micro 2 final
Human herpesvirus (1/2/3/4) is usually associated with lesions on the genitalia.
2
Rheumatoid arthritis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity reaction that results when B cells produce autoantibodies that damage the joints
3
Botryococcus braunii is an alga that produces hydrocarbons at (10/20/30) percent of its dry weight and could be harvested in the future as an alternative fuel.
30
Contact dermatitis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity disorder.
4
n infections with human herpesvirus (1/2/3/4), the virus becomes latent in B lymphocytes and suppresses apoptosis, contributing to lymphomas associated with this virus
4
infection with ________ produces symptoms similar to RMSF, except for the rash, making it difficult to diagnose. A) Anaplasma phagocytophilium B) Chlamydophila psittaci C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Treponema carateum E) Vibrio vulnificus
a
the assay shown in Figure 17.1 is used for what? A) detecting antibodies against a complex mix of antigens B) verifying infection with a virus C) determining the concentration of antibodies D) detecting neutralizing antibodies E) blood typing
a
Rickettsia prowazekii is transmitted by A) mites of the genus Leptotrombidium. B) the rat flea Xenopsylla cheopis. C) the human body louse Pediculus humanus. D) the dog tick Dermacentor. E) the cat flea Ctenocephalides felis
c
The intracellular parasite ________ infects cells of the conjunctiva and mucous membranes throughout the body. A) Anaplasma phagocytophilium B) Chlamydia trachomatis C) Orientia tsutsugamushi D) Ehrlichia caffeensis E) Helicobacter pylori
b
The microscope preferred for viewing living specimens is the ________ microscope. A) bright-field B) phase-contrast C) scanning electron D) scanning tunneling E) transmission electron
b
The most common disease diagnosed in humans that is caused by Cryptococcus is A) primary pulmonary cryptococcosis. B) cryptococcal meningitis. C) secondary pulmonary cryptococcosis. D) cryptococcoma. E) cutaneous cryptococcosis.
b
The parasites classified as Nematodes A) are known as flukes. B) are known as roundworms. C) have males of the species larger than females of the species. D) do not have a digestive system. E) are all monoecious
b
Bacteria of the genus Mycoplasma lack cell walls. What sort of environment do they require for survival? A) low temperature B) hypotonic C) isotonic D) hypertonic E) a biofilm
c
Bacterial ________ are sites of metabolite storage. A) nucleoids B) vacuoles C) inclusions D) pili E) periplasm
c
Balantidium coli uses ________ to penetrate the intestinal mucosa. A) adhesion discs B) flagella C) cilia D) pseudopodia E) suckers
c
Carl Woese proposed the concept of the domain based on differences of which of the following cellular molecules? A) transfer RNA B) membrane lipids C) ribosomal RNA D) DNA E) proteins
c
Characteristic features of the herpesvirus used for diagnosis include the A) presence of recurring lesions in the lip or genital regions. B) presence of syncytia in infected tissue. C) presence of recurring lesions in the lip or genital regions and syncytia in infected tissue. D) ability of the virus to be transmitted to neonates. E) presence of viruses intracellularly years after recovery from the infection
c
Chronic inhalation of particular fungal allergens would lead to a(n) A) type I hypersensitivity reaction. B) type II hypersensitivity reaction. C) type III hypersensitivity reaction. D) type IV hypersensitivity reaction. E) autoimmune disease.
c
Which of the following is MISMATCHED? A) Salk vaccine; requires boosters B) Sabin vaccine; live attenuated vaccine C) Salk vaccine; administered orally D) Sabin vaccine; less stable E) Salk vaccine; inactivated polio vaccine
c
Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is A) the first line of defense. B) the second line of defense. C) the third line of defense. D) microbial antagonism. E) innate immunity.
c
) A patient is brought to the emergency room in a comatose state. The family reports he had complained of nausea and a bad headache in the past couple of days. They also report they had engaged in their normal summer activities: picnicking, fishing and swimming at the lake near their home. His fever is high, and while in the ER, he has a seizure. Which of the following is likely to be responsible for his symptoms? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Giardia intestinalis C) Gonyaulax D) Naegleria fowleri E) Toxoplasma gondii
d
) Which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father B) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father C) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father D) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father E) either Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father or Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father
d
Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting are signs and symptoms associated with which of the following viruses? A) coxsackie A B) enterovirus C) rhinovirus D) echovirus E) norovirus
e
During treatment of water to make it potable, about 90% of the microbes are removed A) by preliminary fermentation. B) in the sedimentation step. C) by treatment with biosensors. D) by treatment with chlorine or ozone. E) in the filtration step
e
Exogenous antigens are processed for immune recognition by ________ cells. A) dendritic B) all nucleated C) macrophage D) helper T E) dendritic and macrophage
e
Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature A) inactivates interferons. B) increases vasodilation, contributing to inflammation. C) increases sweating and consequently the barrier effect. D) prevents viral infection of fibroblasts. E) increases the effectiveness of interferons and phagocytes.
e
Fever, jaundice, and hemorrhaging which often results in "black vomit" are characteristics of A) coronavirus. B) Dengue fever. C) hepatitis C infection. D) West Nile fever. E) yellow fever
e
Heat is used to drive the stain into cells in the ________ staining procedure(s). A) endospore stain B) acid-fast stain C) capsule stain D) Gram stain E) both acid-fast and endospore stains
e
Which of the following is involved in translation? A) rRNA only B) tRNA only C) mRNA only D) both mRNA and tRNA E) mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA are all involved.
e
Which of the following is produced by fermentation? A) beef jerky B) pasteurized milk C) pepperoni D) mozzarella cheese E) pepperoni and mozzarella cheese
e
Which of the following is the result of inhalation of aerosols of fresh water containing a bacterial parasite of protozoa? A) acute bacterial meningitis B) meningococcal meningitis C) Q fever D) pertussis E) Legionnaires' disease
e
Which of the following leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that stain blue with methylene blue? A) eosinophils B) monocytes C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) basophils
e
Which of the following may be a component of bacterial cell walls? A) carrageenan B) lipoteichoic acids C) mycolic acid D) tubulin E) both lipoteichoic and mycolic acids
e
Which of the following may result from eating tuna sashimi (raw fish)? A) botulism B) norovirus infection C) polio D) salmonellosis E) saxitoxin intoxication
e
Which of the following microorganisms associated with food poisoning thrives in cold storage? A) Salmonella spp. B) Shigella spp. C) Clostridium botulinum D) Escherichia coli E) Listeria monocytogenes
e
Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) mumps; parotitis B) rabies; hydrophobia C) measles; Koplik's spots D) parainfluenza virus; croup E) hantavirus; paralysis
e
Which of the following poxviruses are zoonoses? A) molluscum contagiosum B) smallpox C) cowpox D) monkeypox E) both cowpox and monkeypox
e
Which of the following processes requires a carrier protein? A) diffusion only B) facilitated diffusion only C) active transport only D) endocytosis only E) both facilitated diffusion and active transport
e
Which of the following statements concerning Pasteurella is FALSE? A) It is oxidase positive. B) It is nonmotile. C) Humans are typically infected via animal bites. D) It is fastidious in its growth and must be cultivated on blood or chocolate agar. E) It is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs including fluoroquinolones
e
Which of the following statements concerning genital warts is FALSE? A) They can be transmitted via fomites. B) They can travel to different locations on the same individual by autoinoculation. C) They can be sexually transmitted. D) The virus may remain latent and cause lesions at a later time. E) The incidence is relatively low because treatment is available.
e
Because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response
f
CTLs use the CD95 molecule to recognize their epitope.
f
Canned foods are prepared using the same temperature as is used for autoclaving.
f
Chromatin is composed of DNA and special packaging proteins called hopanoids.
f
Contact with infected cats and their feces is the only mode of transmission of Toxoplasma to human
f
Coronaviruses cause gastrointestinal disease
f
Coxiella burnetii is transmitted to humans mainly via the bite of infected tick vectors.
f
Dermatophytes, which live on the surface of the skin, are always pathogenic
f
During an infection with Listeria, an intracellular bacterium, APCs will present antigen on MHC II molecules
f
Entamoeba histolytica can cause keratitis if it is introduced through an abrasion in the conjunctiva
f
Enterobacteriaceae are rarely pathogenic.
f
Erythema infectiosum is a dangerous but treatable disease.
f
Eukaryotic ribosomes are composed of 50S and 30S subunits.
f
Fungi that cause systemic mycoses are uniformly acquired by ingesting contaminated food
f
Gonococcal infections result in lifelong immunity against Neisseria gonorrhoeae
f
Gram staining of bacteria provides all the physical characterization necessary to identify bacterial species
f
Human herpesviruses have been designated by combining HHV (human herpesvirus) with numbers corresponding to the severity of the diseases they cause.
f
Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii.
f
If an Rh-positive woman marries an Rh-negative man, their children are at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn
f
In contrast to leading strand synthesis, the lagging strand is synthesized 3' to 5', which is why it is slower.
f
Individuals with AB blood type are called "universal donors" because they do not have antibodies against blood group antigens.
f
Infants infected with the coxsackie B virus do not develop myocarditis and, therefore, the virus is rarely fatal.
f
Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration of phagocytes to the area
f
Innate immunity is not effective against fungus infections.
f
Large molecules such as polymers make good antigens
f
Lysosomes result from the endocytosis of food particles by eukaryotic cells.
f
MacConkey agar is selective for Haemophilus influenzae.
f
Most bacteria have a natural ability to take up DNA from their environment.
f
Most of the nitrogen in the environment is in the form of nitrogen gas, which is the form used by most organisms
f
Nitrogen fixation results in the production of atmospheric nitrogen gas (N2)
f
Norovirus is the leading cause of viral gastroenteritis in the United States.
f
Nucleotide analogs cause frameshift mutations.
f
Obligate anaerobes have enzymes such as superoxide dismutase to protect them from the damaging effects of oxygen
f
Pasteurization is a more rigorous process than canning.
f
Peroxisomes contain enzymes used to digest nutrients that have been brought into the cell through phagocytosis.
f
Plasmodium reproduces by binary fission.
f
Prokaryotic cells are diploid
f
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a true pathogen with a long list of virulence factors.
f
Rhinovirus infection is only treatable with over-the-counter medications (antihistamine, pain reliever, decongestant).
f
Ringworm is a type I hypersensitivity response to fungus spores.
f
Serratia marcescens can be identified by its distinctive blue-green pigment pyocyanin.
f
Small doses of antimicrobial agents are very effective in treating the late stages of Borrelia infection because most of the symptoms result from immune responses.
f
Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is long-lasting because ingested bacteria produce enterotoxins in the digestive system
f
Streptococcus pyogenes commonly causes streptococcal toxic shock syndrome in otherwise healthy people
f
The MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine requires multiple immunizations in the first year because it is composed of whole killed viruses.
f
The immunochromatographic assay uses enzyme-linked anti-antibodies
f
The only effective way to store bacterial cultures for short periods of time is to arrest their metabolism by freezing.
f
The phenomenon known as species resistance is a highly specific defense against infectious agents.
f
The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.
f
The short structures on the surface of the cell in Figure 3.5 are pili.
f
The spread of hepatitis D is preventable by the hepatitis D vaccine.
f
The three domains proposed by Carl Woese and George Fox are the Archaea, the Eukarya, and the Protista.
f
The tuberculin response is an example of allergic contact dermatitis.
f
The virulence of the rabies virus is increased by prolonged culture in rabbit spinal cells
f
Through recombinant DNA technology, many plants now can manufacture their own Bt toxin, which improves fermentation
f
Two doses of the MMR vaccine provide full protection from infection with the mumps virus.
f
Vaccines to prevent fungal infection are widely available because attenuated strains are safe.
f
Very few cases of cryptococcal infections are caused by the variant Cryptococcus neoformans neoformans.
f
Vibrio vulnificus causes septicemia that is self-limiting and rarely fatal.
f
When a T cell's CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell, antibodies are formed.
f
Xenografts are tissue transplants from one individual to another within the same species.
f
The enzyme responsible for separating the DNA strands during DNA replication is (topoisomerase/primase/helicase).
helicase
Sweat glands produce (lysozyme/dermacidin/acid), which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by cleaving the bonds between the sugar subunits.
lysozyme
Streptococcus pyogenes produces (hemolysin/protein A/M protein) and thereby avoids phagocytosis
m protein
A housefly can transmit diseases as a (biological/fomite/mechanical) vector
mechanical
) Golgi bodies are examples of a (membranous/non-membranous/cellular) organelle
membranous
The ability of the body to respond faster and more effectively to a second exposure to pathogens is called immunologic (memory/synapse/tolerance).
memory
Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors
t
DNA, which is negatively charged, wraps around positively charged histones as part of the packaging of eukaryotic chromosomes.
t
Differential media are not useful for isolation of microbes.
t
Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox
t
Enrichment culturing may require use of controlled environmental conditions.
t
Flow cytometry makes use of fluorescence to count microbes.
t
For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria.
t
Group A streptococci are considered more virulent if their cytoplasmic membrane contains M protein
t
Haemophilus ducreyi is transmitted by sexual contact
t
Hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease, and complete recovery occurs 99% of the time.
t
Histamine and prostaglandins are involved in inflammatory reactions.
t
Histoplasma and Coccidioides produce tuberculosis-like damage to the lungs that can be seen on X-ray images.
t
Human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) has been implicated as an etiological agent in some cases of Hodgkin's lymphoma
t
Humans are the sole hosts of Salmonella enterica subtype Typhi (formerly S. typhi)
t
Humans can be accidental intermediate hosts for some tapeworms
t
IgG antibodies kill pathogens both directly and indirectly
t
Images of living specimens can be produced using atomic force microscopes.
t
Infection with certain viruses may lead to the development of type I diabetes.
t
Interferons alpha and beta are effective against viruses.
t
Leishmania species cause systemic disease as well as superficial diseases.
t
Light rays that pass through the edge of a curved lens will be refracted more than those that pass through the center
t
Lipid A causes disseminated intravenous coagulation (DIC).
t
MHC genes are significant genetic factors in predisposition to develop autoimmune disease
t
Molecules with a molecular mass less than 5000 daltons can become antigens when they bind to carrier molecules.
t
Nearly everyone appears to be infected with polyomaviruses BK and JC by the age of 15
t
Neisseria meningitidis is able to survive inside macrophages and be transported throughout the body in them.
t
Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms.
t
Normally, complement-activating immune complexes are eliminated from the body by phagocytosis
t
Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory.
t
Post-exposure vaccination is effective in reducing or preventing disease from variola infection
t
Quorum sensing is involved in the development and propagation of a biofilm.
t
Reducing the water content of food is a highly effective way of reducing food spoilage.
t
Serial dilution can be used in combination with pour plates as a method for isolating pure cultures.
t
Several species of Plasmodium cause malaria in humans.
t
Shiga toxin kills cells by preventing protein synthesis
t
Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules
t
Staphylococcus aureus can produce a toxin that dissolves the desmosomes that hold the adjoining cytoplasmic membranes of cells together and causes the patient's skin cells to separate.
t
Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme
t
Systemic infections with fungus are difficult to treat because fungi are metabolically similar to humans, so antifungal therapies are sometimes complicated by side effects
t
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a disease resulting from accumulation of immune complexes in various organs and tissues.
t
The MALT lacks the tough outer capsule of a lymph node but functions in the same way.
t
The bacterium Streptococcus mutans has a major role in the development of dental plaque and caries.
t
The endospore stain reveals internal structures within cells of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium.
t
The first documented human disease to be eradicated was smallpox.
t
The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature.
t
The phenotype of an organism reflects only part of its genotype
t
The practice of screening blood, blood products, and organ transplants for HIV has virtually eliminated the risk of HIV infection from these sources
t
The presence of a glycocalyx contributes to bacteria's ability to cause disease.
t
The primary reservoir of anthrax is herbivores
t
The processes illustrated in Figure 3.4 do not require energy input.
t
The respiratory infection known as primary atypical pneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
t
The seriousness of Coccidioides infection can be attributed to the formation and rupture of spherules
t
The structure of DNA explains both its ability to encode genetic information and the way in which it is copied during cell reproduction.
t
Thermoduric mesophiles are often responsible for spoilage of improperly canned foods
t
Three-dimensional images of specimens can be obtained using scanning electron microscopes.
t
Without the activities of microorganisms, the functioning of Earth's ecosystems would cease.
t
mmature B lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion in the bone marrow.
t
n generalized transduction, viruses carry random DNA sequences from one cell to another.
t
Which of the following is NOT a function of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton? A) anchors organelles B) gives shape to the cell C) packages cellular secretions D) performs endocytosis E) aids in contraction of the cell
c
Which of the following is NOT associated with an electron microscope? A) an electron beam B) magnetic fields C) a prism D) a fluorescent screen E) a vacuum
c
Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the lac operon? A) an inducer B) a repressor protein C) an iRNA D) glucose E) cyclic AMP
c
Which of the following is TRUE of chemokines? A) They ensure production of enough leukocytes. B) They are involved in B lymphocyte activation and differentiation. C) They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes. D) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate. E) They are substances used to signal between leukocytes
c
Which of the following is TRUE of spirochetes? A) They are peritrichous. B) They are Gram-positive. C) They are able to penetrate a host's tissues. D) They are obligate intracellular organisms. E) They are pleomorphic.
c
Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases? A) efficiency of proofreading B) type of nucleotides used C) direction of polymerization D) speed E) dependence on helicase
c
Which of the following is a lactic acid bacterium used in the production of food? A) Aspergillus oryzae B) Gluconobacter C) Leuconostoc D) Penicillium E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c
Which of the following is a member of the Flaviviridae that is NOT an arbovirus? A) eastern equine encephalitis virus B) dengue virus C) hepatitis C virus D) hepatitis E virus E) West Nile virus
c
Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms associations with the roots of plants? A) anaerobic Bacillus species B) Clostridium species C) Rhizobium species D) Azotobacter species E) cyanobacteria
c
Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing? A) magnification; refraction of radiation B) contrast; staining techniques C) numerical aperture; curved glass D) simple microscope; Leeuwenhoek E) electron beams; shorter wavelength
c
Which of the following is an exogenous antigen? A) a bacterium inside a cell B) a virus inside a cell C) a bacterium outside a cell D) a noninfected human cell E) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell
c
Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogenic fungus in humans? A) Blastomyces dermatitidis B) Coccidioides immitis C) Candida albicans D) Histoplasma capsulatum E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
c
Which of the following is known as "false morel" and causes bloody diarrhea, convulsions, and death within two days? A) Amanita phalloides B) Aspergillus C) Gyromitra esculenta D) Sporothrix schenckii E) Mucor
c
Which of the following is the CORRECT pairing of rickettsial pathogen and vector? A) R. rickettsia; flea B) R typhi; tick C) R prowazekii; louse D) R. typhi; mite E) R rickettsia; louse
c
Which of the following is the cause of the STD known as lymphogranuloma venereum? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Treponema pallidum E) Chlamydophila psittaci
c
Which of the following is unique to archaea? A) hypotonic B) hypertonic C) isotonic D) fluid mosaic E) passive
c
Which of the following items that are commonly added during food preparation can be considered a preservative? A) apple juice B) meat broth C) garlic D) yeast E) whey
c
Which of the following microorganisms have been referred to as energy parasites? A) rickettsias B) vibrios C) chlamydias D) spirochetes E) Borrelia
c
Which of the following organisms can colonize the nasal cavity and enter the brain to cause meningoencephalitis? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Acanthamoeba C) Naegleria D) Balantidium E) Giardia
c
Which of the following organisms would be most likely to contaminate a jar of pickles? A) a neutrophile B) a thermophile C) an acidophile D) an obligate anaerobe E) a mesophile
c
Which of the following parasites is NOT generally microscopic in its mature form, even though microbiologists usually study them? A) amoebae B) toxoplasmas C) helminths D) leishmanias E) cyclosporas
c
Which of the following produces a hallucinogenic toxin? A) Amanita phalloides B) Claviceps purpurea C) Psilocybe cubensis D) Pseudallescheria E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
c
Chloroplasts use light energy to produce ATP and carbohydrates.
t
The total magnification using a 10 ocular and a 100 objective would be (110/1000/10000)×. (Be sure your answer is a numeral.)
1000
Immunological attack on the islets of Langerhans resulting in the inability to produce insulin leads to type (I/II/IV) diabetes Mellitus.
1
Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0).
11.5
Except during initiation of translation, transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids initially bind to the ribosome at the (P/A/E) site.
A
Critically low levels of CD4 lymphocytes are a key diagnostic indicator of (AIDS/MS/SLE).
AIDS
In countries where tuberculosis is common, people are vaccinated with (BCG/INH/MDR-TB), which contains attenuated Mycobacterium bovis bacteria
BCG
The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies of (BCR/MHC/TCR).
BCR
Chronic liver disease progressing to cancer can result from infection with the RNA hepatitis (A/B/C) virus.
C
HIV attaches to T cell and macrophages by means of an interaction between gp120 and a(n) (antibody/CD4/gp41) receptor.
CD4
Neutrophils use their own (DNA/RNA/TLR) in the formation of NETs to trap bacteria
DNA
Damage to the (brain/heart/liver) is the primary result of fetal infection with Toxoplasma gondii.
brain
The part of the microscope indicated by the arrow in Figure 4.1 is the (ocular/objective/condenser) lens.
condenser
A solution of (GMS/KOH/DIF) is used to dissolve keratin and cellular material in skin scrapings, leaving only the fungal cells for examination.
KOH
Class I MHC molecules are essential for A) presentation of endogenous antigens. B) recognition of chemokines. C) detection of IL-2. D) recognition of class II MHC. E) presentation of exogenous antigens
a
TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore, (BCR/MHC/Th1) molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response.
MHC
(MRSA/MDR-TB/VRSA) is resistant to numerous antimicrobial agents; therefore, vancomycin is usually used for these infections.
MRSA
Codons are recognized during A) translation. B) transcription. C) base excision. D) DNA replication. E) transduction
a
Colorado tick fever is caused by a ________ and can cause headache, muscle aches and conjunctivitis in some individuals. A) coltivirus B) rotavirus C) mumps virus D) hantavirus E) coxsackie B virus
a
Phagocytes kill a pathogen once it has been ingested, whereas eosinophils and (MAC/NK/NOD) lymphocytes can accomplish extracellular killing by secreting toxins. (Be sure to use capital letters in your answer.)
NK
Nonphagocytic (eosinophils/monocytes/NK cells) are a type of lymphocyte which produce toxins to kill abnormal cells.
NK cells
Ocular histoplasmosis is a(n) A) type I hypersensitivity immune reaction. B) cytotoxic immune cell reaction. C) delayed hypersensitivity reaction. D) autoimmune disease. E) example of contact dermatitis.
a
Which of the following coliforms is the most common cause of non-nosocomial urinary tract infections? A) Escherichia coli B) Serratia marcescens C) Proteus mirabilis D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Enterobacter
a
Although autoantibodies to nucleic acids are characteristics of (HIV/RA/SLE), many other autoantibodies are produced.
SLE
Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination? A) typhoid fever B) salmonellosis C) cat scratch disease D) gonorrhea E) chancroid
a
B cells are activated when they interact with (antigen-presenting/Th1/Th2) cells.
TH2
Which of the following human diseases may result from exposure to soil containing the microbe responsible? A) blastomycosis B) giardiasis C) crown gall disease D) cryptosporidiosis E) saxitoxin poisoning
a
Which of the following diseases is considered an emerging disease because it was unknown before 1987? A) anaplasmosis B) Brill-Zinsser disease C) murine typhus D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) lymphogranuloma venereum
a
) In the process of ________, microbes detect the presence and density of other microbes and modify their metabolic activity in response. A) quorum sensing B) antagonism C) mutualism D) symbiosis E) synergy
a
) The immunological synapse refers to the A) interaction between a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell to produce a specialized contact area for communication between these cells. B) activation of a B cell to become a plasma cell. C) interaction between lymphocytes and foreign antigens to produce memory cells. D) binding of a monocyte or macrophage to antigen so that it can act as an antigen-presenting cell. E) interaction of the many cytokines produced by different immunological cells.
a
3) Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of life is FALSE? A) Reproduction is defined as an increase in the size of an organism. B) Viruses have some, but not all, of the characteristics of living things. C) Organisms may not exhibit all of the characteristics of life at all times. D) Reproduction can occur asexually or sexually in living things. E) Living things store metabolic energy in the form of chemicals such as ATP.
a
A capnophile is a microorganism that thrives in conditions of high A) carbon dioxide levels. B) hydrostatic pressure. C) oxygen levels. D) pH. E) salt concentration.
a
A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a A) photoheterotroph. B) lithoautotroph. C) photoautotroph. D) chemoheterotroph. E) chemoautotroph
a
A child has a history of recurring serious bacterial infections. A blood sample shows lymphocyte levels are a little below normal, and no antibodies to the pathogens are detected in serologic tests. Based on this information, which of the following is the likeliest diagnosis for this child? A) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia B) Grave's disease C) severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) E) hemolytic disease of the newborn
a
Which of the following fungal infections can be contracted through thorn pricks or wood splinters? A) Sporothrix schenckii B) Cladophialophora C) Malassezia furfur D) Gyromitra esculenta E) Aspergillus
a
A contact lens wearer and cat owner begins to experience problems with her eye. The eye is inflamed and painful, and examination of the eye reveals that the conjunctiva is ulcerating. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible? A) Acanthamoeba B) Cryptosporidium parvum C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Toxoplasma gondii E) Trypanosoma cruzi
a
A lab report on a respiratory patient's sample contains the notation MDR-TB. What does this mean? A) The two standard drugs for TB, isoniazid and rifampin, are not effective. B) The patient has a mild case of TB. C) There are almost no drugs that will treat the infection. D) Most standard drugs for treatment of TB are recommended. E) The bacteria responsible for the infection are moderately resistant to isoniazid and rifampin
a
A new virus is discovered that has double stranded DNA and no envelope. The highly purified virions form large crystals. This new virus is most likely a member of which virus family? A) Adenoviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Papillomarviridae D) Poxviridae E) Papillomaviridae
a
A patient at a clinic complains of diarrhea that is occasionally bloody and has persisted for several days. A microscopic examination of a stool sample reveals the presence of very round cysts. These signs are consistent with infection by A) Entamoeba histolytica. B) Enterobius vermicularis. C) Balantidium coli. D) Giardia intestinalis. E) Trypanosoma cruzi.
a
A patient has had a cough, fever, and night sweats for many weeks. Now, sores on the mucous membranes of his mouth are appearing. His history states he spent time in the jungles of Central America. He may be suffering from A) paracoccidioidimycosis. B) histoplasmosis. C) blastomycosis. D) aspergillosis. E) coccidioidomycoses.
a
A sample of fluid from the lungs contains microbes that grow in filaments or clumps. The cells stain poorly in the Gram stain and are a pink-red when acid-fast stained. The bacteria in the sample are A) Mycobacterium species. B) Mycoplasma species. C) Nocardia species. D) Actinomyces species. E) not identifiable with this information.
a
A stool sample contains eggs that are oval and have no evidence of a spine. This observation is consistent with infestation with ________ species. A) Fasciola B) Wuchereria C) Schistosoma D) Taenia E) Trypanosoma
a
A virologist wants to observe the surface features of virus particles she is studying. Which of the following microscopes would NOT be useful for her observations? A) differential interference contrast B) scanning tunneling C) scanning electron D) transmission electron E) atomic force
a
A young woman who was recently hiking in the mountains and discovered a tick on her torso has a fever that came on quite suddenly. She has no rash, but she develops leukopenia. Which of the following diseases is she most likely to have contracted? A) anaplasmosis B) Lyme disease C) relapsing fever D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) scrub typhus
a
Aerobic bacteria in the genus ________ are important environmental decomposers, able to digest herbicides like Agent Orange and polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs). A) Burkholderia B) Coxiella C) Pseudomonas D) Prevotella E) Hafnia
a
Among the areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae? A) the vagina B) the cervix C) the uterus D) the Fallopian tubes E) the pelvic organs
a
An aquatic microbe that can grow only near the surface of the water is probably which of the following? A) a phototroph B) a heterotroph C) a chemotroph D) a lithotroph E) an anaerobe
a
An elderly woman is experiencing fever, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and a cough that occasionally brings up mucus containing blood. She reports having visited family in rural New Mexico over the Labor Day weekend. A GMS-stained sample from her lungs shows the presence of large spherules. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent? A) Coccidioides immitis B) Blastomyces dermatitidis C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis E) Trichophyton rubrum
a
An important function of nomenclature is to A) facilitate unambiguous communication. B) clarify relationships among organisms. C) provide an understanding of evolutionary relationships. D) define the characteristics used for classification. E) provide a detailed description of an organism.
a
An organism that requires chemical nutrients which serve as final electron acceptors is a(n) A) chemotroph. B) phototroph. C) lithotroph. D) autotroph. E) aerobe.
a
Antigens are A) specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign. B) proteins the body produces against invading substances. C) cells that protect the body against invaders. D) proteins on the surface of our cells to which pathogens attach. E) enzymes secreted to destroy a pathogen's cell wall.
a
Antivenin is a(n) A) antitoxin used to treat snakebites. B) antigen produced from a virus. C) antiserum produced from hybridomas. D) vaccine made toward the endotoxin of a virus. E) vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium
a
Bacteria and many other microbes do not ________ and therefore do not fit Linneaus' definition species. A) reproduce sexually B) have nuclei C) exchange genetic material D) have cytoplasmic membranes E) reproduce asexually
a
Bacterial ribosomes are composed of several polypeptides and A) three RNA molecules in two subunits. B) three RNA molecules in three subunits. C) two RNA molecules in two subunits. D) two RNA molecules in a single complex. E) one large RNA molecule in a single complex.
a
Blood agar plates are an example of ________ medium. A) differential B) selective C) reducing D) defined E) transport
a
Carbolfuchsin is the ________ in the acid-fast stain. A) primary stain B) mordant C) decolorizer D) counterstain E) fixing reagent
a
Cholesterols are typically found in ________ cytoplasmic membranes. A) eukaryotic B) bacterial C) archaeal D) prokaryotic E) both eukaryotic and prokaryotic
a
Chronic low-level ingestion of ________ may cause liver cancer. A) aflatoxin B) aspergillin C) ergotamine D) phalloidin E) psilocybin
a
During a stay in the hospital, an accident victim develops symptoms of bacteremia. A blood sample shows the presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs. Lab tests determine that the bacteria are nonhemolytic and bile salt tolerant. The bacteremia is likely due to A) Enterococcus. B) Mycoplasma. C) Staphylococcus. D) Streptococcus. E) Listeria.
a
Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by which type of virus? A) filovirus B) rhabdovirus C) paramyxovirus D) rubulavirus E) pneumovirus
a
Ergometrine, which is used to stimulate labor contractions, is a product of A) Claviceps purpurea. B) Aspergillus C) Amanita phalloides. D) Exophiala. E) Piedraia hortae
a
Frederick Griffith discovered A) transformation. B) transposons. C) the lac operon. D) DNA. E) conjugation.
a
Gamma interferon is sometimes used to treat infections with A) adenoviruses. B) herpesviruses. C) poxviruses. D) parvoviruses. E) both herpesviruses and poxviruses.
a
Genetic manipulation of a microbe to remove one or more virulence factors is a method for producing a(n) ________ vaccine. A) attenuated B) inactived C) toxoid D) combination E) DNA
a
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by A) Escherichia coli O157:H7. B) Serratia marcescens. C) Proteus mirabilis. D) Bacteroides fragilis. E) Salmonella typhi.
a
How are HIV virions rendered virulent? A) The action of protease releases reverse transcriptase and capsomeres after the virion buds from the cell. B) They bud to the surface of the host cell. C) They use a chemokine receptor to remove gp120. D) They bind to smooth muscle cells. E) They contact the cytoplasmic membrane via gp41.
a
How do Prevotella differ from Bacteroides? A) Prevotella are sensitive to bile. B) Prevotella are anaerobic. C) Prevotella are pleomorphic bacilli. D) Prevotella are found in the intestinal, respiratory, and urinary tracts. E) Prevotella possess antiphagocytic capsules.
a
How does aspirin act to decrease the symptoms of inflammation? A) It acts as an antiprostaglandin. B) It is an antitoxoid for most microbial toxins. C) It prevents complement activation. D) It interferes with the action of interferons. E) It blocks the release of histamine.
a
How is pneumonic plague transmitted? A) inhalation of respiratory aerosols from a person infected with Yersinia pestis B) bite of a flea carrying Yersinia pestis C) fomite contact D) contact with the blood of a person infected with Yersinia pestis E) bite of a tick carrying Yersinia pestis
a
Humans become infected with Fasciola by A) ingesting cysts on vegetation. B) consuming cysticerci in contaminated meat. C) ingesting water contaminated with eggs. D) the penetration of cercariae through the skin. E) the bite of infected mosquitoes.
a
If a T cell is exposed to a "hidden" antigen, what kind of immune reaction will result? A) an autoimmune disease B) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction C) a cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction D) allergic contact dermatitis E) an allergy
a
If the codon AAA is changed to AAG, it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example of a A) silent mutation. B) nonsense mutation. C) frameshift mutation. D) dimer formation. E) missense mutation
a
If you were trying to visualize flagella without staining, which microscope would you use? A) phase-contrast B) dark-field C) fluorescent D) confocal E) bright-field
a
IgE antibodies are best described as A) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation. B) the antibodies found in body secretions. C) those involved in complement activation. D) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC). E) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.
a
In Gram staining, ethanol-acetone is used as a A) decolorizing agent. B) counterstain. C) mordant. D) drying agent. E) primary stain.
a
Infection of the respiratory system by ________ may develop into symptoms of a common cold. A) adenoviruses B) cytomegaloviruses C) papillomaviruses D) polyomaviruses E) parvoviruses
a
Infection of the skin by Trichophyton rubrum results in raised red scaly patches of skin, a condition known as A) dermatophytosis. B) candidiasis. C) mucormycosis. D) pityriasis. E) sporothrichosis
a
Infection with the fungus Coccidioides immitis is commonly diagnosed using a(n) ________ assay. A) precipitation B) immunoblot C) direct fluorescent antibody D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) viral neutralization
a
Killed vaccines work by stimulating A) an antibody response. B) phagocytic activity. C) the cell-mediated immune response. D) cytotoxic T cells. E) lymphocyte proliferation.
a
Lipid A is a component of A) lipopolysaccharides. B) plant cell walls. C) cytoplasmic membranes. D) mycolic acid. E) bacterial glycocalyces.
a
Members of the genus Mycoplasma are pleomorphic and stain Gram-negative because they A) lack cell walls. B) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes. C) lack cytoplasmic membranes. D) have mycolic acid in their cell walls. E) have a rudimentary cell wall.
a
Methylene blue can be used to stain DNA because it A) forms ionic bonds with DNA. B) changes the pH and therefore the structure of DNA. C) covalently bonds with DNA. D) makes DNA electron dense. E) is an effective fixing agent for nucleic acids.
a
Multiple sclerosis is A) a type IV hypersensitivity disease in which cytotoxic T cells attack the myelin sheath of neurons. B) a genetic birth defect of the nervous system. C) a type II hypersensitivity to the myelin of neurons. D) the formation of antibodies against transplanted tissue. E) a neurological disease due to the accumulation of immune complexes in nerves.
a
Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory A) in a reducing medium. B) in a standard incubator. C) in standard Petri plates. D) on blood agar plates. E) in standard complex media.
a
The proportion of (plasma/leukocytes/RBCs), as determined by a differential white blood cell count, can serve as a sign of disease.
leukocytes
Opsonization is A) the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis. B) the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the blood vessels at the site of infection. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. E) phagocyte receptors detecting PAMPs.
a
Painful swelling and rapidly spreading subcutaneous tissue necrosis is characteristic of a wound infection by A) Clostridium perfringens. B) Clostridium tetani. C) Mycobacterium leprae. D) Bacillus anthracis. E) Clostridium difficile.
a
Semiconservative DNA replication means that A) each daughter DNA molecule is composed of one original strand and one new strand. B) nucleotides are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA. C) the cell can proofread its newly synthesized DNA only part of the time. D) the sequence of a DNA molecule is preserved as it is being replicated. E) each strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule is replicated differently.
a
Some bacteria have a water-soluble outer slime layer composed of A) carbohydrate. B) lipid. C) peptidoglycan. D) protein. E) lipoteichoic acid.
a
Some members of ________ have hami. A) archaea B) bacteria C) eukaryotes D) archaea and bacteria E) bacteria and eukaryotes
a
Streptococci are frequently classified by A) Lancefield antigen designations. B) the type of enzymes the bacteria produce. C) their staining properties. D) their ability to produce a capsule. E) the diseases they produce.
a
TLRs are A) phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs. B) the coatings of pathogens by complement. C) molecules that damage cells, resulting in cell lysis. D) present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
a
The HIV virion is best described as a(n) A) segmented RNA genome in an irregular polyhedron capsid with envelope. B) unsegmented RNA genome in a helical capsid with an envelope. C) unsegmented RNA genome in a long flexible helical capsid with envelope. D) segmented RNA genome in an icosahedral capsid, without envelope. E) segmented RNA genome in helical capsids and an envelope.
a
The ________ primarily infects lymphocytes. A) BK virus B) Adenovirus C) B19 virus D) HHV-6 E) HHV-8
a
The ________ stage of a protozoan is the actively feeding and reproducing stage. A) trophozoite B) cyst C) cysticercus D) encysted E) merozoite
a
The assay represented in Figure 17.2 is used to A) detect antigen-specific antibodies in patient serum. B) detect specific antigen in patient serum. C) determine the titer of IgM in patient serum. D) determine the presence of an antibody-modifying enzyme in a patient sample. E) detect cytopathic effects of viral infection.
a
The bacterial ________ facilitates the process of bacterial cell division. A) nucleoid B) inclusion C) pilus D) cytoskeleton E) fimbriae
a
The bacterium ________ is a common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis contracted from contaminated food, especially poultry. A) Campylobacter jejuni B) Helicobacter pylori C) Vibrio cholerae D) Leptospira interrogans E) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
a
The cells illustrated in Figure 3.1 are in a(n) ________ environment. A) hypotonic B) hypertonic C) isotonic D) fluid mosaic E) passive
a
The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as A) responders to invasion. B) passive barriers. C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense. D) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens. E) both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features
a
The condition known as graft-versus-host disease may result after A) a bone marrow allograft. B) a mismatched blood transfusion. C) a bone allograft. D) a plasmapheresis procedure. E) any type of allograft procedure
a
The disease known as dengue hemorrhagic fever is actually A) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with the dengue virus. B) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with the dengue virus. C) an antibody-antigen complex reaction. D) the result of co-infection with other arboviruses. E) the chronic carrier state of the dengue virus.
a
The events of ________ are initiated at sequences called origins. A) DNA replication B) translation C) splicing D) transcription E) transposition
a
The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) species resistance. D) microbial antagonism. E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity.
a
The horizontal transfer process known as transduction A) involves a virus. B) requires a pilus. C) requires a cell to be "competent." D) requires a plasmid. E) involves a mutagen
a
The majority of mature, self-tolerant lymphocytes are found in A) the MALT. B) lymph nodes. C) the thymus. D) the spleen. E) the tonsils.
a
The modified amino acid fMet is essential for A) bacterial translation. B) bacterial transcription. C) eukaryotic transcription. D) eukaryotic translation. E) eukaryotic mRNA processing.
a
The presence of active motile multiflagellated trophozoites in vaginal or urethral secretion is indicative of infection with A) Trichomonas vaginalis. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Giardia intestinalis. D) Acanthamoeba. E) Balantidium coli.
a
The presence of fungus in patient specimens can be detected by the ________ test. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) indirect fluorescent antibody C) hemagglutination D) complement fixation E) ELISA
a
The process indicated by the arrow in Figure 7.1 represents A) lagging strand synthesis. B) leading strand synthesis. C) transcription. D) translation. E) recombination.
a
Which of the following have a periplasmic space? A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria D) archaea E) eukaryotes
a
The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and, therefore, do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. B) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs. C) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents. D) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs. E) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue.
a
The skin lesions characteristic of cutaneous infections with Bacillus anthracis are A) eschars. B) acne. C) impetigo. D) scarlatina. E) pus-filled ulcers.
a
The small, oxidase positive nonmotile bacterium ________ is part of the normal microbiota of dogs, but bites can lead to infection in humans. A) Pasteurella B) Hafnia C) Salmonella D) Enterobacter E) Yersina
a
The tsetse fly is responsible for the spread of A) African sleeping sickness. B) Chagas' disease. C) filariasis. D) kala-azar. E) toxoplasmosis
a
The tuberculin response is mediated by A) memory T cells. B) mast cells. C) B lymphocytes. D) plasma cells. E) eosinophils
a
The vaccine against smallpox developed by Edward Jenner is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine. A) attenuated B) whole inactivated C) subunit D) toxoid E) combination
a
Transfusion reactions are the result of antibody reaction to A) glycolipids and glycoproteins on the surface of red blood cells. B) MHC molecules on red blood cells. C) MHC molecules on white blood cells. D) plasma proteins. E) foreign antibodies
a
Treatment with glucocorticoids to suppress type IV hypersensitivity may result in A) acquired immunodeficiency. B) anaphylaxis. C) autoimmune disease. D) DiGeorge syndrome. E) primary immunodeficiency.
a
Trypanosoma cruzi is introduced into the body by A) feces containing trypomastigotes contaminating a bite wound. B) the bite of a tsetse fly, which introduces the trypomastigotes into the body. C) ingesting food contaminated with the parasite. D) the bite of a sand fly that has ingested phagocytes containing the parasite. E) wearing contact lenses cleaned with contaminated tap water.
a
Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using a(n) ________ on sputum (lung fluid) samples. A) direct fluorescent antibody test B) complement fixation test C) neutralization test D) immunochromatographic assay E) viral hemagglutination tes
a
Type I diabetes is a(n) A) autoimmune disease. B) immunodeficiency disease. C) immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity disorder. D) delayed hypersensitivity disorder. E) immediate hypersensitivity disorder.
a
Typical eukaryotic genomes are composed of ________ chromosomes. A) multiple linear B) multiple circular C) a single circular D) a single linear E) both linear and circular
a
Viruses are generally measured in A) nanometers. B) millimeters. C) micrometers. D) centimeters. E) decimeters
a
What characteristic does Vibrio share with Salmonella? A) Both have O polysaccharide antigens. B) Both are oxidase positive. C) Both have polar flagella. D) Both have similar shape. E) Both are spread primarily by fecal contamination.
a
What characteristic of Borrelia burgdorferi makes it an unusual bacterium? A) It is a Gram-negative bacterium that lacks an LPS layer. B) It is a spirochete that is motile. C) It causes damage to multiple organ systems. D) Transovarian transmission of the pathogen is rare. E) It is transmitted by an arthropod vector.
a
What is the causative pathogen for bubonic and pneumonic plague? A) Yersinia pestis B) Yersinia enterocolitica C) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis D) Salmonella enterica E) Salmonella flexneri
a
What is the characteristic lesion of Yersinia pestis? A) a bubo B) a chancroid C) a soft chancre D) petechiae E) oozing abscesses in the intestinal wall
a
What is the likelihood the average college freshman has been infected with HHV-4, also known as Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)? A) 70% B) 40% C) 16% D) 4% E) 1%
a
What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium? A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis E) a sty Answer:
a
What is the underlying problem in most acquired immunodeficiencies? A) declining cell-mediated immunity B) declining humoral immunity C) production of autoantibodies D) eosinophilia E) anemia
a
What viral disease has been successfully eradicated? A) smallpox B) cowpox C) vaccinia D) varicella E) erythrovirus
a
What was the first substance produced by microorganisms to be used pharmaceutically? A) penicillin B) streptokinase C) phenylalanine D) rennin E) erythromycin
a
When runoff containing excessive nutrients enters streams and lakes it can result in an overgrowth of cyanobacteria and algae, a process known as A) eutrophication. B) oxidation. C) fixation. D) ammonification. E) both ammonification and fixation.
a
Which aquatic zone in a lake will have the highest nutrient levels and therefore the densest microbial populations? A) the littoral zone B) the limnetic zone C) the profundal zone D) the benthic zone E) the sediment zone
a
Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream? A) monocyte B) lymphocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil E) neutrophil
a
Which of the following RNA virus families include the smallest viral pathogens in animals? A) Picornaviridae B) Coronaviridae C) Paramyxoviridae D) Arenaviridae E) Rhinoviridae
a
Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum
a
Which of the following characteristics is shared by the skin and mucous membranes? A) They are both constantly shedding and replacing cells. B) They both have cilia. C) The outer layers are composed of dead cells. D) Sebum may be present. E) Lysozymes are always present
a
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a genus name? A) It is usually an adjective. B) It is written before the specific epithet. C) It is always capitalized. D) It is either underlined or in italics. E) It is one of two names used to identify an organism.
a
Which of the following is a ciliated pathogen of the intestinal tract? A) Balantidium B) Plasmodium C) Trypanosoma D) Leishmania E) Giardia
a
Which of the following is a eukaryote involved in foodborne illness? A) Toxoplasma gondii B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Yersinia enterocolitica E) Naegleria fowleri
a
Which of the following is a vaccine-preventable disease? A) genital warts B) genital herpes C) fifth disease D) infectious mononucleosis E) roseola
a
Which of the following is a waterborne pathogen that causes severe diarrhea? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Naegleria fowleri C) Campylobacter jejuni D) Toxoplasma gondii E) Gonyaulax species
a
Which of the following is an antiphagocytic factor of Staphylococcus? A) protein A B) catalase C) hemolysin D) protein M E) hyaluronidase
a
Which of the following is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? A) watery eyes after exposure to animals B) destruction of red blood cells after an incompatible blood transfusion C) farmer's lung D) immune complexes accumulation in the kidneys E) the tuberculin response
a
Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis? A) the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in CSF phagocytes B) a catalase positive reaction C) the presence of lipid A D) the lack of lipooligosaccharide E) the presence of white blood cells in the CSF
a
Which of the following is found at the 5' end of a DNA strand? A) a phosphate group B) a hydrogen bond C) a hydroxyl group D) histones E) a methyl group
a
Which of the following is referred to as the "death cap" mushroom? A) Amanita phalloides B) Gyromitra esculenta C) Psilocybe cubensis D) Amanita muscaria E) Cortinarius gentilis
a
Which of the following is required for transposition? A) F+ plasmid B) bacteriophage C) insertion sequence D) inverted repeat E) competence
a
Which of the following is the best definition of "empty magnification"? A) An image is magnified so much resolution and contrast are lost. B) A specimen is so lacking in color it cannot be observed on a light microscope. C) A magnified specimen is so small it cannot be resolved on a light microscope. D) The background on the field is almost totally black. E) A magnified image has lots of empty space around a small object
a
Which of the following is the most correct description of the function of reverse transcriptase? A) It synthesizes a DNA strand from an RNA template, degrades the RNA strand, and replaces the RNA with a new DNA strand. B) It synthesizes an RNA strand from an integrated DNA, then synthesizes the complementary strand to produce a double-stranded RNA. C) It synthesizes a DNA from an integrated DNA template, then synthesizes multiple RNA copies of the newly synthesized DNA molecule. D) It synthesizes an RNA strand from an infecting single-strand RNA then synthesizes multiple RNA copies of both strands. E) It synthesizes a DNA strand from an infecting RNA strand, then uses the DNA as a template for synthesis of multiple new RNA strands.
a
Which of the following is transmitted by the fecal-oral route? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Plasmodium C) Schistosoma D) Trichomonas E) Schistosoma and Trichomonas
a
Which of the following media is preferred for the culture of fungi? A) Sabouraud dextrose agar B) sheep blood agar C) MacConkey agar D) chocolate agar E) Thayer-Martin media
a
Which of the following methods provides information about the number of living cells in a sample of bacterial culture? A) serial dilution and viable plate count B) membrane filtration C) a Petroff-Hauser counting chamber D) flow cytometry E) a Coulter counter
a
Which of the following nematodes can be transmitted by mosquitoes? A) Wuchereria bancrofti B) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Ancylostoma duodenale D) Necator americanus E) Enterobius vermicularis
a
Which of the following prokaryotic cells contain an outer membrane? A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria D) archaea E) all prokaryotes
a
Which of the following proteins are part of the first line of defense against microbial invasion? A) dermacidins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) C3 and C5 E) interferons
a
Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC I proteins and helps stabilize the binding of epitopes to T cell receptors? A) CD8 B) MHC I C) CD26 D) CD4 E) CD95
a
Which of the following regarding all of the tapeworms that infect humans is TRUE? A) They all have non-human intermediate hosts. B) The larva can directly infect humans upon contact with skin. C) Humans are the normal intermediate hosts. D) They are transmitted by insect vectors. E) They reside in the muscle tissue of the definitive host.
a
Which of the following species of Plasmodium causes cerebral malaria? A) only P. falciparum B) P. ovale and P. malariae C) P. ovale and P. vivax D) P. vivax and P. malariae E) P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. vivax
a
Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is FALSE? A) It is primarily a disease of humans. B) It produces endospores. C) It has a capsule. D) It normally dwells in the soil and can survive in the environment for centuries or longer. E) It can be lethal even after treatment because antimicrobial drugs do not inactivate accumulated anthrax toxin.
a
Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE? A) T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules. B) T lymphocytes directly attack cells and produce the cell-mediated immune response. C) T lymphocytes are called such because they mature in the thymus. D) T lymphocytes have TCRs that recognize antigen only if it is bound to MHC. E) There are three types of T lymphocytes.
a
Cholera toxin causes intestinal cells to secrete large amounts of electrolytes, resulting in a very watery diarrhea
t
Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE? A) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen. B) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter. C) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites. D) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR. E) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.
a
Which of the following statements concerning conjugation pili is FALSE? A) Pili are longer than fimbriae and flagella. B) Pili facilitate the transfer of DNA among bacterial cells. C) Pili are long, hollow tubules. D) Not all bacteria have pili. E) A bacterial cell will usually have only one or two pili.
a
Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is FALSE? A) They live for many years and function as memory cells. B) They are descended from activated B cells. C) They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis. D) They secrete a single type of antibody molecule specific for a single epitope. E) The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for weeks.
a
Which of the following statements concerning tetanus is FALSE? A) Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails. B) Its toxin causes simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a small, motile, obligate anaerobe. D) It produces a terminal endospore that gives the cell a distinctive "lollipop" appearance. E) Its diagnostic feature is characteristic muscle contractions, which are often noted too late to save the patient.
a
Which of the following statements concerning the causative agent of syphilis is TRUE? A) It is a large helically coiled bacterium motile by means of endoflagella. B) It is an intracellular parasite. C) It is a non-motile comma-shaped bacterium. D) It is a large bacillus with peritrichous flagella. E) It is pleomorphic and motile by means of gliding motility.
a
Which of the following statements regarding Ehrlichia is FALSE? A) It usually causes a spotted rash similar to Rocky Mountain spotted fever. B) The organism reproduces inside the host's phagosomes. C) It is transmitted by ticks. D) It is an emerging infectious disease. E) It has three stages: elementary body, initial body, and morula.
a
Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE? A) There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains. B) Up to 40% of the population are carriers. C) Humans are the only natural carriers. D) Transmission is via respiratory droplets. E) It often causes meningitis.
a
Which of the following statements regarding Streptococcus pyogenes is FALSE? A) It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization. B) It is beta-hemolytic. C) It has group A Lancefield antigens. D) It produces streptolysins. E) It can be lysogenized by a temperate bacteriophage to produce erythrogenic toxins.
a
Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is TRUE? A) TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes. B) TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins. C) Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors. D) NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs. E) MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins.
a
Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus
a
Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes? A) formaldehyde B) alcohol C) synthetic detergents D) fluorescent dyes E) alum
a
Which of the following substances stimulates the phagocytic activity of phagocytes? A) gamma interferons B) alpha interferons C) beta interferons D) antiviral proteins E) leukotrienes
a
Which of the following viruses are the only ssDNA viruses that cause disease in humans? A) Parvoviridae B) Hepadnaviridae C) Poxviridae D) Polyomaviridae E) Herpesviridae
a
Which of the following viruses is a DNA virus that infects liver cells? A) hepadnaviruses B) herpesviruses C) polyomaviruses D) poxviruses E) adenoviruses
a
Which of the following viruses is considered a childhood disease, was first identified by a German physician, and is known to cause "three-day measles"? A) rubella B) roseola C) echovirus D) coxsackie A virus E) rhinovirus
a
Which of the following would be most effective in reducing the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere? A) cyanobacteria B) anaerobic microbes C) heterotrophic organisms D) fungi E) nitrogen fixers
a
Why are "fortified" foods more likely to spoil than are unfortified foods? A) The added vitamins and minerals can promote microbial growth. B) The foods are fortified by the addition of vitamin-producing microbes. C) Every step of modification or manipulation of food increases the chance for contamination. D) Vitamins are frequently contaminated by the microbes that produced them. E) The vitamins require a neutral pH environment, which is suitable for many microbes.
a
You are shown a micrograph from a light microscope in which the specimens appear bright compared to the background. The micrograph is probably from a(n) ________ microscope. A) dark-field B) phase-contrast C) Nomarski D) bright-field E) atomic force
a
he first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) species resistance. D) microbial antagonism. E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity
a
he rash of spotted fever rickettsiosis is the result of A) capillary damage. B) infection of skin cells. C) allergic reaction to the vector. D) production of a toxin that causes inflammation. E) infection of sebaceous glands.
a
increased sebum secretion can fuel the overgrowth of the opportunistic pathogen ________ in its normal habitat, leading to disease. A) Propionibacterium acnes B) Streptococcus agalactiae C) viridians streptococci D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae E) Actinomyces
a
Of the three diseases caused by Yersinia pestis, only (bubonic/black/pneumonic) plague is communicable between humans.
pneumonic
Materials that are added to a vaccine to increase the effective antigenicity are known as (antigens/adjuvants/antibodies)
adjuvants
A serological test that involves the clumping of antigen and antibody is the (agglutination/antigen/ELISA) test.
agglutination
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are also commonly known as (allergies/autoimmunities/inflammation).
allergies
Garlic contains an antimicrobial substance called (acetic acid/allicin/benzoic acid).
allicin
The most common type of transplant involves an (allograft/autograft/isograft).
allograft
Pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae often involves the destruction of (alveoli/macrophages/epithelium) and the production of bloody sputum
alveoli
The chemical 5-bromouracil mimics the chemical structure of thymine, making it a(n) (analog/nucleotide/precursor) of thymine.
analog
When the release of chemicals in an allergic reaction exceeds the body's ability to adjust, a life-threatening condition called (anaphylaxis/autoimmunity/inflammation) may occur.
anaphylaxis
) The normal microbiota compete with pathogens in a variety of ways to protect the body, creating a situation known as microbial (antagonism/competition/resistance).
antagonism
The human T-lymphotropic virus 1 causes A) hairy cell leukemia. B) adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia. C) Hodgkin's lymphoma. D) hepatic cancer. E) Burkitt's lymphoma.
b
Plasma cells produce (antibody/chemokine/cytotoxic) molecules.
antibody
The (codon/anticodon/loop) of a transfer RNA molecule is complementary to a codon in a messenger RNA molecule.
anticodon
) Benzoic acid is largely a(n) (antifungal/antiprotozoal/pickling) agent and does not affect the growth of many bacteria.
antifungal
The body recognizes antigens by the three-dimensional shapes of regions known as (antigenic/antibody/immunologic) determinants.
antigenic
Some organisms use vitamins as (oxidizers/antioxidants/peroxidases) to be able to live as aerobes. Answer:
antioxidants
the primary treatment for food-borne botulism is (antibiotics/antitoxin/muscle relaxants).
antitoxin
Antisera directed against toxins are known as (antibodies/antitoxins/anti-antibodies).
antitoxins
Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).
antivenins
The resolution of a microscope lens is a function of the lens' (aperture/color/contrast).
aperture
The "dipstick" illustrated in Figure 17.3 is used in a(n) (immunodiffusion/immunochromatographic/ immunofluorescent) assay. Answer: immunochromatographic
application
Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) vodka; potatoes B) white wine; must C) whiskey; cereal grains D) beer; malt E) brandy; fruit juice
b
The most common nematode infection worldwide is (ascariasis/filariasis/pinworms).
ascariasis
Exposure to (Aspergillus/Candida/Microsporum) species most commonly causes allergies.
aspergillus
Because of the existence of (acute/asymptomatic/passive) carriers, the eradication of meningococcal disease is unlikely
asymptomatic
A researcher uses genetic recombination techniques to remove a toxin gene from a pathogen, producing a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit/toxoid) vaccine.
attenuated
An advantage of (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) vaccines is that they usually elicit cell-mediated immune responses.
attenuated
Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (adjuvant/attenuated/inactivated) form of the virus.
attenuated
Rubella vaccine is a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) vaccine and should not be given to pregnant women.
attenuated
Jess has A- blood type, has never received a blood transfusion, and never been pregnant. Antibodies against what blood antigens could be present in Jess' blood? A) O and Rh antigens B) B antigens C) A antigens D) B and Rh antigens E) O antigens
b
The best strategy for preventing fungal disease is (avoidance/prophylatic treatment/vaccination).
avoidance
) Prokaryotic operons typically include a(n) ________ and a(n) ________ with multiple genes. A) operator; terminator B) operator; promoter C) promoter; repressor D) inducer; repressor E) CAP-binding site; inducer
b
) The process of phagocytosis involve all of the following EXCEPT A) chemotaxis. B) secretion of cytotoxins. C) adhesion. D) elimination. E) vesicle fusion
b
) Which of the following is both a codon for an amino acid and a start signal? A) AAA B) AUG C) UAG D) GAU E) UGA
b
4) Protein synthesis occurs in the A) nucleus. B) ribosome. C) inclusion. D) cytoskeleton. E) periplasmic space
b
4) Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE? A) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs. B) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the bright-field light microscope. C) Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized. D) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for "cluster of differentiation." E) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes.
b
A child has a mild fever and a macular rash primarily on the torso. No lesions are evident in the mouth, and the child has not complained of pain. Which of the following diseases might the child have? A) hand-foot-and-mouth disease B) three-day measles C) red measles D) dengue fever E) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
b
A hemagglutination test is useful for A) determining antibody titer. B) blood typing. C) determining effectiveness of immunization. D) detecting presence of a pathogen in patient serum. E) diagnosing viral infection
b
A laboratory protocol lists the following ingredients: 1 g sucrose, 16.4 g Na2HPO4, 1.5 g (NH4)3PO4, 0.02 g CaCO3, KNO3, water to 1 liter and autoclave. This recipe is for a ________ medium. A) defined agar B) defined broth C) complex broth D) reducing agar E) complex enrichment broth
b
A lesion called ________ is a characteristic of an infection with Haemophilus ducreyi. A) a bubo B) a chancroid or soft chancre C) an eschar D) ophthalmia neonatorum E) petechiae
b
A microbiologist inoculates a flask of broth with 1 ml of 100 bacterial cells/ml. The generation time of the species is 1 hour, and there is no lag phase. How long will it be before the culture contains more than 6,000 cells/ml? A) 12 hours B) 6 hours C) 2 hours D) 4 hours E) 10 hours
b
A microorganism grows in the lab on medium containing mineral salts but no organic compounds. The organism is likely to be a(n) A) heterotroph. B) autotroph. C) chemotroph. D) chemoheterotroph. E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided
b
A new industrial park in your community dumps its wastewater into a large aerated pond, to which nutrients are added. The water from this pond makes its way into a nearby marsh, which eventually drains into a slow-moving stream. This is an example of A) artificial bioremediation. B) natural bioremediation. C) bioreporter use. D) natural fermentation. E) a method to make potable water.
b
A polypeptide in a wild type microbe contains the sequence Leu-Pro-Tyr-Ser-Pro. A phenotypic variant of the species has the peptide sequence Leu-Pro-Cys-Ser-Pro. This is an example of a(n) ________ mutation. A) nonsense B) missense C) silent D) frameshift E) inversion
b
A retiree, tired of Minnesota winters, moves to Tucson, Arizona. He hopes the warm dry climate will ease his chronic respiratory problems. He soon experiences a new kind of weather, a massive dust storm. With which of the following fungi might he become infected? A) Blastomyces dermatitidis B) Coccidioides immitis C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis E) Aspergillus fumigatus
b
A scientist discovers a new virus affecting birds. After isolation, the virus is characterized as having single-strand RNA in an icosahedral capsid and an envelope. To which of the following virus families might this new virus belong? A) Coronaviridae B) Flaviviridae C) Orthomyxoviridae D) Picornaviridae E) Reoviridae
b
A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation? A) The child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza. B) The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV. C) The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections. D) The child has neither influenza nor RSV. E) The results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.
b
A type of lymphocyte called a(n) ________ detects cells with abnormal surface proteins and kills them. A) eosinophil B) NK cell C) neutrophil D) basophil E) mast cell
b
Acidic dyes are commonly used for ________ stains. A) acid-fast B) negative C) flagellar D) endospore E) Gram
b
After a trip to several South American countries, a middle-aged man becomes ill. He becomes anemic, loses weight, and runs a fever. The clinician notes a recently healed sore near his nose. Microscopic examination of a blood smear does not reveal anything other than the anemia. What parasitic infection is consistent with this scenario? A) malaria B) leishmaniasis C) Chagas' disease D) giardiasis E) balantidiasis
b
An agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing which becomes progressively worse. Tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges. With which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent? A) allergic reaction B) type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity C) type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity D) autoimmunity E) acquired immunodeficiency
b
An avid gardener in eastern North America begins to have a fever and cough. A sample from her lungs contains yeast cells and pus. She may be infected with A) Amanita phalloides. B) Blastomyces dermatitidis. C) Claviceps purpurea. D) Mucor. E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis.
b
An emerging fatal disease in humans caused by one of the members of the Paramyxoviridae is known as A) dengue virus. B) Nipah virus. C) respiratory syncytial virus. D) Eastern encephalitis virus. E) rubella virus.
b
An opportunistic pathogen frequently seen in AIDS patients, ________ spreads rapidly to various organs. A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare C) Mycobacterium leprae D) Mycobacterium bovis E) Mycobacterium ulcerans
b
Anti-human antibodies (specific for human IgG antibodies) with fluorescent molecules covalently attached are used for A) direct fluorescent antibody tests. B) indirect fluorescent antibody tests. C) direct ELISAs. D) indirect ELISAs. E) immunodiffusion tests
b
Antibody binding to receptors on the thyroid may result in A) multiple sclerosis. B) Graves' disease. C) DiGeorge syndrome. D) type I diabetes. E) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b
Antimicrobial peptides called ________ are secreted in sweat and damage bacteria and fungi. A) antibodies B) dermicidins C) TLRs D) complement factors E) cytokines
b
Bordetella pertussis causes disease by A) the development of pneumonia. B) interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea. C) suppressing the production of mucus by the respiratory lining. D) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the larynx. E) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.
b
Cat scratch disease is caused by A) Bartonella bacilliformis. B) Bartonella henselae. C) Bartonella quintana. D) Bartonella peliosis. E) Bartonella angiomatosis.
b
DNA damage caused by nitrous acid results in ________ mutations. A) insertion B) substitution C) deletion D) frameshift E) both insertion and deletion
b
Deltavirus (hepatitis D virus) requires co-infection with ________ to produce infectious virions. A) hepatitis A virus B) hepatitis B virus C) hepatitis C virus D) arenaviruses E) hepatitis E virus
b
During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs? A) lag phase B) log phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) The susceptibility is the same for all phases.
b
Endocytosis and exocytosis are means of transport used by A) bacteria. B) eukaryotes. C) archaea. D) all prokaryotes. E) nothing; no cells use both processes.
b
Figure 16.2 illustrates an interaction between a(n) A) antigen presenting cell and a B lymphocyte. B) antigen presenting cell and a T lymphocyte. C) NK cell and its target cell. D) CTL and its target cell. E) antigen presenting cell and a plasma cell.
b
First line of defense may be described as A) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
b
Genetic elements known as promoters are initiation points in the process of A) DNA replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) mutation repair. E) transformation.
b
How can Leptospira interrogans be distinguished from other spirochetes? A) It stains purple with the Gram stain. B) One end of the bacterium looks like a question mark. C) It is highly motile. D) It can be found in multiple locations in the body. E) It cannot be cultured on laboratory media
b
How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neurons, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) Antibodies to the toxin bind the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle preventing relaxation
b
Humans infected with Brucella species develop ________ characterized by fever, chills, sweating, muscle aches, and headache. A) rabbit fever B) undulant fever C) trench fever D) Q fever E) cat scratch fever
b
Hybridomas are produced by A) combining two virus-infected cells. B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells. C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence. D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell. E) combining two bacterial infected cells.
b
If a microbiology lab student left the safranin out of the Gram stain procedure, what would be the result? A) All cells would be purple. B) Gram-positive cells would be purple and Gram-negative cells would be colorless. C) All cells would be pink. D) Gram-positive cells would be pink and Gram-negative cells would be purple. E) Gram-positive cells would be colorless and Gram-negative cells would be pink.
b
Important members of the intestinal microbiota are the strictly anaerobic A) Enterobacter. B) Bacteroides. C) Pseudomonas. D) Bordetella. E) Legionella.
b
In conjugation, F+ cells A) serve as recipient cells. B) contain an F plasmid. C) do not have conjugation pili. D) can transfer DNA only to other F+ cells. E) contain "jumping genes."
b
Infection with ________ may result in peptic ulcers and stomach cancer. A) Campylobacter jejuni B) Helicobacter pylori C) Borrelia recurrentis D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus E) Rickettsia rickettsii
b
Low contrast specimens are made easier to see by A) increasing the amount of light passing through the slide. B) using dyes that react with their structures. C) adding color filters to the microscope. D) using smaller aperture lenses. E) drying them in a vacuum.
b
Mycetismus is caused by A) ingestion of food contaminated with fungus. B) ingestion of toxic mushrooms. C) ingestion of milk from a cow that has ingested feed contaminated with fungal toxins. D) inhalation of fungal allergens. E) contamination of a wound with pathogenic fungi present in the skin.
b
Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is commonly caused by A) systemic tuberculosis. B) Nocardia. C) Actinomyces. D) penicillin-resistant staphylococci. E) cutaneous anthrax.
b
Mycobacterium leprae primarily infects A) macrophages. B) skin cells. C) neurons. D) macrophages and skin cells. E) skin cells and neurons.
b
One-thousandth of a meter is a A) yard. B) millimeter (mm). C) micrometer (μm). D) nanometer (nm). E) centimeter (cm)
b
Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
b
People who handle birds infected with ________ may develop pneumonia-like disease. A) Chlamydophila pneumonia B) Chlamydophila psittaci C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Ehrlichia chaffeensis E) Orientia tsutsugamushi
b
Primary immunodeficiency diseases A) develop later in life. B) are detectable close to birth. C) may be caused by malnutrition. D) are never associated with genetic defects. E) are sometimes caused by severe stress.
b
Primary immunodeficiency diseases may be the result of A) development of food allergies. B) genetic defects of immune system development. C) infection with HIV. D) exposure to environmental toxins. E) treatment with immunosuppressive drugs.
b
Proteins on the surface of phagocytes called ________ aid in the detection of pathogen molecules. A) lectins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) lectins and C3 protein E) both TLRs and NOD proteins
b
Public health scientists discover and become concerned about a new strain of RNA virus among farm animals, especially geese and pigs, in the Midwest. Each virion is composed of lipid, helical proteins, and multiple pieces of RNA. This new virus may be a(n) A) rotavirus. B) influenza virus. C) hantavirus. D) dengue virus. E) coronavirus.
b
Rabies virus can be directly detected in brain tissue using a(n) ________ assay. A) viral neutralization B) direct fluorescent antibody C) immunodiffusion precipitation D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) immunoblot
b
Red mites (chiggers) spread ________ among both humans and rodents. A) Borrelia recurrentis B) Orientia tsutsugamushi C) Rickettsia rickettsii D) Ehrlichia chaffeensis E) Rickettsia typhi
b
Secondary metabolites are often useful, and are obtained by A) harvesting a culture during log phase. B) allowing a culture to enter stationary phase. C) growing a culture at sub-optimal temperature. D) adding chemicals that alter metabolic pathways. E) using continuous flow culturing.
b
Shingles, or herpes zoster, is caused by the virus that also causes A) cold sores. B) chickenpox. C) smallpox. D) molluscum contagiosum. E) warts
b
Some ________ use group translocation as a means of transport. A) eukaryotes B) bacteria C) archaea D) protozoa E) eukaryotes and prokaryotes
b
Sulfur dioxide is added to "must" in the production of wine to A) improve the flavor. B) allow more control over the fermentation process. C) provide a necessary nutrient for the fermentation process. D) prevent tannins from leaching out of wood into the fermenting wine. E) both enhance flavor and promote fermentation
b
The Gram stain works because of differences in the ________ of bacteria. A) genetic characteristics B) cell walls C) cell membranes D) antigens E) capsules
b
The ________ method provides an estimate of the CFUs (colony-forming units) in a sample. A) Coulter-counter B) viable plate-count C) streak-plate D) turbidity E) direct microscopic-count
b
The ________ spreads more parasitic diseases to humans than any other vector. A) kissing bug B) mosquito C) tick D) louse E) mite
b
The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its A) resolution. B) numerical aperture. C) refraction. D) contrast. E) magnification.
b
The accumulation of glucose 6-phosphate inside a bacterial cell via phosphorylation of glucose is an example of A) facilitated diffusion. B) group translocation. C) osmosis. D) plasmolysis. E) diffusion.
b
The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube. B) a cloudy solution in the tube. C) loss of color in the tube. D) a fluorescent precipitate. E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs
b
The definitive host of a parasite is A) the host for immature stages of the parasite. B) where the mature form of the parasite occurs. C) also the vector for the parasite. D) the host that the parasite name is based on. E) the host for the dormant stage of the parasite.
b
The endosomes of cells infected with chlamydia are filled up with the form known as A) elementary bodies. B) reticulate bodies. C) inclusion bodies. D) initial bodies. E) morula
b
The growth pattern in Figure 20.1 is characteristic of which organism? A) Klebsiella B) Proteus C) Pseudomonas D) Salmonella E) Shigella
b
The helminth parasite Schistosoma A) is a cestode. B) uses snails as an intermediate host. C) has proglottids. D) is a roundworm. E) is a liver fluke.
b
The pathogenicity of primary tuberculosis is due to the fact that the mycobacteria A) are not phagocytized. B) prevent fusion of lysosomes with vesicles. C) form a pseudomembrane. D) destroy helper T cells. E) are carried by macrophages to a variety of sites.
b
The presence of ________ can be used to distinguish Staphylococcus from other Gram-positive cocci. A) enterotoxins B) catalase enzyme C) protein M D) kinases E) hemolysins
b
The primary risk to humans infected with Echinococcus granulosus is A) development of cysticerci. B) formation of hydatid cysts. C) intestinal obstruction. D) anemia. E) infection of the fetus
b
The responses observed in type IV hypersensitivities result from the action of A) IgE antibodies and mast cells. B) T cells and phagocytes. C) IgG and complement. D) autoantibodies. E) inflammatory chemicals.
b
The rules of naming organisms are called A) taxonomy. B) nomenclature. C) classification. D) binomials. E) identification.
b
The use of salt and sugar in preserving various types of foods is an application of which of the following concepts? A) nitrogen fixation B) osmotic pressure C) pH D) hydrostatic pressure E) quorum sensing
b
The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are A) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils. B) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes. C) macrophages and eosinophils. D) macrophages and neutrophils. E) neutrophils and dendritic cells
b
Transfer of random pieces of DNA mediated by phage is known as A) transformation of competent cells. B) generalized transduction. C) conjugation. D) transposition. E) specialized transduction.
b
Triatoma, commonly called "kissing bugs," are vectors of A) African sleeping sickness. B) Chagas' disease. C) Cyclosporiasis. D) Leishmania. E) schistosomiasis.
b
Tungsten is a reagent used in the A) acid-fast stain. B) electron microscopy stain. C) endospore stain. D) flagellar stain. E) negative stain.
b
Two bacterial strains have the same genes for metabolizing a carbohydrate, but one is wild-type for a regulatory inducer while the genetic variant does not produce the inducer. Which of the following statements is CORRECT with regard to the metabolic pathway enzymes? A) The bacteria have the same phenotype. B) The bacteria have the same genotype but different phenotypes. C) The genotypes and phenotypes of the bacteria are the same. D) The bacteria are phenotypically the same but have different genotypes. E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.
b
Viruses are not included in the taxonomic scheme proposed by Carl Woese because they lack A) genetic material. B) ribosomal RNA. C) proteins. D) lipid membranes. E) cytoplasm.
b
What biochemical test is used to distinguish between the Enterobacteriaceae and the Pasteurellaceae? A) lactose fermentation B) oxidase test C) motility D) pigment production E) Gram stain
b
What do Echinococcus granulosus, Entamoeba histolytica, and Enterobius vermicularis have in common? A) They are transmitted by insect vectors. B) They live in the intestines of their definitive host. C) They are intracellular parasites. D) They cause zoonoses in humans. E) They are diagnosed by examination of a blood smear.
b
What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase.
b
What is the diagnostic structure produced by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis? A) spiny spores visible by brightfield microscopy B) "steering wheel" or "captain's wheel" buds visible by brightfield microscopy C) spherules observed in tissue samples D) yeast buds that are not dissolved by KOH E) dimorphism when grown in the lab
b
What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation B) active immunization by vaccination C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins D) immune testing E) autoimmunization
b
What is the significance of the infective body formed by Coxiella bacteria, intracellular parasites that cause a zoonosis in humans? A) It uses actin filaments to move from cell to cell. B) It is a resistant stage similar to an endospore. C) It can grow in extracellular fluid for short periods of time. D) It is only produced when Coxiella is in a tick. E) It is a fragile stage found only inside cells.
b
What makes neonatal herpes a very serious condition? A) The potential for life-long infection. B) Central nervous system infection of the neonate. C) HHV infection of the bone marrow. D) Development of lymphoma. E) The potential for oncogenesis.
b
Where does human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) become latent? A) in the dorsal root ganglion B) in B lymphocytes C) in cytotoxic T lymphocytes D) in brachial ganglia E) in oligodendrocytes
b
Which of the following bacteria is a common soil contaminant that may cause disease in humans? A) Aspergillus oryzae B) Bacillus anthracis C) Cyanobacteria D) Lactoccocus cremoris E) Streptomyces scabies
b
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the most common bacterial gastroenteritis in the United States, usually accompanied by frequent, bloody diarrhea? A) Borrelia recurrentis B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae D) Vibrio cholerae E) Vibrio vulnificus
b
Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies? A) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate. B) They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response. C) They are the antibody class found in body secretions. D) They interact with phagocytes and NK cells. E) They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity.
b
Which of the following cells is a component of the body's first line defense? A) monocyte B) goblet cell C) NK cell D) neutrophil E) microglial cells
b
Which of the following classification methods relies on the morphology of organisms? A) phage typing B) physical characteristics C) biochemical tests D) analysis of nucleic acids E) serological tests
b
Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes? A) blood typing B) immunodiffusion C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections D) ELISA E) fluorescent antibody tests
b
Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humans? A) Poxviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Adenoviridae D) Polyomaviridae E) Rhinoviridae
b
Which of the following increases the risk of permanent liver damage with hepatitis B infection? A) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4 B) coinfection with hepatitis D virus C) coinfection with HHV-6 D) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4 and hepatitis D virus E) coinfection with hepatitis D virus and HHV-6
b
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things? A) metabolism B) motility C) growth D) reproduction E) responsiveness
b
Which of the following is NOT a major contributor to opportunistic mycoses? A) an invasive medical procedure B) growth of fungus in food C) immunosuppressive therapy D) severe malnutrition E) chronic diseases like diabetes
b
Which of the following is NOT considered a hypersensitivity reaction? A) a rash caused by poison ivy B) immune system attack on the thyroid gland C) itchy eyes and a runny nose in a dusty environment D) dermatitis at the site of a metal watchband E) breaking into hives after eating strawberries
b
Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT? A) the appendix B) the spleen C) Peyer's patches D) lymphoid tissue in the respiratory tract E) lymphoid tissue in the small intestine
b
Which of the following is a family of six-pointed, star-shaped viruses that cause gastrointestinal diseases? A) Picornaviridae B) Caliciviridae C) Rhabdoviridae D) Coronaviridae E) Filoviridae
b
Which of the following is a zoonosis caused by a spirochete? A) bejel B) leptospirosis C) pinta D) syphilis E) yaws Answer:
b
Which of the following is an accidental parasite of humans? A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Acanthamoeba C) Balantidium coli D) Entamoeba histolytica E) Plasmodium
b
Which of the following is an indirect method for estimating the number of microbes in a sample? A) viable plate counts B) turbidity C) Coulter counter D) MPN E) membrane filtration
b
Which of the following is an intracellular parasite of humans that usually causes a mild pneumonia? A) Anaplasma phagocytophilium B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae C) Chlamydophila psittaci D) Ehrlichia chaffeensis E) Rickettsia typhi
b
Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotic genomes but NOT eukaryotic genomes? A) histones B) circular chromosomes C) linear chromosomes D) enclosed in a nuclear membrane E) typically consist of a few to several chromosomes
b
Which of the following is found in both archaeal and eukaryotic genomes? A) chromatin fibers B) histones C) heterochromatin D) euchromatin E) nuclear envelope
b
Which of the following is paired INCORRECTLY? A) plants; cellulose cell wall B) algae; glycocalyx C) bacteria; peptidoglycan cell wall D) fungi; polysaccharide cell wall E) archaea; protein cell wall
b
Which of the following is part of the structure of the mitochondria of a eukaryotic cell? A) cilia B) cristae C) thylakoids D) inclusions E) nucleolus
b
Which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism"? A) the presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through abrasions B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body C) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions D) the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens E) the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the surface
b
Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps for beer preparation? A) mashing, malting, fermentation, clarification, aging B) malting, mashing, adding hops, fermentation, aging C) mashing, malting, fermenting, aging, clarification D) malting, fermenting, adding hops, clarification, aging
b
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of cyclosporine? A) It blocks the complement cascade. B) It blocks the activity of activated Th1 T cells. C) It directly blocks CTL activity. D) It interferes with activation of Th2 T cells. E) It is an anti-inflammatory interfering with leukotriene function
b
Which of the following is the most common parasitic disease in industrialized nations? A) giardiasis B) Trichomonas infection C) schistosomiasis D) toxoplasmosis E) balantidiasis
b
Which of the following is the only DNA virus that can cause viral hepatitis? A) hepatitis A virus B) hepatitis B virus C) hepatitis C virus D) hepatitis D virus E) hepatitis E virus
b
Which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell? A) The cell releases interferon-gamma (INF-γ). B) The cell undergoes apoptosis. C) The CTL produces oxidizing chemicals. D) The CTL produces IL-12. E) The cell produces MHC II with epitope attached.
b
Which of the following lesions is a hard, raised sore? A) macule B) papule C) vesicle D) pustule E) pox Answer:
b
Which of the following may have cell walls containing teichoic acids? A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) archaea D) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria E) all prokaryotes
b
Which of the following mechanisms normally repairs pyrimidine dimers? A) base-excision repair B) light repair C) single-strand repair D) error-prone repair E) SOS response repair
b
Which of the following never have cell walls? A) algae B) animal cells C) archaea D) bacteria E) fungi Answer:
b
Which of the following organisms is a prokaryote? A) algae B) archaea C) fungus D) protozoa E) both archaea and protozoa
b
Which of the following phenomena produces magnification? A) the wavelength of a radiation source B) the refraction of radiation as it passes through a lens C) the thickness of a microscopic specimen D) the numerical aperture of a lens E) the length of an objective lens
b
Which of the following reactions is the result of type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity? A) runny nose triggered by pollen B) dermatitis in response to latex gloves C) sensitivity to pet dander D) skin irritation after wearing wool E) breathing difficulties after exposure to mold spores
b
Which of the following statements about Malassezia is FALSE? A) It is part of the microbiota of the skin. B) It causes phaeohyphomycosis. C) It is a basidomycete. D) It causes pityriasis. E) It tends to develop into a chronic infection
b
Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is FALSE? A) They are limited to infecting the upper respiratory tract. B) They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold. C) They are extremely infectious. D) They thrive at 33°C. E) Person-to-person contact is the most common mode of transmission.
b
Which of the following statements concerning allografts is TRUE? A) They are the best type of transplants because they are not associated with rejection. B) They induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with immunosuppressive drugs. C) They always require complete destruction of the recipient's bone marrow cells. D) They are impossible to perform because the antigens between donor and recipient are so different. E) They are the rarest type of transplants.
b
Which of the following statements concerning osmosis is FALSE? A) Osmosis requires a selectively permeable membrane. B) During osmosis, water crosses to the side of the membrane with a lower solute concentration. C) Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will gain water. D) Crenation results when blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution. E) Osmosis stops when the system reaches equilibrium.
b
Which of the following statements concerning the Rh factor is CORRECT? A) The Rh antigen is on white blood cells. B) Eighty-five percent of humans are Rh positive. C) Preexisting antibodies occur in 85% of the population. D) Rh antibodies are more abundant than the ABO antibodies. E) Eighty-five percent of the human population is Rh negative.
b
Which of the following statements regarding the lymphatic system is FALSE? A) Lymph fluid is similar to blood plasma. B) The lymphatic vessels contract to move lymphatic fluid. C) The lymphatic vessels have valves to control the direction of fluid flow. D) The lymphatic system begins with highly permeable capillaries. E) Fluid flows through lymph nodes on its way to the bloodstream.
b
Which of the following statements regarding toxoids is FALSE? A) They are produced against the toxin of the microorganism rather than the microorganism itself. B) They provide lifelong immunity. C) They stimulate antibody immune responses. D) They have few antigenic determinants. E) They are chemically or thermally modified.
b
Which of the following statements regarding trachoma is FALSE? A) It is the leading cause of nontraumatic blindness in humans. B) It is most often a disease of adults who suffer from sexually transmitted chlamydia. C) It leads to corneal scarring. D) It first infects the conjunctiva and kills cells there. E) Infants may contract the disease while passing through an infected birth canal.
b
Which of the following tests do NOT detect an immune response to a virus infection? A) a viral neutralization test B) a direct immunofluorescent antibody test C) a viral hemagglutination test D) a complement fixation test E) a direct ELISA
b
Which of the following viruses is suspected of being a cause of diabetes mellitus? A) coxsackie A virus B) coxsackie B virus C) echoviruses D) enteroviruses E) hepatitis A
b
You are examining a bacterial smear on a light microscope. You observe pinkish-red bacilli and blue cells of various shapes. You are probably looking at a smear prepared with the ________ stain. A) Gram B) Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast C) Schaffer-Fulton endospore D) Gomori methenamine E) Hematoxylin and eosin
b
You observe a microbiologist examining two plates and notice the pattern of colonies are nearly identical with the exception of a few colonies that are absent on one of them. The plates likely were produced by A) positive selection culturing. B) replica plating. C) pour plating. D) streak plating. E) the Ames test.
b
You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the A) appendix. B) lymph nodes of the groin. C) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical). D) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla). E) spleen.
b
opportunistic fungi A) always have two physiological and structural forms. B) are normal microbiota for many individuals. C) have special proteins for colonizing the body. D) are tracked by epidemiologists. E) have the same geographical distribution as pathogenic fungi
b
The process illustrated in Figure 3.6 occurs in (eukaryotic/bacterial/archaeal) cells.
bacterial
Phage typing is useful for identifying bacteria because of the specificity of (antibodies/bacteriophages/PCR) for unique bacterial structures.
bacteripphages
With the (batch/continuous) production technique, organisms are allowed to ferment their substrate until it is exhausted.
batch
Contamination of eating utensils from oral lesions spreads (bejel/pinta/yaws) among children in impoverished areas of the world.
bejel
The (body louse/cat flea/dog tick) is the primary vector of epidemic typhus
body louse
) Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, and a yellow color of the sclera and skin, without hemorrhaging or kidney damage, are typically observed with A) gastroenteritis. B) dengue fever. C) hepatitis. D) rubella. E) yellow fever
c
) How do coronaviruses differ from togaviruses? A) Coronaviruses have an envelope. B) Coronaviruses are RNA viruses. C) Coronaviruses have helical capsids. D) Coronaviruses contain positive RNA. E) Coronaviruses individual capsids can be visualized.
c
) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) move rapidly through the body using multiple flagella. E) resist most antimicrobial agents.
c
) One-millionth of a meter is called a A) centimeter. B) decimeter. C) micrometer. D) millimeter. E) nanometer
c
) Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial flagella? A) flagellin B) basal body C) tubulin D) filament E) hook
c
A 0.1 ml sample of a log phase culture contains 10,000 bacterial cells/ml. It is added to 9.9 ml of fresh culture medium broth. Assume a generation time of 30 minutes, and no limiting nutrients. How many bacteria will be present in the entire broth culture after five hours? A) 3.2 × 104 B) 5.0 × 105 C) 1.02 × 106 D) 6.0 × 106 E) 2.56 × 107
c
A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media? A) transport media B) reducing media C) enriched media D) differential media E) selective media
c
A human fecal sample is examined and found to contain a few strobila. The person is probably infected with A) Echinococcus granulosus. B) Giardia intestinalis. C) Taenia. D) Schistosoma. E) Necator americanus.
c
A measurement of a microbe is reported as 1 × 10-6 m, also known as A) centimeters (cm). B) millimeters (mm). C) micrometers (μm). D) nanometers (nm). E) yards.
c
A microorganism found living under conditions of high ________ is a barophile. A) pH values B) oxygen concentrations C) hydrostatic pressure D) carbon dioxide levels E) salt concentrations
c
A sample from a patient is prepared using the Gomori methenamine silver stain. What type of microbe is suspected of being present? A) bacteria B) parasitic worm larva C) fungus D) protozoal parasite E) virus Answer:
c
A sample of the tissue from an inflamed, pus-filled area on the lower leg is treated with KOH and stained with GMS. Under the microscope golden brown spheres are visible. With what disease are these observations consistent? A) pityriasis B) fungemia C) chromoblastomycosis D) mycetoma E) sporotrichosis
c
A serum sample from a patient is examined on an electron microscope, and observed to contain Dane particles, filamentous, and spherical virion particles in abundance. This observation indicates infection with A) human herpesvirus 1. B) EBV. C) hepatitis B. D) hepatitis D. E) VZV.
c
A structure that appears in a transmission electron micrograph but is NOT actually present in the specimen is known as a(n) A) antigen. B) biofilm. C) artifact. D) refraction. E) mordant.
c
A virulence factor common to many members of the Enterobacteriaceae which permits them to deliver harmful proteins directly to cells is A) fimbriae. B) a glycocalyx. C) type III secretion system. D) pili. E) porins.
c
A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? A) a direct immunofluoresence test B) a complement fixation test C) an immunochromatographic assay D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay
c
Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name? A) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant. B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function. C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific. D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body. E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.
c
Alpha and beta interferons A) help protect virus-infected cells from the effects of the pathogen. B) protect the cells that secrete them from being invaded by a virus. C) are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages. D) produce active antiviral proteins (AVPs) that coat the surface of healthy cells and prevent the attachment of pathogenic viruses. E) produce no adverse effects in the body.
c
An older adult is complaining of an intensely painful rash that has appeared as a patch on one side of his chest. This description is consistent with A) chickenpox. B) roseola. C) shingles. D) smallpox. E) whitlow.
c
An organism that produces catalase enzyme is protected from the harmful effects of A) singlet oxygen (1O2). B) hydroxyl radical (HO.). C) peroxide anion (O22-). D) superoxide radical (O2-). E) molecular oxygen (O2).
c
Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals.
c
Antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are characteristic of A) type I hypersensitivity. B) type II hypersensitivity. C) type III hypersensitivity. D) autoimmunity. E) graft rejection
c
Creating conditions in the laboratory that promote the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of others is called A) complex culturing. B) reducing conditions. C) enrichment culturing. D) transport conditions. E) differential culturing.
c
Development of new vaccines has slowed in recent decades. This is due to A) the ineffectiveness of vaccines against disease. B) the availability of vaccines against nearly all serious diseases. C) the high cost of development. D) the high level of risk with immunization. E) a lack of need with modern medical treatments.
c
Early treatment for mushroom poisoning includes A) antitoxin therapy. B) antifungal therapy. C) ingestion of activated charcoal. D) kidney dialysis. E) rehydration therapy
c
Eating food contaminated with ________ may result in meningitis in at-risk persons. A) Mycoplasma hominis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Clostridium perfringens E) Enterococcus faecalis
c
Elephantiasis is caused by A) blood flukes. B) liver flukes. C) filarial roundworms. D) tapeworms. E) flatworms
c
Enteroviruses gain their name from the fact that they A) infect the digestive system. B) are able to withstand the low pH of the stomach. C) are transmitted by the fecal-oral route. D) spread from the intestinal lining into the bloodstream to cause viremia. E) remain latent inside cells in the stomach and intestines.
c
Human pathogens are classified as A) thermoduric. B) thermophiles. C) mesophiles. D) hyperthermophiles. E) psychrophiles.
c
Humans may become infected with ________ by inhaling aerosols of dried rodent excrement. A) influenza virus B) coronaviruses C) hantavirus D) West Nile virus E) Venezuelan encephalitis virus
c
If circulating immune complexes are deposited in the glomeruli, the ensuing type III hypersensitivity reaction can result in A) allergic contact dermatitis. B) pneumonitis. C) kidney damage. D) multiple sclerosis. E) rheumatoid arthritis.
c
In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when A) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen. B) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody. C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions. D) a toxin is present. E) a complex solution of many antibodies is used.
c
In the Gram stain procedure, iodine serves as a A) counterstain. B) decolorizing agent. C) mordant. D) primary stain. E) fixative.
c
Legionnaires' disease is diagnosed by A) the microbe's characteristic growth on common laboratory media. B) the microbe's staining properties under the microscope. C) serological diagnostic procedures. D) the clinical symptoms in infected patients. E) the microbe's sensitivity to all antimicrobial agents.
c
Lipid-soluble molecules would be expected to cross the cytoplasmic membrane by which of the following processes? A) osmosis B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D) active transport E) group translocation
c
Membrane rafts are found in the cytoplasmic membranes of A) archaea only. B) bacteria only. C) eukaryotes only. D) both archaea and bacteria. E) both archaea and eukaryotes.
c
Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called A) TLRs. B) NODs. C) PAMPs. D) leukotrienes. E) prostaglandins.
c
Microbial proteases are used A) in the production of linen. B) as preservatives. C) in spot removers. D) as a component of fabric dyes. E) to biodegrade plastics
c
Most mycoses are difficult to treat because A) many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents. B) fungicides are rapidly metabolized by the liver. C) fungal cells provide few targets for selective toxicity. D) treatment causes major disruption of the microbiota. E) fungicides are extremely expensive.
c
Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes respiratory disease by A) infecting and killing alveolar macrophages. B) triggering inflammatory mediator release. C) attaching to and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea. D) paralyzing the respiratory muscles. E) killing the epithelial cells of the alveoli.
c
Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is A) usually asymptomatic. B) only symptomatic in advanced stages of disease. C) an acute painful infection with pus discharge. D) symptomatic in about 50% of the population, causing mild urethritis. E) usually a bladder infection.
c
Ornithosis, caused by ________, is usually a pneumonia-like disease but can sometimes lead to hepatitis or endocarditis. A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae C) Chlamydophila psittaci D) Rickettsia prowazekii E) Orientia tsutsugamushi
c
People living in the northeastern United States are more at risk for exposure to which of the following rickettsias? A) Rickettsia rickettsii B) Rickettsia typhi C) Ehrlichia chaffeensis D) Orientia tsutsugamushi E) Rickettsia prowazekii
c
Pinkeye can be the result of infection with A) human herpesvirus 7. B) a polyomavirus. C) an adenovirus. D) a poxvirus. E) human herpesvirus 4.
c
Pityriasis, characterized by patches of hyperpigmented and depigmented skin on the trunk and arms, is due to cutaneous infection with A) Epidermophyton floccosum. B) Cryptococcus neoformans. C) Malassezia furfur. D) Microsporum canis. E) Trichophyton rubrum.
c
Psilocybin is a A) toxin that causes bloody diarrhea. B) toxin that causes kidney failure. C) toxin that acts as a hallucinogen. D) virulence factor produced by invasive fungi. E) growth factor produced by mycoplasmas.
c
RNA polymerase is primarily responsible for A) DNA replication. B) translation. C) transcription. D) transformation. E) polyadenylation
c
Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is A) the first line of defense. B) the second line of defense. C) the third line of defense. D) microbial antagonism. E) innate immunity
c
Cold is preferred for storing food because it retards microbial growth by slowing down metabolic processes.
t
Ringworm is caused by A) worms infected with fungi invading the skin. B) dermatophytes that have invaded deep into the living tissue. C) dermatophytes growing in the outer dead tissue layers of the skin (epidermis). D) a hypersensitivity caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes. E) toxins produced by dermatophytes.
c
Rodents are the normal hosts for which of the following encephalitis viruses? A) eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) B) St. Louis encephalitis C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis (VEE) D) western equine encephalitis (WEE) E) West Nile virus
c
Salmonella and Shigella, both causes of diarrhea, can be distinguished by which of the following tests? A) lactose fermentation B) oxidase test C) motility D) urease test E) pigment production
c
Sebum contains ________ which contributes to creating an inhospitable environment on the surface of the body. A) lysozyme B) collagens C) acids D) salts E) bile
c
Serologic tests may be used to detect ________ for diagnosis of disease. A) the concentration of serum proteins B) the ability of the patient's antibodies to activate the complement system C) antigen-specific antibodies D) specific epitopes E) the proportion of plasma in a patient's blood
c
Shortly after returning from a trip to several continents, a young man experiences episodes of fever, chills, muscle aches, and headache that recur at irregular intervals. The young man reports carrying only a large backpack and commonly staying in hostels along the way while traveling. Which of the following diseases is he likely to have? A) anaplasmosis B) scrub typhus C) louse-borne relapsing fever D) Lyme disease E) yaws Answer:
c
Strep throat may progress to ________, characterized by a skin rash and a bright red swollen tongue. A) pyoderma B) toxic shock syndrome C) scarlet fever D) rheumatic fever E) scalded skin syndrome
c
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE or lupus) is distinct from other autoimmune disorders because A) it is also a hypersensitivity disorder. B) it involves an antibody response. C) multiple organs and tissues are affected. D) it may be triggered by an infection. E) there is a genetic predisposition
c
The Ames test demonstrates that a chemical is A) carcinogenic. B) carcinogenic in Salmonella. C) mutagenic in Salmonella. D) carcinogenic in humans. E) mutagenic in humans.
c
The Most Probable Number (MPN) method is used A) to estimate numbers of cells in samples with a high density of bacterial cells. B) when samples contain obligate anaerobes. C) to estimate numbers of cells in samples with a low density of bacterial cells. D) to isolate autotrophic bacteria. E) to determine the generation time of bacterial isolates
c
The ________ of a population is the time it takes for the cells to double in number. A) binary fission B) exponential growth C) generation time D) arithmetic growth E) log phase
c
The ________ stain makes use of malachite green. A) negative B) flagellar C) endospore D) electron microscopy E) acid-fast
c
The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with ________ binding to the surface of a microbe. A) C1 B) C3a C) complement factor B D) C5a E) C5b Answer:
c
The antibody immune response is attributed to the action of A) monocytes. B) T lymphocytes. C) B lymphocytes. D) neutrophils. E) macrophages.
c
The cell walls of some ________ are composed of minerals such as calcium carbonate. A) archaea B) bacteria C) algae D) fungi E) bacteria and fungi
c
The common childhood illness called "hand-foot-and-mouth disease" because it causes lesions in these areas is caused by A) an echoviruse. B) a rhinoviruse. C) a strain of coxsackie A virus. D) a strain of coxsackie B virus. E) the rubella virus.
c
The common name for the disease caused by human parvovirus B19 is A) kissing disease. B) fourth disease. C) fifth disease. D) shingles. E) Reyes' syndrome.
c
The effects of a transposition event are equivalent to a(n) A) nonsense mutation. B) missense mutation. C) frameshift mutation. D) silent mutation. E) HFR conjugation
c
The generation time of bacterial cells is shortest during the ________ phase. A) death B) lag C) log D) stationary E) longitudinal
c
The growth of bacterial cultures is best described as A) arithmetic growth. B) lag growth. C) logarithmic growth. D) cell division. E) replication.
c
The method of obtaining isolated cultures that utilizes surface area to physically dilute specimens is called A) the pour-plate technique. B) serial dilution. C) the streak-plate technique. D) transport media. E) enrichment culturing.
c
The most appropriate unit of measurement for intact archaea is the A) meter (m). B) millimeter (mm). C) micrometer (μm). D) nanometer (nm). E) centimeter (cm).
c
The only helminth disease of humans spread by an insect vector is A) ascariasis. B) fascioliasis. C) filariasis. D) hydatid disease. E) schistosomiasis.
c
The perforin-granzyme pathway involves A) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen. B) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen. C) the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells. D) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells. E) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis.
c
The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as A) the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries. B) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. C) the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) an increase in allergies and helminth infection.
c
The placement of an organism into a domain is made on the basis of A) G + C content. B) cell ultrastructure. C) ribosomal RNA analysis. D) serological tests. E) Gram-stain reactions.
c
The recent epidemic of SARS virus was caused by a(n) A) adenovirus. B) rhinovirus. C) coronavirus. D) flavivirus. E) togavirus.
c
The sexually transmitted invasive form of chlamydia A) never infects the baby of an infected mother during birth. B) is symptomatic in 85% of infected females. C) is caused by the LGV strain of Chlamydia trachomatis. D) is easily differentiated from gonorrhea. E) does not recur because of the immune response the host produces against reinfection.
c
The signs and symptoms of infection with Helicobacter pylori are the result of A) damage to the lining of blood vessels by H. pylori. B) invasion by H. pylori into the mucosa of the large intestine. C) invasion by H. pylori into the mucosa of the stomach. D) the production of exotoxins by H. pylori in the intestines. E) the production of toxins by H. pylori in contaminated food.
c
The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology
c
The type of polio that involves the infection of the brain stem and medulla is A) asymptomatic polio. B) postpolio syndrome. C) bulbar poliomyelitis. D) minor polio. E) nonparalytic polio.
c
Transovarian transmission is a process in which A) a pathogen infects the ovaries of the host. B) a pathogen is transmitted to the host when the host ingests contaminated eggs. C) an infected female vector transmits the pathogen to the eggs forming in its ovaries. D) the pathogen is transmitted from an infected male to a healthy female during mating. E) the pathogen is spread from one host to the next by unprotected sexual intercourse
c
Urinary tract infections with ________ are frequently complicated by the formation of kidney stones. A) Escherichia coli B) Bacteroides species C) Proteus mirabilis D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Salmonella species
c
Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that A) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen. B) antibodies have different molecular weights. C) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect. D) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid. E) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label.
c
What cell type can the Simplexviruses infect latently? A) B cells B) epithelial cells C) neurons D) T cells E) multiple cell types
c
What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar
c
What is the antimicrobial agent of choice for treating Bacteroides infections? A) erythromycin B) tetracycline C) metronidazole D) cephalosporin E) bacitracin
c
What is the causative pathogen of Q fever? A) Bacteroides fragilis B) Prevotella C) Coxiella burnetii D) Moraxella catarrhalis E) Acinetobacter
c
What is the function of the kinins released when mast cells degranulate? A) activation of the complement system B) increased vascular permeability C) smooth muscle contraction D) increased production of tears and saliva E) chemotactic factors
c
What types of molecules may NOT need transport proteins to be able to cross cytoplasmic membranes? A) large molecules B) ions C) small hydrophobic molecules D) small hydrophilic molecules E) nothing crosses cytoplasmic membranes without transport proteins
c
What virulence factor(s) do all Gram-negative bacteria share? A) proteases that destroy IgA antibodies B) fimbriae C) lipid A D) a glycocalyx E) both fimbriae and a glycocalyx
c
When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the ________ phase. A) stationary B) log C) lag D) death E) exponential
c
When immunization levels in a population are high, ________ provides protection from infection for at-risk persons who cannot be immunized. A) contact immunity B) active immunization C) herd immunity D) adjuvant therapy E) variolation
c
Which of the follow produces a rash that leaves permanent scars on the skin? A) Herpesviridae B) Papillomaviridae C) Poxviridae D) Adenoviridae E) Polyomaviridae
c
Which of the following bacteria divide by "snapping division" in which daughter cells remain attached in characteristic V-shapes? A) staphylococci B) enterococci C) Corynebacterium D) Listeria E) Mycobacterium
c
Which of the following blood types can be safely transfused into someone with O blood type? A) A B) B C) O D) A and O E) A, B, and O
c
Which of the following causes mutations by creating thymine dimers? A) nucleotide analogs B) nitrous acid C) ultraviolet light D) benzopyrene E) gamma rays
c
Which of the following causes pinta, a skin disease primarily of children, in which spirochetes are detectable in specimens from the lesions? A) Borrelia recurrentis B) Leptospira interrogans C) Treponema carateum D) Treponema pallidum pertenue E) Treponema pallidum pallidum
c
Which of the following cells is NOT infected by HIV? A) helper T cells B) microglia C) B lymphocytes D) macrophages E) dendritic cells
c
Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes? A) growth factors B) interferons C) interleukins D) tumor necrosis factors E) chemokines
c
Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection? A) glomerulonephritis caused by the group A streptococci B) scarlet fever C) rheumatic fever D) impetigo E) toxic shock syndrome
c
Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM
c
Which of the following infectious diseases currently tops the list of bioterrorist threats? A) anthrax B) the plague C) smallpox D) botulism E) cholera
c
Complement fixation is a more sensitive test for the presence of specific antibodies than are agglutination tests.
t
Which of the following sets of characteristics describes the highest level of threat potential from biological weapons? A) a waterborne toxin that is easily introduced into public water supplies and does not replicate in humans B) a pathogen of livestock transmitted by contact with infected animals but not infected people C) a human pathogen easily produced as an aerosol and transmissible by respiratory aerosols D) a pathogen of wheat that could be delivered using crop dusters E) a microbe that can be introduced into food during
c
Which of the following staphylococcal virulence factors produce the signs and symptoms of scalded skin syndrome? A) hyaluronidase B) staphylokinase C) exfoliative toxin D) leukocidin E) coagulase
c
Which of the following statements about Candida is FALSE? A) It is present in the digestive tract of 40-80% of all healthy individuals. B) It can be transmitted to adults during sexual contact. C) It is easily treated with topical antifungals in immunocompromised patients. D) It causes thrush. E) It can be passed to babies during childbirth
c
Which of the following statements about transmission electron microscopy is CORRECT? A) Three-dimensional images are produced. B) Lasers are used for visualization. C) Up to 1,000,000X magnification may be achieved. D) Living specimens may be used. E) Stains can be applied to create a color image.
c
Which of the following statements concerning infection with Toxoplasma is FALSE? A) It is one of the world's most widely distributed protozoan parasites in humans. B) It is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat. C) Even though it can be transmitted across the placenta, it is harmless to the fetus. D) The majority of infected people are asymptomatic. E) It usually results in no permanent damage and is self-limiting.
c
Which of the following statements concerning specific immunity is FALSE? A) It is the third line of defense. B) It has memory. C) It changes little with repeated exposure to the same pathogen. D) It is acquired. E) It is the body's ability to respond to specific invading pathogens.
c
Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE? A) It occurs in the nucleoid region. B) Sigma factors are parts of RNA polymerase that recognize promoter regions. C) Different RNA polymerases are required for synthesis of mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA. D) Termination is either self-induced or due to the presence of Rho protein. E) There are a variety of sigma factors that affect transcription.
c
Which of the following statements is TRUE of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpox? A) A genital form of the disease exists. B) A vaccine is available. C) The causative agent is a large dsDNA virus with a complex capsid. D) The rash forms fluid-filled vesicles that become pustules. E) It has a morality rate of 20%.
c
Which of the following statements is TRUE of eosinophils? A) They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. B) They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement. C) They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites. D) They decline during allergic reaction. E) They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.
c
Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? A) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells. B) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx). C) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens. D) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes. E) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes.
c
Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is FALSE? A) It has sebum as a coating. B) It has normal microbiota. C) It has goblet cells. D) It is salty. E) It is acidic.
c
Which of the following types of plasmids allows a bacterial cell to kill its competitors? A) virulence plasmids B) fertility plasmids C) bacteriocin plasmids D) resistance plasmids E) cryptic plasmids
c
Which of the following viruses can establish a chronic infection of the liver which may progress to liver cancer? A) hepatitis A B) HTLV-1 C) hepatitis C D) hepatitis D E) hepatitis E
c
Which of these microbial products is needed to produce "gasohol"? A) citric acid B) methanol C) ethanol D) hyaluronidase E) aspartame
c
Why are subcutaneous mycoses uncommon? A) The human body is not a suitable habitat. B) T cells are highly effective against fungus cells. C) Injury is necessary to introduce the fungus into the tissue. D) Only immunocompromised persons are susceptible to subcutaneous mycoses. E) Saprobes do not grow well at body temperature.
c
Why is snail fever a common name for infections with Schistosoma? A) The worms look like snails. B) They are contracted by eating snails. C) Snails are the intermediate host. D) Physical contact with snails may result in infection. E) The larval stage looks like a snail.
c
Why is the pasta you buy from the grocery store shelf considered a nonperishable food? A) It has a low nutritional content. B) It was sterilized during preparation. C) The low moisture content prevents microbial growth. D) Various preservative chemicals are added. E) Microbes present in the pasta inhibit the growth of harmful microbes.
c
________ may have pili. A) Eukaryotes B) Archaea C) Bacteria D) Prokaryotes E) Both eukaryotes and bacteria
c
Clusters of budding yeast and branching pseudohyphae are consistent with (candidiasis/dermatophytosis/histoplasmosis).
candidiasis
A (capsule/slime layer/matrix) is a type of glycocalyx that is firmly attached to the cell.
capsule
Contact with a minute quantity of blood is sufficient for infection with hepatitis B virus
t
A pure culture is composed of cells that arise from a single (cell/inoculum/sample).
cell
Culturing of intracellular parasites generally requires (enrichment/cell culture/low oxygen) conditions.
cell culture
V If the mother has (chlamydia/syphilis/yaws) at the time of birth, the pathogen can infect the newborn's eyes and may cause blindness.
chalamydia
Organisms that require organic sources of carbon and energy are called (chemoheterotrophs/chemoautotrophs/autotrophs).
chemoheterotrophs
Skin lesions described as "dewdrops on rose petals" are characteristic of (chickenpox/monkeypox/shingles).
chickenpox
The damage caused by mismatched blood transfusions results from the activation of (antibody/complement/histamine) proteins.
complement
A primary purpose for the use of stains in microscopy is to increase the (magnification/brightness/contrast) of a specimen.
contrast
When one microbe's metabolic activities create favorable conditions for another microorganism, this is referred to as (competition/cooperation/facilitation).
cooperation
Stress may result in the production of (corticosteroids/leukotrienes/interleukins), which may lead to acquired immunodeficiency disease.
corticosteroids
The "run" in bacterial motility is the result of (clockwise/counterclockwise/whiplike) rotation of the flagella.
counterclockwise
Immunization with (chickenpox/cowpox/monkeypox) will provide protection against smallpox
cowpox
The milk product known as (curd/yogurt/whey) is the basis of cheese production.
curd
An intestinal parasite that is an emerging disease in North America, (Cryptosporidium/Cyclospora/Entamoeba) causes a watery diarrhea with fever.
cyclospora
24) Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is TRUE? A) It occurs in humans and animals. B) The symptoms are due to damage caused by cytotoxic T cells. C) There is no genetic influence on the likelihood of developing RA. D) Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in and destruction of the joints. E) The onset of disease is clearly correlated with having been infected with a specific microbe.
d
A cell's G + C ratio is associated with which of the following classification methods? A) phage typing B) biochemical tests C) physical characteristics D) analysis of nucleic acids E) serological tests
d
A codon is a particular combination of three nucleotides. Therefore, there are ________ possible combinations of the nucleotides A, C, G, and T. A) 16 B) 4 C) 12 D) 64 E) 32
d
A cystic fibrosis patient develops a severe respiratory infection that resists treatment with standard antibiotics. A specimen from the lungs is greenish in color and contains aerobic motile Gram-negative bacilli. The patient is probably infected with A) Bordetella pertussis. B) Burkholderia cepacia. C) Klebsiella pneumoniae. D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. E) Serratia marcescens.
d
A homeschooled child recently visited an ailing great-grandparent who was complaining of a painful rash. Even though the child had had no contact with children suffering from chickenpox, the child developed chickenpox. How did the child contract the infection? A) The virus was likely contracted from fomites. B) The adult had chickenpox and exposed the child. C) An insect vector infected the child. D) The adult had shingles and the child was exposed to virus particles. E) There is insufficient information for a conclusion.
d
A lung specimen from a pneumonia patient contains Gram-negative bacilli. Laboratory test results on the bacteria show they are nonmotile coliforms with a thick capsule. Which pathogen is the likely cause of the pneumonia? A) Escherichia coli B) Enterobacter C) Hafnia D) Klebsiella E) Serratia
d
A measure of wastewater treatment is its BOD. This measures the A) biological organism density. B) biphosphate oxidizing demand. C) bacterial optimal density. D) biochemical oxygen demand. E) bioparticulate optical density
d
A person reports to a clinic complaining of fever and abdominal pain. The abdomen is swollen, and blood tests indicate liver damage. A stool sample is examined under a microscope and found to contain eggs with a spine projecting from its surface. The indications are consistent with infection with A) Ancylostoma duodenale. B) Enterobius vermicularis. C) Echinococcus granulosus. D) Schistosoma mansoni. E) Taenia solium.
d
A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to A) type I hypersensitivity. B) type II hypersensitivity. C) type III hypersensitivity. D) type IV hypersensitivity. E) immunodeficiency
d
A teenager shows up at a clinic with lesions on his face. The sores are raised, light-colored bumps with a waxy texture. A few similar lesions are present on the torso as well. With which of the following viruses might he be infected? A) human herpesvirus 1 B) B19 virus C) human herpesvirus 4 D) molluscum contagiosum E) papillomavirus
d
A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is a likely diagnosis? A) erysipelas B) endocarditis C) scarlet fever D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning
d
A(n) ________ assay is used for rapid identification of strep (group A Streptococcus) infections. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) immunodiffusion precipitation C) viral neutralization D) immunochromatographic E) immunoblot
d
A(n) ________ organism require(s) oxygen for growth. A) anaerobic B) facultative anaerobic C) aerotolerant D) obligate aerobic E) aerotolerant and an anaerobic
d
A(n) ________ vaccine to prevent cervical cancer was recently developed. A) attenuated B) combination C) inactivated whole D) recombinant E) toxoid
d
Adenoviruses infect A) the digestive tract. B) the respiratory tract. C) the nervous system. D) both the digestive tract and the respiratory tract. E) both the respiratory tract and the nervous system.
d
All of the following are associated with nucleic acid structure EXCEPT A) ribose. B) hydrogen bonds. C) uracil. D) ionic bonds. E) phosphate.
d
All of the following are common to both the Gram stain and the acid-fast stain EXCEPT A) primary stain. B) counterstain. C) a decolorizing agent. D) a chemical mordant. E) a decolorizing agent and a counterstain.
d
All of the following are types of light microscopes EXCEPT A) fluorescent. B) confocal. C) phase-contrast. D) scanning tunneling. E) bright-field.
d
All of the following are used to protect organisms from the toxic by-products of oxygen EXCEPT A) carotenoids. B) superoxide dismutase. C) peroxidase. D) protease. E) catalase
d
All of the true pathogen fungi discussed in this chapter are A) members of the Ascomycota. B) members of the Zygomycota. C) dimorphic. D) members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic. E) members of the Zygomycota and are monomorphic.
d
Among adults Chlamydia trachomatis is an STD, but among children who are not sexually active, it can cause ocular infections which may be spread A) by flies. B) in saliva. C) on hands. D) on hands or by flies. E) by contact with saliva or blood.
d
An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful? A) culturing on blood agar plates B) inoculation of EMB plates C) incubation in an anaerobic culture system D) inoculation of cell cultures E) inoculation of a minimal medium broth
d
Class II MHC are found on A) the skin. B) red blood cells. C) cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells. D) muscle cells. E) professional antigen-presenting cells.
e
Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely A) Enterococcus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus).
d
Cells of the second line of defense called ________ recognize and kill virus-infected cells. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) macrophages D) NK cells E) dendritic cells
d
Chloroplasts differ from mitochondria in that the former have A) DNA. B) two lipid bilayers. C) 70S ribosomes. D) thylakoids. E) cristae.
d
During elongation, a charged tRNA first enters the ribosomal ________ site and then moves into the ________ site. A) A; E B) P; A C) P; E D) A; P E) E; A Answer:
d
Endospores survive a variety of harsh conditions in part because of the presence of A) mycolic acid. B) lipopolysaccharide. C) hopanoids. D) dipicolinic acid. E) glycoproteins.
d
Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as ________ responses. A) third-degree immune B) allergic C) primary immune D) memory E) autoimmune
d
Enteric hepatitis is fatal for 20% of people in which of the following groups? A) infants under the age of 1 year B) teenagers C) young adults D) pregnant women E) elderly men
d
Enterococcus faecalis bacteria can be distinguished from other Gram-positive cocci because enterococci A) have a glycocalyx. B) produce catalase enzyme. C) produce hemolysins. D) can grow in the presence of bile salts. E) are highly sensitive to antibiotics.
d
Epidemic typhus, spread by lice, is caused by A) Chlamydophila pneumonia. B) Chlamydophila psittaci. C) Ehrlichia caffeensis. D) Rickettsia prowazekii. E) Rickettsia typhi
d
Factors that contribute to difficulty in eliminating fungal infections via the body's defenses include A) the capsules of some fungi resist phagocytosis. B) many fungi are resistant to cell mediated immune responses. C) many pathogenic fungi produce leukocidins. D) both resistance to phagocytosis and cell mediated immunity. E) many pathogenic fungi are resistant to the action of complement.
d
Failure of thymus development may result in A) type I diabetes. B) Grave's disease. C) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. D) DiGeorge syndrome. E) chronic granulomatous disease.
d
Food microbiology applies to A) the use of microorganisms to make food. B) the control of microbial activity to prevent foodborne illness. C) using microbes to solve agricultural problems. D) the use of microorganisms to make food and the control microbial activity to prevent foodborne illness. E) using microbes to improve livestock and to solve agricultural problems.
d
Graft rejection can be reduced by A) preventing B cell activation. B) antiphagocytic factors. C) antihistimines. D) preventing T cell proliferation. E) epinephrine.
d
How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells? A) They produce coagulase, allowing the bacteria to hide within blood clots. B) They grow in chains or pairs. C) They produce streptokinase, which breaks down blood clots. D) They have hyaluronic acid capsules. E) They have a coating of protein M.
d
How is hemolytic disease of the newborn prevented? A) immunizing a woman against Rh factor prior to pregnancy B) administering anti-IgG antibodies during pregnancy C) treating with cytokines to prevent B cell activation late in pregnancy D) administering anti-Rh IgG late in pregnancy and after pregnancy ends E) treating with glucocorticoids throughout pregnancy
d
Humans become infected with Toxoplasma gondii primarily by A) being bitten by a tick. B) direct skin penetration. C) ingesting food or water contaminated with cysts. D) ingesting meat containing the parasite. E) intimate contact with another person.
d
In a transmission electron microscope, the "lenses" are A) made of glass. B) thin films of metal. C) lasers. D) magnets. E) vacuums.
d
Industrial fermentation and fermentation in food production A) are both processes in which sugars are oxidized to alcohols or acids. B) are processes in which sugar or protein is oxidized to produce alcohols or acids. C) use entirely different microorganisms. D) use entirely different starting material. E) make use of entirely the same microorganisms.
d
Infection with ________ usually produces acute upper respiratory disease but may cause meningitis in infants 3-18 months old. A) Klebsiella pneumoniae B) Francisella tularensis C) Coxiella burnetii D) Haemophilus influenzae E) Hafnia species
d
Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant. Which of the following culturing methods would be most effective for isolation of such an organism? A) cell culture B) chemostat C) quorum sensing D) enrichment culture E) differential culture
d
Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms? A) hemorrhaging B) fever C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D) fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) E) fever and hemorrhaging
d
MacConkey agar plates represent ________ medium. A) a minimal B) a selective C) a differential D) both a differential and a selective E) both a minimal and a selective
d
Major histocompatibility antigens are A) antigens that provoke allergic reactions. B) antigens that must be processed to be recognized by the immune system. C) antigens attached to foreign invaders. D) autoantigens involved in epitope recognition. E) not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens.
d
Microaerophiles are microbes that grow best at low A) carbon dioxide levels. B) pH values. C) hydrostatic pressure. D) oxygen levels. E) salt concentrations.
d
Cytoplasmic membranes of ________ are composed of unbranched phospholipids. A) bacteria B) eukaryotes C) archaea D) prokaryotes E) bacteria and eukaryotes
e
Once infected with Trypanosoma brucei, the patient's immune system cannot clear the infection and develop immunity because the parasite A) has flagella that allow it to travel all over the body. B) matures into infectious trypomastigotes. C) reproduces by binary fission. D) changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates. E) invades the central nervous system.
d
Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers which protects their cell wall. B) They produce coagulase. C) They have a coating of protein A. D) They produce β-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase
d
Over the past couple of decades, most human rabies infection in the United States have been the result of contact with rabid A) dogs. B) cats. C) rats. D) bats. E) foxes
d
Passive immunotherapy is used when A) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce. B) the pathogen does not produce a toxin. C) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated. D) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately. E) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated.
d
Rates of cell production and cell death are approximately equal during the ________ phase of growth. A) lag B) log C) death D) stationary E) intermediate
d
Reactivation of ________ in immunosuppressed persons may produce Kaposi's sarcoma, a cancer of the blood vessels. A) EBV B) HHV-6 C) cytomegalovirus D) HHV-8 E) BK virus
d
Resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide range of antibacterial agents is partly due to its A) production of exoenzyme S. B) use of the Entner-Doudoroff pathway as its major means of catabolizing glucose. C) ability to utilize a wide range of organic and nitrogen sources. D) ability to metabolize many drugs. E) lack of special requirements for growth.
d
Rickettsiosis is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a pathogen that A) produces powerful exotoxins. B) provokes a severe immune response. C) interferes with the host cell's Krebs cycle. D) infects the lining of blood vessels and leads to leaking of plasma into tissue. E) lyses the host's cells.
d
Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they A) have unique light chains. B) are Y-shaped molecules. C) are present in the plasma. D) are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers. E) are present in lymph nodes.
d
Severe frothy diarrhea with a "rotten-egg" smell accompanied by abdominal pain, bloating, and fever are signs and symptoms consistent with A) balantidiasis. B) Chagas' disease. C) cryptosporidiosis. D) giardiasis. E) leishmaniasis
d
Sexually transmitted chlamydia is similar to infection with Yersinia pestis in that they both can produce A) urethritis. B) pelvic inflammatory disease in females. C) conjunctivitis. D) buboes. E) pneumonia.
d
Some patients who have suffered from polio develop symptoms 30-40 years later in the form of A) repeated cold symptoms. B) meningitis. C) encephalitis. D) crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles. E) deterioration of the nerves that control polio-affected muscles.
d
Specimens are prepared for ________ microscopy using electron-dense stains. A) atomic probe B) bright-field C) confocal D) transmission electron E) scanning tunneling
d
Streptokinase is involved in which of the following? A) producing antibiotics B) cheese production C) biosensors D) dissolving blood clots E) insecticide
d
The Ixodes tick can infect humans with Borrelia burgdorferi during which stage(s) of its life cycle? A) only as a larva B) only as a nymph C) only as an adult D) either as a nymph or an adult E) either as a larva or a nymph
d
The Quellung reaction is a test to detect A) hemolysins. B) kinases. C) pyrogens. D) capsule antigens. E) protein M.
d
The STD characterized by three distinctly different symptomatic stages is the result of infection with A) Chlamydia trachomatis. B) Leptospira interrogans. C) Treponema carateum. D) Treponema pallidum pallidum. E) Treponema pallidum pertenue
d
The West Nile virus is classified as a(n) A) rhinovirus. B) coronavirus. C) togavirus. D) flavivirus. E) enterovirus.
d
The antibody-binding site of an antibody is made up of A) portions of both of the heavy chains only. B) the variable regions of the heavy chains. C) the light chains only. D) the variable regions of both light and heavy chains. E) one heavy chain.
d
The bacterial chromosome is A) usually circular. B) found in a nucleoid. C) found in a nucleus. D) both circular and found in a nucleoid. E) both circular and found in a nucleus.
d
The concentration (or titer) of antibody to a specific antigen can be determined using a ________ test. A) hemagglutination B) precipitation C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) immunochromatographic
d
The cytoplasmic membranes of ________ contain unbranched phospholipids and proteins. A) archaeal cells B) bacterial cells C) eukaryotic cells D) both bacterial and eukaryotic cells E) archaeal, bacterial, and eukaryotic cells
d
The discovery of antibodies and the understanding of their actions lead to A) improved vaccine design. B) the development of genetically engineered vaccines. C) improved methods of immunization. D) the development of passive immunotherapy. E) the use of the technique known as variolation.
d
The easiest way to prevent Taenia infection in humans is to A) vaccinate cows and pigs. B) vaccinate humans who are in contact with cows and pigs. C) spray pastures and grazing lands with toxins that kill the parasite. D) thoroughly cook or freeze meat. E) identify patients with cysticerci in their muscles
d
The events of binary fission are I. the cell doubles in size II. the DNA is replicated III. the cell forms a septum IV. the cell separates from its offspring The correct order of these events is A) I, III, II, IV. B) II, III, I, IV. C) IV, I, III, II. D) II, I, III, IV. E) I, II, IV, III.
d
The glycocalyx of a eukaryotic cell performs all of the following functions EXCEPT A) protection against dehydration. B) anchoring cells to each other. C) cellular recognition and communication. D) transfer of genetic material between cells. E) strengthening the cell surface
d
The infectious stage of a beef tapeworm for humans is the A) gravid proglottids in feces. B) eggs in contaminated water. C) larvae in feces. D) cysticerci in beef. E) mature worms.
d
The kingdoms included in the Linnaeus system of classification are A) Animalia and Prokaryotae. B) Protista and Plantae. C) Fungi and Protista. D) Animalia and Plantae. E) Prokaryotae and Protista.
d
The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes A) release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) increase in allergies and helminth infection. C) respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement. D) are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. E) are specialists in killing bacteria.
d
The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result of A) its invasion into the central nervous system. B) its presence in the respiratory tract of 40% of healthy individuals. C) its ability to be transmitted by droplets among people who live in close contact. D) the release of lipid A into the tissues, triggering severe inflammation and DIC. E) the fact that it can survive in cells after phagocytosis
d
The most important virulence factor of Vibrio cholerae is A) the presence of two axial flagella. B) the fact that it is oxidase positive. C) its ability to survive in fresh water. D) its ability to produce a potent exotoxin. E) its ability to live in estuarine and marine environments all over the world.
d
The most prevalent type of antibody in the blood is A) IgD. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgG. E) IgE.
d
The process of ________ requires participation of tRNA molecules. A) DNA replication B) capping C) transcription D) translation E) gene regulation
d
The process of ________ requires the activity of DNA ligase. A) translation B) capping C) transcription D) DNA replication E) transduction
d
The release of ________ during a type I hypersensitivity reaction contributes to swelling. A) histamine B) prostaglandins C) leukotrienes D) both histamines and leukotrienes E) both proteases and prostaglandins
d
The subcutaneous infection known as ________ can produce a series of lesions spreading from the initial infection point resulting from the fungus' ability to invade the lymphatic vessels. A) aspergillosis B) candidiasis C) mycetoma D) sporotrichosis E) zygomycosis
d
The syndrome known as AIDS is characterized A) by the presence of HIV. B) as an opportunistic disease resulting from herpesvirus reactivation. C) by CTL attack on CD4 T cells. D) by one or more opportunistic diseases and the presence of HIV. E) by the presence of anti-HIV antibodies.
d
The type of immunoglobulin illustrated in Figure 16.1 is A) IgE. B) IgG. C) IgA. D) IgM. E) IgD
d
The typical lesion of primary syphilis is A) purulent sore throat. B) a generalized rash. C) the development of buboes in the lymph nodes at the site of infection. D) a painless reddened lesion called a chancre at the site of infection. E) gummas in bones, in nervous tissues, or on the skin
d
Undiagnosed or untreated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can progress to A) bubonic plague. B) meningococcal meningitis. C) trench fever. D) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). E) Q fever
d
Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces ________ immunity. A) artificial passive B) natural passive C) natural active D) artificial active E) both active and passive
d
What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "c" in Figure 3.2? A) provide shape only B) attach to surfaces only C) protect from dehydration only D) attach to surfaces and protect from dehydration E) serve as carbohydrate storage
d
What is the role of interleukins? A) chemotaxis of leukocytes B) production of virally infected cells C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes D) signaling between leukocytes E) complement activation
d
What role does safranin play in the Gram stain procedure? A) primary stain B) mordant C) decolorizing agent D) counterstain E) negative stain
d
What type of cell does Ehrlichia chaffeensis infect in humans? A) capillary endothelial cells B) B lymphocytes C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) eosinophils
d
What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde
d
What types of media are commonly used to isolate anaerobic microbes? A) defined media B) differential media C) complex media D) reducing media E) selective media
d
Which hypersensitivity disorder is the result of cell-mediated response? A) type I B) type II C) type III D) type IV E) both type I and II
d
Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis? A) neutrophils B) natural killer lymphocytes C) microglia D) dendritic cells E) wandering macrophages
d
Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium difficile C) Clostridium tetani D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species
d
Which of the following bacteria requires heme for its growth? A) Salmonella B) Shigella C) Yersinia D) Haemophilus E) Bordetella
d
Which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms? A) basophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) lymphocytes
d
Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body? A) the bone marrow B) the spleen C) the liver D) both the bone marrow and the spleen E) the thymus
e
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes coronaviruses from rhinoviruses? A) replicate best at 33°C B) transmitted via respiratory droplets C) cause common colds D) envelope is present E) virions contain single-stranded positive RNA
d
Which of the following common food products is prepared by the fermentation of cabbage? A) kimchi B) coleslaw C) sauerkraut D) kimchi and sauerkraut E) coleslaw, kimchi and sauerkraut
d
Which of the following contributes to infection with Trichomonas vaginalis? A) contact with contaminated fomites B) compromised immunity C) careless handwashing habits D) preexisting disease (chlamydia, for example) E) living in an undeveloped area of the world
d
Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion? A) Tears contain lysozyme and salt. B) A mucus layer traps and removes microbes. C) Tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes. D) Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes. E) Tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them
d
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of human body lice? A) bubonic plague B) tularemia C) Pontiac fever D) trench fever E) brucellosis
d
Which of the following enzymes allows retroviruses to transcribe DNA from ssRNA? A) protease B) DNA polymerase C) integrase D) reverse transcriptase E) nuclease
d
Which of the following eukaryotic processes involve pseudopodia? A) endocytosis B) exocytosis C) amoeboid action D) both amoeboid action and endocytosis E) both endocytosis and exocytosis
d
Which of the following helminth parasites do humans acquire by eating undercooked saltwater fish? A) Schistosoma B) Fasciola C) Echinococcus D) Anisakis E) Ascaris
d
Which of the following is a family of double-stranded RNA viruses? A) Picornaviridae B) Coronaviridae C) Retroviridae D) Reoviridae E) Rhabdoviridae
d
Which of the following is a key diagnostic indicator of infection with Mycobacterium leprae? A) blister-like lesions B) a distinctive red rash that lasts for days C) pus-filled abscesses D) localized loss of the sense of touch E) severe inflammation with swelling
d
Which of the following is a microbial product used to reduce crop damage? A) Bt toxin B) saxitoxin C) ice-minus D) both Bt toxin and ice-minus E) both Bt toxin and saxitoxin
d
Which of the following is a possible complication of infection with the mumps virus? A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) B) meningitis C) pancreatitis D) both meningitis and pancreatitis E) meningitis, pancreatitis, and SSPE
d
Which of the following is a specific example of bioremediation? A) the purification of water for drinking B) the treatment of wastewater C) the treatment of sludge D) the degradation of crude oil spilled into the Gulf of Mexico E) acid mine drainage
d
Which of the following is classified as a nonmembranous organelle of eukaryotic cells? A) endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi body C) mitochondrion D) centriole E) peroxisome
d
Which of the following is considered an intrinsic factor for food spoilage? A) degree of processing B) acidity C) storage temperature D) water content E) storage packaging
d
Which of the following is the correct sequence for stages of Ehrlichia development in infected host cells? A) initial body, morula, elementary body B) morula, elementary body, initial body C) initial body, elementary body, morula D) elementary body, initial body, morula E) morula, initial body, morula, elementary body
d
Which of the following is the most common parasitic worm in the United States? A) Taenia saginata B) Echinococcus granulosus C) Schistosoma mansoni D) Enterobius vermicularis E) Ascaris lumbricoides
d
Which of the following is the same for both Trypanosoma cruzi and Trypanosoma brucei? A) central nervous system infection B) where the protozoan matures in the vector C) type of arthropod vector D) importance of early diagnosis and treatment E) means of entry into the host
d
Which of the following methods of preserving food sterilizes it? A) canning B) pasteurization C) drying D) gamma radiation E) lyophilization
d
Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; rapid lactose fermenters B) noncoliform opportunistic Enterobacteriaceae; Proteus, Morganella C) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; opportunistic pathogens D) nonpathogenic Enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shigella E) noncoliform Enterobacteriaceae; non-lactose-fermenters
d
Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) elementary bodies; dormant infectious form B) reticulate bodies; actively replicate in endosomes C) elementary bodies; small cocci D) reticulate bodies; dormant infectious stage E) inclusion bodies; RB filled endosomes
d
Which of the following pairs of industrial microbial products and their uses is MISMATCHED? A) streptokinase; dissolving blood clots B) indigo; blue jeans C) citric acid; antioxidant in food D) gluconic acid; release of cellulose from flax to make linen E) phenylalanine; the sweetener aspartame
d
Which of the following parasitic infections can be diagnosed using a blood smear? A) African sleeping sickness B) toxoplasmosis C) malaria D) African sleeping sickness and malaria E) toxoplasmosis and malaria
d
Which of the following processes is involved in the "central dogma" of genetics? A) translation only B) transcription only C) DNA replication only D) transcription and translation E) DNA replication and translation
d
Which of the following results when ethanol is allowed to oxidize to acetic acid following the fermentation of fruit, grain, or vegetables? A) beer B) wine C) whey D) vinegar E) must
d
Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia.
d
Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE? A) It causes disease in humans only. B) The gonococci stick to epithelial cells via fimbriae and capsules. C) The gonococci secrete a protease that destroys secretory IgA. D) The gonococci induce lasting immunity. E) Infected women are often asymptomatic
d
Which of the following statements about diphtheria is FALSE? A) All species of Corynebacterium may be pathogenic. B) Its toxin interferes with eukaryotic protein synthesis. C) It produces a characteristic pseudomembrane that can adhere to tissues in the throat. D) Its growth on Loffler's medium is used for absolute diagnosis of the bacterium. E) Its toxin can be absorbed into the blood from cutaneous lesions leading to severe complications.
d
Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is CORRECT? A) They produce defensins. B) They secrete toxins onto virally infected cells. C) They are involved in the removal of neoplastic cells. D) They attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite. E) They identify and spare normal cells
d
Which of the following statements about the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is CORRECT? A) The rough ER is the site of lipid synthesis. B) The smooth ER has ribosomes associated with it. C) The ER is a lipid storage organelle. D) The ER is a transport system within the cytoplasm. E) The smooth ER is a site of ATP synthesis.
d
Which of the following statements concerning the hepatitis B vaccine is FALSE? A) It must be given in three doses. B) It is protective against the virus in 95% of vaccinated individuals. C) It is recommended for high-risk groups. D) It must be repeated every five years. E) Immunity can last at least 20 years and may be for life.
d
Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Figure 6.1? A) Cells are actively growing only during the stage represented by B. B) No cells are reproducing during the stage represented by D. C) Cells are are most susceptible to antibiotics during the stage represented by A. D) Cells are alive but not reproducing during the stage represented by A. E) No new cells are being produced during the stage represented by C.
d
Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is TRUE? A) They are not quantitative. B) They require large amounts of serum. C) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule. D) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen. E) They involve the use of membrane filters.
d
Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms. B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen. C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine. D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen. E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate.
d
Which of the following types of fungal disease is primarily the result of ingestion? A) mycosis B) dermatophytosis C) hypersensitivity D) toxicosis E) both mycosis and dermatophytosis
d
Which of the following viruses are oncogenic? A) parvovirus B) human herpesvirus 4 C) papillomavirus D) both human herpesvirus 4 and papillomavirus E) both parvovirus and human herpesvirus 4
d
Which of the following would test positive for the tuberculin response? A) someone who has previously had tuberculosis B) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine C) someone who has previously been injected subcutaneously with tuberculin D) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or has previously had tuberculosis E) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine or previously been injected subcutaneously with tuberculin
d
Which vaccine-preventable disease caused by an RNA virus has been nearly eradicated? A) measles B) influenza C) hantavirus D) polio E) rotavirus
d
Why does immersion oil improve resolution? A) It allows light to travel at a uniform speed on its way to the lens. B) It decreases the working distance. C) It increases the numerical aperture. D) It increases numerical aperture and maintains a uniform light speed. E) It increases the angle of refraction of the light.
d
________ are complex communities of various types of microbes that adhere to surfaces. A) Aggregates B) Colonies C) Isolates D) Biofilms E) Media Answer:
d
Untreated syphilis may persist in a latent state for (months/years/decades) before manifesting as tertiary syphilis.
decades
Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and (dendritic/plasma/T) cells.
dendritic
Binding of IgE to the surface of sensitized cells leads to (activation/degranulation/lysis) of the cell, releasing many inflammatory chemicals.
deranulation
Infections with (dermatophytes/pathogens/opportunists) are commonly acquired by person-to-person direct contact.
dermatophytes
Bordetella pertussis produces (adenylate cyclase/dermonecrotic/pertussis) toxin which disrupts blood supply to respiratory tissues.
dermonecrotic
Figure 4.2 represents a (dichotomous/classification/taxonomic) key of the type used to identify a microbe.
dichotomous
The bacterium Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/perfringens) is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause a severe, potentially fatal diarrhea.
difficile
The true pathogenic fungi responsible for systemic mycoses have (dimorphic/monomorphic/polymorphic) growth characteristics.
dimorphic
Papillomaviruses are transmitted by (aerosols/direct contact/secretions).
direct contact
Candida albicans can establish opportunistic infections of the A) mouth. B) skin. C) eye. D) liver. E) eyes, liver, mouth, skin, and other organs.
e
T lymphocytes mature in the (bone marrow/lymph node/thymus).
thymus
Brandy is made by the same process as wine, but the alcohol is then concentrated by (fermentation/distillation/filtration).
distillation
Carl Woese and George Fox proposed the (phylum/domain/family), a taxon that contains multiple kingdoms
domain
A distinctive characteristic of rotavirus virions is the presence of (dsRNA/-ssRNA/segemented RNA).
dsRNA
1) What is unique about the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses? A) They contain RNA. B) They contain double-stranded RNA. C) They contain single-stranded DNA. D) They contain double-stranded DNA. E) They contain both single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA.
e
A ________ is used in industrial microbiology to produce microbial products that are only synthesized during log phase growth. A) Coulter counter B) broth culture C) spectrophotometer D) pour plate E) chemostat
e
A childhood illness caused by a herpesvirus and characterized by a "rosy" rash all over the body is known as A) chickenpox. B) kissing disease. C) CMV. D) monkeypox. E) roseola.
e
A clinical sample labeled as "sputum" was collected from A) the skin. B) the blood. C) the central nervous system. D) a piece of tissue. E) the lungs.
e
A gastroenteritis which usually resolves in 72 hours is contracted from eating shellfish contaminated with A) Campylobacter jejuni. B) Ehrlichia caffeensis. C) Helicobacter pylori. D) Vibrio cholera. E) Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
e
A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n) A) obligate aerobe. B) facultative anaerobe. C) aerotolerant anaerobe. D) microaerophile. E) obligate anaerobe
e
A new virus is discovered that causes cells to lyse. Which of the following types of assay would be useful for diagnosing infection with this virus? A) agglutination B) complement fixation test C) viral hemagglutination D) both agglutination and complement fixation tests E) viral neutralization
e
A person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent? A) active immunization B) passive immunotherapy C) viral hemagglutination inhibition D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy
e
A researcher studying the impact of agricultural pesticides on native plants discovers a bacterium capable of degrading small amounts of a specific pesticide. The researcher then modifies the bacterial species in the lab to increase the rate of pesticide degradation. This research represents A) applied microbiology. B) environmental microbiology. C) food microbiology. D) both food microbiology and environmental microbiology. E) both applied microbiology and environmental microbiology.
e
A young man goes to a clinic complaining of discomfort in his foot, especially when standing. Upon examination, the clinician observes raised bumps with rough surfaces on the sole of his foot. These lesions are consistent with A) whitlow. B) erythema infectiosum. C) molluscum contagiosum. D) shingles. E) warts.
e
A young woman comes into the clinic complaining of itchy, red skin and swelling on her arms and legs. She had not been in any parks or wooded areas recently, but she had been shopping. A blood sample reveals elevated levels of granulocytes. What treatment is the physician likely to prescribe at this point? A) corticosteroids B) cyclophosphamide C) interferon D) methotrexate E) antihistamines
e
ATP is expended in which of the following processes? A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) group translocation D) active transport E) both active transport and group translocation
e
Acidic dyes A) work best in low pH environments. B) are negatively charged. C) are used for staining negatively charged molecular structures. D) are lipid soluble. E) are negatively charged and work best at low pH.
e
Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax. B) human cholera. C) rabies. D) influenza. E) both anthrax and rabies
e
Amino acids are delivered in their appropriate order by A) mRNAs. B) RNA-induced silencing complexes (RISC). C) ribozymes. D) rRNAs. E) tRNAs
e
An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of these events? A) The blood transfusion was mismatched. B) The blood transfusion contained pyrogens. C) The recipient had previously been exposed to foreign blood group antigens. D) The blood transfusion was mismatched and contained pyrogens. E) The blood transfusion was mismatched and the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens
e
An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this? A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole
e
At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism, A) proteins are permanently denatured. B) membranes become too fluid for proper function. C) hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken. D) hydrogen bonds are broken and proteins are permanently denatured. E) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.
e
Bacterial cell walls that are resistant to drying contain A) carbohydrates. B) amino acids. C) lipopolysaccharide. D) tubulin. E) waxes.
e
Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease that affects the (lymph/thyroid/adrenal) gland.
thyroid
Hepatitis B virus releases a large amount of viral antigen, which benefits the patient by A) producing a stronger cellular immune response. B) activating antibody mediated immunity. C) making it easier to develop a vaccine. D) allowing for better treatment. E) ensuring plentiful substrate for binding with labeled antibodies in diagnostic tests.
e
High fever, headache, extreme fatigue, and a rash on the face that progresses to fluid- and pus-filled sores before crusting over and healing are signs and symptoms consistent with infection with A) adenovirus. B) herpesvirus. C) papillomavirus. D) polyomavirus. E) poxvirus.
e
Histoplasma capsulatum A) is an opportunistic fungus. B) produces arthrospores. C) produces capsules. D) produces yeast cells with a "steering wheel" formation. E) is an intracellular parasite.
e
How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented? A) T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion. B) T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated. C) Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses. D) Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell activation. E) Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.
e
Human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) is implicated in which of the following diseases? A) Hodgkin's lymphoma B) cervical cancer C) oral hairy leukoplakia D) chronic fatigue syndrome E) Hodgkin's lymphoma, chronic fatigue syndrome, and oral hairy leukoplakia
e
Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include A) molecular mimicry. B) genetic factors. C) overuse of vaccines. D) molecular mimicry and vaccines. E) molecular mimicry and genetic factors.
e
Immunization for ________ may reduce the incidence of otitis media and sinusitis. A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Propionibacterium acnes D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
e
Infection with influenzavirus is commonly diagnosed using A) an immunoblot assay. B) viral neutralization tests. C) immunochromatographic assay. D) viral hemagglutination inhibition test. E) both immunochromatographic assay and viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
e
Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by A) the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase. B) the ability to ferment lactose. C) motility. D) both motility and the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase. E) both motility and the ability to ferment lactose.
e
Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders? A) The mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes. B) The mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules. C) Both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently. D) The mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals. E) The mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.
e
Municipal water treated with chlorine compounds contains A) no viruses. B) no bacteria at all. C) no endospores. D) no cysts. E) a decreased microbial load
e
Nitrogen is a growth-limiting nutrient for many organisms because A) it is necessary for the biosynthesis of amino acids. B) it is required for synthesis of nucleotides. C) it is required for lipid synthesis. D) only a small number of bacteria are able to extract it from the atmosphere. E) only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.
e
Opportunistic infections typical of AIDS but rare otherwise include A) tuberculosis. B) Pneumocystis pneumonia. C) Kaposi's sarcoma. D) tuberculosis and shingles. E) Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma.
e
Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are A) obligate aerobes. B) facultative anaerobes. C) aerotolerant anaerobes. D) obligate anaerobes. E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes
e
Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. B) genetic manipulation. C) treatment with formaldehyde. D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde. E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
e
Pickling is an effective means of food preservation involving A) increasing pH. B) increasing salt concentration. C) reducing pH. D) increasing both salt concentration and pH. E) increasing salt concentration or reducing pH or both
e
Pneumocystis jiroveci is A) easy to grow in the laboratory. B) actually a protozoan and not a fungus. C) an obligate parasite that cannot survive outside the lungs. D) a common member of the human respiratory microbiota. E) a member of the human microbiota that is an obligate parasite.
e
Potable water is water that A) is considered safe to drink because it is completely sterile. B) contains biosensors. C) contains a dangerous number of microorganisms. D) is transferred from one place to another. E) contains low amounts of microorganisms and is considered safe to drink.
e
Safranin dye is used as the counterstain in ________ stain(s). A) the Gram B) the endospore C) the acid-fast D) the flagellar E) both the Gram and the endospore
e
Short, hairlike structures used only by eukaryotic cells for movement are called A) pili. B) flagella. C) fimbriae. D) pseudopodia. E) cilia
e
Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia
e
The "common cold" is so common because A) no immunity to the virus develops. B) the highly variable parainfluenza virus causes colds. C) a large number of coronaviruses cause it. D) over 100 strains of rhinovirus cause colds. E) 100+ strains of rhinovirus and several other types of virus cause "colds."
e
The attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, (OVP), is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic. B) does not provide good immunity. C) can revert to wild-type virulence. D) can be spread to contacts. E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence.
e
The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to A) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. B) triggering inflammation. C) triggering release of interferons. D) triggering inflammation and release of interferons. E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.
e
The first true vaccine provided immunity to A) anthrax. B) cholera. C) pertussis. D) rabies. E) smallpox.
e
The large size of poxviruses allows them to A) be easily isolated in infected cells. B) attach to both animal and human cells. C) provoke a strong immune response in the host. D) travel in droplets. E) be potential vectors for genetic engineering of vaccines.
e
The monomorphic fungus Rhizopus is a(n) A) common bread mold. B) toxic mushroom. C) opportunistic pathogen. D) true pathogen. E) common bread mold and an opportunistic pathogen
e
The non-leukocyte tissue cells known as ________ produce leukotrienes and prostaglandins in response to allergen binding. A) neutrophils B) basophils C) monocytes D) lymphocytes E) mast cells
e
The opportunistic pathogen ________ is metabolically and morphologically distinctive from other fungi and is not effectively treated with antifungal medications. A) Candida albicans B) Blastomyces dermatitidis C) Aspergillus D) Microsporum E) Pneumocystis jirovecii
e
The pattern of fever shown in Figure 21.1 is most commonly seen with A) yaws. B) Lyme disease. C) lymphogranuloma venereum. D) syphilis. E) relapsing fever
e
The polyomavirus known as BK may establish latent infection of A) B lymphocytes. B) liver cells. C) bone marrow stem cells. D) nerve cells. E) kidney cells.
e
The process of ________ is described as semiconservative. A) translation B) transcription C) mismatch repair D) transformation E) DNA replication
e
The protozoans known as apicomplexans A) are motile. B) reproduce by schizogony. C) are intracellular parasites. D) are motile intracellular parasites. E) reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites.
e
The transmission of enteric hepatitis is most effectively prevented by A) safe sex practices. B) immunization. C) reducing aerosol dispersion. D) vector control. E) good public sanitation and personal hygiene
e
The vectors of ________ are sand flies. A) beaver fever B) Chagas' disease C) filariasis D) giardiasis E) leishmaniasis
e
Treponema pallidum can be transmitted A) by contact with infected fomites. B) through sexual intercourse. C) from an infected mother to her unborn child. D) both by contact with infected fomites and through sexual intercourse. E) both through sexual intercourse and from an infected mother to her unborn child.
e
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis may progress to A) scarlet fever. B) necrotizing fasciitis. C) rheumatic fever. D) scarlet fever or necrotizing fasciitis. E) scarlet fever or rheumatic fever.
e
Using a microscope, you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example of A) reproduction. B) cellular structure. C) metabolism. D) growth. E) responsiveness.
e
What conditions may trigger reactivation of latent herpesvirus infections? A) co-infection with hepatitis D virus B) major hormonal changes C) immune suppression D) co-infection with hepatitis D virus along with hormonal changes E) immune suppression or hormonal changes can both trigger reactivation
e
What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "m" in Figure 3.3? A) ATP synthesis B) protein synthesis C) synthesis of lipids D) packaging of materials for export E) cell movement and mitosis
e
What is the most prevalent viral infection seen in neonates? A) human herpesvirus 1 B) human herpesvirus 2 C) human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) D) varicella-zoster virus E) cytomegalovirus
e
What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it? A) activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell B) display of epitope-MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell C) suppression of the immune response to the microbe D) display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins E) display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface
e
What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease? A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired passive immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) naturally acquired active immunity
e
When mast cells degranulate and release histamine, which of the following events may occur? A) constriction of small blood vessels B) bronchial spasms C) increased mucus production D) both constriction of small blood vessels and bronchial spasms E) both bronchial spasms and increased mucus production
e
Which of the following additives help preserve food as well as enhancing flavor? A) cinnamon B) garlic C) salt D) salt and pepper E) cinnamon, garlic, and salt
e
Which of the following are among the activities of neutrophils? A) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps B) phagocytosis C) enzyme production that leads to the formation of nitric oxide D) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and phagocytosis E) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps, phagocytosis, and production of nitric oxide
e
Which of the following are chemotactic factors for phagocytes? A) peptide fragments from complement B) chemokines C) interferons D) interferons and chemokines E) chemokines and peptide fragments from complement
e
Which of the following are considered to be frameshift mutations? A) insertions only B) inversions only C) deletions only D) both inversion and insertions E) both deletions and insertions
e
Which of the following are macrophage functions? A) phagocytosis of pathogens and debris B) release of alpha interferon C) production of NETs D) phagocytosis of pathogens and production of NETs E) phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes
e
Which of the following are magnifying lenses? A) objectives B) oculars C) condensers D) prisms E) both objectives and the oculars
e
Which of the following are phagocytic cells descended from monocytes? A) alveolar macrophages B) dendritic cells C) microglial cells D) alveolar macrophages and dendritic cells E) alveolar macrophages and microglial cells
e
Which of the following are virulence factors contributing the pathogenicity of Neisseria species? A) hemolysin B) fimbriae C) a capsule D) exotoxins E) both a capsule and fimbriae
e
Which of the following areas of the body have mucous membranes? A) mouth B) nasal cavity C) urinary system D) mouth and nasal cavity E) mouth, nasal cavity, and urinary system
e
Which of the following assays is dependent on the ability of antibodies to bind to and crosslink two antigens? A) immunoblot tests B) ELISAs C) neutralization tests D) direct fluorescent antibody tests E) precipitation tests
e
Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the creation of biofilms? A) glycocalyces B) flagella C) fimbriae D) pili E) both fimbriae and glycocalyces
e
Which of the following bind the constant region of IgE? A) eosinophils B) mast cells C) monocytes D) both mast cells and monocytes E) both eosinophils and mast cells
e
Which of the following bodily fluids is commonly a source of infection by HIV? A) breast milk B) semen C) vaginal secretions D) both semen and vaginal secretions E) breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions
e
Which of the following can establish a subcutaneous infection known as a mycetoma? A) Microsporum B) Candida albicans C) Pneumocystis jirovecii D) Mucor E) Pseudoallescheria
e
Which of the following cells are a major reservoir for and distributor of HIV? A) helper T cells B) B lymphocytes C) cytotoxic T cells D) infected dendritic cells E) monocytes and macrophages
e
Which of the following cells can use nonphagocytic means to kill bacteria? A) eosinophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) natural killer cells E) both eosinophils and neutrophils
e
Which of the following characteristics are common to Poxviridae, Herpesviridae, and Hepadnaviridae? A) double-stranded DNA in the virion B) a complex capsid C) the presence of an envelope D) double-stranded DNA in the virion with a complex capsid E) double-stranded DNA in the virion and the presence of an envelope
e
Which of the following chemical substances contributes to the unique characteristics of acid-fast bacteria? A) N-acetylglucosamine B) peptidoglycan C) lipoteichoic acid D) endotoxin E) mycolic acid
e
Which of the following contributes to the pathogenesis of Cryptococcus neoformans? A) the ability to produce hyphae which penetrate tissues B) the production of leukocidins C) the production of mucinase D) the ability to resist killing after phagocytosis E) the production of melanin and the presence of a phagocyte-resistant capsule
e
Which of the following cytokines promotes the development of a cell-mediated immune response? A) alpha interferon B) chemokines C) tumor necrosis factor (TNF) D) IL-4 (interleukin-4) E) IL-12
e
Which of the following dermatophytes infects hair as well as skin? A) Microsporum canis B) Malassezia furfur C) Fonsecaea pedrosoi D) Epidermophyton floccosum E) Trichophyton rubrum
e
Which of the following function in agglutination? A) IgA antibodies B) IgG antibodies C) IgE antibodies D) IgD antibodies E) IgA and IgG antibodies
e
Which of the following fungal infections may progress to infection of the brain? A) Coccidioides immitis B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Mucor D) both Coccidioides immitis and Cryptococcus neoformans E) Coccidioides immitis, Cryptococcus neoformans, and Mucor
e
Which of the following fungal infections was extremely rare prior to the AIDS epidemic? A) pulmonary cryptococcosis B) cutaneous candidiasis C) hypersensitivity aspergillosis D) mycetomas E) Pneumocystis pneumonia
e
Which of the following intestinal protozoa are considered parasites of humans only? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Balantidium coli C) Cyclospora cayentanensis D) Giardia intestinalis E) both Entamoeba histolytica and Cyclospora cayentanensis
e
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Okazaki fragments? A) They are checked for accuracy by DNA polymerase III. B) They make up the lagging strand of replicated DNA. C) They begin with an RNA primer. D) They are joined together by DNA ligase. E) They are longer in eukaryotic cells.
e
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of both DNA and RNA polymerases? A) directionality of synthesis B) energy is provided by pyrophosphate C) hydrogen bonding of complementary nucleotides D) requirement for an initiation signal E) requirement for a primer
e
Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead and dying tissue cells, leukocytes, and pathogens? A) a boil B) an abscess C) a pimple D) a pustule E) a tumor
e
Which of the following is a common source of antibiotics? A) Acetobacter B) Bacillus species C) Pseudomonas D) Streptococcus thermophilus E) Streptomyces
e
Which of the following is an iron-binding protein produced by pathogens to access the body's store of iron? A) gastroferritin B) lactoferrin C) ferritin D) transferrin E) siderophores
e
Which of the following is both a hypersensitivity disorder and an autoimmune disorder? A) anaphylaxis B) glomerulonephritis C) graft rejection D) hemolytic disease of the newborn E) rheumatoid arthritis
e
Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE? A) Antibodies are formed of four polypeptide chains. B) Antibodies have two long peptide chains known as heavy chains. C) Antibodies have two short peptide chains known as light chains. D) The stem and arm are connected by a hinge. E) The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds
e
Which of the following statements is TRUE of bacterial plasmids? A) They are always found in the nucleoid. B) They can replicate autonomously. C) They carry genes for essential metabolic functions. D) They are small circular DNA molecules. E) They are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously
e
Which of the following statements regarding the association of hepatitis B with liver cancer is FALSE? A) Geographic areas with a high incidence of liver cancer also have a high prevalence of hepatitis B. B) The HBV genome has been found integrated into hepatic cancer cells. C) Hepatic cancer cells typically express HBV antigen. D) Chronic carriers of the virus are 200 times more likely to develop hepatic cancer. E) Vaccination does not provide protection against the development of hepatic cancer.
e
Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE? A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated. B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target. C) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes. D) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide. E) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells.
e
Which of the following substances contributes to the edema associated with inflammation? A) leukotrienes B) histamine C) interferon D) defensin E) both leukotrienes and histamine
e
Which of the following techniques reveal(s) the presence of fungal cells in tissues? A) Gram staining B) KOH treatment C) Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining D) Gram staining combined with KOH treatment E) both KOH treatment and Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining
e
Which of the following toxins produced by Bordetella pertussis results in the accumulation of excess mucus in the trachea? A) pertussis toxin B) adenylate cyclase toxin C) tracheal cytotoxin D) both adenylate cyclase toxin and tracheal cytotoxin E) both pertussis toxin and adenylate cyclase toxin
e
Which of the following viruses is responsible for erythema infectiosum? A) adenoviruses B) human herpesvirus 1 C) varicella D) human herpesvirus 4 E) B19 virus
e
Which property of antibodies is the basis for complement fixation tests? A) agglutination B) opsonization C) neutralization D) direct killing E) complement activation
e
White patches on the surface of the tongue and the oral mucosa accompanied by inflammation and swelling are signs consistent with A) zygomycosis. B) cryptococcosis. C) paracoccidioidomycosis. D) sporotrichosis. E) candidiasis.
e
Why are modern light microscopes better than the ones Leeuwenhoek used? A) Modern microscopes have a fivefold better resolution. B) Modern microscopes are compound instead of simple. C) Modern microscopes have lenses with smaller numerical apertures. D) Modern lenses are made of prisms. E) Modern microscopes are compound and have fivefold better resolution
e
Why have some microbiologists proposed using ribosomal RNA as the basis for defining bacterial species? A) Ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genetic sequences present in all prokaryotes. B) The "interbreeding population" criterion does not apply to bacteria. C) Ribosomal RNA is the basis for domain assignment. D) Bacteria vary too little in their physical and biochemical traits. E) Bacteria are not interbreeding populations, and ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genes present in all prokaryotes.
e
inhaling aerosols of dried bodily fluids from infected animals may result in A) tularemia. B) salmonellosis. C) Q fever. D) hemolytic uremic syndrome. E) both tularemia and Q fever
e
nfection with HIV is routinely verified using a(n) ________ assay. A) direct fluorescent antibody B) immunodiffusion precipitation C) viral neutralization D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) immunoblot
e
protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of A) the lack of suitable environment in the body. B) the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment. C) the presence of phagocytes in the tissues. D) the salty, acidic condition of normal skin. E) both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body
e
Blastomyces dermatitidis occurs in the (eastern/central/southwestern/western) part of North America.
eastern
Coating a specimen with a heavy metal is a step in preparing it for (phase/fluorescent/electron) microscopy.
electron
The infectious form of chlamydia is the (elementary/initial/inclusion) body
elementary
An antigen produced by a pathogen while living inside a cell is known as an (auto-/endogenous/exogenous) antigen.
endogenous
The anthrax attack of fall 2001 was accomplished by mailing the agent in ordinary envelopes. This method of delivery took advantage of the ability of Bacillus anthracis to produce (aerosols/endospores/spores).
endospores
Humans are the only reservoir for (Balantidium/Entamoeba/Giardia), an intestinal parasite that causes diarrhea.
entamoeba
Members of the genus (Bacillus/Enterococcus/Mycobacterium) are part of the normal microbiota of humans.
enterococcus
The cell membranes of fungi contain (cholesterol/ergosterol/fatty acid) which is a target of some antifungal treatments
ergosterol
When streptococcal infections involve the skin and surrounding lymph nodes, triggering pain and inflammation, the condition is known as (erysipelas/folliculitis/pyoderma).
erysiplelas
Loosely packed, transcriptionally active regions of a eukaryotic chromosome are called (euchromatin/heterochromatin/nucleosomes).
euchromatin
Hepatitis B virus replicates in liver cells and is released by (extrusion/exocytosis/lysis), which contributes to the infection becoming chronic.
exocytosis
) An effective vaccine to prevent infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV, HHV-4) is available.
f
) Infection by all influenza strains can be prevented with vaccines.
f
A large number of antifungal agents are available for treating fungal infections.
f
A person comes into the clinic with a wound that is severely inflamed, very painful, and turning black and "bubbly." The diagnosis is leprosy.
f
A resolution of 1 μm would be better than a resolution of 0.5 μm
f
A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants.
f
Acid-fast cells such as Mycobacterium lose the color of the primary stain in the presence of hydrochloric acid.
f
Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria.
f
Agglutination tests are used to detect soluble antigens
f
Algae and protozoa in the soil are quite hardy, and therefore their abundance is not a useful indicator of environmental pollution.
f
All adenoviruses cause mild respiratory disease.
f
All autoimmune diseases have a genetic cause.
f
All flukes are monoecious.
f
All of the rickettsias are spread by transovarian transfer
f
All poxviruses that infect humans are zoonoses.
f
All types of radiation are used for microscopy.
f
An expanding rash that resembles a bull's-eye is a characteristic of secondary syphilis.
f
Archaeal cytoplasmic membranes are composed of unbranched phospholipids.
f
Bacterial chromosomes typically have several origins of replication.
f
The most severe form of malaria, called "blackwater fever" is caused by Plasmodium (falciparum/malariae/ovale/vivax).
falciparum
The definition of (fermentation/cultivation) used by food microbiologists is the desirable change in food due to microbial activity.
fermentation
Intact skin layers are part of the body's (first/second/third) line of defense against pathogens.
first
The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (flaccid/tetanic) paralysis by preventing muscle contraction
flaccid
A(n) (acidic/metallic/fluorescent) molecule is one that absorbs invisible radiation and emits visible light.
fluorescent
Acridine dyes distort the structure of DNA causing (frameshift/missense/nonsense) mutations in gene sequences. (Answer in terms of the effect on gene function.)
frameshift
A(n) (operon/codon/gene) is a specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein or an RNA molecule.
gene
PCR is a method for identifying microbes based on their (antigens/genes/morphology).
genes
The full set of genetic instructions of an organism is its (phenotype/genome/genotype).
genotype
The condition in which athletes develop herpes lesions on their skin as a result of coming in contact with herpes lesions during wrestling is known as herpes (gladiatorum/whitlow/zoster).
gladitorum
The (epithelial/goblet/mucous) cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus.
goblet
When observed in the lab Mycoplasma stains (acid-fast/Gram-positive/Gram-negative)
gram negative
The characteristic lesion for tertiary syphilis is the presence of (gummas/necrosis/granulomas) in bones, in nervous tissue, or on the skin.
gummas
Fibrous structures with three "arms" some archaea use for attachment to surfaces are (fimbriae/hami/pili).
hami
The (brain/heart/liver) is the organ most severely damaged by Trypanosoma cruzi.
heart
n a process called (cytokinesis/hematopoiesis/hematocrit), blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood.
hematopoiesis
Ebola and Marburg viruses are emerging pathogens that cause life-threatening (encephalitis/diarrhea/hemorrhaging) and can be transmitted in body fluids.
hemorrhaging
Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella (bacilliformis/henselae/quintana).
henselae
Many of the signs and symptoms of inflammation, including redness and itching, are due to the release of (histamines/leukotrienes/proteases) by degranulation of mast cells.
histamines
The organic material found in topsoil is called (humus/peat/compost).
humus
The ability to produce (hyaluronidase/lipase/proteases) enables Staphylococcus aureus to penetrate and spread through tissues.
hyaluronidase
The enzyme (amylase/hyaluronidase/lipase) can be used in injected medications to enhance their rate of absorbance.
hyaluronidase
In a(n) (hypertonic/isotonic/hypotonic) solution, an animal cell can gain so much water that it may burst
hypotonic
A technician places a serum sample in a well in an agar plate and a solution of antigens in a second well in the plate. The technician has set up a(n) (agglutination/immunodiffusion/immunoblot) assay.
immunodiffusion
An (ELISA/immunofiltration/immunoblot) assay uses antibodies bound on the surface of a membrane filter to detect antigens
immunofiltration
Jonas Salk developed a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) polio vaccine in 1955.
inactivated
The reserve deposits of starch or other compounds found in many prokaryotic cells are called (vacuoles/inclusions/nucleoid).
inclusions
The delay in the initial adaptive immune response to pathogen is largely due to the (inducibility/memory/specificity) of adaptive immunity.
inductibility
A(n) (culture/specimen/inoculum) is a sample of microorganisms introduced into a growth medium.
inoculum
The (definitive/intermediate/primary) host is where immature stages of parasites develop.
intermediate
A few hours after a dinner party, most of the people who attended begin to suffer nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The food at the meal is suspected as the source, although no unusual microbes are cultured from samples of the food or from stool samples. These observations suggest they may be suffering from food (infection/intoxication).
intoxication
A diagnostic sign of measles are (herpangina/Koplik's spots/macules) in the mouth.
kopliks spots
Fluorescent antibody, ELISA, and immunoblotting tests involve the use of (hybridoma/labeled/unlabeled) antibodies.
labeled
The sour flavor in some fermented foods is usually the result of (acetic/benzoid/lactic) acid production.
lactic
Coliforms are distinguished from noncoliforms by their ability to ferment (glucose/citrate/lactose
lactose
A sample placed into fresh medium is initially in the (lag/log/stationary) phase of microbial growth in most instances.
lag
The (leading/lagging/replicating) strand is the DNA strand that is synthesized continuously during DNA replication
leading
The pleomorphic bacterium (Coxiella/Legionella/Francisella) is an intracellular parasite that can lead to respiratory disease when inhaled in aerosols from freshwater sources
legionella
The system of taxonomy used today was originated by (Linnaeus/Darwin/Woese). (Be sure to capitalize your answer.)
linnaeus
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of (protein/lipid/carbohydrate) synthesis.
lipid
Eosinophils respond to (complement/lipopolysaccharide/histamines) and kill bacteria in a nonphagocytic process
lipopolysaccharide
A(n) (autotroph/lithotroph/organotroph) uses inorganic molecules as electron donors.
lithotroph
A higher concentration of solutes corresponds to a (higher/lower) concentration of water in a given solution.
lower
Fragments of (LPS/NAM/NAG) released from Gram-negative bacteria into the bloodstream produce fever and shock.
lps
Borrelia burgdorferi is an unusual bacterium that lacks iron-containing enzymes and proteins and causes (Brill-Zinser/Lyme/RMSF) disease in humans.
lyme
Freezing food and then using a vacuum to draw off the ice crystals is called (dehydration/lyophilization/sublimation).
lyophilization
The preferred method for long term storage of bacteria is (freezing/refrigeration/lyophilization).
lyophilization
) Errors made during replication are primarily corrected by (base-excision/mismatch/nucleotide-excision) repair.
mismatch
A protein has altered function as a result of a single amino acid substitution in the polypeptide. This change resulted from a (missense/nonsense/silent) mutation.
missense
The reservoir for Orientia tsutsugamushi is (humans/mites/rodents).
mites
A (decolorizer/mordant/fixer) is a substance that binds to a dye and makes it less soluble.
mordant
The dengue viruses are spread by (fleas/mosquitoes/ticks)
mosquitos
Peanut butter was prepared using peanut on which Aspergillus had grown. Several people who ate it suffered from (mycetismus/mycetoma/mycotoxicosis
mycotoxicosis
Acanthamoeba and (Entamoeba/Naegleria/Plasmodium) cause rare and usually fatal infections of the brain.
naegleria
The (hemagglutinin/neuraminidase/reverse transcriptase) of influenza viruses is both a virulence factor and a target for antiviral treatment.
neuraminidase
The first and second lines of defense respond to invading microbes by (specific/nonspecific) mechanisms.
nonspecific
A growth curve plots the (concentration/number/percentage) of viable organisms in a growing population over time.
nubmer
The semiliquid matrix of the nucleus is called the (cytoplasm/nucleoid/nucleoplasm).
nucleoplasm
In a compound microscope, the lens that directs light into the eye is the (ocular/condenser/objective) lens.
ocular
A(n) (genome/codon/operon) is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit.
operon
The antibody function known as (agglutination/neutralization/opsonization) is illustrated in Figure 16.3.
opsonization
The (maximum/optimum/selective) growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate.
optimum
A disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans is (campylobacteriosis/Lyme/ornithosis).
ornithosis
Modern vaccine technology can involve inserting the DNA encoding the pathogen's antigen(s) into a (plasmid/hybridoma/virus) and injecting it into an individual.
plasmid
Neisseria is distinguished from many other Gram-negative pathogens by being (catalase/oxidase/dismutase) positive.
oxidase
A distinctive feature of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) rash is that is appears on the (limbs/face/palms) as well as the trunk.
palms
The cauliflower-like growths on the genitalia called condylomata acuminata are caused by (herpesviruses/papillomaviruses/parvoviruses).
papillomvirus
The disease caused by B19 virus, a (papillomavirus/parvovirus/polyomavirus), is known as erythema infectiosum and produces a distinctive rash
parvovirus
The IgG molecules which cross the placenta and circulate in a baby's bloodstream provide the baby with natural (active/innate/passive) immunity.
passive
The opportunistic obligate parasite (Microsporum/Pneumocystis/Rhizopus) is considered a member of the normal microbiota.
pneumocystis
The process of preserving foods in brine is called (canning/pickling/salting).
pckling
A fungus in the genus (Candida/Penicillium/Trichophyton) has recently been recognized as an opportunistic pathogen of AIDS patients
penicillium
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes insert (CD95/lectin/perforin) into the membranes of the cells they target as a first step in killing.
perforin
Bacterial food poisoning resulting from Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/perfringens) contamination is characterized by watery diarrhea accompanied by intestinal cramping but not fever, and it resolves in about a day.
perfringens
A (Coulter/Petroff-Hauser chamber/spectrophotometer) counter is used to count cells on a light microscope.
petroff hauser chamber
Eukaryotic cells use a process known as (pinocytosis/phagocytosis/exocytosis) to obtain liquids from their environment.
pinocytosis
Enterobius vermicularis are commonly known as (pinworms/hookworms/tapeworms) because of the shape of the female's tail.
pinworms
A wart on the bottom of the foot is known as a (flat/plantar/seed) wart.
plantar
Eating undercooked (fish/pork/snails/vegetables) can result in infestation with Taenia solium.
pork
An RNA that can be used by a ribosome to translate into protein is (double/positive/negative) strand RNA.
positive
Painful, blister-like lesions that progressively become filled with pus suggest infection with a (herpesvirus/poxvirus/papillomavirus).
poxvirus
The disease known as molluscum contagiosum is cause by a (herpesvirus/papillomavirus/poxvirus)
poxvirus
The mechanism of action of RhoGAM is to (activate/neutralize/prevent) an anti-Rh immune response.
prevent
In its role in the development of acne, (Propionibacterium/Staphylococcus/Actinomyces) typically grows in sebaceous glands of the skin.
propionibacterium
Macrophages release (bradykinin/histamine/prostaglandin) in response to microbes and thereby contribute to acute inflammation.
prostaglandin
Infection with Corynebacterium diphtheriae leads to the formation of (eschars/pseudomembranes/tubercles) which can severely impair respiratory function.
pseudomembranes
When a UTI spreads to the kidneys it is called (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis).
pyelonephritis
Some pathogens produce toxins which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to cause fever
pyrogens
Louse-borne relapsing fever is caused by a spirochete known as Borrelia (burgdorferi/recurrentis/interrogans), which is capable of frequently changing its antigenic surface components.
recurrentis
T lymphocytes that have both CD4 and CD25 are (cytotoxic/helper/regulatory) T cells.
regulatory
When vaccines do not provide lifelong immunity, (adjuvants/reinoculations/subunits) must be given to maintain protection.
reinoculation
The (reoviruses/retroviruses/rhinoviruses) have been studied more than any other group of viruses because of their unique features and the diseases they cause.
retrovirus
Replication of the hepadnaviridae genome requires (RNA polymerase/reverse transcriptase)
reverse transcriptase
The clinical term for "runny nose" is (reovir/rhinorrhea/rhinovirus).
rhinorrhea
The zoonosis known as RMSF is the result of infection with Rickettsia (prowazekii/rickettsii/typhi).
rickettsii
Infection with (astrovirus/norovirus/rotavirus) is the most common cause of diarrhea in children worldwide.
rotavirus
Most fungi exist as (parasites/saprobes/autotrophs) and function as the major decomposers of organic material.
saprobes
Apicomplexans reproduce asexually by (mitosis/schizogony/fission).
schizogony
The (proglottid/scolex/strobila) of an adult tapeworm is its anchor to the hosts intestine.
scolex
The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skin's surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to many bacteria is (sebum/sweat/serum).
sebum
Chronic granulomatous disease is a disorder of the (first/second/third) line of immune defense.
second
A vaccine is available to prevent (chronic/enteric/serum) hepatitis.
serum
The true pathogen (Salmonella/Shigella/Yersinia) is a noncoliform, nonmotile, oxidase-negative member of the Enterobacteriaceae that does not produce hydrogen sulfide
shigella
Individuals who have been infected by varicella-zoster virus may develop (Kaposi's sarcoma/shingles/whitlows) later in life if they experience severe stress or immune suppression.
shingles
Members of the Enterobacteriaceae produce toxins known as (enterotoxins/hemolysins/siderophores) to capture iron for their use
siderophores
Common sources of Listeria are undercooked meats and vegetables and unpasteurized (eggs/soft cheeses/juices).
soft cheese
The (peroxide/superoxide/hydroxyl) radical is formed during the incomplete reduction of O2 during electron transport in aerobes.
superoxide
The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as (natural/innate/species) resistance.
species
A (Coulter counter/cytometer/spectrophotometer) can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture
spectrophotometer
The presence of (hyphae/spores/spherules) in a sample from the lungs is diagnostic for coccidioidomycosis.
spherules
The production of distinctively (smooth/bumpy/spiny) spores is diagnostic for Histoplasma capsulatum.
spiny
The opportunistic infection known as (aspergillosis/cryptococcosis/sporotrichosis) may develop into a series of nodular, pus-filled lesions on a limb.
sporothrichosis
in the Schaffer-Fulton endospore stain, heat is a (fixation/mordant/staining) step.
staining
Unlike other Gram-negative opportunistic bacilli, Bacteroides are (aerotolerant/facultative/strict) anaerobes.
strict
A clinical sample from a mucus membrane is usually collected as a (biopsy/needle/swab) specimen.
swab
A(n) (symport/antiport/uniport) is a carrier protein that transports two substances in the same direction across a membrane.
symport
) In the United States, about 75% of children 7 years old and older have antibodies to astroviruses
t
A chemical is reported to inhibit bacterial replication. Bacterial cells are placed in medium with all nutrients necessary for replication. The chemical is added to the culture, and after a half hour an extract of the DNA is prepared. A significant percentage of the DNA is in pieces about 1000 to 2000 bases in length. The results are consistent with the chemical blocking the function of DNA ligase
t
A positive urease test in cultures from gastric secretions provides preliminary identification of Helicobacter pylori.
t
A single basic dye is used in simple stains.
t
Adult foodborne botulism can be prevented by thoroughly cooking food (minimum 80°C for 20 minutes) before it is eaten.
t
After a week of asymptomatic infection with Bordetella pertussis, the patient has cold-like (catarrhal) symptoms for a week or two followed by a period of severe paroxysmal episodes of coughing that leave the patient anoxic and fatigued.
t
All stages of Ixodes, the vector for Lyme disease, may feed on humans.
t
All tapeworms are intestinal parasites that completely lack digestive systems.
t
Amino acid and vitamin supplements are prepared from extracts of microbial cultures.
t
Anemia is a common consequence of hookworm infestation.
t
Anti-antibodies are used in indirect antibody assays.
t
Aspergillus causes both mycoses and mycotoxicosis.
t
Bacterial protein synthesis can begin before the reading of the gene is complete.
t
Balantidium coli is the only ciliate known to cause disease in humans.
t
Bioremediation is the process of using organisms to clean up toxic, hazardous compounds by degrading them to less harmful substances.
t
Campylobacter gastroenteritis is usually caused by ingestion of contaminated poultry.
t
Children with Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia are highly susceptible to recurrent infections.
t
Chlamydia trachomatis produces a dormant, resistant stage for transmission from one host to another
t
People can reduce the chances of contracting rabbit fever by avoiding rabbits, muskrats, and (fleas/lice/ticks).
ticks
One way to measure the antibody levels in the blood is by (neutralization/titration/turbidimetry) using agglutination tests
titration
Chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination are called (adjuvants/antigens/toxoids).
toxoids
The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes)
traits
The (cestodes/nematodes/trematodes) are helminths with an incomplete digestive system.
tramatodes
Transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by viruses is called (transformation/transduction/conjugation).
transduction
While studying a bacterial strain, a scientist notes a short DNA sequence between inverted repeats is present in both the chromosome and a plasmid within the cell. This sequence is most likely a(n) (phage/transposon/F plasmid).
transposon
The parasite (Leishmania/Toxoplasma/Trichomonas) is an obligate parasite that is incapable of surviving long outside the human host and is transmitted almost exclusively via sexual activity.
trichomonas
A structural molecule found in eukaryotic cytoskeletons, flagella, cilia, and centrioles is (flagellin/tubulin/fibrin)
tubulin
The zoonosis (brucellosis/bartonellosis/tularemia) can be acquired by humans in a variety of ways, including insect bites and ingestion of infected animals
tularemia
An effective vaccine is available to prevent (gonorrhea/salmonellosis/typhoid).
typhoid
Helicobacter pylori produces (cytotoxin/hyaluronidase/urease), a unique virulence factor important to colonizing the digestive system
urease
Leptospira interrogans exits the body in (feces/aerosols/urine).
urine
The (constant/end/variable) regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen-binding sites
variable
Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization).
variolation
Arboviruses are transmitted by the (contact/enteric/vector) route
vector
A "summer cold" that lasts for weeks and is characterized by sore throat, mild fever, dry cough, and malaise may be (pneumococcal/staphylococcal/walking) pneumonia.
walking
The presence of a cell (wall/membrane) enables bacterial and plant cells to resist the effects of hypotonic solutions.
wall
The normal habitat for Vibrio cholerae is (humans/animals/water).
water
An inflamed fluid-filled lesion on the finger caused by either HHV-1 or HHV-2 is known as a (blister/wart/whitlow).
whitlow
