MI final practice questions

A eukaryotic gene has "sticky ends" produced by the restriction endonuclease EcoRI. The gene is added to a mixture containing EcoRI and a bacterial plasmid that carries two genes conferring resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline. The plasmid has one recognition site for EcoRI located in the tetracycline resistance gene. This mixture is incubated for several hours, exposed, to DNA ligase, and then added to bacteria growing in nutrient broth. The bacteria are allowed to grow overnights and are streaked on a plate. Samples of this growth are then grown in four different media: nutrient broth plus ampicillin, nutrient broth plus tetracycline, nutrient broth plus ampicillin and tetracycline, and nutrient broth without antibiotics Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but not the eukaryotic gene, would grow A. Only in the broth containing both antibiotics. B. In the broth containing tetracycline, but not in the broth containing ampicillin. C. In the nutrient broth plus ampicillin, but not in the broth containing tetracycline. D. In all four types of broth.

A

A hearing aid that amplifies sound is best suited for treating what type of haring loss? A. severe conductive hearing loss B. mild sensorineural hearing loss C. moderate tinnitus D. chronic ear infections

A

A woman in her early forties is pregnant and is 10 weeks past her menstrual cycle. The doctor is concerned about genetic disorders and wants to do a karyotype of the baby. To make the karyotype of the baby. To make the karyotype the doctor should preform which of the following? A. Amniocentesis B. Chronic villus sampling C. Either technique should work D. Neither technique will work for this situation

A

Disease detection using bioinformatics depends upon properly sequencing the dna of the pathogen, but sometimes things go wrong in the lab. If the necessary fluorescent markers were not added properly (or not functioning properly) , that would lead to which of the following results A. The sequence of nucleotides could not be determined as the genetic material passed through the laser B. The PCR sample would be too small to be properly analyzed on a gel C. The DNA stretches produced after primer attachment would differ by more than one nucleotide D. The restriction enzymes would fail to cut the DNA strand at the proper restriction sites

A

Imagine that you are sick with pneumonia caused by a bacterial infection. Your doctor prescribes an antibiotic to be taken every day for eight days. What do you expect to happen if two doses are skipped? A. Weakly resistant bacteria will die off, some moderately and extremely resistant bacteria will be killed of, but the infection will remain and you will remain sick of may even get worse B. Extremely resistant bacteria will die off, then moderately resistant bacteria will die off, leaving only weak resistant bacteria left C. Nothing will happen to any of the bacteria since all of the antibiotics were not taken D. Bacteria will not die, but will instead multiply, leaving you with more bacteria than you started with, causing you to get even sicker

A

In order to obtain quantitative results from an ELISA test, what tool can be created for comparative analysis and what factor is being analyzed? A. serial dilution, color intensity B. PCR, band width C. genotype, allele frequency D. pregnancy test, protein analysis

A

Maya and Armond Harris have been trying for years to get pregnant. Their last two attempts of in vitro fertilization(IVF) have been unsuccessful. The doctor suggests using preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD). What would PGD allow that would help the couple? A. a way to analyze chromosomes and pinpoint the strongest embryos B. a way to make and exact genetic replica of a part with a donor egg C. a way to sample the placental tissue for chromosomal at 10-12 weeks gestation D. a way to select the sex the sex of the baby

A

Predict the result of an increase in the amplitude of a sound wave A. the sounds seems louder B. the sound registers at a higher Hertz (hz) C. the sound wave has less energy D. the sounds pitch is higher

A

Select the best description of a medical intervention A. Any measure whose purpose is to improve health or to alter the course of a disease B. Any measure sued to diagnose and treat or cure a disease C. Any measure to keep one healthy and prevent disease D. Any series of advanced technologies used to identify and treat illness

A

The audiogram below shows the results of a patients hearing tests. Which type of hearing loss does the patient have? A. mild conductive hearing loss in the left ear and moderate conductive hearing loss in the right ear B. mild sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear and moderate sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear C. no hearing loss at low frequencies and moderate sensorineural hearing loss at high frequencies for both the left and right ears D. low to mid frequency conductive hearing loss in the left and right ear

A

Tissue samples were taken from two locations in a patient - healthy tissue and suspected cancer tissue. Which characteristic of the suspected cancerous tissue will be most helpful in making a cancer diagnosis A. The suspected tumor cells have variations in nuclear cell and shape B. There are more cells in the sample from the normal tissue C. Cells undergoing cell division are present in both cells

A

Which enzyme is used to "glue" the cut ends of a DNA fragment into a plasmid? A. ligase B. helicase C. endonuclease D. restriction enzyme

A

Which of the following is the best candidate for a cochlear implant? A. a person who has experienced destruction of their hair cells of the inner ear that transmit sound signals to the auditory nerve B. a person who has worked without hearing protection in a factory where sounds constantly reach 100 decibels C. a person who has experienced multiple middle ear infections every year for the first 6 years of their life D. a person who suffers from Menieres disease and is plagued by constant tinnitus

A

Why may is be better for doctors to test for disease antigens rather than antibodies during sudden outbreaks? A. The antigens are going to show up first since the body has to produce the antibodies the fights the antigens of the disease B. Antibodies are going to show up first since the body has to produce the antigens to fight the antibodies of the disease , but antigens are the one of the two that will produce results C. Both antibodies and antigens show up at the same time, but the antigens are stronger therefore will show up more readily during testing D. Both antibodies and antigens will show up at the same time, but antigens produce chemical hormones that block the antibodies from producing positive results when testing for a particular disease

A

Yeast is a eukaryote thus it can be used as a comparison of our own mammalian cells. In the skin cancer lab, you and your partner devise a way to test the effectiveness of a UV protectant ( sunscreen, sunglasses, etc.). How was the mutant strain of yeast used to demonstrate this effectiveness A. The mutant yeast couldn't repair its own DNA when exposed to the sun B. The mutant yeast cells repaired its DNA when exposed to the sun C. The mutant yeast cells DNA was fried when it was exposed to the sun D. The mutant yeast cells use similar enzymes as humans to repair their DNA E. None of the above

A

Harold is a 75 year-old man who was recently diagnosed with cancer. Key pieces of his medical history are summarized below Which of the following represents a behavioral risk factor?

A. He smoke tobacco B. Both of his parents had cancer, which means he had a family history C. His wife died from breast cancer D. His diet is high in vegetables and lean meats

Carlos has come in feeling tired and sore, but refuses to submit to molecular testing. He has a class with Maria and Darien and is dating Jennifer. Just a few days ago Carlos and Jennifer were caught making out in the hallway. Which of the four diseases does he most likely have? A. Influenza B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Strep throat D. Bacterial meningitis

B

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA molecules on the basis of size. Which of the following would move the slowest? A. pBr322 (4.39 kb) B. F plasmid (100 kb) C. Lambda phage (49 kb) D. pUC18 (2.69 kb)

B

In attack of the super bugs E. coli with chromosomal DNA coding resistance to streptomycin was cultured with E. coli II that contains ampicillin resistance located on the plasmid DNA. As the cultures grew which of the following occurred A. DNA from E. coli I was passed to E. coli II causing streptomycin resistance in E. coli II B. DNA from E. coli was passed to E.coli I causing ampicillin resistance in E. coli I C. DNA was passed back and forth between both strains of bacteria causing antibiotic resistance in each bacterium D. DNA cannot be transferred from one bacteria to another so resistance cannot occur

B

Observe the SNP of a nontaster, a person who cannot taste PTC, and a taster, and a person who can taste PTC, shown below. The restriction enzyme, HindII cuts at GGCC. Use that information to answer the next 2 questions Use the information above. Read the gel electrophoresis above ( from left to right) and identify which lane shows a person with the genes for a strong taste for PTC A. 2nd row B. 4th row C. 6th row D. no one has the dominant taste for PTC

B

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a disease caused by a mutated autosomal recessive gene. The non-mutated form of the gene codes for the production of an enzyme needed to break down the amino acid phenylalanine, a component of proteins in food. The uncontrolled buildup of phenylalanine in body tissues can cause severe symptoms, especially in children. Which medical intervention is most effective in preventing symptoms of PKU A. Immunology B. Nutrition C. Surgery D. Diagnostic

B

Polymerase chain reaction consists of cycles. Each cycle has how many steps? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

B

Prostate cancer is the most common form of cancer specific to men. The American cancer society estimates that 1 in every 6 men will be diagnosed with prostate cancer within their lifetime. Which of the following categories of risk factors best applies to prostate cancer A. Behavioral B. Biological C. Environmental D. Genetic

B

The Pearson correlation coefficient is a tool used in understanding the behavior of gene expression. A positive ratio means a gene is induced in cancer cells and is transcribed at a higher rate. A negative ratio means a gene is suppressed in cancer cells of is transcribed less frequently than in normal cells. What form of gene expression do you think would lead to a correlation coefficient of one A. The gene us not expressed in cancer cells nor normal cells B. The gene is being expressed at an equal rate in both cell types C. The gene is no longer existent in cancer cells D. The gene is more active in cancer cells than in normal cells

B

The Rb protein prevents mitosis by inhibiting cells from entering S phase. Human papilloma virus (HPV) is thought to inhibit the action of the Rb protein in cervical epithelial cells. What would be the effect of cervical cells being infected with HPV? A. The number of cells in the G1 phase of the cell cycle would increase B. The mitotic rate would increase C. The mutation rate would decrease D. The growth of cervical cells would decrease

B

The data shows the bacteria present over an eight-day course of antibiotics. When doses most likely missed and what are the results? A. day 2 B. day 4-5 C. day 6 D. no doses missed

B

The petri dish to the right contains E. coli bacteria. IF you placed a sample of the bacteria from this dish into a dish that contained antibiotic A, what would you expect to see in the petri dish after a 24 hour period of time A. growth of the bacteria on 4mm rings B. complete coverage of the petri dish in E. coli colonies C. no bacteria D. growth of growth bacteria in small colonies scattered across the petri dish

B

There are over 100 alleles known for the gene associated with cystic fibrosis. With current technology, it is possible to determine exactly which allele are carried by a person. What is the maximum number of different alleles that any person can have for this gene? A. 1 B. 2 C. 16 D. as many as there are alleles of the gene ( about 100 in this a case)

B

Where would pre-implantation genetic diagnosis take place? A. the egg cell B. the zygote C. the blastocyst D. the sperm cell

B

Which lane shows the DNA bands if the plasmid was digested using only EcoRI A. I B. II C. III D. IV

B

A researcher preforms s DNA microarray but forgets to add the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This is important because the enzyme makes ________ from a(n) __________ template. A. cDNA ... DNA B. mRNA ... DNA C. cDNA ... mRNA D. mRNA ... RNA

C

An epidemiologist might use an attack rate which is the number of people who develop a certain illness divided by the total number of people at risk. Using the information collected below which food most likely caused an illness A. milk B. bananas C. turkey D. it most likely was not a food related illness

C

An outbreak of a disease has been spreading within the population of a small community. Using samples taken from the infected patients, which of the following tests will best enable doctors from the centers for disease control to identify the unknown pathogen responsible for this outbreak A. Use an automated DNA sequencer to determine the nucleotide sequencer of the samples, then compare these sequences with known organisms using BLAST B. Identify the presence and concentration of antibodies in infected patients using the Elisa test C. Determine the sequence of the pathogens DNA with an automated sequencer and then amplify key genes using PCR D. Determine the sequence of the pathogens DNA using recombinant DNA methods and then amplify specific sequences using PCR

C

Approximate the size (in base pairs) of the unknown band in the figure to the right A. 100 bp B. 350 bp C. 550 bp D. 900 bp

C

DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they... A. Can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome B. Can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells C. Allow expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared D. Allow physical maps of genome to be assembled in a very short time

C

During PCR, if the geneticist selected the wrong primers to use, which of the following would result? A. the DNA would not denature during the "melt" step B. gene synthesis would occur,but the wrong gene would be copied C. the nucleotides could not attach to the DNA strands, so no new strands would be synthensized D. the correct portion of DNA would be synthesized, but would not grow properly when exposed to laser light

C

Explain how a weak tatse is possible after the SNPs are digested with HaeII A. the weak taster receives a mom-taster gene from each parent. Both strands are cut by the restriction enzyme B. the weak taster receives a non-taster from one parent and a taster gene from the second parent. Both strands are cut by the restriction enzyme C. the weak taster receives a non-taster gene from one parent and a taster gene from the second parent. One strand is cut by the restriction enzyme while the others remain intact D. the weak taster receives a taster gene from each parent. One of the strands is cut by the restriction enzyme while the others remain intact

C

In 2.1.3 Test Your Own Genes, you extracted your own DNA and ran a gel electrophoresis in order to identify non-tasters, tasters, and supertasters. Given the results in the picture to the right, which wells show the supertasters? A. 1,6,8 B. 2,5 10 C. 3,4,7,9 D. 2,7,& 10

C

Nick has a big soccer tournament coming up in three weeks. Which of the following is the best way he can avoid an injury that would keep him from playing in the tournament in terms of medical interventions? A. Avoid any type of physical activity, including practices, aside from one the day before the game. B. Go to all practices, games, and conditioning training, as well as doing extra workouts with his brother every day until the day of the tournament C. Attend conditioning training and practices, stretch before any physical activity, eat a healthy and balanced diet and wear his orthopedic cleats while on the field for games and practices D. Take vitamins, drink lots of milk and eat plenty of saturated fats to store up energy

C

Restriction enzymes are found in almost all bacterial species, and their sequence specificities cover almost all possible short sequences (4-6 base pairs). Why do you think this is the case? A. restriction enzymes provide the means by which bacteria carry out gene cloning B. restriction enzymes provide a means to ensure the cell's DNA is properly copied C. restriction enzymes provide the means to protect the cell by recognizing foreign DNA and destroying it D. restriction enzymes provide the means by which bacteria exchange antibiotic resistance

C

Studies have shown that pregnancies in woman of advanced age have a higher risk of resulting in various genetic conditions in the baby. You are given the karyotype of a developing child from a 42 year old woman. Which of the following descriptions best matches the karyotype above A. this karyotype was taken from a female with monosomy 20 B. this karyotype was taken from a male with trisomy 13 C. this karyotype was taken from a female with trisomy 13 D. this karyotype was taken from a male with monosomy 10

C

The diagram to the right shows a persons genetic material. According to the persons genetic material, which statement is true? A. the person would have a recessive disorder B. the person would have a normal chromosome number C. the person would experience multiple health complications D. the person would have a dominant disorder

C

The plasmid shown can be digested using either BamHI, EcoRI, or both. Which lane shows the DNA that was digested using only BamHI? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

C

There was some speculation as to whether or not parents should have the rights to choose to vaccinate their child. All of the following examples of benefits of vaccination EXCEPT A. some diseases that once injured or killed thousands of children, have eliminated completely and others are close to extinction B. vaccines are only given to children after a long and careful review by scientists, doctors, and healthcare professionals C. a child's immune system can be "overloaded" if the child receives multiple vaccines at once D. a vaccinated child will not be denied admittance to a school or child care facility for lack of immunization

C

Which of the following is NOT true of x-ray and computerized tomographic testing A. non-invasive B. it is widely available C. completely harmless D. quick and painless

C

You enter the nucleotide sequence of an unknown pathogen into the National Center for Biotechnology Informations (NCBI) BLAST site and receive the following search results. Which of the results is most likely the pathogen? A. Bacillus Cytotoxicus NVH 391-98 B. Perkinsus marinus ATCC 50983 hypothetical protein C. E. Coli O157: H7- specific bacteriophage L1 D. Staphylococcus pyogenes aureus BCRG1459

C

knowing the amount of antibody present in the body can help to determine the path of an infection but, how do immunologists determine the actual concentration of a known antibody? Use the following pictures and above information ( 1st tube is 400ng/ml with a 1/4 dilution) to determine the concentration of the meningitis antibody in persons A and B respectively A. 12.5 ng/ml; 1.0 ng/ml B. 100ng/ml; 6 x 10^-2 ng/ml C. 25 ng/ml; 1x 10^-3 ng/ml D. ng/ml; 6.25 ng/ml

C

you are an immunologist who has different patients suspected of having systemic lupus erthematosus disease. Below are the results of an ELISA test done on the patients' blood. Which patient has the highest concentration of antibodies in his or her sample? A. Patient A has the highest concentration of antibodies B. Patient B has the highest level of antibodies C. Patient C has the highest level of antibodies D. It is impossible to tell because the yellow wells are all equally intense in color

C

Which of the antibiotic discs pictured to the right is the bacteria culture most sensitive to? And explain.

C because it has the biggest reaction

A round of severe gastrointestinal symptoms has swept through a group of second grade students of Stony Creek elementary. In attempt to pinpoint the source of the infection, an epidemiologist interviewed the students who are showing symptoms about the food that they consumed in the school cafeteria. Analyze the data in the table prior to this question. Which food can be linked to the outbreak of food poisoning? A. milk B. banana C. ice cream sandwich D. potato salad

D

A single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) is detected in an inheritable disorder that deletes the restriction site for HindII. When the DNA from two individuals is cut with this enzyme (one with and one without this disorder) and then analyzed by gel electrophoresis, the resulting samples will be ________ A. All of the same size, whether or not they have this particular disorder B. All completely different sizes, independent on whether they have this disorder C. All different sizes. The individual with the disease will have more fragments than an individual without this disorder D. All different sizes. The individual with the disease will have fewer fragments than an individual without this disorder

D

A thermal cycler is programmed with the following for each cycle If you start off with three double-stranded DNA molecules in your PCR tube, how much DNA will there be after 15 cycles and how long will this take? A. 4.7x10^8; 20 minutes and 15 seconds B. 4.7x10^9; 26 minutes 45 seconds C. 4.7x10^10; 29 minutes and 15 seconds D. 4.7x10^11; 33 minutes and 45 seconds

D

Does a cochlear implant work the same for all patients? A. yes B. it depends on how old the person is when they get the implant C. it depends on what the patients hearing loss is from D. no, each person has to learn how to interpret the signals that their brain receives

D

E.coli I has chromosomal DNA coding resistance to streptomycin. E. coli II has ampicillin resistance located on the plasmid DNA. In attack of the super bugs both these strains of bacteria were cultured together on a LB agar plate so DNA transfer could occur and produce a new strain of E. coli. Samples from this new strain are transferred to the following plates. which of the following can occur with the new strain of bacteria produced? See diagrams A. A B. A and B C. A,B, and C D. All of these can occur

D

Imagine youre counseling a couple who have undergone carrier screening for Tay-Schs disease. The man is a carrier, and the woman does not carry the Tay-Sachs allele. How should you advise them? A. they should be informed that if they conceive a child, the child will have Tay-Sachs disease B. they should be informed that if they conceive a child, there is a 25% chance their child will have Tay- Sachs disease C. they should be informed that if they conceive a child, there is a 50% chance their child will have Tay-Sachs disease D. they should be informed that if they conceive a child, the child will not have Tay-Sachs but will have a 50% chance of being a carrier for the Tay-sachs allele

D

In addition to sun, what is considered a risk factor for skin cancer? A. family history B. multiple moles or atypical moles C. scars from disease or burns D. all of the above

D

In genetic engineering, what is the term vector used to describe A. the DNA probe used to locate specific genes B. the restriction fragment taken from the subject organism C. the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments D. the plasmid or other agent used to transfer DNA into cells

D

Penicillin is an antibiotic that inhibits enzymes from catalyzing the synthesis of peptidoglycan, so which prokaryotes should be most vulnerable to inhibition by penicillin A. mycoplasmas B. gram-positive bacteria C. archaea D. gram- negative bacteria

D

To complete the polymerase chain reaction, geneticists must add free-floating nucleotides to the segments of DNA they plan to copy. Imagine that of the nucleotides added, 12% of those that attach to the DNA segments are thymine bases. if that is true, what percentage of bases that attached are guanine? A. 12% B. 18% C. 26% D. 38%

D

Which of the following could be an audiogram taken from an adult who during his teenage years drove around in his car with the bass turned up so high that the car shakes? A. A B. B C. C D. D

D

While looking at a biopsy what would you notice about he cell if the cell was cancerous A. Giant cell characterized as a larger than normal cell B. The presence of more than one nucleus C. Abnormal cell shape D. Nuclear blebbing: an irregular bulge protruding from the nucleus E. All of the above

E