopa. The patient and his family are excited that he has experienced significant symptom relief. The nurse should be aware of what implication of the patient's medication regimen?

Benefits of levodopa-carbidopa often diminish after 1 or 2 years of treatment. The beneficial effects of levodopa therapy are most pronounced in the first year or two of treatment. Benefits begin to wane and adverse effects become more severe over time.

5. The nurse is providing care for a patient who has been living with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) for several years. Which assessment finding most clearly indicates an acute exacerbation of the disease? A. A new onset of polycythemia B. Presence of mononucleosis-like symptoms C. A sharp decrease in the patient's CD4+ count D. A sudden increase in the patient's WBC count

C A decrease in CD4+ count signals an exacerbation of the severity of HIV. Polycythemia is not characteristic of the course of HIV. A patient's WBC count is very unlikely to suddenly increase, with decreases being typical. Mononucleosis-like symptoms such as malaise, headache, and fatigue are typical of early HIV infection and seroconversion.

16. The nurse is monitoring the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). What laboratory study result indicates the medications are effective? A. Increased viral load B. Decreased neutrophil count C. Increased CD4+ T cell count D. Decreased white blood cell count

C Antiretroviral therapy is effective if there are decreased viral loads and increased CD4+ T cell counts.

7. A pregnant woman who was tested and diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is very upset. What should the nurse teach this patient about her baby's risk of being born with HIV infection? A. "The baby will probably be infected with HIV." B. "Only an abortion will keep your baby from having HIV." C. "Treatment with antiretroviral therapy will decrease the baby's chance of HIV infection." D. "The duration and frequency of contact with the organism will determine if the baby gets HIV infection."

C On average, 25% of infants born to women with untreated HIV will be born with HIV. The risk of transmission is reduced to less than 2% if the infected pregnant woman is treated with antiretroviral therapy. Duration and frequency of contact with the HIV organism is one variable that influences whether transmission of HIV occurs. Volume, virulence, and concentration of the organism as well as host immune status are variables related to transmission via blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or breast milk.

NCLEX review questions: Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when caring for patients with dementia? Avoid direct eye contact. Lovingly call the patient "honey" or "sweetie." Give simple directions, focusing on one thing at a time. Treat the patient according to his or her age-related behavior.

C) Give simple directions, focusing on one thing at a time. Rationale: When dealing with patients with dementia, tasks should be simplified, giving directions using gestures or pictures and focusing on one thing at a time. It is best to treat these patients as adults, with respect and dignity, even when their behavior is childlike. The nurse should use gentle touch and direct eye contact. Calling the patient "honey" or "sweetie" can be condescending and does not demonstrate respect.

19. A heterosexual patient is concerned that they may contract human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from a bisexual partner. What should the nurse include when teaching about preexposure prophylaxis (select all that apply.)? A. Take fluconazole (Diflucan). B. Take amphotericin B (Fungizone). C. Use condoms for risk-reducing sexual relations. D. Take emtricitabine and tenofovir (Truvada) regularly. E. Have regular HIV testing for herself and her husband.

C, D, E Using male or female condoms, having monthly HIV testing for the patient and partner, and taking emtricitabine and tenofovir regularly have shown to decrease the infection of heterosexual women having sex with a partner who participates in high-risk behavior. Fluconazole and amphotericin B are taken for Candida albicans, Coccidioides immitis, and Cryptococcus neoformans, which are all opportunistic diseases associate with HIV infection.

The nurse responds to the call light of a patient who has had a cervical diskectomy earlier in the day. The patient states that she is having severe pain that had a sudden onset. What is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Call the surgeon to report the patient's pain. Extrusion of the graft may have occurred, requiring reoperation.

A nurse is planning discharge education for a patient who underwent a cervical diskectomy. What strategies would the nurse assess that would aid in planning discharge teaching?

Care of the cervical collar

A primary care clinic sees some clients with sexually transmitted diseases. Which clients would the nurse be required to report to the local authority in every state, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention? (Select all that apply.)

Client with Chlamydia Woman with gonorrhea Man with syphilis Client with human immune deficiency virus

9. When caring for a patient who has Guillain-Barré syndrome, which assessment data obtained by the nurse will require the most immediate action? a. The patient complains of severe tingling pain in the feet. b. The patient has continuous drooling of saliva. c. The patient's blood pressure (BP) is 106/50 mm Hg. d. The patient's quadriceps and triceps reflexes are absent.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: Drooling indicates decreased ability to swallow, which places the patient at risk for aspiration and requires rapid nursing and collaborative actions such as suctioning and possible endotracheal intubation. The foot pain should be treated with appropriate analgesics, and the BP requires ongoing monitoring, but these actions are not as urgently needed as maintenance of respiratory function. Absence of the reflexes should be documented, but this is a common finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1586-1587 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome asks the nurse what has caused the disease. In responding to the patient, the nurse explains that Guillain-Barré syndrome a. results from an acute infection and inflammation of the peripheral nerves. b. is due to an immune reaction that attacks the covering of the peripheral nerves. c. is caused by destruction of the peripheral nerves after exposure to a viral infection. d. results from degeneration of the peripheral nerve caused by viral attacks.

Correct Answer: B Rationale: Guillain-Barré syndrome is believed to result from an immunologic reaction that damages the myelin sheath of the peripheral nerves. Acute infection or inflammation of the nerves is not a cause. The peripheral nerves are not destroyed and do not degenerate. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: pp. 1585-1586 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

25. Which of these nursing actions for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to an experienced nursing assistant? a. Nasogastric tube feeding q4hr b. Artificial tear administration q2hr c. Assessment for bladder distension q2hr d. Passive range of motion to extremities q8hr

Correct Answer: D Rationale: Assisting a patient with movement is included in nursing assistant education and scope of practice. Administration of tube feedings, administration of ordered medications, and assessment are skills requiring more education and scope of practice, and the RN should perform these skills. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1586-1587 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

10. A patient who has numbness and weakness of both feet is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. The nurse will anticipate that collaborative interventions at this time will include a. intubation and mechanical ventilation. b. insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube. c. administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol). d. IV infusion of immunoglobulin (Sandoglobulin).

Correct Answer: D Rationale: Because the Guillain-Barré syndrome is in the earliest stages (as evidenced by the symptoms), use of high-dose immunoglobulin is appropriate to reduce the extent and length of symptoms. Mechanical ventilation and tube feedings may be used later in the progression of the syndrome but are not needed now. Corticosteroid use is not helpful in reducing the duration or symptoms of the syndrome. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1586 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. A 24-year-old patient is hospitalized with the onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome. During this phase of the patient's illness, the most essential assessment for the nurse to carry out is a. monitoring the cardiac rhythm continuously. b. determining the level of consciousness q2hr. c. evaluating sensation and strength of the extremities. d. performing constant evaluation of respiratory function.

Correct Answer: D Rationale: The most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure, and the nurse should monitor respiratory function continuously. The other assessments will also be included in nursing care, but they are not as important as respiratory assessment. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1586 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. A patient was exposed to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) 2 weeks ago through sharing needles with other substance users. What symptoms will the nurse teach the patient to report that would indicate the patient has developed an acute HIV infection? A. Cough, diarrhea, headaches, blurred vision, muscle fatigue B. Night sweats, fatigue, fever, and persistent generalized lymphadenopathy C. Oropharyngeal candidiasis or thrush, vaginal candidal infection, or oral or genital herpes D. Flu-like symptoms such as fever, sore throat, swollen lymph glands, nausea, or diarrhea

D Clinical manifestations of an acute infection with HIV include flu-like symptoms between 2 to 4 weeks after exposure. Early chronic HIV infection clinical manifestations are either asymptomatic or include fatigue, headache, low-grade fever, night sweats, and persistent generalized lymphadenopathy. Intermediate chronic HIV infection clinical manifestations include candidal infections, shingles, oral or genital herpes, bacterial infections, Kaposi sarcoma, or oral hairy leukoplakia. Late chronic HIV infection or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) includes opportunistic diseases (infections and cancer).

14. The nurse is providing postoperative care for a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection after an appendectomy. What type of precautions should the nurse observe to prevent the transmission of this disease? A. Droplet precautions B. Contact precautions C. Airborne precautions D. Standard precautions

D Standard precautions are indicated for prevention of transmission of HIV to the health care worker. HIV is not transmitted by casual contact or respiratory droplets. HIV may be transmitted through sexual intercourse with an infected partner; exposure to HIV-infected blood or blood products; and perinatal transmission during pregnancy, at delivery, or though breastfeeding.

A nurse is assessing a client who presents with a scaly rash over the palms and soles of the feet and the feeling of muscle aches and malaise. The nurse suspects syphilis. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Don gloves and further assess the clients lesions.

The nurse caring for a patient with Parkinson's disease notes that the patient has been taking levodopa and carbidopa for 7 years. what common side effect of Sinemet would the nurse see?

Dyskinesia. Another complication of long-term dopaminergic medication use is neuroleptic malignant syndrome seen by severe rigidity, stupor, and hyperthermia

A patient, brought to the clinic by his wife and son, is diagnosed with Huntington disease. When providing anticipatory guidance, the nurse should address the future possibility of what effect of Huntington disease?

Emotional and personality changes. Huntington disease causes profound changes to personality and behavior. It is a nonmalignant disease

A 23-year-old female has been diagnosed with genital warts. Which action by the nurse is best?

Encourage the client to have an annual Papanicolaou (Pap) test.

A 25-year-old female patient with brain metastases is considering her life expectancy after her most recent meeting with her oncologist. Based on the fact that the patient is not receiving treatment for her brain metastases, what is the nurse's most appropriate action?

Ensuring that the patient receives adequate palliative care

A nurse wants to reduce the risk potential for transmission of chlamydia and gonorrhea with a female client diagnosed with both diseases. Which items should be included in the clients teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

Expedited partner therapy Abstinence until therapy is completed Proper use of condoms Re-screening for infection

A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been recently diagnosed with a cerebellar tumor. Due to location of this patient's tumor, nurse should implement measures to prevent what complication?

Falls. A cerebellar tumor causes dizziness, an ataxic or staggering gait with a tendency to fall toward the side of the lesion, and marked muscle incoordination.

A patient has been admitted to the neurologic ICU with a diagnosis of a brain tumor. The patient is scheduled to have a tumor resection/removal in the morning. Which of the following assessment parameters should the nurse include in the initial assessment?

Gag reflex

Which risk factors would the nurse teach a 23-year-old client about to prevent pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? (Select all that apply.)

Having multiple sexual partners Using an intrauterine device (IUD) Smoking Having a history of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications?

Hematoma at the surgical site resulting in cord compression and neurologic deficit and recurrent or persistent pain after surgery.

The nurse is teaching a client who is taking an oral antibiotic for treatment of a sexually transmitted disease (STD). Which statements by the client indicate a correct understanding of the treatment? (Select all that apply.)

I need to drink at least 8 glasses of fluid each day with my antibiotic. I should read the instructions to see if I can take the medication with food. I need to wait 7 days after the last dose of the antibiotic to engage in intercourse.

A female client returned to the clinic with a yellow vaginal discharge after being treated for Chlamydia infection 3 weeks ago. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse that there may be a recurrence of the infection?

I never told my boyfriend about the infection.

The nurse teaches a client with genital herpes about effective comfort measures. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?

I really should try to limit urination due to the pain.

A patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is being visited by the home health nurse who is creating a care plan. What nursing diagnosis is most likely for a patient with this condition?

Impaired verbal communication

A patient has been admitted to the neurologic unit for the treatment of a newly diagnosed brain tumor. The patient has just exhibited seizure activity for the first time. What is the nurse's priority response to this event?

Implement precautions to ensure the patient's safety.

A patient with Parkinson's disease is experiencing episodes of constipation that are becoming increasingly frequent and severe. The patient states that he has been achieving relief for the past few weeks by using OTC laxatives. How should the nurse respond?

Let's explore other options, because laxatives can have side effects and create dependency.

The nurse is assessing a patient with an acoustic neuroma who has been recently admitted to an oncology unit. What symptoms is the nurse likely to find during the initial assessment?

Loss of hearing, tinnitus, and vertigo. An acoustic neuroma is a tumor of the eighth cranial nerve, the cranial nerve most responsible for hearing and balance.

A 37-year-old man is brought to the clinic by his wife because he is experiencing loss of motor function and sensation. The physician suspects the patient has a spinal cord tumor and hospitalizes him for diagnostic testing. In light of the need to diagnose spinal cord compression from a tumor, nurse will most likely prepare the patient for what test?

MRI

A patient with a brain tumor has begun to exhibit signs of cachexia. What subsequent assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Nutritional assessment. Cachexia is a wasting syndrome of weight loss, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness, and significant loss of appetite. Consequently, nutritional assessment is paramount.

The nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with brain metastases. The nurse decides that an appropriate nursing diagnosis is anxiety related to lack of control over the health circumstances. In planning of care for patient, the nurse should include what intervention?

Patient will be encouraged to verbalize concerns related to the disease and its treatment.

Which group of patients may benefit from receiving tocilizumab or sarilumab (Monoclonal antibodies)

Patients requiring life support due to confirmed COVID-19 diagnosis (EXAMPLE - tocilizumab @ 8 mg/kg IV OR sarilumab 400 mg IV)

A patient, diagnosed with cancer of the lung, has just been told he has metastases to the brain. What change in status would nurse attribute to patient's metastatic brain disease?

Personality changes. Neurologic signs and symptoms include headache, gait disturbances, visual impairment, personality changes, altered mentation, memory loss and confusion, focal weakness, paralysis, aphasia, and seizures.

A woman is admitted to the hospital for antibiotic therapy for pelvic inflammatory disease. She is in pain, with a rating of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. What comfort measure can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Position the client in a semi-Fowlers position.

A patient with a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is overwhelmed by his diagnosis and the known complications of the disease. How can the patient best make known his wishes for care as his disease progresses?

Prepare an advance directive.

A client being treated for syphilis visits the office with a possible allergic reaction to benzathine penicillin G. Which abnormal findings would the nurse expect to document? (Select all that apply.)

Red rash Shortness of breath Chest tightness Anxiety

A patient has just been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and the nurse is planning the patient's subsequent care for the home setting. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse address?

Risk for injury. Individuals with Parkinson's disease face a significant risk for injury related to the effects of dyskinesia.

A patient with Parkinson's disease is undergoing a swallowing assessment because she has recently developed adventitious lung sounds. The patient's nutritional needs should be met by?

Semisolid food with thick liquids

Before marriage, a female client has a blood test drawn for syphilis. The test reveals a positive Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) serum test. What is the advice that the nurse should give the client?

Submit to a more specific treponemal test to confirm the infection.

A gerontologic nurse is advocating for diagnostic testing of an 81-year-old patient who is experiencing personality changes. The nurse is aware of what factor that is known to affect the diagnosis and treatment of brain tumors in older adults?

The effects of brain tumors are often attributed to the cognitive effects of aging.

A nurse instructor is teaching a student nurse about the factors that have increased the number of people with sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) seen in practice. Which statement by the student indicates a lack of understanding?

The organisms causing STDs are all becoming more virulent.

A patient with Huntington disease has just been admitted to a long-term care facility. The charge nurse is creating a care plan for this patient. Nutritional management for a patient with Huntington disease should be informed by what principle?

The patient is likely to have an increased appetite. Due to the continuous involuntary movements, patients will have a ravenous appetite. Despite this ravenous appetite, patients usually become emaciated and exhausted.As the disease progresses, patients experience difficulty in swallowing and thin liquids should be avoided.

A patient who has been experiencing numerous episodes of unexplained headaches, vomiting has subsequently been referred for testing to rule out a brain tumor. What characteristic of the patient's vomiting is most consistent with a brain tumor?

The patient's vomiting is unrelated to food intake.

A patient diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma has arrived on the neurologic unit. When planning the patient's care, the nurse should be aware that the effects of the tumor will primarily depend on what variable?

The specific hormones secreted by the tumor

A 26-year-old client with multiple sexual partners is being assessed for symptoms of dysuria and vaginal discharge. Because the results from the culture of the cervical cells are not available, the client will be treated for both Chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which explanation by the nurse is best?

This early treatment will prevent obstruction to the fallopian tubes.

A 19-year-old female is asking the nurse about the vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV). Which statement by the nurse is accurate?

This will lower your risk for cervical cancer.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. The patient is having increasing problems with rising from the sitting to the standing position. What should the nurse suggest to the patient to use that will aid in getting from the sitting to the standing position as well as aid in improving bowel elimination?

Use of a raised toilet seat

While evaluating a male client for treatment of gonorrhea, which question is the most important for the nurse to ask?

What are the names of your recent sexual partners?

A patient with suspected Parkinson's disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor?

When the patient is resting

The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with a primary brain tumor. The patient asks the nurse where his tumor came from. What would be the nurse's best response?

Your tumor originated from cells within your brain itself. Primary brain tumors originate from cells and structures within the brain. Secondary brain tumors are metastatic tumors that originate somewhere else in the body

Which of the following are measures to protect yourself and others against coronavirus infection? (Select all that apply) a. Washing hands regularly. b. Coughing and sneezing without covering your nose or mouth. c. Avoiding direct unprotected contact with live animals. d. Covering nose and mouth when coughing or sneezing.

a c d

What manifestations of cognitive impairment are primarily characteristic of delirium (select all that apply)? a. Reduced awareness b. Impaired judgments c. Words difficult to find d. Sleep/wake cycle reversed e. Distorted thinking and perception f. Insidious onset with prolonged duration

a, d, e. Manifestations of delirium include cognitive impairment with reduced awareness, reversed sleep/wake cycle, and distorted thinking and perception. The other options are characteristic of dementia.

6. When administering a mental status examination to a patient, the nurse suspects depression when the patient responds with a. "I don't know." b. "Is that the right answer?" c. "Wait, let me think about that." d. "Who are those people over there?

a. "I don't know." Answers such as "I don't know" are more typical of depression. The response "Who are those people over there?" is more typical of the distraction seen in a patient with delirium. The remaining two answers are more typical of a patient with dementia.

11. A patient with mild dementia has a new prescription for donepezil (Aricept). Which nursing action will be most effective in ensuring compliance with the medication? a. Having the patient's spouse administer the medication b. Setting the medications up weekly in a medication box c. Calling the patient daily with a reminder to take the medication d. Posting reminders to take the medications in the patient's house

a. Having the patient's spouse administer the medication Because the patient with mild dementia will have difficulty with learning new skills and forgetfulness, the most appropriate nursing action is to have someone else administer the drug. The other nursing actions will not be as effective in ensuring that the patient takes the medications.

13. When assessing a patient with Alzheimer's disease (AD) who is being admitted to a long-term care facility, the nurse learns that the patient has had several episodes of wandering away from home. Which nursing action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. b. Ask the patient why the wandering episodes have occurred. c. Have the family bring in familiar items from the patient's home. d. Reorient the patient to the new living situation several times daily.

a. Place the patient in a room close to the nurses' station. Patients at risk for problems with safety require close supervision. Placing the patient near the nurse's station will allow nursing staff to observe the patient more closely. The use of "why" questions is frustrating for patients with AD because they are unable to understand clearly or verbalize the reason for wandering behaviors. Because of the patient's short-term memory loss, reorientation will not help prevent wandering behavior. Because the patient had wandering behavior at home, familiar objects will not prevent wandering.

The family caregiver for a patient with AD expresses an inability to make decisions, concentrate, or sleep. The nurse determines what about the caregiver? a. The caregiver is also developing signs of AD. b. The caregiver is manifesting symptoms of caregiver role strain. c. The caregiver needs a period of respite from care of the patient. d. The caregiver should ask other family members to participate in the patient's care.

b. Family caregiver role strain is characterized by such symptoms of stress as the inability to sleep, make decisions, or concentrate. It is frequently seen in family members who are responsible for the care of the patient with AD. Assessment of the caregiver may reveal a need for assistance to increase coping skills, effectively use community resources, or maintain social relationships. Eventually the demands on a caregiver exceed the resources and the person with AD may be placed in an institutional setting.

12. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has late-stage Alzheimer's disease (AD)? a. Encourage the patient to discuss events from the past. b. Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care. c. Reorient the patient to the date and time every 2 to 3 hours. d. Provide the patient with current newspapers and magazines.

b. Maintain a consistent daily routine for the patient's care. Providing a consistent routine will decrease anxiety and confusion for the patient. In late-stage AD, the patient will not remember events from the past. Reorientation to time and place will not be helpful to the patient with late-stage AD, and the patient will not be able to read.

1. The spouse of a male patient with early stage Alzheimer's disease (AD) tells the nurse, "I am just exhausted from the constant worry. I don't know what to do." Which action is best for the nurse to take next (select all that apply)? a. Suggest that a long-term care facility be considered. b. Offer ideas for ways to distract or redirect the patient. c. Suggest that the spouse consult with the physician for antianxiety drugs. d. Educate the spouse about the availability of adult day care as a respite. e. Ask the spouse what she knows and has considered about dementia care options.

b. Offer ideas for ways to distract or redirect the patient. d. Educate the spouse about the availability of adult day care as a respite. e. Ask the spouse what she knows and has considered about dementia care options. The stress of being a caregiver can be managed with a multicomponent approach. This includes respite care, learning ways to manage challenging behaviors, and further assessment of what the spouse may already have considered. The patient is in the early stages and does not need long-term placement. Antianxiety medications may be appropriate but other measures should be tried first.

2. When developing a plan of care for a hospitalized patient with moderate dementia, which intervention will the nurse include? a. Provide complete personal hygiene care for the patient. b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. c. Reposition the patient frequently to avoid skin breakdown. d. Place suction at the bedside to decrease the risk for aspiration.

b. Remind the patient frequently about being in the hospital. The patient with moderate dementia will have problems with short- and long-term memory and will need reminding about the hospitalization. The other interventions would be used for a patient with severe dementia, who would have difficulty with swallowing, self-care, and immobility.

From the evidence that is currently available, how long do contacts of a confirmed case (Covid) need to be monitored if they have no symptoms? a. 7 days b. 28 days c. 14 days d. 3 weeks

c

Which of the following is an example of active case finding (covid tracking) ? a. Collecting demographic information of all confirmed cases to identify risk factors. b. Creating an epidemic curve to track the progress of the outbreak. c. Actively searching for cases in healthcare facilities where infected patients were cared for. d. Reviewing clinical characteristics of confirmed cases.

c

A nurse in an acute care facility is preparing to admit a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following supplies should the nurse place at the client's bedside? a) metered dose inhaler b) continuous passive motion machine c) oral nasal suction equipment d) external defibrillator pads

c) oral nasal suction equipment A client who has myasthenia gravis is at risk of aspiration due to progressive weakness of the oropharyngeal muscles. Gravis causes weakness due to an autoimmune disease that affects the acetylcholine receptors. Metered dose inhaler for asthma. continuous passive motion machine for post op of joint surgery, external defibrillator for cardiac dysrhythmia

9. A 62-year-old patient is brought to the clinic by a family member who is concerned about the patient's inability to solve common problems. To obtain information about the patient's current mental status, which question should the nurse ask the patient? a. "Where were you were born?" b. "Do you have any feelings of sadness?" c. "What did you have for breakfast?" d. "How positive is your self-image?"

c. "What did you have for breakfast?" This question tests the patient's recent memory, which is decreased early in Alzheimer's disease (AD) or dementia. Asking the patient about birthplace tests for remote memory, which is intact in the early stages. Questions about the patient's emotions and self-image are helpful in assessing emotional status, but they are not as helpful in assessing mental state.

The newly admitted patient has moderate AD. What does the nurse know this patient will need help with? a. Eating b. Walking c. Dressing d. Self-care activities

c. In the moderate stage of AD, the patient may need help with getting dressed. In the severe stage, patients will be unable to dress or feed themselves and are usually incontinent.

14. During the morning change-of-shift report at the long-term care facility, the nurse learns that the patient with dementia has had sundowning. Which nursing action should the nurse take while caring for the patient? a. Provide hourly orientation to time of day. b. Move the patient to a quieter room at night. c. Keep blinds open during the daytime hours. d. Have the patient take a brief mid-morning nap.

c. Keep blinds open during the daytime hours. The most likely cause of sundowning is a disruption in circadian rhythms and keeping the patient active and in daylight will help to reestablish a more normal circadian pattern. Moving the patient to a different room might increase confusion. Taking a nap will interfere with nighttime sleep. Hourly orientation will not be helpful in a patient with memory difficulties.

10. When teaching the children of a patient who is being evaluated for Alzheimer's disease (AD) about the disorder, the nurse explains that a. the most important risk factor for AD is a family history of the disorder. b. new drugs have been shown to reverse AD dramatically in some patients. c. a diagnosis of AD can be made only when other causes of dementia have been ruled out. d. the presence of brain atrophy detected by MRI confirms the diagnosis of AD in patients with dementia.

c. a diagnosis of AD can be made only when other causes of dementia have been ruled out. The diagnosis of AD is one of exclusion. Age is the most important risk factor for development of AD. Drugs can slow the deterioration but do not dramatically reverse the effects of AD. Brain atrophy is a common finding in AD, but it can occur in other diseases as well and does not confirm an AD diagnosis.

15. A long-term care patient with moderate dementia develops increased restlessness and agitation. The nurse's initial action should be to a. reorient the patient to time, place, and person. b. administer the PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan). c. assess for factors that might be causing discomfort. d. have a nursing assistant stay with the patient to ensure safety.

c. assess for factors that might be causing discomfort. Increased motor activity in a patient with dementia is frequently the patient's only way of responding to factors like pain, so the nurse's initial action should be to assess the patient for any precipitating factors. Administration of sedative drugs may be indicated, but this should not be done until assessment for precipitating factors has been completed and any of these factors have been addressed. Reorientation is unlikely to be helpful for the patient with moderate dementia. Assigning a nursing assistant to stay with the patient also may be necessary, but any physical changes that may be causing the agitation should be addressed first.

8. To determine whether a new patient's confusion is caused by dementia or delirium, which action should the nurse take? a. Assess the patient using the Mini-Mental Status Exam. b. Obtain a list of the medications that the patient usually takes. c. Determine whether there is positive family history of dementia. d. Use the Confusion Assessment Method tool to assess the patient.

d. Use the Confusion Assessment Method tool to assess the patient. The Confusion Assessment Method tool has been extensively tested in assessing delirium. The other actions will be helpful in determining cognitive function or risk factors for dementia or delirium, but they will not be useful in differentiating between dementia and delirium.

7. A 72-year-old patient is diagnosed with moderate dementia as a result of multiple strokes. During assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect to find a. excessive nighttime sleepiness. b. difficulty eating and swallowing. c. variable ability to perform simple tasks. d. loss of both recent and long-term memory.

d. loss of both recent and long-term memory. Loss of both recent and long-term memory is characteristic of moderate dementia. Patients with dementia have frequent nighttime awakening. Dementia is progressive, and the patient's ability to perform tasks would not have periods of improvement. Difficulty eating and swallowing is characteristic of severe dementia.