Med Surge 1 Nclex questions exam 1B

612. The client has developed atrial fibrillation, with a ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. The nurse should assess the client for which associated signs and/or symptoms? Select all that apply. 1. Syncope 2. Dizziness 3. Palpitations 4. Hypertension 5. Flat neck veins

1, 2, 3

738. Which cast care instructions should the nurse provide to a client who just had a plaster cast applied to the right forearm? Select all that apply. 1. Keep the cast clean and dry. 2. Allow the cast 24 to 72 hours to dry. 3. Keep the cast and extremity elevated. 4. Expect tingling and numbness in the extremity. 5. Use a hair dryer set on a warm to hot setting to dry the cast. 6. Use a soft, padded object that will fit under the cast to scratch the skin under the cast

1, 2, 3

761. In monitoring a client's response to disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which assessment findings would the nurse consider acceptable responses? Select all that apply. 1. Control of symptoms during periods of emotional stress 2. Normal white blood cell, platelet, and neutrophil counts 3. Radiological findings that show no progression of joint degeneration 4. An increased range of motion in the affected joints 3 months into therapy 5. Inflammation and irritation at the injection site 3 days after the injection is given 6. A low-grade temperature on rising in the morning that remains throughout the day

1, 2, 3, 4,

745. The nurse has given the client instructions about crutch safety. Which statements indicate that the client understands the instructions? Select all that apply. 1. "I should not use someone else's crutches." 2. "I need to remove any scatter rugs at home." 3. "I can use crutch tips even when they are wet." 4. "I need to have spare crutches and tips available." 5. "When I'm using the crutches, my arms need to be completely straight."

1, 2, 4

632. The nurse is monitoring a client for adverse effects of medications. Which findings are characteristic of adverse effects of hydrochlorothiazide? Select all that apply. 1. Sulfa allergy 2. Osteoporosis 3. Hypokalemia 4. Hypouricemia 5. Hyperglycemia 6. Hypercalcemia

1, 3, 5, 6

638. A client receiving thrombolytic therapy with a continuous infusion of alteplase suddenly becomes extremely anxious and reports itching. The nurse hears stridor and notes generalized urticaria and hypotension. Which interventions should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. 1. Stop the infusion. 2. Raise the head of the bed. 3. Administer protamine sulfate. 4. Administer diphenhydramine. 5. Call for the Rapid Response Team (RRT).

1, 4, 5

603. The nurse in a medical unit is caring for a client with heart failure. The client suddenly develops extreme dyspnea, tachycardia, and lung crackles. The nurse immediately asks another nurse to contact the primary health care provider and prepares to implement which priority interventions? Select all that apply. 1. Administering oxygen 2. Inserting a Foley catheter 3. Administering furosemide 4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously 5. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit 6. Placing the client in a low-Fowler's side-lying position

1. Administering oxygen 2. Inserting a Foley catheter 3. Administering furosemide 4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously

616. The nurse should evaluate that defibrillation of a client was most successful if which observation was made? 1. Arousable, sinus rhythm, blood pressure (BP) 116/72 mm Hg 2. Nonarousable, sinus rhythm, BP 88/60 mm Hg 3. Arousable, marked bradycardia, BP 86/54 mm Hg 4. Nonarousable, supraventricular tachycardia, BP 122/60 mm Hg

1. arousable, sinus rhythm, blood pressure 116/72 mm Hg

613. The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client's rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves; instead, there are fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex. How should the nurse interpret the client's heart rhythm? 1. Atrial fibrillation 2. Sinus tachycardia 3. Ventricular fibrillation 4. Ventricular tachycardia

1. atrial fibrillation

746. The nurse is caring for a client being treated for fat embolus after multiple fractures. Which data would the nurse evaluate as the most favorable indication of resolution of the fat embolus? 1. Clear mentation 2. Minimal dyspnea 3. Oxygen saturation of 85% 4. Arterial oxygen level of 78 mm Hg

1. clear mentation

755. Allopurinol is prescribed for a client and the nurse provides medication instructions to the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Drink 3000 mL of fluid a day. 2. Take the medication on an empty stomach. 3. The effect of the medication will occur immediately. 4. Any swelling of the lips is a normal expected response.

1. drink 3000ml of fluid a day

760. Cyclobenzaprine is prescribed for a client for muscle spasms, and the nurse is reviewing the client's record. Which disorder, if noted in the record, would indicate a need to contact the primary health care provider about the administration of this medication? 1. Glaucoma 2. Emphysema 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

1. glaucoma

743. A client is being discharged to home after application of a plaster leg cast. Which statement indicates that the client understands proper care of the cast? 1. "I need to avoid getting the cast wet." 2. "I need to cover the casted leg with warm blankets." 3. "I need to use my fingertips to lift and move my leg." 4. "I need to use something like a padded coat hanger end to scratch under the cast if it itches."

1. i need to avoid getting the cast wet

610. A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. What should the nurse be most concerned about with this dysrhythmia? 1. It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time. 2. It is almost impossible to convert to a normal rhythm. 3. It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom. 4. It produces a high cardiac output with cerebral and myocardial ischemia.

1. it can develop into ventricular fibrillation at anytime

619. A client's electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 110 beats per minute. The PR interval is 0.14 seconds, the QRS complex measures 0.08 seconds, and the PP and RR intervals are regular. How should the nurse interpret this rhythm? 1. Sinus tachycardia 2. Sinus bradycardia 3. Sinus dysrhythmia 4. Normal sinus rhythm

1. sinus tachycardia

751. The nurse is caring for a client who has had spinal fusion, with insertion of hardware. The nurse would be most concerned with which assessment finding? 1. Temperature of 101.6° F (38.7° C) orally 2. Complaints of discomfort during repositioning 3. Old bloody drainage outlined on the surgical dressing 4. Discomfort during coughing and deep-breathing exercises

1. temperature of 101.6F orally

620. The nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who returned to the surgical nursing unit 4 hours ago after undergoing aortoiliac bypass graft. The affected leg is warm, and the nurse notes redness and edema. The pedal pulse is palpable. How should the nurse interpret the client's neurovascular status? 1. The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg. 2. The neurovascular status is moderately impaired, and the surgeon should be called. 3. The neurovascular status is slightly deteriorating and should be monitored for another hour. 4. The neurovascular status shows adequate arterial flow, but venous complications are arising.

1. the neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the led

608. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Call a code. 2. Check the client's status. 3. Call the health care provider. 4. Document the lack of complexes.

2. Check the client's status.

630. A client with valvular heart disease who has a clot in the right atrium is receiving a heparin sodium infusion at 1000 units/hr and warfarin sodium 7.5 mg at 5:00 p.m. daily. The morning laboratory results are as follows: activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), 32 seconds; international normalized ratio (INR), 1.3. The nurse should take which action based on the client's laboratory results? 1. Collaborate with the primary health care provider (PHCP) to discontinue the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed. 2. Collaborate with the PHCP to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and continue the warfarin sodium as prescribed. 3. Collaborate with the PHCP to withhold the warfarin sodium since the client is receiving a heparin infusion and the aPTT is within the therapeutic range. 4. Collaborate with the PHCP to continue the heparin infusion at the same rate and to discuss use of dabigatran etexilate in place of warfarin sodium.

2. Collaborate with the PHCP to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and continue the warfarin sodium as prescribed.

605. A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. What condition should the nurse carefully assess the client for? 1. Pulsus paradoxus 2. Ventricular dysrhythmias 3. Rising diastolic blood pressure 4. Falling central venous pressure

2. Ventricular dysrhythmias

618. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. The nurse should assess which item based on priority? 1. Anxiety level of the client and family 2. Activation status and settings of the device 3. Presence of a MedicAlert card for the client to carry 4. Knowledge of restrictions on postdischarge physical activity

2. activation status and setting of the device

758. The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client who sustained a skeletal muscle injury and is receiving baclofen. Which instruction should be included in the teaching plan? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Avoid the use of alcohol. 3. Stop the medication if diarrhea occurs. 4. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP) if fatigue occurs.

2. avoid the use of alcohol

604. A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which finding would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds? 1. Stridor 2. Crackles 3. Scattered rhonchi 4. Diminished breath sounds

2. crackles

629. The nurse is monitoring a client with hypertension who is taking propranolol. Which assessment finding indicates a potential adverse complication associated with this medication? 1. Report of infrequent insomnia 2. Development of expiratory wheezes 3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after 2 doses of the medication 4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats per minute followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats per minute after 2 doses of the medication

2. development of expiratory wheezes

744. A client being measured for crutches asks the nurse why the crutches cannot rest up underneath the arm for extra support. The nurse responds knowing that which would most likely result from this improper crutch measurement? 1. A fall and further injury 2. Injury to the brachial plexus nerves 3. Skin breakdown in the area of the axilla 4. Impaired range of motion while the client ambulates

2. injury to the brachial plexus nerves

756. Colchicine is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of gout. The nurse reviews the client's record, knowing that this medication would be used with caution in which disorder? 1. Myxedema 2. Kidney disease 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

2. kidney disease

A client with a history of type 2 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with chest pain. The client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which medication would need to be withheld for 24 hours before the procedure and for 48 hours after the procedure? 1. Glipizide 2. Metformin 3. Repaglinide 4. Regular insulin

2. metformin

747. The nurse has conducted teaching with a client in an arm cast about the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome. The nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client states that he or she should report which early symptom of compartment syndrome? 1. Cold, bluish-colored fingers 2. Numbness and tingling in the fingers 3. Pain that increases when the arm is dependent 4. Pain that is out of proportion to the severity of the fracture

2. numbness and tingling in the fingers

637. Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client with atrial fibrillation. While implementing this prescription, the nurse ensures that which medication is available on the nursing unit? 1. Vitamin K 2. Protamine sulfate 3. Potassium chloride 4. Aminocaproic acid

2. protamine sulfate

754. A client has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept, which is most important for the nurse to assess? 1. The injection site for itching and edema 2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts 3. Whether the client is experiencing fatigue and joint pain 4. Whether the client is experiencing a metallic taste in the mouth and a loss of appetite

2. the wbc counts and platelet counts

752. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gout. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to note in the client? 1. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) 2. Uric acid level of 9.0 mg/dL (540 mcmol/L) 3. Potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L (4.1 mmol/L) 4. Phosphorus level of 3.1 mg/dL (1.0 mmol/L)

2. uric acid level of 9.0 mg/dL

636. The nurse administered intravenous bumetanide to a client being treated for heart failure. Which outcome indicates that the medication has achieved the expected effect? 1. Cough becomes productive of frothy pink sputum. 2. Urine output increases from 10 mL/hr to greater than 50 mL hourly. 3. The serum potassium level changes from 3.8 to 3.1 mEq/L (3.8 to 3.1 mmol/L). 4. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) factor increases from 200 to 262 ng/mL (200 to 262 mcg/L).

2. urine output increases from 10 mL/hr to greater than 50 mL hourly

623. A client with variant angina is scheduled to receive an oral calcium channel blocker twice daily. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I should notify my cardiologist if my feet or legs start to swell." 2. "I am supposed to report to my cardiologist if my pulse rate decreases below 60." 3. "Avoiding grapefruit juice will definitely be a challenge for me, since I usually drink it every morning with breakfast." 4. "My spouse told me that since I have developed this problem, we are going to stop walking in the mall every morning."

3.

625. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving a continuous heparin infusion at 1000 units/hr. The nurse determines that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect based on which results? 1. Prothrombin time of 12.5 seconds 2. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 28 seconds 3. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds 4. Activated partial thromboplastin time longer than 120 seconds

3.

628. A client is being treated with procainamide for a cardiac dysrhythmia. Following intravenous administration of the medication, the client complains of dizziness. What intervention should the nurse take first? 1. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram. 2. Check the client's fingerstick blood glucose level. 3. Auscultate the client's apical pulse and blood pressure. 4. Measure the QRS interval duration on the rhythm strip.

3.

611. A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should place priority on assessment of which item? 1. Causative factors, such as caffeine 2. Sensation of fluttering or palpitations 3. Blood pressure and oxygen saturation 4. Precipitating factors, such as infection

3. BP and O2

750. A client is complaining of low back pain that radiates down the left posterior thigh. The nurse should ask the client if the pain is worsened or aggravated by which factor? 1. Bed rest 2. Ibuprofen 3. Bending or lifting 4. Application of heat

3. bending or lifting

639. The nurse should report which assessment finding to the primary health care provider (PHCP) before initiating thrombolytic therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism? 1. Adventitious breath sounds 2. Temperature of 99.4° F (37.4° C) orally 3. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg 4. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute

3. blood pressure of 198/110

762. The nurse is administering an intravenous dose of methocarbamol to a client with a muscle skeletal injury. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? 1. Tachycardia 2. Rapid pulse 3. Bradycardia 4. Hypertension

3. bradycardia

741. A client has sustained a closed fracture and has just had a cast applied to the affected arm. The client is complaining of intense pain. The nurse elevates the limb, applies an ice bag, and administers an analgesic, with little relief. Which problem may be causing this pain? 1. Infection under the cast 2. The anxiety of the client 3. Impaired tissue perfusion 4. The recent occurrence of the fracture

3. impaired tissue perfusion

759. The nurse is analyzing the laboratory studies on a client receiving dantrolene to treat muscle spasms from an injury. Which laboratory test would identify an adverse effect associated with the administration of this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Creatinine level 3. Liver function tests 4. Blood urea nitrogen level

3. liver function tests

607. The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 seconds, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 seconds. The overall heart rate is 64 beats per minute. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Check vital signs. 2. Check laboratory test results. 3. Monitor for any rhythm change. 4. Notify the primary health care provider.

3. monitor for any rhythm change

631. A client is diagnosed with an ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and is receiving a tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase. Which action is a priority nursing intervention? 1. Monitor for kidney failure. 2. Monitor psychosocial status. 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. 4. Have heparin sodium available.

3. monitor for signs of bleeding

740. The nurse is assessing the casted extremity of a client. Which sign is indicative of infection? 1. Dependent edema 2. Diminished distal pulse 3. Presence of a "hot spot" on the cast 4. Coolness and pallor of the extremity

3. presence of a hot spot on the cast

749. The nurse is caring for a client who had an above-knee amputation 2 days ago. The residual limb was wrapped with an elastic compression bandage, which has come off. Which immediate action should the nurse take? 1. Apply ice to the site. 2. Call the primary health care provider (PHCP). 3. Rewrap the residual limb with an elastic compression bandage. 4. Apply a dry, sterile dressing and elevate the residual limb on 1 pillow.

3. rewrap the residual limb with an elastic compression bandage

621. The nurse is evaluating the condition of a client after pericardiocentesis performed to treat cardiac tamponade. Which observation would indicate that the procedure was effective? 1. Muffled heart sounds 2. Client reports dyspnea 3. A rise in blood pressure 4. Jugular venous distention

3. rise in blood pressure

739. The nurse is evaluating a client in skeletal traction. When evaluating the pin sites, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding? 1. Redness around the pin sites 2. Pain on palpation at the pin sites 3. thick, yellow drainage from pin sites 4. clear, watery drainage from the pin sites

3. thick, yellow drainage from pin sites

624. The nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. The client's rhythm suddenly changes to one with no P waves, no definable QRS complexes, and coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. How should the nurse interpret this rhythm? 1. Asystole 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Ventricular fibrillation 4. Ventricular tachycardia

3. ventricular fibrillation

609. The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that a client's rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but more than 140 beats per minute. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which dysrhythmia? 1. Sinus tachycardia 2. Ventricular fibrillation 3. Ventricular tachycardia 4. Premature ventricular contractions

3. ventricular tachycardia

627. A client who is receiving digoxin daily has a serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L (3 mmol/L) and reports anorexia. The health care provider prescribes a serum digoxin level to be done. The nurse checks the results and should recognize which level that is outside of the therapeutic range? 1. 0.5 ng/mL (0.63 nmol/L) 2. 0.8 ng/mL (1.02 nmol/L) 3. 0.9 ng/mL (1.14 nmol/L) 4. 2.2 ng/mL (2.8 nmol/L)

4. 2.2 ng/mL

615. A client in ventricular fibrillation is about to be defibrillated. To convert this rhythm effectively, the monophasic defibrillator machine should be set at which energy level (in joules, J) for the first delivery? 1. 50 J 2. 120 J 3. 200 J 4. 360 J

4. 360 J

626. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client with atrial fibrillation who is taking warfarin sodium. Which statement, by the client, reflects the need for further teaching? 1. "I will avoid alcohol consumption." 2. "I will take my pills every day at the same time." 3. "I have already called my family to pick up a MedicAlert bracelet." 4. "I will take coated aspirin for my headaches because it will coat my stomach."

4. I will take coated aspirin for my headaches because it will coat my stomach

633. The home health care nurse is visiting a client with coronary artery disease with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL (10 mmol/L). The client is taking cholestyramine, and the nurse teaches the client about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "Constipation and bloating might be a problem." 2. "I'll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats." 3. "Walking a mile each day will help the whole process." 4. "I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store."

4. I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store

602. A client in sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 beats per minute and blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg, reports dizziness. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? 1. Administer digoxin. 2. Defibrillate the client. 3. Continue to monitor the client. 4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.

4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing

735. The nurse is conducting health screening for osteoporosis. Which client is at greatest risk of developing this problem? 1. A 25-year-old woman who runs 2. A 36-year-old man who has asthma 3. A 70-year-old man who consumes excess alcohol 4. A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes

4. a sedentary 65 yr old who smokes cigarette

622. The nurse is caring for a client who had a resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm yesterday. The client has an intravenous (IV) infusion at a rate of 150 mL/hr, unchanged for the last 10 hours. The client's urine output for the last 3 hours has been 90, 50, and 28 mL (28 mL is most recent). The client's blood urea nitrogen level is 35 mg/dL (12.6 mmol/L), and the serum creatinine level is 1.8 mg/dL (159 mcmol/L), measured this morning. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Check the serum albumin level. 2. Check the urine specific gravity. 3. Continue monitoring urine output. 4. Call the primary health care provider (PHCP).

4. call the primary health care provider

614. The nurse is assisting to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation. After placing the pads on the client's chest and before discharging the device, which intervention is a priority? 1. Ensure that the client has been intubated. 2. Set the defibrillator to the "synchronize" mode. 3. Administer an amiodarone bolus intravenously. 4. Confirm that the rhythm is ventricular fibrillation.

4. confirm that the rhythm is ventricular fibrilation

742. The nurse is admitting a client with multiple trauma injuries to the nursing unit. The client has a leg fracture and had a plaster cast applied. Which position would be best for the casted leg? 1. Elevated for 3 hours, then flat for 1 hour 2. Flat for 3 hours, then elevated for 1 hour 3. Flat for 12 hours, then elevated for 12 hours 4. Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours

4. elevated on pillow continuously for 24-48 hours

736. The nurse has given instructions to a client returning home after knee arthroscopy. Which statement by the client indicates that the instructions are understood? 1. "I can resume regular exercise tomorrow." 2. "I can't eat food for the remainder of the day." 3. "I need to stay off the leg entirely for the rest of the day." 4. "I need to report a fever or swelling to my health care provider."

4. i need to report a fever or swelling to my health care provider

640. The nurse provides instructions to the client about nicotinic acid prescribed for hyperlipidemia. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the instructions? 1. "The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing." 2. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol when taking nicotinic acid." 3. "Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern." 4. "Ibuprofen taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid may decrease the flushing."

4. ibuprofen taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid may decrease the flushing

753. A client with a hip fracture asks the nurse about Buck's (extension) traction that is being applied before surgery and what is involved. The nurse should provide which information to the client? 1. Allows bony healing to begin before surgery and involves pins and screws 2. Provides rigid immobilization of the fracture site and involves pulleys and wheels 3. Lengthens the fractured leg to prevent severing of blood vessels and involves pins and screws 4. Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms, provides fracture immobilization, and involves pulleys and wheels

4. provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms, provide fracture immobilization and involes pulley and wheels

635. Prior to administering a client's daily dose of digoxin to treat heart failure, the nurse reviews the client's laboratory data and notes the following results: serum calcium, 9.8 mg/dL (2.45 mmol/L); serum magnesium, 1.0 mEq/L (0.4 mmol/L); serum potassium, 4.1 mEq/L (4.1 mmol/L); serum creatinine, 0.9 mg/dL (79.5 mcmol/L). Which result should alert the nurse that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity? 1. Serum calcium level 2. Serum potassium level 3. Serum creatinine level 4. Serum magnesium level

4. serum magnesium level

737. The nurse witnessed a vehicle hit a pedestrian. The victim is dazed and tries to get up. A leg appears fractured. Which intervention should the nurse take? 1. Try to reduce the fracture manually. 2. Assist the victim to get up and walk to the sidewalk. 3. Leave the victim for a few moments to call an ambulance. 4. Stay with the victim and encourage him or her to remain still.

4. stay with the victim and encourage him or her to remain still

757. Alendronate is prescribed for a client with osteoporosis, and the nurse is providing instructions on administration of the medication. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Take the medication at bedtime. 2. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast. 3. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication. 4. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.

4. take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning

606. A client who had cardiac surgery 24 hours ago has had a urine output averaging 20 mL/hr for 2 hours. The client received a single bolus of 500 mL of intravenous fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25 mL. Daily laboratory results indicate that the blood urea nitrogen level is 45 mg/dL (16 mmol/L) and the serum creatinine level is 2.2 mg/dL (194 mcmol/L). On the basis of these findings, the nurse would anticipate that the client is at risk for which problem? 1. Hypovolemia 2. Acute kidney injury 3. Glomerulonephritis 4. Urinary tract infection

a. acute kidney injury

617. The nurse is evaluating a client's response to cardioversion. Which assessment would be the priority? 1. Blood pressure 2. Airway patency 3. Oxygen flow rate 4. Level of consciousness

a. airway patency

748. A client with diabetes mellitus has had a right below-knee amputation. Given the client's history of diabetes mellitus, which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery? 1. Hemorrhage 2. Edema of the residual limb 3. Slight redness of the incision 4. Separation of the wound edges

separation of the wound edges