Microbio Lecture
The sodium ion is noted as Na+ because it has an overall charge of _______.
+1
Lincosamides bind to the __________ to inhibit bacterial growth.
50S ribosomal subunit
What component of bacterial cells do macrolide antibiotics target?
50S ribosomal subunit
You are administering a 5% dextrose in water solution to your patient to replace lost fluids and provide carbohydrates to the body. How much dextrose was added to 1 liter of water?
50g/L
Due to vaccine misinformation, a recent Gallup poll revealed that only _________ percent of respondents believed that vaccines are extremely important.
54
Which of the following indicates carbon's atomic number?
6
The Center for Disease Control and Prevention recommended that men infected with Zika virus delay planned pregnancies. What is the recommended length of time for delayed conception for men afflicted with Zika virus?
6 months following symptomatic recovery
During the 2017-2018 school year, there were 37 cases of measles at an elementary school with a population of 600 students. There were 150 students at the school who had not received the measles vaccine. What is the prevalence rate of measles at the elementary school?
6.2%
Which of the following definitions correctly describes the CRISPR-Cas9 system?
A gene-editing tool that locates a specific DNA sequence and cuts it out so that a new sequence can be inserted.
Which of the following is a correct statement about hemolytic transfusion reactions?
A hemolytic transfusion reaction, which lyses red blood cells, could kill the patient.
Which of the following is the best definition for the term attenuated?
A microorganism that is infectious but is weakened to the point of being unable to cause disease in an immunocompetent host
Which of the following does not describe an essential nutrient?
A necessary substance that a microbe makes.
Infectious disease commonly follows five basic stages. During which stage would a patient not be able to spread the disease?
A patient may spread an infectious, communicable disease during any of the five stages.
A healthy gut microbiome contains diverse species where benign microbes help keep pathogenic members in check. Which of the following could tip the balance from normal microbiota to a disease state?
A patient on an intravenous course of antibiotics
Which of the following statements is an example of patient noncompliance that accelarates resistance to antimicrobial drugs?
A patient stops taking his amoxicillin that he was prescribed for strep throat because he felt better after 5 of 10 doses.
Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in Listeria meningitis?
A pregnant woman consumes a sandwich with tainted deli meat and feta (a soft cheese).
Aseptic culturing techniques require all of the below except:
A pure culture
Select the false statement.
A pure culture has colonies that exhibit different shapes and coloration.
Your pediatric patient recently received a DTaP vaccination, providing immunity to diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis. If your patient is exposed to pertussis a few weeks following this vaccination, which of the results would you expect to receive when measuring the patient's antibody titers?
A rapid surge in the production of IgG antibody
Which of the following is not a reason Rocky Mountain spotted fever should be diagnosed within the first few days of an infection?
A schizophrenia-like illness or mood disturbances may result.
Choose the false statement.
A stethoscope is classified as critical equipment.
You suspect that your patient is suffering from tuberculosis and obtain a sputum sample. Which of the following staining procedures would be the most appropriate to diagnose your patient?
Acid-fast stain
Which of the following is (are) mismatched? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all mismatched statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
Acid-fast stain: turns acid-fast cells blue Gram stain: turns Gram-negative cells purple
Which of the following is not an example of a primary immunodeficiency?
Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).
Which of the following definitions is correctly matched?
Activation energy - the minimum amount of energy needed to get a reaction started
Which of the following best describes the function of granulocytes?
Activation of other leukocytes involved in adaptive immunity
What is the primary function of interleukins?
Activation of the innate and adaptive immune response
Which of the following types of transport would only be found in living cells?
Active transport
Which of the following is not a type of endocytosis?
Active transport.
There are __________ different subtypes of influenza neuraminidase (NA) proteins.
10
Spontaneous mutations are estimated to occur in one out of every _______ base pairs.
10^10 (10 billion)
Type IV hypersensitivities develop __________ after the initial contact with the sensitizing antigen.
12-72 hours
In an experiment to calculate the decimal reduction time for an Escherichia coli culture, viable cells were exposed to a constant temperature of 80°C for a set amount of time. After exposure, the remaining number of surviving cells were counted. Based on Table 1, what is the decimal reduction time? Table 1. Decimal Reduction Time for E. coli Heated to 80°C
13 minutes
What would the generation time be for an organism that goes through 10 generations in 150 minutes?
15 minutes
Given the different combinations of subtypes of influenza hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) proteins, there are at least __________ subtypes of the influenza A virus.
170
There are __________ different subtypes of influenza hemagglutinin (HA) proteins.
18
With 1 in 10 individuals with SARS dying of the infection, the mortality rate of the 2003 SARS pandemic was similar to the __________.
1918 Spanish influenza pandemic
Which of the following numbers on the pH scale represents an extremely acidic solution?
2
You calculated the generation time of a strain of Pseudomonas aeruginosa as 40 minutes. How long would it take (in hours) for three generations to grow?
2 hours
Put the following tests in the correct order for determining the efficacy of an antimicrobial drug in a clinical microbiology laboratory: 1. Broth dilution test 2. Kirby-Bauer test 3. E-test
2, 3, 1
Put the steps for building recombinant DNA into the correct order. Step 1: Transforming the plasmid into cells for expression Step 2: Gene isolation and copying Step 3: Inserting the desired gene into a plasmid
2, 3, 1
During the 2017-2018 school year, there were 37 cases of measles at an elementary school with a population of 600 students. There were 150 students at the school who had not received the measles vaccine. What is the incidence rate of measles at this elementary school?
24.7%
Which of the following accurately describes the mechanism of action of albendazole and mebendazole?
Inhibition of glucose uptake
Allergens that are ingested or __________ can cause systemic anaphylaxis.
Injected
__________ immunity is immediate, and it responds in the same way to every microbial threat.
Innate
Which of the following best describes agranulocytes?
Innate immune responders, as well as B and T cells
Which of the following terms is correctly matched with its description?
Insertion mutations: Occur when a cell adds one or more nucleotides to its genome sequence.
Which of the following is not something patients can do to reduce the emergence of antimicrobial resistance?
Insisting on antimicrobial drug therapies when they are not necessary
Which of the following steps is found in the lysogenic replication pathway but not in the lytic replication pathway?
Integration
Which of the following limitations of Koch's postulates is incorrectly matched?
Koch's first postulate: Ebola
Which of Koch's postulates involves isolating an organism from the diseased host and growing it in pure culture?
Koch's second postulate
Your laboratory is working with Clostridium tetani, the etiological agent for tetanus. Which of the following minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) are relevant for this type of pathogen?
Lab coats, gloves, and safety goggles or a face shield (if there is splash risk) should be worn.
How does adaptive immunity differ from innate immunity?
Adaptive immunity generates immunological memory and is specific to a pathogen.
Start of DSM 3 Adding salt or sugar to foods is a great way to preserve these foods for a longer period of time and prevent bacterial spoilage. Why?
Adding sugar or salt creates a hypertonic environment and water will be lost from bacterial cells, leading to plasmolysis.
Which of the following viruses most commonly causes "pink eye" (conjunctivitis)?
Adenoviruses
What is an adjuvant?
Adjuvants are pharmacological additives that enhance the body's natural immune response to an antigen.
If a mother has not already been sensitized to the Rh factor, which of the following options will protect the fetus from HDN?
Administering Rh(D) immunoglobulin.
Which of the following is the best way to treat Cryptococcosis?
Adminstering antifungal drugs
Which is the key difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiratory chains?
Aerobic respiratory chains always use oxygen as the final electron acceptor while anaerobic respiratory chains may use a variety of inorganic substances other than oxygen as the final electron acceptor.
Which of the following statements is true concerning the life cycle of Giardia lamblia?
After ingestion, a Giardia lamblia cyst hatches into two trophozoites in the small intestine.
Which of the following statements is true?
Agar is used as a solidifying agent for bacterial culture.
Which of the following transmission precautions is mismatched?
Airborne precautions: procedural mask
Alanine is a non-essential amino acid in humans. Based on this, select the true statement about alanine.
Alanine is made in human cells as the result of an amination reaction.
_________ live in environments with extremely high pH.
Alkaliphiles
Which of the following is not a zoonosis?
All are considered zoonotic infections.
Which of the following is a correct statement about bacterial cell walls?
All bacterial cell walls contain peptidoglycan.
Why should antibiotics not be given to a patient with Escherichia coli O157:H7?
Antibiotics do not reduce disease and may precipitate HUS.
Which of the following molecules are only found as part of the humoral immune response?
Antibodies
Graves' disease is an example of which of the following type II hypersensitivity cytotoxic reactions?
Antibodies interact with a cell-surface receptor on self-cells causing the overactivation of the receptor.
__________, or amount of antibody present in the blood, is _________ during the secondary immune response.
Antibody titer; greater
Which of the following does not describe type II cytolytic hypersensitivity?
Antibody-receptor interaction causes receptor inactivation.
Which description of antigenic drift and antigenic shift in the influenza virus is incorrectly matched?
Antigenic drift: Often involves reassortment of viral strains in an animal host followed by a "species jump" to humans.
In the Spring of 2009, a novel H1N1 virus emerged that had a new combination of genes from pigs, humans, and birds. As a result, the virus spread quickly, resulting in a swine flu pandemic. Which of the following concepts explains why the outbreak occurred?
Antigenic shift
Which of the following was likely the reason for the Spanish influenza pandemic of 1918?
Antigenic shift
Which of the following is (are) organic? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all true statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
C6H12O6
Which of the following is a molecular formula?
C6H12O6
Which of the following is a molecule?
C6H12O6
Which of the following might be used by a chemoorganoheterotroph for energy?
C6H12O6
Which of the following molecules is organic?
C6H12O6
Genes can be silenced by a process called DNA methylation. Which of the following compounds is a methyl group?
CH3
Which of the following correctly describes the molecular formula for methane, which is comprised of one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms?
CH4
Which of the following is an organic molecule?
CH4
In the CRISPR-Cas9 system, __________ finds a desired genetic sequence to be cut out.
CRISPR
Mutated genes can be replaced with correct gene sequences using _________.
CRISPR-Cas9
Which of the following genera is not commonly found in dental plaque?
Campylobacter jejuni
Which of the following organisms causes food infection?
Campylobacter jejuni
A patient is presenting with the following signs and symptoms: diarrhea, abdominal cramps, vomiting, and fever. The patient indicated consuming slightly undercooked chicken three days ago. What is the patient likely suffering from?
Campylobacteriosis
Which of the following diseases is not caused by prions?
Cancer
Often women develop a vaginal yeast infection after antibiotic therapy causes a reduction in lactobacilli levels, changing the pH, and leading to an overgrowth of __________ .
Candida albicans
Which of the following are examples of endogenous sources of transmission?
Candida albicans (pathogenic strain of yeast)
Which of the following cell surface structures may initiate B cells by T-independent antigens?
Capsules
Which of the biomolecules is incorrectly matched with its building block?
Carbohydrate: Polysaccharide
Of the following, which does NOT occur in the Krebs cycle?
Carbon molecules are reduced and the electron carrier molecules are oxidized.
In the CRISPR-Cas9 system, __________ cuts the DNA once it has been located.
Cas9
__________ make important connections between clinical medicine and epidemiology and may reveal the cause of a disease.
Case reports
Which of the following antifungal agents does not target ergosterol in the fungal plasma membrane?
Caspofungin acetate
Why should a pregnant woman avoid changing and cleaning cat litter boxes?
Cat feces may contain the protozon Toxoplasma gondii, which can cross the placenta and infect the fetus.
When we say that catabolic and anabolic reactions are coupled, what does that really mean?
Catabolic reactions provide energy and smaller molecules required by anabolic reactions.
Which of the following is not a factor that influences enzyme activity?
Catalysts
____________ are organic or inorganic substances that increase the rate of a reaction but are not used up in the reaction.
Catalysts
Which of the following word pairs describing chronic and latent viral infections is mismatched?
Chronic infections: distinguished by flare-ups triggered by stress
Which of the following does not describe a eukaryote?
Circular DNA
Which of the following is not a viral genome arrangement?
Circular RNA
Which of the following best describes mast cells?
Circular nucleus; resides in tissues; attack bacteria, allergens, and parasites
Which of the following antimalarial drug is also an antibacterial drug?
Clindamycin
According to the most recent statistics, _________ infections are the most common healthcare-acquired infections (HAIs).
Clostridium difficile
Quinolones are prescribed for infections with each of the following microbes except __________.
Clostridium difficile
Which of the following is the most common healthcare-acquired infection (HAIs)?
Clostridium difficile infections
Which of the following key HAI's is not associated with its correct cause?
Clostridium difficile: Causes acute illness that is followed by a high risk of chronic infection that causes severe liver damage and increases the risk of liver cancer
After a traveler returned from Sierra Leone, he complained of flu-like symptoms, including fever, sore throat, and muscle pain. He thought that he may have been exposed to a patient with Ebola. In order to prevent the patient from possibly spreading Ebola, at least, how long should he be quarantined?
At least 21 days
Start of study quiz 2 Which of the following is mismatched?
Atomic nucleus: Contains protons, neutrons, and electrons
Which of the following is mismatched?
Atomic nucleus: Contains protons, neutrons, and electrons
Which route of exposure and type I hypersensitivity signs and symptoms is mismatched? Food and drug allergies: Diarrhea and stomach pain Atopic asthma: Cold-like symptoms Seasonal allergies: Itchy, watery, red eyes Atopic dermatitis: Itchy, scaly skin rash
Atopic asthma: Cold-like symptoms
You would like to sterilize bacterial growth media in a flask. You have about 1.5 hours before your patient's sample will be ready for inoculation. Which method would be best to sterilize the media within the timeframe?
Autoclaving
Which of the following methods uses steam-heat and pressure to effectively sterilize microbiological media and equipment?
Autoclaving.
___________ are transplants from self, like a self-skin graft from one part of the body to another location.
Autografts
According to the agglutination tests pictured below, what is the blood type of the sample being tested?
B
Benadryl (diphenhydramine) is an anti-histamine that can be used to treat atopic, allergic reactions. Which of the following statements best describes how this drug affects the inflammatory response?
Benadryl directly blocks the action of vasoactive molecules, leading to a decreased inflammatory response.
How do beta-lactam antimicrobials inhibit bacterial growth?
Beta-lactams inhibit cell wall synthesis.
Which of the following best describes eosinophils?
Bi-lobed nucleus; moderately phagocytic; attack allergens and parasites
Which of the following is not a mechanism for horizontal gene transfer?
Binary fission
Which of the following types of cell division is found in prokaryotic cells?
Binary fission
Which of the following is a key distinguishing characteristic between budding and binary fission?
Binary fission results in daughter cells of equal size, whereas budding is an uneven division
Which of the following is not a role of the eukaryotic glycocalyx?
Biofilm production
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about biofilms?
Biofilms are composed of planktonic bacteria.
Choose the false statement about biofilms.
Biofilms are easily treated using antibiotics
Which of the following explains the mechanism of dental cavity formation?
Biofilms on the surface of the teeth ferment sugars (especially sucrose), and the resulting acid degrades the tooth enamel and damages dentin.
__________ is common in the Mississippi and Ohio River valleys.
Blastomycosis
Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal signs of inflammation?
Bleeding
A patient presents with extensive tissue necrosis around her toes. You also notice a foul odor emitting from her infection. The lab results from organisms isolated from the infected tissue find endospore-forming, Gram-positive, strictly anaerobic bacterial cells. Which organism is this patient likely infected with?
Clostridium perfringens
The main causative agent of gas gangrene is ___________.
Clostridium perfringens
Which of the following does not represent a shape or arrangement that a prokaryote can assume?
Clusters of bacilli form a Staph arrangement.
Which of the following coenzymes is NOT involved in redox reactions as an electron carrier coenzyme?
CoA
A key test used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis relies on the microorganism's ability to clot blood plasma fibrin. Based on this information, this distinguishing assay tests for the invasin
Coagulase
Which type of invasin is correctly matched with a representative organism?
Coagulase - Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following endemic mycoses is mainly found in the southwestern U.S.?
Coccidioidomycosis
Which of the following would not reduce microbiological clinical sample analysis errors?
Collecting patient samples in hospital settings.
Why are children more likely to suffer from ear infections than adults?
Compared to adults, the eustachian tube in children is shorter, narrower, and more horizontal, making fluid drainage from the middle ear to the throat less efficient.
Which of the following does not contribute to secondary immune deficiency?
Complement protein defects.
You are preparing a growth medium for an isolate that you obtained from a patient. You are adding yeast extract, glucose, peptones, malt extract, and ampicillin. Which kind of medium are you preparing?
Complex and selective
Which of the following type of fungal spores arise from mitosis and do not result in genetic variation?
Conidiospores
Which protective mechanism of the eye is incorrectly matched with its description?
Conjunctiva: Transparent layer which protects the iris
Which of the following statements about constitutive genes is false?
Constitutive genes produce their proteins when a cell encounters a specific environmental change.
You are about to enter a patient's room and are required to put on gloves and a gown and use a single-patient use stethoscope. What type of transmission precautions is this patient under?
Contact precautions
Which of the following is considered a major category of transmission of disease?
Contact, vehicle, and vector transmission
Which of the following describes the function of lysosomes?
Contain a wide variety of hydrolytic enzymes that break down substances engulfed by the cell.
Which of the following restriction enzymes would recognize and cut the following DNA sequence? -TGGATCCA- -ACCTAGGT-
BamHI GATC CTAG
Which statement is not true about the virus capsid?
Because the capsid is not essential to the virus, it is not a useful target for antiviral drugs.
Human prion disease (vCJD) has been linked to eating contaminated _________
Beef
Which of the following molecules can be recycled to produce purines and pyrimidines?
DNA
Quinolones target the enzymes __________ and topoisomerase.
DNA gyrase
Which of the following statements about DNA is incorrect?
DNA is a long, single-stranded molecule that curves into a helix, and the set pairings of the bases ensure that there is always a purine across from another purine and a pyrimidine across from another pyrimidine.
Choose the true statement about the epigenome.
DNA methylation patterns of the epigenome can be inherited.
During DNA replication, which enzyme is involved in proofreading to prevent the incorrect matching of nucleotides?
DNA polymerase
RNA primers are removed from the leading and lagging strand by __________.
DNA polymerase I
In DNA replication, what is the main enzyme responsible for adding complementary nucleotides to the daughter strand while reading the parent strand?
DNA polymerase III
Which enzyme is the main contributor to the development of spontaneous mutations?
DNA polymerase III
Which of the following statements about DNA replication in bacteria is false?
DNA replication proceeds in only one direction around a circular chromosome.
The central dogma states that the primary flow of "genetic information" in a cell primarily proceeds from _______.
DNA to RNA to protein
The Endosymbiotic theory describes the evolution of eukaryotes occurred through the merging of each of the following except:
DNA virus
All of the following explain why viral genomes evolve rapidly except:
DNA viruses have a high mutation rate.
Which of the following macromolecules is incorrectly paired with its building blocks?
DNA: nicotinic acids
You are working in a pediatric doctor's office and your 5-year-old patient needs his 5th dose of the diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccine. Which of the following vaccines would you need to administer?
DTaP
_____________ are atoms with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons.
Isotopes
Which of the following most accurately describes the advantage of isotype switching?
Isotype switching expands the operational capacity of antibodies.
Which statement is not true about the pentose phosphate pathway?
It allows cellular respiration to occur without the need for oxygen.
You are programming a thermocycler and are setting temperature of the second step in your protocol to 62°C. What is happening during this step?
It allows the primers to anneal.
Of the following statements, which does NOT apply to a microorganism that has a fertility plasmid?
It can undergo vertical gene transfer.
Choose the false statement about the prokaryotic cytoskeleton.
It contains actin and tubulin.
Which of the following statements about electron microscopy is false?
It has a maximum magnification of 1000x.
Which of the following describes a Gram-positive cell wall?
It has a thick peptidoglycan layer.
What is the function of a carboxysome?
It houses carbon-fixation enzymes.
Select the true statement(s) about bright field microscopy. To be marked correct, you'll need to select all true statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
It illuminates the specimen using visible light. A dark image is contrasted on a bright background. Bright field microscopy is the most simple and common form of microscopy.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about aseptic technique?
It is a sterile technique.
Choose the single false statement about Mg2+ ?
It is an anion.
Which of the following is false about the tropical disease African sleeping sickness?
It is carried by a blood-sucking mosquito from host to host.
Which of the following signs/symptoms is often used to distinguish bacterial and viral conjunctivitis?
It is differentiated by the nature of the fluid discharge from the eye.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the prokaryotic nucleoid region?
It is enclosed in a membrane.
Genome maps reveal valuable information about an organism. Which of the following would it not be helpful with?
It is not a useful tool for investigating differences between healthy cells and diseased ones, such as cancer cells.
Which statement is not true about leishmaniasis?
It is preventable by a vaccine which is recommended for travelers to endemic areas.
In many parts of the US, West Nile infections increase during the summer months. What is the reason?
It is transmitted by mosquitos, which are more prevalent during the summer months.
Which of the following statements about Amebiasis is correct?
It is transmitted via contaminated water.
Which of the following best describes substrate level phosphorylation?
It occurs when an enzyme transfers a phosphoryl group from a donor substrate directly to ADP to make ATP.
Which of the following describes phosphotransferase systems?
It often involves group translocation through the use of phosphoenol pyruvate.
Choose the false statement about binary fission.
It produces daughter cells that are genetically unique from one another.
Some microorganisms, such as E. coli and B. subtilis, can move glucose 6-phosphate into the pentose phosphate pathway instead of glycolysis. Which of the following statements describes an advantage of this pathway?
It provides an alternative pathway for creating nucleotides and amino acids.
Which of the following statements about the lagging strand is false?
It uses only one molecule of DNA polymerase I.
Which of the following is true about antimicrobial peptides?
It's rare for microbes to develop resistance to AMPs.
Which of the following scientists investigated processes for aseptic surgery?
Joseph Lister
Which of the following cancers is associated with a secondary immune deficiency?
Kaposi sarcoma.
In the ___________, antibiotic paper disks are added to a solid medium inoculated with a standard amount of a pure bacterial culture to test whether the organism is sensitive, intermediate, or resistant to the drug.
Kirby-Bauer test
___________ are formed when ionic compounds dissolve in solution and have a role in regulating blood volume.
Electrolytes
During which step of cellular respiration is most ATP produced?
Electron transport chain
Which of the following processes occurs in the plasma membrane of a prokaryotic cell?
Electron transport chain
Your patient is experiencing an acute case of salmonellosis, a bacterial gastrointestinal infection. Which of the following would you expect to see on a differential white blood cell count?
Elevated neutrophil count
Which is the most effective method for culturing viruses used in the development of the influenza and mumps vaccine?
Embryonated eggs
_________ is the term used to describe an inflammation of the brain.
Encephalitis
_______________is an inflammation of the heart lining.
Endocarditis
Substances from the exterior environment enter eukaryotes through:
Endocytosis
Which of the following eukaryotic organelles plays an essential role in protein and lipid production in the cell?
Endoplasmic reticulum
Which organelle is connected to the nuclear membrane?
Endoplasmic reticulum
What bacterial structures are revealed through the use of heated malachite green and safranin?
Endospores
Which of the following is true about endospores?
Endospores are highly resistant to environmental stress.
Which is not a reason why endospore-forming bacteria pose challenges in healthcare settings?
Endospores are only produced by Gram-positive organisms.
Which of the following statements is incorrect about endospores?
Endospores are reproductive structures.
Why do all enzymatic reactions need activation energy?
Energy is required to disrupt a substrate's stable electron configuration.
What is the relationship between the ATP-ADP cycle and catabolic and anabolic reactions?
Energy released from catabolic reactions is used to recharge ADP back to ATP. Then the energy needed for anabolic reactions is released by breaking ATP down to ADP.
Your patient has severe diarrhea and is passing mucus and blood. Stool samples that were obtained and checked under the microscope revealed cysts. His patient history also indicates that he recently traveled to southeast Asia. What is he likely infected with?
Entamoeba histolytica
Choose the false statement about enzymes.
Enzymes are used up in a reaction.
Why are enzymes important to biological systems?
Enzymes decrease the amount of activation energy required for chemical reactions to occur.
Which of the following statements correctly describes enzymes?
Enzymes increase the reaction rate.
What is meant by the statement "Enzymes are biological catalysts"?
Enzymes speed up the chemical reactions in living cells.
Which of the following is one way that enzymes decrease activation energy?
Enzymes stabilize the reaction's transition state.
You would like to show the presence of Gram-negative lactose fermenters in your unknown pure culture. Which of the following media would be most appropriate?
Eosine methylene blue (EMB) agar
Your patient is suffering from a parasitic infection. Which of the following cells would most likely be elevated?
Eosinophils
Which of the following layers of the skin typically harbors microbes?
Epidermis
Which skin component consists of dead cells that provide a barrier against infectious agents?
Epidermis
Which of the following is a physical barrier?
Epidermis of the skin
Which of the following conditions associated with the upper respiratory tract is considered a medical emergency?
Epiglottitis
__________ bind to B cell receptors (BCR) and T cell receptors (TCR).
Epitopes
Burkitt's lymphoma is a possible complication of which disease?
Epstein-Barr virus
The nickname "the kissing disease" refers to an infection caused by which pathogen?
Epstein-Barr virus
Which of the following viruses and cancer links are mismatched?
Epstein-Barr virus: adult T-cell leukemia.
Which staphylococcal infection is not correctly matched with its description?
Erysipelas: A milder form of impetigo with only localized inflammation and mild pain
Which of the following is not a key virulence factor of Shigella?
Erythrogenic toxins
An important source of vitamin K in the intestine comes from which species?
Escherichia coli
Which of the following organisms is the most commonly causative agent of UTIs?
Escherichia coli
Consuming undercooked, contaminated hamburgers and unpasteurized dairy and juices may become sources of infection with _______________.
Escherichia coli O157:H7
Which microbes are not considered normal skin microbiota?
Escherichia species
Ethylene glycol is an ingredient in antifreeze. If antifreeze is swallowed, the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase binds to the ethylene glycol and converts it to toxic oxalic and glycolyic acid. One of the treatments for ethylene glycol poisoning is the administration of the enzyme's natural substrate, ethanol. Based on this information, what is the best way to describe how ethanol protects against ethylene glycol poisoning?
Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol to limit oxalic and glycolyic acid formation.
Which of the following chemicals is applied as a gas to sterilize equipment and disinfect surfaces?
Ethylene oxide
Which of the following germicides will also sterilize?
Ethylene oxide
Your patient is receiving a spinal fusion to correct a skeletal defect. Which of the following germicides is recommended to sterilize the bone used for the transplantation?
Ethylene oxide
Which of the following statements is false?
Eukaryotes have a much simpler genetic makeup than prokaryotic cells.
Which of the following is not a role of normal microbiota in the human body?
Evading the immune response
Which Staphylococcus aureus virulence factor is directly associated with staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?
Exfoliative toxin
Which of the following processes removes substances from the cell?
Exocytosis
Which of the following is not an example of a descriptive epidemiological study design?
Experimental studies
You are observing an unknown, unicellular organism with a high-resolution and magnification microscope. You are noting the presence of various membrane-bound organelles. Which of the following types of cells are you likely working with?
Fungus
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is considered a commensal organism in women, yet babies are susceptible to infection with GBS. All of the following are reasons why this occurs except:
GBS doesn't produce the same virulence factors in the baby as it does in in the mother.
Which of the following is a common healthcare-acquired infection?
Gastrointestinal infection caused by Clostridium difficile
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of gene shuffling?
Gene shuffling generates an enormous repertoire of antigen receptors during lymphocyte development.
Mitosis is characterized by
Genetically identical cells
Which of the following drugs is not hepatotoxic?
Gentamicin
Which of the following is characterized as a Mastigophora, or "flagellated protozoan"?
Giardia intestinalis
After your dog drank puddle water at the dog park a few days prior, he is now suffering from severe diarrhea. The vet observed cysts in his stool sample. Which organism likely infected your dog?
Giardia lamblia
Which of the following diseases is noncommunicable, meaning that it is not spread from person to person?
Giardiasis
Which of the following would not be a building block of a nucelotide?
Glucose molecule
Which of the following describes a triglyceride?
Glycerol bonded to three fatty acids.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate substance that encourages bacterial adhesion to host tissues?
Glycocalyx.
Which of the following processes are likely utilized by an obligate anaerobe that generates energy through respiration and is not capable of fermentation?
Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain
How do glycopeptide drugs differ from beta-lactam drugs?
Glycopeptide drugs do not have a beta-lactam ring, so they are not susceptible to beta-lactamases.
Choose the single true statement about biological molecules:
Glycosidic bonds join the simple sugars in a carbohydrate.
Which of the following examples of type II hypersensitivities are matched incorrectly with their mediated mechanism?
Goodpasture syndrome: noncytolytic
Which of the following is an example of a non-autoimmune type IV hypersensitivity?
Graft-versus-host disease
Why are chemical agents like lysozyme more likely to damage Gram-positive bacteria than Gram-negative bacteria?
Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane as part of their cell wall.
Which of the following statements correctly describes endotoxins?
Gram-negative bacteria mainly release endotoxin when they die, although a small amount can be released as the bacteria divide.
Choose the true statement about Gram-negative versus Gram-positive cells.
Gram-negative cells are more resistant to penicillin-based drugs than Gram-positive cells.
Septic shock is typically associated with
Gram-negative infections.
Your patient is complaining of headache, dizziness, fatigue, and chills. He has a bull's-eye like rash on his back. He is likely suffering from Lyme disease which is caused by ___________.
Gram-negative spirochetes
_____________ bacteria lack an outer membrane, have a thick layer of peptidoglycan, contain teichoic acid, and lack mycolic acid.
Gram-positive
Which of the following molecules released by cytotoxic T cells will enter a virus-infected cell through pores and break down proteins?
Granzymes
Which of the following type II hypersensitivities is noncytolytic?
Grave's disease
In which organism would you likely find a chlorosome?
Green sulfur bacteria
While there are commercial test kits available for vaginosis, diagnosis is usually made based on a collection of signs called Amsel's criteria. Which of the following is not one of those four criteria?
Greenish, frothy discharge
Which of the following autoimmune disorders attacks the neuromuscular system?
Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Which of the following autoimmune type IV hypersensitivities and the tissues they attack are mismatched? Hashimoto's disease: thyroid gland Multiple sclerosis: myelin sheath Celiac disease: small intestine Guillain-Barré syndrome: kidneys
Guillain-Barré syndrome: kidneys
Start of DSM 1 Which of the following regions in the human body supports the greatest variety of microbial species?
Gut
Acids contribute _________ to an aqueous solution.
H+
Host antibodies against the influenza virus are developed against ___________.
HA and NA spikes
HIV, the virus which causes AIDS, interacts with two receptors on the host cell membrane: CD4 and CCR5. A small percentage of individuals have a genetic mutation which causes their cells to lack CCR5. These individuals will never develop AIDS nor are they able to pass HIV on to others. Which part of viral replication is being blocked by the lack of a receptor?
HIV cannot attach to the host cell without the proper membrane receptor.
Which of the following most accurately describes wandering macrophages?
Highly phagocytic cells that destroy a wide range of pathogens and roam through tissues
Which of the following chemical mediators of inflammation is primarily released by mast cells?
Histamine
Which of the following molecules are not pyrogenic (fever-inducing)?
Histamines
Which of the following endemic mycoses is mismatched with its primary symptoms?
Histoplasma: skin rash
The main function of the nucleus is __________.
Houses the cell's DNA; serves as the cell's command center.
While many areas on and in the human body contain a variety of microbes, there are "microbe-free zones." Which of the following would not typically be a microbe-free zone?
Human gut
Which of the following is the species name of HHV-1?
Human herpesvirus-1 or Herpes simplex virus 1.
Which of the following viruses causes a chronic infection?
Human immunodeficiency virus
Which of the following is does not contribute to the difficulties with disease eradication?
Human lives and money saved
Which of the following is oncogenic?
Human papilloma viruses
Which of the following oncogenic viruses may integrate into the host genome?
Human papilloma viruses (HPVs)
Which of the following viruses is transmitted sexually?
Human papillomavirus
__________ cause croup, bronchitis, and pneumonia in infants and the elderly.
Human parainfluenza viruses (HPIV)
Which of the following statements describes why sulfa drugs do not interfere with mammalian biological pathways?
Humans do not independently synthesize folic acid (the target of sulfa drugs), but acquire it from their diet.
__________ immunity is the branch of adaptive immunity that produces antibodies.
Humoral
All antibody isotypes can appear as a monomer, but only __________ can appear as a dimer.
IgA
The antibody found in breastmilk and coating mucous membranes is
IgA
Which of the following antibodies is found primarily on the mucous membranes?
IgA
Allergens trigger __________ production in type I hypersensitivities.
IgE
Blood tests for allergies detect __________ titers.
IgE
Your patient has an anaphylactic response to bee venom. Which of the following classes of antibodies would you expect to be elevated in the patient's serum, based on this hypersensitivity?
IgE
__________ antibodies fight parasites and mediate allergic responses.
IgE
In type I hypersensitivities, allergen exposure triggers the immune system to produce ________. This is called the _________.
IgE; sensitizing exposure
The most abundant antibody class in the body, found in all body fluids, is
IgG
Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta and is the most abundant of all antibodies?
IgG
Which of the following antibodies is the most abundant antibody type?
IgG.
Generally, the first antibody class made upon a primary antigen exposure is
IgM
Which of the following antibodies can appear as a pentamer and occurs first after exposure to antigen?
IgM
Antibody titers during the primary exposure to an antigen consist primarily of:
IgM antibodies.
_________can exist as either a monomer or a snowflake-shaped pentamer and is central to _________.
IgM; agglutination and precipitation reactions
Who was the first person to recommend hand washing to reduce mortality rates?
Ignaz Semmelweis
When should an individual that was bitten by a rabid animal seek medical treatment?
Immediately after exposure
What is graft-versus-host disease?
Immune system cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the body of its new host.
Which of the following statements is false?
Immunofluorescence is when fluorochromes bind to a specific target and fluoresce after exposure to UV light.
Why are immunological diagnostic tools a better choice than biochemical tools in identifying a variety of cellular as well as viral pathogens?
Immunologic diagnositics can identify noncellular pathogens like viruses that lack their own biochemical processes.
Which of the following best describes the role of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?
Phagocytic protection from pathogens and mediation of immune responses
Which of the following does not describe an active pulmonary tuberculosis infection?
Phagocytized Mycobacterium tuberculosis thriving inside alveolar macrophages
Which of the following is also known as "cell eating"?
Phagocytosis
Which of the following is not a key antibody function?
Phagocytosis
Which of the following is worldwide the most common type of community-acquired, typical pneumonia?
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Your 3-year-old patient presents to you with high fever, shaking chills, cough, chest pain, and shortness of breath. The patient's mother stated that symptoms began suddenly last night. The patient is up to date on all vaccinations. Based on this information, which of the following diseases did your patient most likely contract?
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Patients with __________ often experience a dry, nonproductive cough.
Pneumocystis pneumonia
__________ is a serious infection of the alveoli that disrupts gas exchange.
Pneumonia
How does Helicobacter pylori cause stomach ulcers?
Polar flagella help bacteria burrow into mucosal lining to escape stomach acid, where enzymes decrease the acidity around them, and they release a toxin to kill host cells.
Which of the following is a correct statement about polar substances?
Polar, or hydrophilic, substances readily dissolve in water.
Which of the following infectious agents infects the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
Poliovirus
You are comparing the size of different viruses. You are specifically interested in the size of the following viruses: Ebola virus, Poliovirus, Rhinivirus, and Pithovirus. Which of these viruses would be the smallest, and which the largest?
Poliovirus is the smallest; Pithovirus the largest.
Which of the following enzymes is incorrectly matched with its function?
Polymerase I - copies DNA on the leading and lagging strands.
Which of the following would not move freely across the cytoplasmic membrane?
Positively charged hydrogen ions
Choose the true statement about post-translational modifications.
Post-translational modifications include phosphorylation, trimming, and addition of organic factors.
Which autoimmune type III hypersensitivity can result after a bacterial infection?
Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis.
__________ is an example of a halogen germicide.
Povidone-iodine
How can health care workers reduce the occurrence of nosocomial infections?
Practice more stringent aseptic techniques
Which of the following is not a result of activation of the complement cascade by antibodies?
Precipitation
Which of the following is not a subunit vaccine?
Recombinant vector vaccine
What is the primary function of chemokines?
Recruitment of white blood cells to the area of infection
Your patient presents to the emergency room with classical signs of Lyme disease, including a bulls-eye rash at the infection site. The patient states that the rash appeared roughly one week after hiking in the woods. The fever began soon after, lasted for three days, resolved for three days, and then came back. Which of the following terms best describes your patient's fever?
Relapsing fever
Which of the following is not part of the five general steps that a microbe must follow in order to successfully establish an infection?
Release endotoxins
An activated T helper cell becomes either an effector T helper cell or a memory T helper cell. What is the function of the effector T helper cell?
Release factors that help T cytotoxic cell and B cell activation
Which of the following does not describe enveloped virus replication?
Release through host cell rupture
__________ diseases are those that the CDC and local authorities have an interest in monitoring.
Reportable
Neonatal herpes has three major clinical presentations. Which of the following is not one of the three?
Respiratory manifestations
Which of the following is not a route of transmission for warts?
Respiratory route
Which of the following is the leading cause of bronchitis and pneumonia among children under one year old?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Which of the following is true about retrotransposons?
Retrotransposons rely on an RNA intermediate to insert into a new part of the genome.
__________ are used in gene therapy because they specifically introduce genetic material into host chromosomes.
Retroviruses
Which of the following statements about reverse transcription is false?
Reverse transcription requires a particular initiation sequence.
One of your co-workers recently returned from Eastern Europe. She was there for over a year to support the medical staff in local hospitals. She is a healthy individual who does not have a history of TB and does not present any clinical signs. She is given a TB test to make sure she does not have the disease. After 72 hours, the site of the injection shows an induration that is 5 mm in diameter. How would you interpret this result?
She is negative for TB.
Which of the following best describes the relationship between chickenpox and shingles?
Shingles is the result of reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus that initially caused a chickenpox infection.
Which of the following is an organic molecule made by bacteria that sequesters iron from host iron-binding proteins?
Siderophore
__________ are complexes that remove iron from transferrin for their own use.
Siderophores
What is the primary function of interferons?
Signaling molecules that send an alarm when pathogens or tumor cells are detected
How is simple diffusion different from other types of passive transport?
Simple diffusion does not require a permease.
Which of the following transport mechanisms does not necessarily involve a membrane barrier?
Simple diffusion.
Choose the false statement.
Single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) viruses use RNA-dependent RNA polymerases to build mRNA.
Which of the following characteristics of a catheter should be considered, to help minimize the spread of nosocomial infections?
Single-use
Which of the following is not caused by adenoviruses?
Sinusitis
_________ results from aggravation and inflammation of the paranasal sinus membranes.
Sinusitis
Lupus and __________ are systemic type III autoimmune hypersensitivities.
Sjögren's syndrome
Which of the following is the most important physical barrier of the first line of defense?
Skin
Which of the following is not a mechanical barrier to pathogens?
Skin blocking the entry of pathogens.
Which of the following is not a benefit of small size to prokaryotes?
Small size allows for greater genetic complexity.
Which of the following diseases was effectively eradicated through vaccination?
Smallpox
Which of the following diseases was eradicated after a successful vaccination program?
Smallpox
Which of the following skin infections is considered eradicated?
Smallpox
Which of the following is a correct statement about genital herpes?
Some genital herpes cases are so mild that people don't even know they're infected.
Which of the following is not a part of aseptic technique?
Sterilizing surfaces in an operating room.
What is the primary function of tumor necrosis factor?
Stimulate inflammation and kill tumor cells
Which of the following molecular second-line defenses is common to cytokines, iron-binding proteins, and complement proteins?
Stimulation of inflammation
Which of the following does not contain lysozyme?
Stomach acid
Escherichia coli O157:H7 may cause servere illness. "O157:H7" is the _______ designation of the organism.
Strain
Most bacterial meningitis cases in the United States are pneumococcal meningitis, caused by which of the following bacteria?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
A Gram-positive, spherical organism that you isolated from a patient's skin lesion is catalase-negative and displays beta hemolysis. Which of the following organisms is this patient likely infected with?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following is not a virulence factor employed by uropathogenic Escherichia coli to establish infection?
Streptokinase
Which of the following descriptions is unique to pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
Sudden high fever
How does the antibiotic sulfanilamide inhibit bacterial growth?
Sulfanilamide is a competitive inhibitor that competes with para-aminobenzoic acid, thus affecting folic acid synthesis of a bacterial cell.
___________include a variety of bacterial toxins (e.g. staphylococcal enterotoxins and staphylococcal toxic shock toxin) and are especially potent T helper cell activators.
Superantigens
A patient's preliminary diagnosis, as well as the stage and site of infection, affect how and when a representative sample is obtained for microbiological analysis. Which would be the most appropriate tools to collect samples from a patient infected with Clamydia trachomatis?
Swab with a plastic or wire shaft and a non-cotton tip
The secondary signal in T cell activation is necessary for:
T cell subclass specialization.
Why is Celiac disease characterized as a type IV hypersensitivity and not an allergy?
T cells, not IgG, attack the lining to the small intestines within 2-3 days of consuming gluten.
Cellular adaptive immunity is mainly carried out by _________.
T cytotoxic cells
The development of cancer can be considered to be due to a failure of __________.
T cytotoxic cells
Which of the following T cell classes directly destroys infected or cancerous cells?
T cytotoxic cells
The cellular response is favored when __________ cells develop.
T helper 1 (TH1)
Which of the following T cell classes activate natural killer cells and macrophages?
T helper 1 (TH1) cells
When __________ develop, the humoral immune response is favored.
T helper 2 (TH2) cells
Which of the following T cell classes stimulates B cells to make antibodies?
T helper 2 (TH2) cells
Which of the following is the primary activation signal to fully activate T helper cells?
T helper cell's TCR interacts with the MHCII-antigen complex.
In the cellular branch of adaptive immunity, __________ organize the response.
T helper cells
The most abundant class of T cells are __________.
T helper cells
_________ are the most abundant T cells, and their function is to __________.
T helper cells (CD4+); coordinate the adaptive immune response
An APC bearing MHC-antigen complexes on its cell surface migrates to lymphoid tissues and interacts with which of the following cells?
T helper cells and T cytotoxic cells
__________ retain the ability to recognize specific epitopes after the pathogen has been cleared by the immune system.
T memory (Tmemory) cells
Which of the following T cell classes reduces the adaptive response once the threat passes?
T regulatory (Treg) cells
In desensitization immunotherapy, an antigen is used to stimulate cell 2, which can then stimulate cell 3 and cause the production of item 4. Identify cell 2, cell 3 and item 4.
T regulatory cell, T helper 1 cell, and IgG antibodies
Type IV sensitivities are mediated by:
T-cells.
Desensitization to allergies occurs when the immune system shifts to a __________ and a __________ antibody response.
T-helper-1; IgG
Which T cell class is incorrectly matched with its description?
TC: attack other T cells during self-tolerance screening
Antibodies tagged with fluorescent molecules are used in many diagnostic tests. Which of the following diagnostic tests does not use fluorescent-tagged antibodies?
TPPA test
Which of the following uses cows as the intermediate host?
Taenia saginata
You are preparing for your trip to southeast Asia. Which of the following would not be an option available to prevent malaria?
Taking a daily course of integrase inhibitors
For the past days, you have observed your four-year-old daughter frequently itching her anal area. You suspect that she may be infected with Enterobius vermicularis and take her to see a doctor. How will the doctor confirm your suspicion and what will be the suggested treatment?
Tape adhesion test of the anal region for eggs and treat with over-the-counter medication
Which of the following does not belong to the kingdom Protista?
Tapeworms
Which of the following best describes the resistance mechanism of vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (VRSA)?
Target alterations
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about teichoic acids found in Gram-positive cell walls?
Teichoic acids are not found in the cell wall of a Gram-positive organism; they are only found in Gram-negatives.
Gumma lesions on the skin and bones, heart damage, and neurological symptoms are characteristic of which stage of syphilis?
Tertiary syphilis
Which of the following bacterial pathogenicity factors is not the result of phage conversion?
Tetanus toxin
A 6-year-old patient is suffering from Lyme disease and antimicrobials are prescribed to treat the infection. Which of the following antimicrobial compounds would not be prescribed?
Tetracycline
Which of the following antimicrobial drugs is contraindicated during pregnancy?
Tetracycline
Which of the following is a legitimate reason not to give a child the MMR vaccine?
The child is under a year old.
Why is no energy required in passive transport?
The concentration gradient drives the movement.
Which of the following is false of Shigella infections?
The elderly are most likely to become infected.
Which of the following statements correctly describes what happens during chemiosmosis?
The energy of protons flowing through the ATP synthase enzyme powers the recharge of ADP to ATP.
Choose the true statement about protein synthesis.
The first amino acid in a eukaryotic protein sequence is methionine, whereas the first amino acid in a prokaryotic protein sequence is formyl methionine.
Choose the true statement about the genetic code.
The genetic code is redundant, with multiple codons specifying a single amino acid.
Which of the following does not explain why natural and artificial active immunity provide long-term protection?
The host uses antibodies for short-term protection.
Which of the following best describes the mucociliary escalator?
The mucociliary escalator sweeps away microbes and debris trapped in mucus.
Which of the following descriptions provides the best definition for mortality rate?
The number of deaths during a specific time period
Based on this graph, what is the best conclusion you can make about the microbe being analyzed?
The optimal pH is 4.
Penicillin is an antibiotic that interferes with peptidoglycan construction in cell walls. Why would this antibiotic not be a good treatment option for patients infected with Mycoplasma pneumonia?
The organism Mycoplasma pneumonia does not have a cell wall.
Assume you know a cell is acid fast. Which of the following can you most safely conclude?
The organism is Gram-positive.
What would be a drawback when using the API Profile System?
The organism may not grow outside its original environment.
Which of the following about Naegleria fowleri is true?
The organism prefers warm stagnant waters.
Which of the following is not one of the four postulates of disease developed by Koch?
The organism should be present in mixed culture.
Which of the following is not a consideration when collecting a clinical sample from a patient?
The organism's Gram property
A patient was diagnosed with aspergillosis. Which of the following would you predict to be true about this person?
The patient is likely immunocompromised.
Your patient presents with fever, body aches, rash, vomiting, and nausea. A presumptive diagnosis of dengue fever is made. Assuming that the diagnosis is accurate, which of the following statements is also true concerning this patient?
The patient should be monitored for anemia and be kept hydrated.
Your patient is born without a thymus. This inherited, chromosomal deletion would affect the patient in which of the following ways?
The patient would not produce mature T lymphocytes.
Which of the following is a correct statement about herd immunity?
The percentage of a population that must be vaccinated for herd immunity to be effective varies based on the pathogen.
Which of the following best describes the peripheral nervous system?
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) inputs and transmits information to the body.
One ml of a liquid suspension of bacteriophage is mixed with its host bacteria and plated. After incubation, the plate is completely clear. What is the probable explanation?
The phage concentration was so high that all the host bacterial cells were killed.
A potential antimicrobial drug is tested and found to strip away the capsules made by certain pathogenic bacteria. How would this drug affect the bacteria's ability to cause disease?
The phagocytes would be better able to ingest the bacteria.
Which is an example of vehicle disease transmission?
The presence of Listeria on undercooked chicken served for dinner
Which of the following is a trait unique to photosynthetic eukaryotes?
The presence of chloroplasts
Which of the following statements about the primosome is false?
The primosome includes RNA polymerase to build the protein.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is able to overcome the iron-sequestering function of iron-binding proteins by:
breaking down iron-binding proteins to release iron.
Group A streptococci are able to overcome the iron-sequestering function of iron-binding proteins by:
breaking down red blood cells to access the iron from hemoglobin.
Viruses which infect many different tissues types are said to have a(n)
broad tropism.
A __________ antimicrobial is able to kill both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.
broad-spectrum
When a clinician is unsure of the exact cause of an infection, they will often prescribe __________ antimicrobials to protect the patient.
broad-spectrum
Most cases of Clostridium difficile infections have been preceded by a prolonged treatment with ___________.
broad-spectrum antimicrobial drugs
Which of the following is a reason why females tend to suffer more from UTIs than males?
The urethra in women is anatomically closer to the anus, making it easier for bacteria to get introduced into the urinary system.
Which of the following is an example of bioremediation?
The use of Marinobacter species to degrade oil
Which is not an innate protection of the female reproductive tract?
The vaginal lining contains ciliate cells which trap and expel bacteria from the tract.
How do arboviruses cause nervous system infections?
The virus invades and destroys the blood vessel cells that form the blood-brain barrier.
You observe that a novel virus penetrates the host cell through membrane fusion. Which of the following statements must also be true regarding this virus and its replicative cycle?
The virus releases from host cells by budding.
How does a patient typically become infected with hookworms?
The worm penetrates the skin when the patient walks outside barefoot.
Which of the following viral features does not contribute to their classification as nonliving?
Their extremely small size
What is the definition of eradication of an infectious disease?
There are no longer any cases of the microbe anywhere in the world for three consecutive years.
__________ pathogens are always capable of causing disease in a host, regardless of their health status
True
Which subspecies accounts for 98% of all cases of African sleeping sickness?
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
Which of the following diseases is a zoonosis?
Tularemia
Which of the following statements is correct about tularemia?
Tularemia is usually associated with animals hunted by humans, such as wild rabbits.
Prokaryotic cells move in response to a wide variety of stimuli. Which of the following types of movement is incorrectly matched?
Tumble - movement in a concerted direction toward or away from a stimulus
The __________ is an example of a gross breach of ethics in epidemiology.
Tuskegee study
During the secondary stage of Lymphogranuloma venereum, the causative agent enters the lymphatic vessels, replicates in the lymph nodes, and causes them to develop into ___________.
buboes
You attended a BBQ and ate a variety of foods, including pototato and egg salads. After you arrive home a few hours later, you display symptoms of food poisoning (vomiting, diarrhea, cold sweats, etc). Which type of exotoxin did you likely ingest?
Type I
Which of the following types of toxins damage cells by binding to host cell receptors?
Type I exotoxins
Which class of hypersensitivity reactions is not associated with autoimmunity?
Type I.
Which class of hypersensitivity reaction and its example is mismatched? Type I: Hay fever Type II: Nickel allergy Type III: Rheumatoid arthritis Type IV: Poison ivy reaction
Type II: Nickel allergy
Exotoxins are often classified into three main families based on their mode of action. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Type III - intracellular toxin
Which of the following is a characteristic of amoeboid protozoans?
Utilize pseudopods for movement.
Which of the following would be the best general description of a "virus?"
Viruses are acellular infectious agents.
Viruses do not infect which of the following organisms?
Viruses can infect all forms of life.
Sophisticated proteins require __________ to help with folding into the final protein structure.
chaperones
Strong acids in the stomach are an example of a __________ barrier of the first-line defenses.
chemical
All of the following cytokines signal the hypothalamus to raise the internal body temperature except ___________.
chemokines
Medically important microbes are metabolically classified as __________.
chemoorganoheterotrophs
Organisms that breakdown chemical compounds for energy are called _________. fastidious
chemotrophs
The exchange of genetic information by use of a pilus and cell-to-cell interaction is called __________.
conjugation
When could hemolytic disease of the newborn occur?
When the father is Rh+ and the mother is Rh-
Which of the following is not a question answered by analytical epidemiology study design?
Who is infected with the disease?
Which of the following is not caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
Whooping cough
Which of the following does not contribute to reemerging infectious diseases?
Widespread global travel
Which of the following statements are true about serum sickness?
With serum sickness, the patient's immune system recognizes the administered substance as foreign.
Which of the following word pairs relating to immunodeficiency is mismatched? Cancer treatment: secondary immunodeficiency Congenital thymic dysplasia: primary immunodeficiency Chediak-Higashi syndrome: primary immunodeficiency X-linked agammaglobulinemia: secondary immunodeficiency
X-linked agammaglobulinemia: secondary immunodeficiency
In 1984, in one of the most famous cross-species transplantations, a baboon heart was transplanted into an infant (Baby Fae). This surgery is an example of which of the following types of grafts?
Xenograft
The monomeric structure of an antibody can be described as ________-shaped and is composed of light and heavy chains that are held together by _________.
Y; disulfide bridges
While working at a clinic in Angola, you attend to a patient who presents with jaundice, high fever, and severe headache. Upon close inspection, several mosquito bites are observed on the patient's arms and legs. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
Yellow fever
Pelvic inflammatory disease is characterized by all the following except
a clear set of signs and symptoms that make diagnosis straightforward.
Secondary immunodeficiences are commonly caused by __________.
a decline in immune system rigor
In streptococcal toxic shock syndrome, pathology results from toxins in the bloodstream which may cause both a red skin rash, as well as
a decrease in blood pressure leading to organ failure.
A major factor in the re-emergence of vaccine-preventable diseases in the early 21st century has been
a flawed research study incorrectly linking vaccination to autism was published in the late 1990s.
DNA vaccines utilize __________ to elicit an immune response to an antigen.
a genetically engineered plasmid
The cytoplasmic membrane could best be described as _________.
a highly selective, permeable barrier
An antibiotic is
a naturally occurring compound that kills microbes or inhibits their growth.
Scleroderma is a type III hypersensitivity in which the ____________ are attacked.
connective tissues
During optimum conditions, E. coli will replicate every 20 minutes. Because the genes required for replication are needed as part of a routine function, these genes are considered __________.
constitutive genes
When aerosols containing pathogens spread disease from a distance of less than one meter, it is considered
contact transmission.
The most common cause of atypical pneumonia, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, has all the following characteristics except
contains more genes than most other bacteria.
The genetic code
contains sense codons and nonsense codons.
Variant CJD is transmitted via __________.
contaminated meat
What is currently the most crucial way of reducing incidence of dengue, yellow fever, chikungunya, and Zika?
control mosquito levels
Enzyme specificity allows for __________.
controlled cellular processes
A chronic carrier state may develop during the __________, when certain pathogens infect and become dormant or latent.
convalescent period
A patient is usually recovering from infectious disease during the __________.
convalescent phase
All the following apply to T cells except
coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies.
A gastrointestinal pathogen produces symptoms of _________ that make it more likely that it will be transmitted to other hosts.
copious watery diarrhea
Bacterial cells use DNA replication to:
copy their genetic material prior to binary fission.
SARS is caused by a(n)
coronavirus
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a(n):
coronavirus
Researchers attempting to find the link between fluoridated water and tooth decay are engaged in _________ studies.
correlation
Respiratory pathogens cause symptoms of _________ that make it more likely that it will be transmitted to other hosts.
coughing and sneezing
Edward Jenner first infected a young boy with _________ to spur immunity against smallpox.
cowpox
The type of medical equipment that regularly comes into contact with sterile body sites or the vascular system and must therefore be sterilized is classified as _________.
critical equipment
Smoking causes lung cancer. The validity of this statement was first verified by ________ studies.
cross-sectional
Surveys are often used to determine prevalence of disease in _________ studies.
cross-sectional
A two-year-old child presents to a pediatric practice with a barking cough and loud wheezing. The parent is alarmed and insists on antibiotics. What is the likely diagnosis, and are antibiotics appropriate?
croup / no, most cases are viral
Dried exudate or plasma on the skin is known as a(n) __________.
crust
Restriction enzymes are produced naturally by bacteria to ___________.
cut up invading bacteriophage DNA
A __________ is a closed sac filled with fluid found deeper in the skin that is usually painless unless it ruptures or becomes infected.
cyst
All of the following are anti-influenza drugs except ____________.
docosanol
What is the definition of a true pathogen?
does not require a weakened host to cause disease
What is the order of the taxonomic hierarchy from least specific to most specific?
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
Members of the domain Archaea are distinct from those in the domain Bacteria in that the Archaea members:
don't cause human disease.
Under ideal conditions, E. coli's generation time is 20 minutes. This means that if conditions are ideal, the number of E. coli cells in a given population will _________ in 20 minutes.
double
Used in conjunction with standard precautions, __________ are used to reduce the spread of an agent that is communicated through large moist respiratory droplets that do not remain suspended in the air, and therefore require closer contact for transmission.
droplet precautions
Extensive antibiotic use and a population of susceptible hosts allow the emergence of _________.
drug-resistant pathogens
Each of the following describe the value of drug modifications except:
drugs must be screened to determine efficacy.
Heating an inoculating loop in a Bunsen burner until it glows red to sterilize it is an example of __________.
dry heating
Which of the following would not be important when evaluating measures of association?
duration of the disease
A DNA vaccine involves placing genes into a plasmid and introducing the plasmid into human cells. Human cells then transcribe and translate the genes to produce antigen which immunize the recipient. What is the source of the genes being introduced?
a pathogen
Tropism is best described as:
a pathogen's preference for a specific host.
Which factors may result in a normal microbiota species causing disease?
dysbiosis due to antibiotic therapy or invasion of other tissues by the microbiota species
All of the following are reasons why epidemiological measures are useful except:
epidemiological measures provide information on what drugs are most effective for treating disease.
All of the following are parts of the lower respiratory tract except __________.
epiglottis
Each of the following is used to treat localized allergies except:
epinephrine
The parts of an antigen that B and T cells recognize and mount an immune response against are called _________.
epitopes
The parts of an antigen that the immune system responds to are known as __________.
epitopes
Toxins and capsules are two virulence factors that allow pathogens to avoid the host immune defense by:
escaping phagocytosis.
The _________ Candida albicans is well known for causing __________.
eukaryotic (fungal) organism; diaper rash
In DNA replication, protein factors are more heavily required for replication in __________.
eukaryotic cells
A chemical reaction in which one or more components are swapped between molecules is known as a(n) _________ reaction.
exchange
The process of removing incorrect nucleotides and replacing them with correct ones is referred to as __________.
excision repair
In order to harvest energy from polysaccharides, lipids or proteins, cells must use ________ to break down these large macromolecules extracellularly before bringing them into the cell.
exoenzymes
Botulism is caused by ingesting _________.
exotoxins
Researchers attempting to determine the effect of a treatment for disease are engaged in _________ studies.
experimental
A double-blind, randomized study is being used to test the effectiveness of a new drug that targets the multi-drug resistant bacterium Clostridium difficile. Infected participants in the study were given either a placebo or the test drug and then monitored for one month for clearance of infection. This type of study can best be characterized as a(n)_________________.
experimental study
Which of the following is considered a pre-transcriptional regulation and NOT a post-transcriptional regulation?
a repressed operon
In an inducible operon, what protein is used to turn off transcription by binding to the operator sequence?
a repressor protein
A transposon that relies on an RNA intermediate is called __________.
a retrotransposon
Anatomical factors that cause women to be at higher risk of urinary tract infections than men include.
a shorter urethra positioned closer to the anus in women.
Antibody titers during the secondary response to a pathogen or antigen are:
a surge of IgG with a small titer of IgM.
Contracting an infection or receiving __________ confers long-term immunity.
a vaccination
Postexposure prophylaxis, a form of artificial passive immunity, is often given when a person is bitten by an animal that is suspected of having rabies, or if the rabies-status of the animal cannot be confirmed. What specifically, is being given to the patient in this type of treatment?
antibodies harvested from a host who has developed an immune response to the rabies virus
As B cells are screened, B cells are eliminated when they produce __________.
antibodies reacting to self-antigens
Which of the following is not required for T cell activation?
antibody
A vaccine additive which enhances the body's natural immune response is called a(n)
adjuvant
Pharmacological additives to vaccines that promote a more effective immune response are called __________.
adjuvants
Which of the following events does not put you at risk for contracting a Francisella tularensis infection?
adopting a dog from an animal shelter
Tuberculosis is passed from person to person through _________ transmission.
airborne
When aerosols containing pathogens spread disease from a distance of less than one meter, it is considered _________.
airborne transmission
Which of the following would be the best choice for an antiseptic used on skin?
alcohol
In epidemiological terms, a population is defined as _______________.
all of the people in a defined group
A(n) __________ triggers IgE production and leads to allergy.
allergen
Which of the following class of hypersensitivity reactions is not associated with autoimmunity?
allergies
In the third step of PCR, tube contents are held at a constant temperature to:
allow DNA polymerase to copy the target DNA.
Nonspecific permeases
allow a variety of molecules to cross the cytoplasmic membrane.
Bacterial capsules __________.
allow for avoidance of phagocytosis
In the second step of PCR, the temperature is lowered to between 50°C and 60°C to:
allow primers to anneal (pair) with the template DNA.
Neuraminidase (NA) spikes:
allow the influenza virus to escape the host cell.
Viral spikes
allow the virus to attach and enter host cells, may be a target for the host immune system, and show specificity in binding to particular structures on the host cell.
Each of the following helps protect herd immunity except:
allowing only one vaccine per doctor visit in young children.
The ___________ complement pathway is triggered when antigens directly bind to a complement protein.
alternative
The complement system consists of over 30 different proteins that work together in a cascade fashion to protect us against infectious agents. One way this system is activated is via the ____________, when complement proteins are activated by directly interacting with pathogen.
alternative pathway
Isotype switching:
alters the subtype of antibody that is made.
Neosporin is a topical antimicrobial ointment that is commonly applied to minor scrapes and burns. It contains the antimicrobial agent neomycin. Neomycin is a member of the ______.
aminoglycosides
Each of the following antimicrobial drugs is nephrotoxic except _________.
amoxicillin
A pathway that functions simultaneously in both anabolism and catabolism is termed
amphibolic.
The flagellar arrangement seen in the picture can be described as _________. pink/purple squiggly worm looking thing with frays at both ends
amphitrichous
Patients who have an allergy to penicillin can take each of the following except ___________.
ampicillin
The infectious agent that causes tuberculosis is
an acid-fast bacterium of the genus Mycobacterium.
An essential amino acid is __________.
an amino acid the cell cannot make and must obtain from the environment
An anion is formed when
an atom gains one or more negatively-charged electrons.
Congenital toxoplasmosis can cause all of the following except
anemia.
Which of the following would not cause serum sickness?
anti-inflammatory drugs
Which of the following are used to treat serum sickness?
anti-inflammatory drugs and antihistamines
All of the following are factors that contribute to emerging infectious diseases except __________.
antibiotic resistance
Immunological testing identifies __________ in a patient's blood.
antibodies
In the classical pathway of complement activation, complement proteins are activated when __________ bind to a pathogen.
antibodies
Indirect ELISA detects __________ in a sample.
antibodies
Leukocytes are central to the release of each of the following except ________.
antibodies
A substance that may trigger an immune response, if presented in the right context is termed a(n)
antigen
Upon entering the host, the pathogen may conceal antigenic features so the immune system doesn't quickly mount an attack. This is also known as __________.
antigen masking
Yearly vaccinations for influenza are necessary due to __________.
antigenic drift
Pandemic outbreaks of influenza are the result of __________.
antigenic shift
Direct ELISA detects __________ in a sample.
antigens
Serum sickness can be treated with anti-inflammatory drugs and __________.
antihistamines
Each of the following are examples of intrinsic resistance except:
antimicrobial drugs are ineffective against organisms that produce efflux pumps.
Defensins are a type of a(n) _________ that insert themselves into microbial cell membranes.
antimicrobial peptide
Your patient is suffering from botulism caused by the potent toxin released by Clostridium botulinum. In addition to supportive care, the patient could also receive an ________ to neutralize the toxin and stimulate her _________.
antitoxin; artificially acquired passive immunity
Which of the following is a true statement about the urinary microbiome?
Lactobacillus and Streptococcus are the most consistently detected genera in the healthy urinary tract.
Which of the following conditions would allow for the active transcription of the lac operon?
Lactose present, glucose absent
Which of the following most accurately describes monocytes?
Largest agranular leukocyte; horseshoe-shaped nucleus; account for 10% of circulating leukocytes
Which of the following scenarios provides an example of isotype switching?
Late in an infection with Influenza virus, a given plasma cell stops production of IgM and begins producing IgG.
Which of the following word pairs describing chronic and latent viral infections is mismatched?
Latent infections: run their course and are cleared by the host immune system
Eradication of an infectious disease means that there are no longer any cases of it anywhere in the world. Which of the following types of infectious diseases would be the most difficult to eradicate?
Latent infectious diseases
Which type of method is used to determine if a prior exposure to a virus occurred?
Latex agglutination test
Which of the following is not a type I hypersensitivity?
Latex allergy.
Which of the following does not describe chronic inflammation?
Leads to tissue healing and scar formation.
What cause of atypical pneumonia is spread by aerosolized contaminated water?
Legionella pneumophila
Which of the following is not a zoonotic atypical pneumonia?
Legionella pneumophila
Industrial air-conditioner systems and other artificial water systems may cause the transmission of contaminated water that, when inhaled, may cause ____________.
Legionnaires' disease
Which of the following best describes basophils?
Less than 1% of the leukocyte population; bi-lobed nucleus; attack allergens and parasites
Which of the following would be symptoms found specific for bacterial meningitis?
Lethargy and rash
Which of the following is one of the categories of the second-line defenses?
Leukocytes
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the primary immune response?
Memory cells residing in lymphoid tissues
Which of the following is not a characteristic shared by both gonorrhea and chlamydia?
Men and women will be symptomatic for each infection.
Which of the following is false about toxoplasmosis?
Meningitis results in a majority of patients since there are currently no treatment options.
Which of the following antimicrobial drugs can be inactivated by beta-lactamase?
Meropenem
Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial pathogen known to cause duodenal and gastric ulcers in humans. One of the cornerstones for treatment of H. pylori is a proton pump inhibitor. Which of the following terms best describes H. pylori?
Mesophilic acidophile
Which of the following antimicrobial agents is a modified synthetic form of penicillin that was developed to combat penicillinase-producing bacteria?
Methicillin
The mRNA template contains the sequence AUGGCUAGGUGA. Which would be the corresponding correct amino acid sequence?
Methionine - Alanine - Arginine - Stop
Which of the following antiprotozoal drugs also treats Clostridium difficile infections?
Metronidazole
Which of the following organisms grow best in low levels of oxygen?
Microaerophiles.
Which of the following lymphocytes is involved with innate immune protection against viruses, bacteria, parasites, and tumor cells?
Natural killer cells
Which of the following statements concerning natural killer cells is true?
Natural killer cells provide protection against viruses, bacteria, parasites, and tumors.
Which of the following best describes how antibiotic resistance develops?
Natural selection applies selective pressure for resistance to develop.
Which of the following would be considered a symptom?
Nausea
Which of the following outcomes is observed during Rabies virus pathogenesis?
Negri bodies are a diagnostic sign of Rabies virus infection.
According to the CDC, Clostridium difficile, carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE), and multidrug-resistant strains of __________ are classified as urgent threats.
Neisseria gonorrhea
The Gram stain of the CSF from a patient suffering from headaches, stiff neck, and petechial rash reveals the presence of Gram-negative diplococci. A follow-up capsule stain was also positive for the presence of capsules. With which organism is the patient likely infected?
Neisseria meningitis
A 48-hour old infant is brought to the clinic with signs of severe bacterial conjunctivitis (infection of the eye). The infant was born at home, with the birth assisted only by an unlicensed midwife, and no pharmaceutical interventions performed on the mother or infant. Which infectious agents is the likely culprit?
Neither Chlamydia trachomatis nor Neisseria gonorrhoeae should be ruled out without further testing.
Which of the following microbes would most likely be able to infect a deep wound on a patient?
Neutralophilic mesophiles
Which of the following are not part of the adaptive immune system?
Neutrophils
Which of the following leukocytes are the most numerous in human blood?
Neutrophils
__________ uses ultraviolet light to sanitize drinking water and disinfect surfaces in operating rooms.
Non-ionizing radiation
Which of the following is a characteristic of roundworms?
Non-segmented, elongated, cylindrical.
Which of the following is not an example of an exogenous source of infection?
Normal microbiota
Which type of cellular transport uses transport proteins and moves substances from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?
facilitated diffusion
Which group of microbes prefers using oxygen but can survive without it?
facultative anaerobe
Organisms that can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments are known as __________.
facultative anaerobes
Although Staphylococcus aureus can grow at 7% NaCl, it grows best at NaCl levels less than 1%. This organism is a __________.
facultative halophile
Which of the following factors impacts the signs, symptoms, and severity of an allergic response?
family history, route of exposure, and IgE production
When preparing growth media for Enterococcus durans, one must add amino acids, vitamins, and other growth factors in order for the organism to grow properly. This organism is said to be _________.
fastidious
Of the following, which pathway is not part of cellular respiration?
fermentation
All of the following are signs of inflammation except _______.
fever
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?
fever
Infections, malignant cancers, or benign growths can cause _________.
fever of undetermined origin (FUO)
Chlamydia and gonorrhea often present a similar clinical picture except that
few strains of chlamydia are antibiotic-resistant while gonorrhea shows extensive antibiotic resistance.
"Slapped cheek syndrome" is a symptom of ________.
fifth disease
Secondary lymphoid tissues
filter lymph and sample surrounding body sites for antigens which are brought into contact with the leukocytes that reside in secondary lymphoid tissues to stimulate an immune response.
Large volumes of liquids or air can be sterilized using __________.
filtration
Short, bristle-like structures that extrude from the surface of a prokaryotic cell are called
fimbriae
Kupffer cells are examples of ________ that reside in the _________.
fixed macrophages; liver
Which of the following is not an approach to combat drug-resistant bacteria?
flood a patient's system with healthy bacteria to quickly remove access to nutrients and starve the pathogen
Athlete's foot is usually treated with all of the following except ___________.
flucytosine
Meningitis caused by Cryptococcus is treated with:
flucytosine.
Polymerase chain reaction requires all of the following reagents except:
fluorescent-tagged antibodies.
Sulfa drugs inhibit the synthesis of __________ in bacteria.
folic acid
All of the following are things healthcare workers can do to limit antimicrobial drug resistance except:
following drug dosing instructions precisely.
A(n) _________ is an inanimate object that can be a source of infection.
fomite
Desensitization therapy is least effective against __________ allergies.
food
If left untreated, diphtheria can progress to:
formation of a thick, leathery membrane in the upper airway.
Which of the following mutations is the most detrimental to the cell?
frameshift mutation
The incidence rate and prevalence rate are epidemiological measures of ________.
frequency
Blastomycosis is commonly treated with ____________.
fuconazole or itraconazole
Mycoses are caused by _________.
fungi
The organism Candida albicans is classified as a __________ and grouped within the domain _________.
fungus; Eukarya
A patient with a newly transplanted organ is likely prescribed __________ in order to limit the risk of transplant rejection.
immunosuppressants
Erysipelas can result if __________ spreads to surrounding skin and lymph nodes.
impetigo
Several forms of keratitis are linked to
improper handling of contact lenses.
Lophotrichous flagella are found:
in a cluster at one end pole of the cell.
Adhesins
include molecules that bind to host factors such as fibronectin, sialic acid, and heparin / heparin sulfate.
Distinct collections of substances inside prokaryotic cells are known as _________.
inclusion bodies
To maintain a fluid plasma membrane in cold conditions, bacteria may modify their plasma membranes by
incorporating short unsaturated fatty acids into their membrane phospholipids.
Which factor is not a reason Propionibacterium acnes (P. acnes) is often associated with acne?
increased oxygen levels in clogged pores favoring bacterial growth
Which of the following is not a factor in increased incidence of fungal infections?
increasing antibiotic resistance
Infections with microbes such as HIV have a long __________, which makes it difficult to track and monitor infections in a population.
incubation period
Quarantine can prevent the spread of disease by isolating individuals during the _________.
incubation period
What is the order of the five stages of infectious disease?
incubation period, prodromal phase, acute phase, period of decline, convalescent phase
An operon that is transcribed in response to the presence of a substrate is called a(n) _______.
inducible operon
Haemophilus influenzae type b is the most common causative agent of bacterial meningitis in __________.
infants and children
Vaccines are can be a risk for each of the following individuals except:
infants from birth to 9 months.
Infectious mononucleosis is most often transmitted through contact with _________.
infected saliva
Patients are infected with mumps via _____________.
infected saliva
Healthcare-acquired infections (HAIs) may occur at all of the following except ___________.
infections acquired through interpersonal contact
In order to successfully and safely deliver a gene to a human cell, a virus vector must be
infectious but not pathogenic.
Koch's postulates primarily relate to __________.
infectious diseases
A patient is complaining of chills and body aches and he also has a temperature. He is likely suffering from _______________.
influenza
Each of the following infections require airborne precautions except __________.
influenza
Most people who develop hanta pulmonary syndrome have _____________.
inhaled dust particles contaminated with rodent urine or feces
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is spread through __________.
inhaling rodent feces or urine
The zone of inhibition of bacteria that forms on agar plates in the Kirby-Bauer test indicates:
inhibition of bacterial growth by a particular antimicrobial drug.
Tetanospasmin affects the release of _________ neurotransmitters and causes _________ paralysis.
inhibitory; spastic
Scratch skin testing can detect allergies to all of the following allergens except:
injected allergens.
Patients who suspect exposure to rabies are
injected with both antirabies antibodies and the inactivated vaccine.
Which of the following would NOT affect the ability of an enzyme to act on a substrate?
lipid concentration in the plasma membrane
Biological macromolecules that include fats, oils, waxes, and steroids are __________.
lipids
Hepatotoxic drugs cause damage to the __________.
liver
When a healthcare provider diagnoses a reportable disease, who do they document the case with?
local public health authority
During the ________ phase of bacterial growth in a closed system, there is an exponential increase in bacterial cell number.
log
Primary immunodeficiencies result from each of the following except:
long-term corticosteroid treatment.
The first symptoms of diphtheria include:
low-grade fever and sore throat.
What diagnostic tool is used to confirm a diagnosis of meningitis or encephalitis?
lumbar puncture
Most cases of sepsis are preceded by _________________.
lung infections
Which of the following paths does Cryptococcus neoformans take to get to the CNS?
lungs → macrophages → lymphatic system → blood → CNS
The liquid contained within the lymphatic vessels is called _________.
lymph
Lymphogranuloma venereum differs from the infection caused by the trachoma biovar of Chlamydia trachomatis in that
lymphogranuloma venereum may result in the formation of buboes and tissues necrosis.
The symptoms of scarlet fever caused by Streptococcus pyogenes are due to:
lysogenized bacteriophage producing an erythrogenic toxin.
Lytic bacteriophages use the enzyme __________ to break down host cell walls that allow the release of newly formed bacteriophage.
lysozyme
Freckles covering the face are an example of a(n) __________.
macular rash
A rash comprised of small, slightly raised solid lesions and discolored areas of the skin is a __________.
maculopapular rash
Which of the following is not a way that pathogens can avoid destruction by the phagocytes of the host immune system?
make a capsule which is toxic to the phagocyte
IgE antibodies produced during a type I hypersensitivity response bind to __________ and trigger degranulation.
mast cells
A therapeutic index is a ratio between
maximum safe dose versus minimum effective dose.
Which of the following does not describe cellular respiration?
may include multiple pathways including glycolysis, an intermediate step, the Krebs cycle and fermentation
A drop in childhood vaccination rates has resulted in outbreaks of vaccine-preventable diseases such as __________ and pertussis (whooping cough).
measles
All of the following diseases are considered quarantinable except _________.
measles
Each of the following diseases has either been eradicated or is close to being eradicated except _________.
measles
Koplik's spots are a sign of a _________ infection.
measles
Real-time PCR is useful for:
measuring the number of copies of a particular gene in a sample.
Iatrogenic CJD is transmitted via __________.
medical intervention
Organisms from the domains Bacteria and Archaea lack:
membrane-bound organelles.
Haemophilus influenzae causes __________.
meningitis
An example of a conjugate or polysaccharide vaccine is the:
meningococcal vaccine.
Most human pathogens prefer moderate temperatures and therefore are classified as __________.
mesophiles
Which temperature group are most pathogens associated with?
mesophiles
Catheter-associated urinary tract infections are caused by all of the following except _________.
methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
Each of the following is used to treat helminth infections except __________.
metronidazole
Examples of healthy host-microbe interactions with our normal microbiota include all except
microbiota disruption.
A course of infection with Schistosoma is described as having three stages. During the ___________ stage a rash or itchy skin is present at the site of infection.
migratory
Desensitization immunotherapies are least effective to treat allergies from which of the following?
milk
Antigenic drift results from:
minor changes to HA and NA spikes resulting from frequent mutation of the influenza RNA genome.
The symbiotic relationship represented by the production of vitamin K in the human large intestine by Escherichia coli is best described as _________.
mutualism
Each of the following are cytolytic type II hypersensitivities except:
myasthenia gravis.
The __________ in acid-fast bacterial cell walls retain the carbol fuschin in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast staining method.
mycolic acid
A virus that can only infect humans would best be described as having a ______________.
narrow host range
Bacitracin is made naturally by the bacterium Bacillus subtilis and is primarily only used to target skin infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria. This type of chemotherapeutic drug would best be characterized as a(n) ____________.
narrow-spectrum antibiotic
A ___________ antibiotic is produced by bacteria and fungi to inhibit the growth of other microorganisms.
natural
Contracting an infection creates:
natural active immunity.
Antibodies in colostrum to protect the newborn or antibodies that cross the placenta to protect the fetus confer:
natural passive immunity.
A patient fully recovered from Ebola with minor medical support. This was the result of ____________.
naturally acquired active immunity
A mother is breastfeeding her infant son and transferring crucial antibodies to him. This will result in _________.
naturally acquired passive immunity
Antibiotics are _________________.
naturally occurring antimicrobial compounds
Signs and symptoms of uncomplicated malaria will include ____________.
nausea and vomiting
Which of the following comprises the peripheral nervous system?
nerves
The ________ sense internal and external stimuli, and send out responses in the form of chemical messengers called ________.
neurons; neurotransmitters
Antibodies increase phagocytosis through each of the following mechanisms except __________.
neutralization
Antibodies protect against the tetanus toxin through __________
neutralization
Human pathogens grow best between pH 5 and 8, making them ________.
neutralophiles
Which of the following pH classifications make up most of the pathogens we know today?
neutralophiles
An isotope of an element has a different number of ________.
neutrons.
Which cell type is the most numerous white blood cell in circulation, is the first leukocyte recruited from the bloodstream to injured tissues, and releases potent antimicrobial peptides?
neutrophils
The picture shows _________ that are commonly elevated during ___________.
neutrophils; acute bacterial infections
Van der Waals interactions
occur when temporary dipoles within molecules form that are not the result of hydrogen bond to O, N, or F atoms.
Microbes transferred via the __________ portal of exit(s) would be present in pus or drainage that is easily transmitted to others.
otic and skin
Polymyxin B targets the ________ of Gram- ________ organisms.
outer membrane; negative
You observe that when you grow Serratia marcescens at human body temperature, the resulting bacterial colonies appear white. However, when you grow the same bacterium at room temperature, the colonies that grow are red. This difference in pigmentation is best described as a ____________.
phenotype difference
Which functional group is found at the 5' end of DNA?
phosphate group
The prokaryotic plasma membrane is primarily made of____________.
phospholipids
ATP is produced during a process called _______.
phosphorylation
The sequence of amino acids that make up a protein are known as the ____________ structure.
primary
The thymus and bone marrow are examples of __________ lymphoid tissues and play a role in _________.
primary; maturation of leukocytes
To start DNA replication, the origin of replication is recognized by a collection of factors called the __________.
primosome
Each of the following categories of pathogen is cellular except ___________.
prions
All of the following work with the CDC's National Notifiable Disease Surveillance Systems (NDDS) in reporting infectious and noninfectious diseases except ____________.
private home-care nurses
Early symptoms develop during the __________ of infectious disease.
prodromal phase
The primary function of feedback inhibition is to allow the cell to __________.
produce only the required amount of product and to stop when a sufficient quantity is produced
What triggers the release of cytokines, which signal the hypothalamus of the brain to raise the body's baseline temperature from 37°C to a higher temperature?
pyrogens
Which of the following is NOT an end product of fermentation?
pyruvic acid
Animals entering Australia must undergo _________ to prevent the potential spread of rabies to the continent.
quarantine
Plasmodium malariae causes _________ fever.
quartan
A protein's ______________ structure requires the presence of more than one polypeptide chain.
quaternary structure
Part complete Which of the following are contributors to viral genome evolution?
quick replication time and the large number of virions released within a host
One of the earliest treatments for malaria was __________.
quinine
After the success of Jenner's vaccinations, Louis Pasteur developed vaccines against __________ and anthrax.
rabies
Endemic mycoses are
restricted to a specific geographic location.
In the second step of building recombinant DNA, __________ is/are used to create "sticky ends" in a plasmid, into which the gene can be inserted.
restriction enzymes
Which enzyme is used to generate compatible sticky ends in order to join a desired gene to a plasmid vector in recombinant DNA techniques?
restriction enzymes
Latent tuberculosis
results when M. tuberculosis bacteria are phagocytized and effectively walled off within granulomas in the lungs.
cDNA is a product of the action of __________.
reverse transcriptase
The CRISPR-Cas9 system uses all except which of the following?
reverse transcriptase enzyme
Antiviral drugs have been developed to treat all of the following except:
rhinoviruses.
RNA nucleotides are made of a sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogen base. Which sugar is unique to RNA nucleotides and NOT found in DNA nucleotides?
ribose
Which of the following describes how blood travels through the heart?
right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, rest of the body
Which factor, beginning in 1995, is responsible for the decline in chicken pox from a routine childhood disease to a rare infection?
routine vaccination
You are working as a nurse in a clinic in the tropics. Your patient has a painless skin ulcer on his face that has persisted for a few weeks. He was very likely bitten by a _________ and is suffering from ___________.
sand fly; cutaneous leishmaniasis
A procedure that allows for more accurate and specific detection of antigens and doesn't require specialized plate readers is the __________.
sandwich ELISA
Pregnancy tests are examples of _________.
sandwich ELISAs
Strawberry tongue and a sandpaper like rash all over the body are signs of _____________.
scarlet fever
Which of the following diseases makes antibodies against centromeres and topoisomerases?
scleroderma
Propionibacterium acnes use _________, which is usually antibacterial, as a nutrition source.
sebum
The metabolism of __________ creates toxic fatty acid breakdown products that inhibit the growth of microbial invaders on the skin.
sebum
You are interested in the alpha helices present in a novel protein. In order to study them, you must consider the _________ structure of a protein more closely.
secondary
Treatment of autoimmune disease can also lead to:
secondary immunodeficiency.
There are two nonstandard encoding amino acids: __________.
selenocysteine and pyrrolysine
The first encounter with an allergen that triggers a type I hypersensitivity is known as the __________ exposure.
sensitizing
In the first step of PCR, the sample is heated to 95°C to:
separate double-stranded DNA.
A patient that shows blackening of two right and one left finger. He also has diarrhea, fever, and chills and is complaning of itchiness around his ankles and forearms. Further evaluation reveals red spots that look like flea bites. The patient may be suffering from _____________ .
septicemic plague
Which form of a Yersinia pestis infection can result in acral gangrene caused by intravascular coagulation?
septicemic plague
Pertussis is characterized by
severe coughing attacks where the patient struggles to catch their breath.
The role of healthcare workers in the management of disease outbreaks
should be addressed through periodic training and re-training.
The health of the patient
should be the primary concern of the healthcare worker.
What are cytokines?
signaling proteins that help cells communicate with each other, initiating and coordinating immune actions
Since the development of the chickenpox vaccine, the number of chickenpox cases has _________.
significantly decreased
Allografts are
similar to the host, but not genetically identical.
Saturated lipids have ______ bonds in their fatty acid chains.
single
Which of the following can be determined using simple stains?
size, shape and cellular arrangement
Which is not a cancer linked to a specific virus?
skin cancer
Skin is an important physical barrier because:
skin lines every body cavity and body entrance.
Lactobacilli and Bacteroides are part of the microbiome associated with the _____________.
small and large intestines
Variolation was an early attempt to combat __________, using scabs from infected individuals.
smallpox
Bacillus subtilis is naturally found in the soil. B. subtilis is known to contaminate rice, which, if undercooked and ingested, can lead to gastroenteritis. In this example, the reservoir for B. subtilis is the ________, and the source of infection is the ___________.
soil; rice
In type III hypersensitivities, IgG and IgM antibodies bind to:
soluble antigens.
All of the following are practices that reduce healthcare-acquired infections (HAIs) except _________.
substituting gloves for handwashing
In glycolysis, the second stage is known as the "payoff stage." Which type of phosphorylation occurs in this stage?
substrate-level phosphorylation
In the lectin pathway, complement proteins bind to _________ on the surface of microbes.
sugars
Each of the following accurately describes antibiotic sensitivity testing except:
susceptibility testing is performed in a patient (in vivo) to determine efficacy.
All of the following are examples of reemerging infectious diseases except ____________.
swine flu
Prontosil is an example of a __________ that has been manufactured by chemical processes.
synthetic
Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA) are used for all of the following except:
syphilis testing.
Unlike inflammation, fever is a(n) ________ immune response.
systemic
Tachycardia and a drop in blood pressure are signs of _________ affecting the __________.
systemic anaphylaxis; cardiovascular system
An anticodon is found on __________.
tRNA
Which type of RNA carries in amino acids and adds the amino acids to the "A" site in the ribosome?
tRNA
Vancomycin and __________ are examples of glycopeptide antimicrobial drugs.
teicoplanin
Which aspect of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is mismatched with its description?
template DNA: the DNA to be copied; must be present at a high concentration for the procedure to work
Lesions on the skin and bones, heart damage, and neurological symptoms such as insomnia, vertigo, and seizures are signs and symptoms of ____________ syphillis.
tertiary
Tetracyclines should not be given to pregnant women or children under 8 years old because:
tetracyclines cause damage to bones and discoloration of teeth.
T-helper cells are activated by the TCR interacting with the MHC molecule and:
the B7 protein on the APC's cell surface with CD28 on the surface of T cells.
T cytotoxic cells are activated by the TCR interacting with the MHC molecule and:
the CD8 receptor interacting with an MHC I-antigen complex.
One of the most commonly used viral cell cultures is __________.
the HeLa cell line
Histoplasmosis should be suspected in cases of fungal respiratory infections found in
the Mississippi and Ohio River valley regions.
The interferon-gamma release assay for tuberculosis infection works because
the T cells of an infected person release more interferon-gamma than that of a non-infected person.
Guanosine triphosphate (GTP) and uridine triphosphate (UTP) can be used to provide energy during some cellular reactions; however, the cell prefers energy in the form of ATP. This preference is due to __________.
the ability of most enzymes to use ATP to catalyze reactions
TORCH pathogens are all characterized by
the ability to cross the placenta to infect a developing fetus.
The unique chemical and physical properties of an enzyme's active site allow for __________.
the active site to be specific for one substrate
Phosphorylation is __________.
the addition of a phosphate onto an ADP molecule through catabolic reactions
The severity of type I hypersensitivity symptoms is directly related to:
the amount of IgE produced.
Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Shigella species?
the capability to cause stomach ulcers
Which of the following would be the most complete definition of metabolism?
the cell's ability to break down carbon substances, releasing energy to create new compounds for cellular needs
The branches of adaptive immunity are
the cellular response and the humoral response.
The term used by molecular biologists to describe the flow of genetic information from DNA, to RNA, to protein is __________.
the central dogma of biology
Overall, consideration of research-based evidence and benefits to _________ should be considered when determining the ethics of diseases eradication.
the common good
The technique of vaccination as developed by Jenner was an improvement over variolation because
the cowpox virus used by Jenner was not fatal to humans but provided protection against smallpox.
All of the following can make interpreting the Gram stain difficult except
the culture is between 24 and 48 hours old.
The outcome of a type III hypersensitivity is:
the formation of immune complexes.
Immunological diagnostics are more effective than biochemical tests in all of the following respects except:
the identification of bacteria responsible for an infection.
What is the purpose of the streak plate technique?
to obtain a pure culture from a mixed or unknown source
What is the role of B cell receptors (BCRs) and T cell receptors (TCRs) in the immune response?
to recognize specific epitopes of an antigen
What is the best way to protect the population against Haemophilus influenza type b infections?
use of the Hib vaccine in young children
In DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are required in synthesizing __________.
the lagging strand, because the DNA polymerase can move only in the 5' to 3' direction
If a healthcare provider diagnoses a reportable disease, they must first report it to __________.
the local authorities, depending on local rules
The E-test uses antimicrobial drug-infused strips with a variable gradient of drug that indicates:
the lowest concentration of the antimicrobial drug that inhibits the microbe's growth.
The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is:
the lowest concentration of the antimicrobial drug that inhibits the microbe's growth.
The minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) is:
the minimum concentration of the drug that kills at least 99.9 percent of the bacteria present.
What is the major challenge with developing new synthetic antimicrobials?
the need to screen thousands of potential candidates
Morbidity is defined as:
the number of cases of disease in a population.
ID50 describes
the number of cells or virions needed to establish an infection in 50 percent of exposed hosts.
Mortality is defined as:
the number of deaths from a particular disease in a population during a specific time period.
The plaque assay allows researchers to determine __________.
the number of lytic bacteriophages in a sample
Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in
the number of neutrons found in the nucleus.
An example of vaccines that contain live attenuated pathogens is:
the oral polio vaccine (OPV).
Broth dilution tests indicate bacterial susceptibility to antimicrobial drugs by measuring __________ in a test tube or microtiter plate.
turbidity
Which of the following is an indirect cell-counting method?
turbidity measurement
In order for a T cell to become activated, it must receive __________ signal(s) from an antigen-presenting cell.
two
Each antibody molecule consists of
two light and two heavy protein chains.
After vaccination, it generally takes __________ for antibody levels to reach a peak.
two weeks
Localized or systemic allergies are __________ hypersensitivities.
type I
Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a ________ hypersensitivity.
type II
Immune complex reactions are _______ hypersensitivities.
type III.
Lupus is a ________ hypersensitivity characterized by ______.
type III; a rash across cheeks and nose, fatigue, and joint pain
A reaction to poison ivy is a _________ hypersensitivity.
type IV
Which of the following hypersensitivities are T cell-mediated responses against self-antigens or otherwise harmless antigens?
type IV hypersensitivities
RNA is distinguished from DNA because only RNA:
typically exists as a single-stranded molecule.
A fungal species which can grow in varied climates and under diverse conditions is termed
ubiquitous
Artemisinin-based combination therapies are used to treat
uncomplicated and severe cases of malaria.
If a B or T cell reacts to self-antigens, it:
undergoes cell suicide (apoptosis).
A key factor in the high prevalence of otitis media in children is
the orientation of the eustachian tube in children prevents efficient fluid drainage.
Each of the following are examples of acquired resistance except:
the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria preventing the penetration of antimicrobial drugs.
What redox reactions provide energy for the electron transport chain?
the oxidation of the carbon molecules and the reduction of the electron carrier coenzymes
A patient antibody titer which shows an increasing level of IgM but very little IgG would likely indicate that
the patient is in the early stages of developing an immune response.
Analysis of a patient's blood indicates high levels of IgG antibodies. This indicates that:
the patient is in the late stages of an infection or has had previous exposure to the antigen.
You perform a plaque reduction neutralization test on a patient who is recovering from a suspected case of Dengue fever, caused by Dengue virus. You observe that there is increased number of plaques on the test plate compared to the control. These results indicate that:
the patient lacks antibodies to Dengue virus.
All of the following are considered emerging diseases except _______________.
the plague
Polypeptide drugs target:
the plasma membrane.
Herd immunity describes
the protection conferred to non-immunized people when a sizable portion of the rest of the population is immunized.
When a DNA vaccine is used, _________ produce the protein antigens that stimulate an immune response.
the recipient's own cells
An atom is best described as
the smallest unit of an element.
The best way to prevent the spread of a norovirus infection among a population is ____________.
the speedy decontamination of surfaces with chlorine bleach solution
The rabies virus primarily affects the nervous system. The specificity that the rabies virus has for neuronal host cells is primarily dictated by __________________________.
the spikes that protrude from its viral envelope
While there are many similarities between aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration, the major difference occurs in __________.
the terminal electron acceptor
In the typical ATP-ADP cycle, which part of the ATP molecule is removed when energy is released and added back when energy is stored?
the terminal phosphate group
Viral tropism describes __________.
the tissues or cells a virus can infect
Influenza A strains are characterized by
the type of HA and NA spikes found on the viral surface.
Viruses are considered to be non-living pathogens for which reason?
their lack of metabolic processes
A _________ explains how and why something occurs.
theory
An antimicrobial drug with a high __________ is considered safe.
therapeutic index
Vaccine prevention of acute respiratory infections (the common cold) is unlikely because
there are many distinct virus strains and serovars that cause the common cold.
The __________ is the minimum temperature needed to kill all microbes in a sample within ten minutes.
thermal death point
The minimum temperature needed to kill all microbes in a sample within ten minutes is called the
thermal death point.
The __________ is the shortest period of time that a given temperature must be held to kill all microbes in a sample.
thermal death time
Biochemical tests are useful to microbiology because
they can be used to identify microbes and to identify potential pathogens in clinical samples and they can be used to detect metabolic end-products, intermediates, or particular enzymes.
Epidemiological measures are useful tools because:
they help determine which diseases may need greater public health campaign or prevention efforts.
Urinary catheters pose risks of causing urinary tract infections because
they provide a surface for bacterial biofilms to establish and they can introduce bacteria from the skin, anal, or external genital areas into the bladder.
If a patient notices a healthcare worker not following suggested precautions,
they should immediately bring it to the attention of the healthcare worker.
A codon consists of __________ nucleotides.
three
Which of the following key chemical mediators in inflammation is not matched to its function?
thromboxanes: reduce pain receptor stimulation and reduces fever
Lyme disease is spread _________.
through biological vectors
Vaccines can be administered through all of the following routes except:
through the surface of the skin.
UV radiation can result in __________ in a cell's DNA.
thymine dimers
T cells mature in the __________.
thymus
Which of the following are primary lymphoid tissues?
thymus and bone marrow
What is edema?
tissue swelling
Which property is not used to classify viruses?
tissue types infected
The amount of antibody present in the blood is termed the antibody ________.
titer
The primary purpose of bacterial endospores is:
to allow certain cells to enter a dormant state.
The purpose of the streak plate technique is:
to dilute the culture on the plate so individual colonies are easily observed.
Each of the following are important in managing emerging disease outbreaks except:
understanding the genetic basis for virulence factors of emerging infectious disease agents.
A major difference between protozoans and helminths is that protozoans are
unicellular.
Organisms that are adapted to survive in cold temperatures have a higher proportion of __________ in the lipid bilayer.
unsaturated fatty acids
Helicase
unwinds the DNA.
Which of the following nitrogen bases is found only in RNA and NOT in DNA?
uracil
Which of the following nucleotides is found only in RNA and not in DNA?
uracil
Areas with a high population and low vaccination rates are susceptible to which type of transmission for yellow fever?
urban
Retroviruses produce mRNA by:
using reverse transcriptase to convert single- stranded RNA (ssRNA) to double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) and then using the dsDNA for transcription.
A parent calls the pediatrician's office about uncomfortable sores on the inside of her child's mouth. You suspect hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD), but need to rule out measles. Which information could help you to rule out measles?
vaccination history
Beta-lactamases can inactivate all of the following antimicrobial drugs except ___________.
vancomycin
Which of the following prion diseases may be acquired by eating beef contaminated with a cattle prion?
variant CJD
The _________ phase of inflammation is characterized by "leaky" blood vessels that have been acted on by histamine, kinins, and eicosanoids.
vascular changes
Increased blood vessel permeability and __________ contribute to the cardinal signs of inflammation.
vasodilation
Which mode of transmission is not addressed by transmission precautions?
vector
Reducing the amount of standing water in your yard to decrease the number of mosquito breeding areas is a type of ___________, which breaks the epidemiological triangle.
vector control
HIV-positive mothers can transmit the virus through breastfeeding. This is considered __________ transmission.
vertical
An infant contracting HIV through the breast milk of an infected mother is an example of __________.
vertical transmission
Which type of molecule can diffuse through the blood-brain barrier?
very small molecules and lipophilic molecules
A ___________ is a small, elevated lesion filled with clear fluid.
vesicle
All of the following types of antigens are presented by MHC II molecules except:
viral antigens.
A small child presents to the pediatric office with a reddened sclera, itchy eyes, and a watery, clear discharge from the affected eye. The most likely diagnosis is
viral conjunctivitis.
Antivirals do not target ________.
viral ribosomes
A __________ is a single particle made up of genetic material encased in a protein shell.
virion
The degree or extent of disease that a pathogen causes is
virulence
What group of viruses causes warts?
Papillomaviruses
Which of the following accurately describes the mechanism of action of praziquantel?
Paralysis of helminths
A new type of fungal meningitis (infection of the nervous system) was discovered. Disease occurred among patients who had received steroid injections into their spine. What was the portal of entry?
Parenteral
Which of the following drug administration routes requires administration by a healthcare worker?
Parenteral
During which of the following stages of pertussis would a patient display the characteristic "whoop" during a coughing spell?
Paroxysmal stage
__________ uses moderate heat to reduce levels of pathogens in liquids.
Pasteurization
_________ is the ability of an infectious agent to cause disease.
Pathogenicity
When is the human T lymphotropic virus typically detected in a patient?
Patient develops cancer or donates blood.
Which of the following does not describe naked animal virus replication?
Penetration through membrane fusion
After a lytic bacteriophage attaches to a bacterium, what is the correct order of the next steps in the lytic replication cycle?
Penetration, replication, assembly, release
Which of the following is the correct sequence of animal virus replication after attachment?
Penetration, uncoating, replication, assembly, release
The following are concepts that relate to animal viruses. Choose the mismatched pairing.
Penetration: genetic material injected into the cell
Which of the following is an example of an antibiotic?
Penicillin
Alexander Fleming determined that a chemical produced by the mold __________ could inhibit the growth of bacteria.
Penicillium
Which type of bond links amino acids together to form a protein's primary structure?
Peptide bonds
________ is characterized by tender, swollen gums with a bright red or purplish coloration; the gums may also pull away from teeth, and bad breath and tooth loss are also frequent manifestations.
Periodontal disease
Which of the following defense mechanisms is particularly effective against microorganisms because it creates an acidic and salty environment on the skin?
Perspiration
__________ creates an acidic skin pH, has a high salt content, and washes away microbes to protect against microbial invaders.
Perspiration
In addition to raw eggs, undercooked chicken products, and seafood, which of the following has also been associated with Salmonella enterica serovars infections?
Pet reptiles
Which of the following devices is most commonly used for manual cell counting?
Petroff-Hausser chamber.
Which of the following is mainly found in immunocompromised patients?
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Choose the false statement.
Most viral disease require treatment.
Which of the following conditions is mismatched to the organism that causes it?
Mucormycosis: C. immitis
During a pertussis infection, the pathogenic bacterium Bordatella pertussis produces tracheal cytotoxin, which destroys cilia. Which of the following would most likely result from ciliary destruction?
Mucus would accumulate in the respiratory tract.
Which of the following describes neutrophils?
Multi-lobed nucleus; highly phagocytic; attack bacterial and viral invaders
Which of the following statements about mutations is false?
Multicellular organisms evolve faster than unicellular organisms.
Which of the following is an example of a reemerging disease?
Mumps, once nearly eliminated, has increased in prevalence due to under-vaccination in industrialized countries.
Which of the following is not a mode through which microbes may share resistance genes?
Mutations
Which of the following is a description of a symbiotic relationship in which the symbiont is helpful to the host?
Mutualism
Identifying acid-fast bacteria is important in diagnosing the presence of _________species, which include species that cause diseases such as leprosy and tuberculosis.
Mycobacterium
Which of the following characteristics help to explain why Mycobacterium leprae infects the peripheral nervous system?
Mycobacterium leprae prefers a lower growth temperature.
Hansen's disease is caused by ___________ and is often linked to exposure to _________.
Mycobacterium leprae; armadillos
Rifamycins are often used in combination with other antibiotics to treat antibiotic-resistant __________ infections.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
The primary cause of tuberculosis is __________.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which of the following infectious agents is a reemerging pathogen?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
What compound in a bacterial cell wall makes it acid-fast?
Mycolic acid.
Which of the following causative agents lacks a cell wall?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Each of the following organisms causes typical pneumonia except:
Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Which of the following anatomical parts is a muscular tissue that makes up the bulk of the heart?
Myocardium
Chemoorganoheterotrophic aerobes produce most of their ATP via electron transport with oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor. Which of the following carries electrons during aerobic respiration in chemoorganoheterotrophs?
NADH
Of the following, which could NOT be an electron acceptor in a redox reaction?
NADH
Which of the following molecules would not change the pH of an unbuffered solution?
NaCl
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by
Naegleria fowleri.
Which of the following would not be considered a beneficial characteristic when choosing a new antimicrobial drug?
Narrow therapeutic index
__________ antimicrobials are often preferred because they are less disruptive to normal microbiota.
Narrow-spectrum
___________ is a serious side effect of lincosamides.
Pseudomembranous colitis
Which of the following is a component of the archaeal cell wall?
Pseudopeptidoglycan.
A patient in the ER is displaying the following signs and symptoms: back pain, fever, hacking cough, and headaches. From his patient history you learn that he owns birds and he owns several pet shops that sell parrots. What is he suffering from and what is the likely infectious agent?
Psittaciosis, which is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci.
Which of the following microbial temperature classifications is improperly matched with its potential growth environment?
Psychrotroph - arctic lake sediment
Choose the false statement(s) about acids and bases. To be marked correct, you'll need to select all false statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
Pure water has more H+ ions than OH- ions. If an acid is added to an acidic solution, the pH will increase.
_________ vaccines are derived from natural pathogens or genetically engineered from bacterial or mammalian cell culture lines.
Purified subunit
Which of the following types of organisms uses hydrogen sulfide for reducing power?
Purple sulfur bacteria
Praziquantel is an antihelmnithic drug that works through which of the following mechanisms of action?
Pyrantel paralyzes the parasite, allowing it to detach from host tissues.
Which of the following is a drug used to treat malaria and gives tonic water its characteristic bitter taste?
Quinine
The picture shows the amino acid tryptophan. The highlighted group in green is also known as the _________.
R group
Which of the following is not a functional group?
R-H
Which of the following functional groups is matched with its correct name?
R-OH: hydroxyl group
Primase lays down a short piece of __________ as a primer to start DNA replication.
RNA
Which of the following molecules is a defining characteristic of a ribozyme?
RNA
Rifamycins inhibit the enzyme __________.
RNA polymerase
What is the main enzyme required for transcription of a gene?
RNA polymerase
The role of transcription factors is to signal __________.
RNA polymerase to the promoter region of the intended gene to be transcribed
RNA viruses are able to mutate more rapidly than DNA viruses because _______________.
RNA polymerases do not have proofreading capabilities
Choose the correct statement about viral evolution.
RNA viruses mutate faster than DNA viruses due to a lack of proofreading replicative enzymes.
Which of the following agents is the leading cause of acute lower respiratory tract infection in children under age five?
RSV
Which special type of PCR would be used to detect RNA in a sample?
RT-PCR
A patient arrives at the hospital ER displaying symptoms of hydrophobia, hallucinations, and disorientation. The family mentioned that the patient was recently bitten by a bat. Which disease is this patient likely suffering from?
Rabies
Which of the following would be considered a zoonotic disease?
Rabies
Which of the following infectious agents would not directly infect immune system cells?
Rabies virus
Normal microbiota plays many roles in assisting the immune system. Which of the following does not describe a positive mechanism by which normal microbiota assists the immune system?
Reacting against self-tissues
The binding of a ligand to a receptor, which induces the formation of a clathrin-coated pit, is the first step of _________.
Receptor-mediated endocytosis
Siderophores such as enterobactin promote virulence through which mechanism?
Sequesters iron from the host
Part complete Eating peanut butter, cantaloupe, chicken products, seafood, spinach, or handling a pet turtle are all sources of infection for which of the following bacteria?
Salmonella enterica serotype Enteritidis
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Salt: Formed by the combination of hydrogen ions (H+) and hydroxide ions (OH-)
Which of the following does not describe adaptive immunity?
Same response regardless of the pathogen
Which biological molecule is shown in the picture?
Saturated fatty acid
Which type of microscopy uses a beam of electrons to show the surface features of a specimen?
Scanning electron microscopy (SEM)
Which of the following is a genus of fluke?
Schistosoma
Which of the following has been found to contribute to the development of various types of acne?
Sebum production
Which of the following is not a viral genome arrangement?
Segmented DNA
Which of the following is not a sign of possible sepsis?
Seizures
__________ media are best described as singling out bacteria with specific properties by encouraging the growth of certain bacteria while suppressing the growth of others.
Selective
Which of the following is mismatched?
Selective media: Specialized media that allow us to visually distinguish one microbe from another based on how they look when grown.
__________ describes the ability of an antimicrobial to kill or inhibit the growth of a microbe without damaging host cells.
Selective toxicity
You suspect that your patient has a urinary tract infection caused by Proteus vulgaris, a motile bacterium with peritrichous flagella. Which of the following physical states of media is best for observing motility of this pathogen once isolated?
Semisolid deep
__________ antimicrobials are antibiotics produced by bacteria or fungi that have been chemically modified.
Semisynthetic
Which of the following describes hyphae with divisions between each cell?
Septate
Treatment of a patient with antiserum is an example of:
artificial passive immunity.
When practicing aseptic culturing techniques, it is important to keep all of the following in mind except
as long as nothing unintended touches the media, there will be no contamination.
Most prokaryotic cells reproduce _________ through a process called __________.
asexually; binary fission
Patients with _________ frequently cough up mucus plugs and blood.
aspergillosis
Mortality rate is a common measure of __________.
association
An individual who is able to spread infectious disease without experiencing symptoms themselves for a long period of time is a __________.
asymptomatic carrier
The hemagglutinin (HA) viral spike is used by the influenza virus to:
attach to and invade host cells.
Which stage of animal virus replication may be blocked by a drug that binds with the viral spike?
attachment
There has been a drop in vaccinations and an increase in measles due to parents fearing an unfounded link between vaccines and _________.
autism
A combination of _________ and _________ must be used to eliminate prions from surgical devices.
autoclaving; chemical treatment
A child with no known congenital problems is diagnosed with inflammation of the heart valves. The medical history of the child is unremarkable except for a sore throat and fever six weeks prior, which the parents attributed to a common cold. The heart valve inflammation is most likely due to
autoimmune complications of Streptococcus pyogenes.
Quorum sensing allows bacteria within communities to communicate with chemical messages, which may help regulate gene expression. The chemical messages are called __________.
autoinducers
Which of the following drugs are not matched correctly with their mode of action?
azoles: inhibits ribosome function by entering ribosome as a tRNA, covalently binding to mRNA, and forcing the destruction of the complex
Organisms that thrive in high salt conditions are known as __________
halophiles
A child comes home from daycare with lesions on his or her hands and blisters in the mouth. Your immediate suspicion is that the child has contracted ________.
hand, foot, and mouth disease
Early hospital epidemiology studies conducted by Ignaz Semmelweis demonstrated the importance of _________.
handwashing
The most important factor for healthcare-associated infection (HAI) prevention is __________.
handwashing
A 21-year-old male is admitted to the hospital in severe respiratory distress. Despite care, he died of rapid pulmonary edema within 12 hours of admission. Family members report that he had recently started work at a nearby state park. He was on a detail to clean out and renovate a group of rodent-infested rental cabins. Based on the information, what is the likely diagnosis?
hanta pulmonary syndrome
Molecules that are unable to stimulate an immune response without being combined with a larger molecule are __________.
haptens
Characteristics of the human papilloma virus include all except
have a high mutation rate, meaning vaccine development is challenging.
Carriers of the sickle-cell gene
have a survival advantage in areas where malaria is common.
Which is not a specific cause of reactivation of HSV-1?
having a cold or fever
Four days after admission to the hospital, an elderly patient suddenly suffers from high fever, chills, and chest pain. A chest X-ray reveals substantial fluid accumulation in both lungs. The patient is likely suffering from ________________.
healthcare-acquired, typical pneumonia
Autoimmunity is an immune system attack against __________.
healthy self-tissues
Onchocerciasis, or river blindness, is caused by a ________ and is spread via ________.
helminth; blackflies
Which of the following pathogen agents is multicellular?
helminths
Standard precautions (also known as universal precautions) were developed in the 1980s to limit transmission of all of the following except _________.
hepatitis A
Which two hepatitis viruses primarily use the fecal-oral route for infection?
hepatitis A and hepatitis E
Cytopathic effects induced by a virus include __________
hijacking cellular machinery and disrupting normal host cell function
Drugs like Allegra, Benadryl, and Claritin block __________ to treat allergies.
histamine
Once mast cells and basophils have been triggered by IgE antibodies, they release __________ and leukotrienes that lead to symptoms of type I hypersensitivity.
histamine
The Ames test is used to identify if a chemical will result in mutations. This test uses the microorganism S. typhimurium and the amino acid __________.
histidine
Poultry farmers and spelunkers may be at risk for contracting __________.
histoplasmosis
Bacteria used to make yogurt produce lactic acid only as a byproduct of fermentation. These organisms are said to use _________.
homolactic fermentation
The process of transferring of genetic information between cells in the same generation is referred to as __________.
horizontal gene transfer
Which factor may influence the specific types of microbes found on the skin?
hormones, moisture levels, and soap and cosmetics usage
Which of the following factors does not affect the efficiency of a germicide?
how the object is used
Normal bacteria in/on the _________ create a robust competition against Clostridium difficile.
human intestinal tract
It has been estimated that __________ are responsible for 30% of respiratory infections among children under 5 years old.
human parainfluenza viruses (HPIV)
Which virulence factor of Group A streptococci (GAS) is responsible for the rapid spread of tissue death in necrotizing fasciitis?
hyaluronidase and streptokinase
The partial positive charge on the hydrogen end of a water molecule forms a __________ bond with the partial negative charge on the oxygen end of an adjacent water molecule.
hydrogen
A chemical reaction that breaks down complex molecules using water is a(n) __________ reaction.
hydrolysis
You are working with a substance that readily dissolves in water. It is said to be _______.
hydrophilic
A micelle forms in water when the __________ component of the molecule is forced to the center of the structure.
hydrophobic
An exaggerated immune response to an external threat is known as:
hypersensitivity.
Septic shock is characterized by:
hypotension, tachycardia, and organ failure.
Dysentery can lead to ________ and/or organ failure if medical attention is not sought in time.
hypovolemic shock
Immunoprecipitation tests are used to accomplish all of the following except:
identification of a patient's blood type.
Each of the following is a modification of penicillin except _________.
imipenem
Each of the following describes adaptive immunity except ________.
immediate
Who is primarily at risk for a candidiasis infection?
immunocompromised individuals who have underlying conditions such as cancer, diabetes mellitus, AIDS, or who are taking medication that suppresses the immune system
In order for a vaccine to be effective, it must stimulate __________ without causing disease.
immunological memory
14C is an _______ of _______.
isotope; carbon
Influenza differs from the common cold in that
it has a greater fatality rate.
All of the following describe the purpose and goals of epidemiology except:
it is the study of the stages of disease and treatment of disease in an individual.
When a virus has an envelope,
it likely escapes its host cell by budding.
A pathogen that causes conjunctivitis (pinkeye) causes symptoms of __________ that make it more likely that it will be transmitted to other hosts.
itchy, watery eyes
The presence of ________, a waterproofing protein, in epidermis prevents many microorganisms from gaining access to the body.
keratin
Nephrotoxic antimicrobial drugs damage the __________.
kidneys
Which organs are particularly susceptible to damage by certain antimicrobial drugs?
kidneys and liver
Eicosanoids and _________ are primarily associated with activating pain receptors
kinins
During the __________ phase of bacterial growth in a closed system, bacteria alter their gene expression in response to their new setting.
lag
Which component of the lower respiratory tract is incorrectly matched with a function or description?
larynx: contains the mucociliary escalator
A granuloma in the lungs caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a symptom of __________ tuberculosis.
latent
Stress such as fever, sunburn, or hormone level changes can trigger the reactivation of a _________ viral infection.
latent
Which of the follow is false concerning the tetanospasmin toxin?
leads to flaccid paralysis
Each of the following is a novel approach to combating antimicrobial drug resistance except:
leaving antimicrobial drug discovery and development to large pharmaceutical companies.
Oxygenated blood from the lungs will flow into the _____________.
left atrium
Which of the following skin infections is caused by a protozoan?
leishmaniasis
During the _________ phase of inflammation, monocytes mature into macrophages, neutrophils and macrophages carry out phagocytosis, and leukocytes undergo migration and diapedesis into tissues.
leukocyte recruitment
In addition to the lymphatic system, __________ are also part of the second-line defenses.
leukocytes
All of the following is an environmental factor in the epidemiological triangle except __________.
lifestyle
DNA microarrays reveal
which genes are being expressed in a given cell.
Descriptive epidemiology asks all of the following questions except:
why did the disease occur?
Which of the following infectious disease transmission modes is not correctly paired with an example?
windborne: cholera
Proteins provide cells with the necessary equipment to perform normal cellular activity. Without gene expression the cell __________.
would die
Jaundice is a clinical indicator of __________ due to viruses infecting the __________.
yellow fever; liver
The demographic most at risk from respiratory syncytial virus are
young children.
If you left out the safranin from your Gram staining procedure and observed your mixed culture after the application of alcohol-acetone, what would be the appearance of your Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms, given you followed all steps in order and applied all other reagents correctly?
your Gram-positives would appear purple, and your Gram-negatives would be colorless.
All of the following are anti-HIV drugs except ____________.
zanamivir
Which of the following would be considered a vector?
A fly carrying disease from fecal matter to food
Why is it so difficult to kill acid-fast bacteria?
Acid-fast bacteria have mycolic acid in their cell walls, which limits drug entry.
Which of the following is the product of transcription?
An RNA sequence
Which of the following suffixes would be used to describe a viral family?
-viridae
Most prokaryotes are between ________ in size.
0.5 and 2.0 μm
The size of most prokaryotes is between:
0.5 and 2.0 μm.
What is the average net gain of ATP produced in fermentation?
1 to 2 ATP molecules
__________ is the preferred microbial media format for isolating individual bacterial colonies.
An agar plate
Referring to the following reaction, identify the product of the reaction. 3H2 (g) + N2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)
2NH3 (g)
Put the three phases of inflammation in the correct order: 1: Leukocyte recruitment 2: Resolution 3: Vascular changes
3, 1, 2
Put the steps of Koch's postulates in the correct order: 1. The organism must be isolated from the diseased host and grown as a pure culture. 2. The organism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased animal. 3. The organism must be present in every case of the disease. 4. The isolated organism should cause the disease in question when it is introduced into a susceptible host.
3, 1, 4, 2
Put the four main stages of adaptive immune response in the correct order: 1. Lymphocyte proliferation and differentiation 2. Antigen elimination and memory 3. Antigen presentation 4. Lymphocyte activation
3, 4, 1, 2
Put the five stages of infectious disease in the correct order: 1: Acute phase 2: Convalescent phase 3: Incubation period 4: Period of decline 5: Prodromal phase
3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Your initial inoculum was 200 cells. How many cells would be present after 2 hours if the generation time was 30 minutes?
3,200 cells
Put the stages of binary fission in the correct order: 1. Copied chromosomes separate to opposite ends of the cell. 2. Septum begins to form near the midpoint of the cell. 3. Cell prepares to divide and copies its chromosome. 4. Septum walls off the two daughter cells. 5. Cell reaches a critical size.
3-1-5-2-4
Aminoglycosides bind to the __________ to inhibit bacterial growth.
30S ribosomal subunit
The 80S ribosome is composed of each of the following except:
30S subunit
Based on your knowledge of binary fission in prokaryotes, how many cells would be present after four cycles of cell division if you started with two cells?
32
The following table shows the generation time for an Escherichia coli culture grown at various incubation temperatures. Table 1. Incubation Temperature and Corresponding Generation Times of E. coli According to the table above, the optimal growth temperature for E. coli is:
37°C
Which of the following best describes the tertiary structure of proteins?
3D globular structures stabilized by covalent disulfide bridges
Put the following antigens in order from most to least immunogenic: 1. Haptens 2. Polysaccharides 3. Lipids 4. Proteins
4, 2, 3, 1
Which of the following indicates calcium's atomic mass?
40.078
Eukaryotic ribosomes are made up of a small _________ subunit and large _________ subunit.
40S; 60S
At which temperature would you expect enzymes and proteins of human pathogens to denature?
41°C
Which direction are phosphodiester bonds of DNA usually built in?
5' → 3'
Which of the following suggests mitochondria evolved from prokaryotic ancestors?
70S ribosomes
Which of the following suggests mitochondria evolved from prokaryotic ancestors?
70S ribosomes Circular DNA
In order for herd immunity to be effective against highly infectious pathogens, __________ percent of the population must be vaccinated.
85-95
Which of the following drugs demonstrates the most effective minimal inhibitory concentration?
9
Choose the true statement about growth factors.
An amino acid may be an example.
What is the primary difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic?
A disinfectant is used to decontaminate lifeless objects, whereas an antiseptic is applied to living tissue.
Cells can only contain which of the following types of genomes?
A double-stranded DNA genome
Which of the following is an example of catabolic and anabolic reactions working together?
A cell breaks down a polysaccharide to produce ATP, which is then used to build a polypeptide molecule.
How are autoimmune disorders diagnosed?
A collection of tests and careful assessment of signs and symptoms are required.
Which of the following could result in a tetanus infection?
A two-inch piece of wood causes a deep puncture in your arm when replacing a board on your deck.
You add 100 copies of a target gene to a thermocycler and set it to run through 30 cycles. How many copies can you expect once the procedure is finished?
About 1x10^11
A person with an AB- blood type can receive transfusion from all of the following blood types except:
A+.
A patient with B+ blood can receive a blood transfusion from all of the following blood types except:
A-.
Which of the following describes primary active transport?
ATP is used to drive transport.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacterial growth in nature?
Abundant nutrients are regularly present.
Following a blood transfusion, your patient has disseminated intravascular coagulation and is experiencing hypotension (low blood pressure), tachycardia (increased heart rate), and low platelet count. During a blood typing analysis, you observed that this patient's blood had reacted with purified A antibody and Rh antibody, but not with purified B antibody. Based on this information, which of the following blood types was most likely given to the patient to result in this type II hypersensitivity?
AB+
Which blood type is known as the "universal recipient"?
AB+.
A person with blood type A+ can safely donate to a person with blood type _____ and receive from a person with blood type _____.
AB+; O+
You would like to determine the blood type of your patient via an agglutination test. You add three drops of the patient's blood sample to a glass slide and add either anti-A, anti-B, or anti-Rh sera to each drop. You observe agglutination reactions in the samples to which you added the anti-A and anti-B sera. What is the blood type of your patient?
AB-
Which of the following statements about ATP is false?
ATP can be stored in large amounts in a cell.
While performing an ELISA, a lab technician fails to rinse away unbound detection antibody from the wells before adding the substrate for the reporter enzyme. What is the likely outcome of this error?
All wells, including controls, will indicate a positive result.
Which of the following types of transplants and their descriptions is mismatched? Autograft: graft from self Allograft: graft from an identical twin Isograft: graft from a perfectly matching donor Xenograft: graft from another species
Allograft: graft from an identical twin
Which of the following is a correct statement about your blood microbiome?
Almost 94 percent of the microbiome is found inside our white blood cells.
Which of the following is not associated with the DNA helix?
Amino acids
Your patient is an otherwise healthy 40-year old male who presents with high fever, severe abdominal pain, and shaking chills. An abdominal ultrasound confirms the presence of several liver abscesses. The patient notes that the week prior, he had dysentery. The patient is thought to have contracted the pathogen at a Florida waterpark three weeks ago. Based on the patient's clinical presentation and case history, which of the following diseases did your patient most likely contract?
Amoebiasis
Which of the following was the first semisynthetic derivative of penicillin G?
Ampicillin
A twenty-year old teenage patient presents with intense vaginal itching, burning, and a "cottage cheese-like" discharge. The patient's case history reveals that she was prescribed amoxicillin for treatment of a severe sinus infection. Which of the following treatments should be prescribed for the patient based on disease presentation and the patient's case history?
An antifungal azole drug should be prescribed.
Similar to the need for a primary activation signal to fully activate T helper cells, a primary activation signal is needed to activate B cells by T-dependent antigens. Which of the following serves as the primary activation signal?
An extracellular antigen binds to a B cell receptor.
Which of the following is an example of a direct contact transmission?
An individual contracts rabies after being bitten by a rabid raccoon.
Which of the following would be considered a fomite?
An infected toy
__________ is a multi-organ system response to an allergen.
Anaphylactic shock
Which of the following is a major difference between bacteriophages and animal viruses?
Animal viruses enter the host cell; bacteriophages inject their genome into the host without entering.
Nematodes, tapeworms, and flukes are members of the kingdom _________.
Animalia
Which general category of drugs is the most selectively toxic?
Antibacterial drug
You are working with two antibiotics. Antibiotic A has a half-life of six hours and antibiotic B has a half-life of three days. Which would be administered to the patient at more frequent intervals?
Antibiotic A
Which of the following best describes the difference between an antimicrobial drug and an antibiotic?
Antibiotics are produced naturally by bacteria and fungi to kill other bacteria and fungi, whereas antimicrobial drugs can include antibiotics, synthetic drugs, or semisynthetic.
How might a patient who is not being treated with an antibiotic still be exposed to an antibiotic?
Antibiotics can be used in aerosols, thereby entering the environment.
Which of the following is able to destroy a wide spectrum of viruses, parasites, bacteria, and fungi?
Antimicrobial peptides
Which of the following is the most accurate description of antimicrobial resistance?
Antimicrobial resistance occurs when a bacterium, virus, protozoan, or helminth is not affected by drug therapy.
Which of the following is not a plausible reason to perform susceptibility testing?
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing is an important first step to develop a new revenue stream for pharmaceutical companies.
Which of the following is not a reason why it is difficult to develop new antimicrobial drugs?
Antimicrobials are produced by bacteria and fungi.
_________ was the first scientist to observe bacteria under the microscope.
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Which of the following accurately describes a disease reservoir?
Any environment or organism in which a pathogen tends to naturally thrive
Which of the following accurately and completely describes an antigen?
Any substance that can trigger an immune response
The three main pathways for complement activation all have the same general outcomes. Which of the following would not be an outcome?
Apoptosis
Each of the following is a kingdom of eukaryotes except:
Archaea
You identify a novel living organism that needs to be classified into one of the three domains of life. The organism has a cell wall containing pseudopeptidoglycan (pseudomurein), a plasma membrane, and a nucleoid region. Based on this information, which of the three domains would be the correct classification?
Archaea only
Which of the following would be an example of a chemical mutagen?
Arsenic
Which of the following statements best describes the hygiene hypothesis as it relates to allergies?
As a result of increased antibiotic usage and cleaner foods and beverages, our normal gut microbiota has shifted, resulting in increased hypersensitivities in developed countries.
Desensitization immunotherapy administers allergen in controlled amounts and stimulates T regulatory cell populations. Which of the following is not a correct statement about this therapy?
As a result of the controlled injection of the allergen, the number of IgE molecules is increased.
Choose the false statement about aseptic culturing techniques.
Aseptic technique is unnecessary in most labs because the majority of microbes are not pathogenic.
Which of the following infections cannot be prevented by a vaccine?
Aspergillosis
Wound infections are caused by all of the following except _________.
Aspergillus
Bacteriophages use different mechanisms for host cell infection and viral replication. During the lytic replication pathway, bacteriophages infect the host bacterial cells and immediately build new virions. During which of the key steps is the genome packed into capsid and phage structures put together?
Assembly
Which of the following steps is not part of lysogenic replication?
Assembly
The largest percentage of primary immunodeficiencies are due to __________.
B cell issues
________________are antimicrobial peptides that limit the growth of other competing bacteria in the same region.
Bacteriocins
Part complete Stool is rich in which of the following organisms?
Bacteriodes
Which of the following is the broadest taxonomic classification?
Domain
Which of the following methods is used to cultivate bacteriophages in the laboratory setting?
Bacteriophages are cultivated in bacteria in liquid broth or on solid medium.
Which of the following best describes how bacterial growth in nature is different from growth in a laboratory setting?
Bacteria tend to grow as a mixture of species in biofilms in nature
Which of the following statements is false about quorum sensing?
Bacteria that experience quorum sensing have a decreased chance of survival.
How does the cell wall of bacteria and archaea differ?
Bacteria use peptidoglycan.
Which is the most effective method for culturing bacteriophages?
Bacterial culture on solid agar or in liquid broth
Why is it entirely possible for a pathogen to appear susceptible in susceptibility testing and resistant in a real-life context?
Bacterial levels and active drug concentrations vary from one tissue to another in an active infection.
Archaeal plasma membranes differ from bacterial plasma membranes. Which of the following is not a major structural difference?
Bacterial plasma membranes contain peptidoglycan while archaeal plasma membranes contain pseudomurein.
__________ drugs target cell walls, cell membranes, or nucleic acids.
Bactericidal
You were required to take a general biology class as a pre-requisite for microbiology. You were required to wash your hands when you came in and out of the lab; and you couldn't eat, drink, or chew gum in the lab; but you could work on an open lab bench. What biosafety level was the lab?
BSL-1
At which biosafety level do most hospital and research laboratories operate?
BSL-2
Most hospitals and microbiology teaching laboratories maintain _________ standards.
BSL-2
Which biosafety level is incorrectly matched with its description?
BSL-2+: known animal pathogens which do not infect humans
Which of the following biosafety levels and organisms is mismatched?
BSL-2: Influenza virus
A patient infected with a multi-drug resistant strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis would be cared for in a __________ facility.
BSL-3
Which of the following organisms is mismatched with its restriction enzyme?
Bacillus amyloliquifasciens: Taq
Which of the following microbes is not considered an urgent threat in the United States?
Bacillus anthracis
Which of the following organisms is not an opportunistic pathogen?
Bacillus anthracis
All of the following spore-forming bacterial species cause disease except:
Bacillus subtilis.
What type of nosocomial infection is likely to arise from intravenous catheterizations?
Bacteremia
Why did Alexander Fleming suspect he could get penicillin from a species of mold?
Bacteria on culture plates were unable to grow near mold contamination.
Why can't prokaryotic species be defined as a group of similar organisms that could sexually reproduce together?
Bacteria reproduce asexually.
Which of the following is not a mechanism of an antiviral drug?
Blocking viral ribosomes
Which of the following is not recommended for culturing anaerobic bacteria?
Blood agar.
__________ can eliminate pathogenic bacteria, protozoans, and viruses.
Boiling
What primary lymphoid organ is the site of B cell maturation?
Bone marrow
The causative agent for whooping cough is ________________.
Bordetella pertussis
Which of the following is not a plausible reason why cases of pertussis are on the rise?
Bordetella pertussis has mutated into a more virulent strain.
Erythema migrans often develops as a result of what infection?
Borrelia burgdorferi
Both Vibrio cholerae and Salmonella typhi are capable of causing disease inside of otherwise healthy individuals. The ID50 of V. cholerae is 1,000,000 cells, while the ID50 of S. typhi is 10,000 cells. Based on this information, which of the following statements is true?
Both V. cholerae and S. typhi are pathogenic, but S. typhi is more virulent than V. cholerae.
There are three common features shared by the innate and adaptive immune responses. Which of the following is not one of the three?
Both are only found in vertebrate animals.
Which of the following is a common feature between T and B cells?
Both produce memory cells after activation.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about prokaryotes?
Both prokaryotic domains include known human pathogens.
A middle-aged adult female is displaying the following symptoms: nausea, vomiting, flaccid paralysis in her extremities, and difficulty breathing. She reported that she had consumed home-made, canned vegetables. What is she most likely suffering from?
Botulism
Which of the following describes the function of lysozyme?
Breaks down bacterial cell walls
Which of the following statements about bright field microscopy are true?
Bright field microscopy is the simplest and most common form of microscopy.
Choose the mismatched pair regarding media formats.
Broth format: used for colony isolation
Choose the false statement about buffers:
Buffers may cause alkalosis.
Which of the following is the most general classification of an organism?
Domain
Which of the following statements about plasmids is false?
If present, plasmids are always essential to cell survival.
Which of the following is not one of the hallmark signs of primary immunodeficiencies?
Caused by common infectious agents
The success of the Gram stain is based on the difference in the composition of the _______ of bacterial cells.
Cell walls
__________ immunity is mediated by the production and activation of T cells.
Cellular
_________ is a staphylococcal infection of the lower dermal and subcutaneous fat.
Cellulitis
Which organelle builds microtubules?
Centrosome
Which of the following describes conidiospores?
Chains of spores not enclosed in a sac.
Despite the diverse agents that can cause UTIs, they all tend to induce similar symptoms. Which of the following is not one of those signs and symptoms?
Chancres
__________ are small proteins that help fold larger proteins.
Chaperones
MCP-1 is a cytokine which induces monocytes migration and infiltration. This protein is an example of which type of cytokine?
Chemokine
Which of the following best describes why children are prone to developing otitis media (ear infection) when they contract a cold?
Children have shorter and narrower Eustachian tubes that do not drain effectively.
________ is to fungal cell walls as _________ is to bacterial cell walls
Chitin; peptidoglycan
What cause of atypical pneumonia infects about half of the population worldwide by age 20?
Chlamydophila pneumoniae
__________ is spread by aerosolized bird droppings.
Chlamydophila psittaci
Choose the false statement
Chlorine treatment is sufficient for eliminating protozoans from drinking water.
What molecule is used to capture light energy?
Chlorophyll
Which of the following describes the steps in binary fission?
Chromosome replication, cell pinches off in the middle; migration of cell components to each end of the cell; septum formation.
Which of the following occurs in binary fission, budding, and spore formation?
Chromosome replication.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a chronic Hepatitis B viral infection?
Chronic Hepatitis B viral infections can promote cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinomas.
A young graduate student studying deer habitats in the Northeastern United States presents with fever, a headache, and extreme fatigue. You believe that the patient may have a viral infection, and send her home without any medication. Five days later, the patient is readmitted and presents with a bulls-eye rash. If you do not treat the infection with the recommended antimicrobial therapy, which of the following complications may develop?
Chronic arthritis, neurological problems, irregular heartbeat, and myocarditis
Which of the following tissues is least likely to be rejected when transplanted?
Corneas.
Which of the following RNA virus families includes the virus that causes severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)?
Coronaviridae
Which of the following best describes the paroxysmal stage of pertussis?
Coughing fits that may induce vomiting, fractured ribs, and loss of bladder control
Which of the following methods uses an electronic counter to enumerate bacteria as they pass through a tube?
Coulter counter.
Individuals working with livestock, wild animals, or animal products are at risk for contracting __________.
Coxiella burnetii
Which of the following infectious agents causes atypical pneumonia that is also characterized as a zoonotic illness?
Coxiella burnetii
Which of the following organisms is mismatched with its mechanism of immune suppression?
Coxiella: IgA protease
Which of the following autoimmune disorders is localized?
Crohn's disease.
Which of the following statements is correct about croup?
Croup is characterized by a barking cough and respiratory stridor.
After ingesting contaminated spinach, your patient presents with fever, jaundice, severe abdominal pains, and hemorrhagic diarrhea. You believe that the patient has contracted Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli. Which of the following laboratory techniques would be the most useful for identification of the foodborne pathogen?
Cultural analysis of stool sample on sorbitol-MacConkey (SMAC) agar
Which microbes are less likely to be found on oily skin areas?
Cyanobacteria
Which of the following is a bacterium that performs oxygenic photosynthesis?
Cyanobacteria
Which of the following terms is best defined as an inflammation of the bladder?
Cystitis
______________ is an inflammation of the bladder.
Cystitis
Which of the following chemical mediators of inflammation are not vasoactive?
Cytokines
__________ are second-line molecular defenses that assist cells in communicating with each other.
Cytokines
Which of the following microbes does not cause a secondary immunodeficiency?
Cytomegalovirus (CMV).
Choose the false statement about electrolytes:
Electrolyte imbalances are difficult to treat.
_________ reduces the number of microbes on a given non-living surface of a sample.
Disinfection
Choose the false statement about bioremediation.
Dispersants are added so that the remediating microbes can grow.
Which of the following does not rely on isotopes?
Electrolyte therapies
Which of the following are short protein structures that help prokaryotes stick to surfaces?
Fimbriae.
Which term is correctly paired with its definition?
Decontamination: includes sterilization and disinfection measures
Antipyretics such as ibuprofen and acetaminophen work in which of the following manners?
Decrease production of prostaglandins
Which of the following has been suggested as the cause for an increased risk for developing hypersensitivities?
Decreased biodiversity of the microbiota.
The hygiene hypothesis proposes which of the following?
Decreasing diversity of our normal flora from increased antibiotic usage and changes in diet and lifestyle may lead to increased allergies and autoimmune disorders.
Which type of reaction is shown in the picture? A + B -> AB + water
Dehydration synthesis reaction
Which of the following statements concerning desensitization therapy is true?
Desensitization therapy encourages plasma cells to produce IgG antibodies against the allergen.
What approach is generally utilized to diagnose autoimmune disorders?
Detecting self-reactive cells or antibodies.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of epidemiologists?
Develop antibiotics
Which of the following is not an accomplishment that is attributed to Louis Pasteur?
Developing the postulates of disease
Which of the following provides the best definition for the term dysentery?
Diarrhea accompanied by pain, blood, and/or mucus
Choose the false statement about cellular transport mechanisms.
Diffusion is the passive movement of substances from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration.
Which of the following infections would manifest itself in the upper respiratory system?
Diphtheria
Your patient, who is in an extended hospital stay, presents with fever, chills, hypotension, tachycardia, and mental confusion. Bloodwork reveals thrombocytosis, elevated creatinine levels, and elevated lactic acid levels, indicative of sepsis. Blood culture on a Sabouraud dextrose agar plate reveals an abundance of yeast. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism through which the patient contracted this disease?
Direct contact with a contaminated venous catheter
Which of the following is an unsuitable culture method for an animal virus?
Direct inoculation of virus onto blood agar
Which of the following factors allows for the best chance of disease eradication?
Disease is preventable through vaccination
Which of the following statements correctly describes Dr. Ignaz Semmelweis's contribution to hospital epidemiology?
Dr. Semmelweis demonstrated that handwashing prior to examining patients cut down on the incidence of nosocomial infections.
Which of the following best describes the resistance mechanisms of carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE)?
Drug inactivation
An elderly patient who contracted chickenpox as a child now has shingles as an adult. You explain to your patient that both diseases are caused by the same virus, which lays dormant in the body prior to reactivation. Based on this information, choose the true statement.
During dormant periods, the virus exists episomally inside of infected host cells.
You had dinner with your friend who was suffering from a severe cold. She sneezed a few times, and now you are worried that she transmitted her cold to you. During which of the five stages of disease would you expect first symptoms to appear?
During the prodromal phase
Which of the following is not an example of a virulence factor?
Dysbiosis
Which of the following is a correctly written version of a scientific name?
E. coli (All in Italics) The genus name (the first name is capitalized or abbreviated using a capital letter while the species name (the second name) is lowercase; the whole name should be italicized.
Many strains of E. coli are able to grow on minimal media which consists only of a single sugar, usually glucose, and inorganic salts to provide nitrogen, sulfur, phosphorous and trace nutrients. What does this tell you about E. coli's biosynthetic capabilities?
E. coli can funnel intermediates from glycolysis, the intermediate step, and the Krebs cycle to synthesize amino acids, fatty acids, glycerol, and nucleotides.
Which of the following terms about bacteriophage replication is mismatched?
Lytic replication: phage conversion
All of the following are limitations of ELISA and agglutination assays except:
ELISA and agglutination assays lack specificity.
Which of the following diagnostic tests paired with their descriptions is mismatched?
ELISA: detects antibodies or antigens with a precipitation reaction
Which is not an example of virulence as an evolving property?
Each of these is an example of virulence as an evolving property.
After an initial infection with HSV-1, a flare-up can be triggered by all of the following except:
Eating spicy food
All of the following viruses exhibit narrow tropism except ____________.
Ebola virus
The early signs and symptoms of an infection with Marburg virus are very similar to infections with __________.
Ebola virus
Which of the following infectious agents is not part of TORCH?
Ebola virus
Which of the following may help in controlling outbreaks of Lassa virus?
Effective rodent control and storing food in rodent-proof containers
Which of the following best describes resistance mechanisms of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Efflux pumps
Which of the following does not describe the purpose of mucus in the upper respiratory tract?
Facilitates gas exchange between air and the alveoli in the respiratory tract
A disinfectant cannot be used to achieve sterility; instead, this type of germicide is only used to achieve disinfection.
False
When taking a blood sample, a disinfectant is used to remove microbes from a patient's skin prior to drawing blood.
False
Which of the following most accurately describes fixed macrophages?
Highly phagocytic cells that destroy a wide range of pathogens and reside in specific tissues
Which of the following statements about feedback inhibition is false?
Feedback inhibition is irreversible.
Rank the following metabolic strategies from least potential ATP gain to greatest potential ATP gain.
Fermentation, anaerobic respiration, aerobic respiration
Which of the following is not an example of first-line defenses?
Fever
All of the following are characteristics of smallpox except:
Fever with an accompanying rash
Which of the following are characteristics of chickenpox?
Fever with an itchy vesicular rash
Which of the following are not characteristics of smallpox?
Fever with an itchy, vesicular rash that begins on the torso.
While all effects of fever are not entirely understood, some studies have suggested various reasons as to why especially low-grade fevers may be beneficial. Which of the following would not be a function of fever?
Fever works by limiting the production of prostaglandins in the hypothalamus.
Which of the following methods would be best for sterilizing a sample of a heat-sensitive solution?
Filtration
How would Pseudomonas aeruginosa most likely adhere to the respiratory membrane of a patient in a ventilator?
Fimbriae
Which of the following cellular structures is matched with their correct function?
Fimbriae - allow a cell to stick to surfaces or each other
Which of the following phyla is prevalent in all three parts of the respiratory system?
Firmicutes
Which of the following bacterial structures is used to propel bacteria at high speeds?
Flagella.
Which of the following RNA virus families includes the virus that causes dengue fever?
Flaviviridae
Which of the following methods uses laser light to detect fluorescently labeled cells passing through a narrow channel to enumerate bacteria?
Flow cytometer.
When an individual's CD4 T cell count drops below 200 cells per cubic millimeter of blood due to infection with Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), an individual is diagnosed with Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS). Your patient is at an advanced stage of HIV infection. Which of the following methods of cell enumeration would be most definitive for an AIDS diagnosis?
Flow cytometry
Your patient has a stubborn case of athlete's foot. After treatment with an antifungal agent, you observe fungal cell lysis as a result of improperly built plasma membranes. Which of the following antifungal drugs was most likely used during treatment?
Fluconazole
How does immunofluorescence microscopy detect rabies in brain tissue of an infected animal?
Fluorescent-tagged antibodies bind to rabies antigen in the tissue and are visible in a specialized microscope.
Which of the following is an example of dysbiosis?
Following extended use of amoxicillin, your patient develops oral thrush as a result of the overgrowth of Candida albicans.
Which of the following does not describe a host factor in the epidemiological triangle?
Food source
Which of the following statements accurately compares foodborne infections to food poisoning?
Foodborne infections are due to pathogen establishment, whereas food poisoning is a toxigenic infection.
Which of the following is a true statement about the tuberculin skin test?
For the test, PPD is injected into the skin of the forearm.
Which of the following "germicides" should only be applied as a disinfectant?
Formaldehyde
Each of the following describes eukaryotic cilia except:
Found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Which of the following does not describe innate immunity?
Found only in vertebrate animals
Which of the following causes of atypical pneumonia is considered a potential biological weapon?
Francisella tularensis
____________ is considered the most infectious bacterium known to mankind and the causative agent of ______________.
Francisella tularensis; tularemia
Which of the following statements is true regarding hand washing?
Frequent and proper hand washing should be routinely done by patients and by healthcare workers, both prior to and after interaction.
The core component of __________ cell walls is chitin.
Fungal
Which of the following is not a domain?
Fungi
Which of the following is the most common STI in the U.S. and the world?
HPV
Chancroid is a disease caused by ____________.
Haemophilus ducreyi
Meiosis is characterized by:
Haploid chromosomes
Which of the following describes zygospores?
Haploid gametes found at the tips of hyphae.
The degree to which the antigen provokes an immune response varies and depends on the antigen's biochemical features. Which of the following molecules are the least immunogenic?
Haptens
__________ trigger(s) nonautoimmune type IV hypersensitivities.
Haptens
Choose the true statement regarding Lister's contribution to health care.
He developed aseptic surgery practices.
Which of the following characterizes shingles?
Headache, flulike symptoms but no fever, and a painful vesicular rash on one side of the body
Which of the following people would most likely develop an uncomplicated UTI?
Healthy individuals
Which of the following is a plausible mechanism for contracting pseudomembranous colitis?
Heavy antibiotic usage
Which area of the skin has the greatest variety of fungi?
Heels
Part complete Which of the following is not needed to carry out excision repair in Escherichia coli?
Helicase
Your patient complains of upper abdominal pain, heartburn, and indigestion. Based on the patient's case history and clinical presentation, you believe that your patient has a stomach ulcer caused by a resident microorganism. You ask the microbiology laboratory to culture the stomach pathogen from a gastric tissue biopsy. Which of the following bacterial genera would you expect the microbiology laboratory to observe in the patient's culture?
Helicobacter
Which of the following infectious agents are not commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease?
Helicobacter pylori
Which of the following organisms would have enzymes that would function best in a low pH?
Helicobacter pylori
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
_____________ is transmitted mainly via the fecal-oral route.
Hepatitis A
For which of the following diseases is no vaccine available?
Hepatitis C
_________ is the only protection available for those who are unable to receive immunizations.
Herd immunity
__________ is a phenomenon that occurs when a sufficient population is vaccinated and non-vaccinated individuals receive the benefits of vaccination.
Herd immunity
Which of the following is a characteristic of flatworms?
Hermaphroditic.
Your patient presents with oral lesions. The patient states that her mouth had a tingly sensation for 3 days before fluid-filled blisters appeared on the lips. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely etiological agent?
Herpes Simplex-1 Virus
For which of the following diseases do we currently not have a vaccine available?
Herpes-Simplex Virus 1
Which of the following DNA virus families includes viruses that cause oral herpes, genital herpes, and chickenpox?
Herpesviridae
Which of the following is the family name for the HHV-1 virus?
Herpesviridae
Which of the following is not a general sign or symptom of an autoimmune disorder?
High-grade fever.
Which of the following would be the weakest bond?
Hydrogen bond
____________ do not bind atoms into molecules. Instead, they are non-covalent electrostatic attractions between two or more molecules or within a single large molecule.
Hydrogen bonds
Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is incorrect?
Hydrogen bonds are a covalent electrostatic attraction between two or more molecules.
Select the single true statement.
Hydrogen bonds do not bind atoms into molecules.
Which of the following is not considered a chemical pathway?
Hydrolytic pathway
Which of the following molecules are blocked from entering the cerebrospinal fluid?
Hydrophilic molecules
Which of the following would not readily dissolve in water?
Hydrophobic substance
Tubular structures that form the structure of most fungi are __________.
Hyphae
Advantages of the interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) over the traditional TB skin test include all of the following except
IGRA only detects active TB infections.
A young patient who underwent surgical placement of depth electrodes for epilepsy treatment contracted a prion disease. Cortical electrode probes are known to be reused in patients. Based on this information, which of the following prion diseases did the young patient most likely contract?
Iatrogenic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
Which of the following terms is used to describe the shape of a virus?
Icosahedral
Which of the following statements is true concerning the alternative complement cascade?
In the alternative complement cascade, complement proteins directly interact with the invading agent.
According to the figure, when were measles the most prevalent in the US?
In the late 50s
Choose the true statement about a bacterial colony?
In theory a colony derives from a single cell.
Which of the following statements is true concerning a patient with an acute HIV infection?
Inability to detect HIV antibody in the patient's serum
___________ vaccines are stable at room temperature and safe for immune-compromised patients.
Inactivated
Why are ehrlichiosis and anaplasmosis of concern?
Incidence of both is increasing.
Which of the following is not part of the epidemiological triangle?
Incidence rate
Which of the following best describes the eukaryotic kingdom Fungi?
Includes yeasts, molds, and mushrooms. Unicellular and multicellular. Has a cell wall.
Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to the rise of fungal diseases?
Increased resistance to antifungal drugs
Which of the following would not likely protect you from digestive system infections?
Increasing sugar intake
Which of the following is an example of phage conversion?
Infection of Streptococcus pyogenes with T12 phage enables the bacteria to produce erythrogenic toxins, allowing it to cause scarlet fever.
Which of the following is considered the most common healthcare-acquired infection?
Infections with Clostridium difficile
Which of the following vaccines is a purified subunit vaccine?
Influenza vaccine
Which of the following best describes the convalescent phase of pertussis?
Infrequent coughing spells that last for several months
_________ play a role in hematopoiesis.
Interleukins
Choose the one that is correctly matched.
Intermediate level germicides: destroy Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not endospores.
What is the difference between an intolerance and an allergy?
Intolerances tend to have a delayed onset of symptoms, while allergic reactions occur rapidly.
Your patient is suffering from a systemic, bacterial infection. Which of the following would be the best way to adminster an antimicrobial drug for treatment of the infection?
Intravenously
You are a manufacturer of polypropylene hypodermic syringes. Which of the following methods would be best for ensuring sterility of this heat-sensitive material?
Ionizing radiation
__________ is used to sterilize medical supplies and food.
Ionizing radiation
Which component of the light microscope modulates how much light is aimed at the specimen?
Iris diaphragm
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about iron-binding proteins?
Iron-binding proteins are also referred to as "siderophores."
__________ is a serious side effect of aminoglycoside antibiotics.
Irreversible hearing loss
Which of the following is not a criterion for assigning a pathogen to a biosafety level?
Level of contagiousness
Polypeptide drugs should only be used intravenously under what conditions?
Life-threatening multidrug resistant infections caused by Acinetobacter baumanii
Which statement does not apply to pneumocystis pneumonia and its causative organism, Pneumocystis jirovecii?
Like all other pathogenic fungi, the reservoir is soil.
Which of the following is not one of the three main ways microbes evade antimicrobial drugs?
Limit production of peptidoglycan
Which of the following statements incorrectly describes viral spikes?
Lipid-based spikes make up the envelope that surrounds the capsid.
Which of the following vaccines provides potent immunological responses and long-lived immune memory?
Live attenuated vaccines
___________ contain pathogens that have been altered so that they do not cause disease (are not pathogenic), but are still infectious.
Live attenuated vaccines
Which of the following is not a formulation of vaccines?
Live, virulent microbes
You would like to calculate the generation time of an unknown organism and set up a culture. During which of four distinct growth phases would it be best to collect data?
Log phase
The bactericidal antibiotic penicillin kills bacterial cells by preventing peptidoglycan (cell wall) biosynthesis. Which of the following phases of the bacterial growth curve would you expect penicillin to be most active against?
Logarithmic phase
Which of the following is not a goal of inflammation?
Long-term tissue damage
The experiments that finally disproved spontaneous generation were performed by:
Louis Pasteur
________ showed that biogenesis is responsible for the propagation of life.
Louis Pasteur
Which of the following test results would support that a patient is suffering from bacterial but not viral meningitis?
Lower glucose concentration found in the cerebrospinal fluid
Which of the following descriptions is unique to pneumonia caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
Lower-than-normal body temperature in older people
What secondary lymphoid tissues become swollen during an infection due to multiplication of leukocytes, causing swelling and tenderness?
Lymph nodes
What type of lymphoid organ primarily filters lymph?
Lymph nodes
Which of the following is a component of the second-line defenses?
Lymphatic system
Cellular and humoral responses both progress through four main stages. What is the second stage?
Lymphocyte activation
Which of the following vesicles contain a wide variety of hydrolytic enzymes that break down substances engulfed by the cell during phagocytosis?
Lysosomes
_________, present in tears, breaks down bacterial cell walls and is an important defense mechanism of the eye.
Lysozyme
__________ is an enzyme found in perspiration that protects against microbial invaders by breaking down peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls.
Lysozyme
Which of the following does not describe the physical barrier functions of the skin?
Lysozyme secreted in sweat.
All of the following are Staphylococcus aureus virulence factors except:
M-protein
Which of the following is not a Staphylococcus aureus virulence factor?
M-protein
After excess lymph drains from our tissues, it is shuttled to the lymph nodes and ________, where waste filtering and pathogen detection take place.
MALT tissue
___________ is the minimum concentration of the drug that kills at least 99.9 percent of the bacteria present.
MBC
The main proteins that are matched between a tissue donor and recipient are the __________ proteins.
MHC
What is the role of MHC I in the immune response?
MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells and presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells.
T-dependent antigens require T helper cells to interact with the __________ molecule and co-stimulatory proteins on the plasma membrane of B cells to activate the B cell.
MHC II
Which statement is not true about MHC II?
MHC II interacts with both the CD4 and CD8 receptors on T helper and T cytotoxic cells.
Each of the following components is found on the "Y" shaped antibody molecule except:
MHC II molecules.
As T cells develop, they are screened for reaction to __________ to assure self-tolerance.
MHC or HLA molecules
When "matching" a donated organ or tissue to a recipient, it is necessary that the ________ of the donor and the recipient be as similar as possible.
MHCs
In 1998, a fraudulent study was published by The Lancet that claimed a correlation between autism and the _________ vaccine.
MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella)
Which of the following accurately describes side effects of macrolide antibiotics?
Macrolides are associated with disruption of intestinal microbiota.
Which of the following antimicrobials does not match its potential shortcomings?
Macrolides: This narrow-spectrum drug must be administered parenterally.
Which of the following is not a tick-borne disease?
Malaria
Which of the following best describes why sulfa drugs are selectively toxic?
Mammalian cells do not produce the enzyme targeted by the sulfa drugs.
________ media would be most effective for selecting for Staphylococcus aureus growth.
Mannitol-Salt Agar (MSA)
In terms of personal health, why should vegetarians still care about the misuse of antibiotics in livestock?
Manure-contaminated water and manure-based fertilizers introduce resistant bacteria into the food chain.
What is the reservoir for Vibrio cholerae, the cause of cholera?
Marine environments
Which of the following most accurately describes icosahedral viruses?
May appear spherical, but are three-dimensional polygons
Which of the following diseases has seen the strongest surge in the number of cases in the U.S. due to decreasing vaccination rates?
Measles
Which of the following is false regarding normal microbiota?
Members of the normal microbiota cannot cause disease.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotic flagellum?
Microtubules sprout from a centriole.
Which of the following fibers are found as part of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton?
Microtubules, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments
If a wild-type DNA sequence reads AAA ACG CCG AGG, what type of mutation would change it to AAA ACC CCG AGG?
Missense
The organelle involved with making amino acids and vitamins, regulating cell division, and carrying out apoptosis is the __________.
Mitochondria
Where are 70S ribosomes found in eukaryotic cells?
Mitochondria and chloroplasts
Which of the following provides supporting evidence that mitochondria and chloroplasts may have once been free-living prokaryotes?
Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain 70S ribosomes.
Eukaryotic cells are not found in which of the following kingdoms?
Monera
Which of the following classes of beta-lactam antibiotics is considered a narrow-spectrum drug?
Monobactams
Which of the following products is not produced through recombinant DNA techniques?
Monoclonal antibodies
If a patient is uncomfortable and not resting well, which of the following is not generally used to successfully reduce fever?
Morphine
Which of the following is not considered a mechanical vector?
Mosquitoes
_________ are only weakly responsive to traditional desensitization therapies.
Most food allergies
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about pH?
Most microbes grow best at a pH between 5 and 6.
All of the following are common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes except:
Nucleus
The nucleolus, chromatin, and nucleoplasm are found in the __________.
Nucleus
Which of the following cell structures are only found in eukaryotic cells?
Nucleus
Why are most prokaryotic cells small?
Nutrient diffusion is most efficient for smaller cells.
Antibodies can be developed against each of the following red blood cell antigens except the:
O antigen.
You are working in the ER and have a patient that needs a blood transfusion. Without knowing his blood type, which of the following blood types would you be able to safely provide?
O-
Which blood type is known as the "universal donor"?
O-.
__________ studies do not involve treating or intervening in a disease, with the purpose of measuring risk for developing the disease.
Observational
Which of the following is a valid difference between the leading and lagging strands in DNA replication?
On the leading strand, only a single RNA primer is needed to initiate continuous DNA synthesis.
Where are MHC I receptor molecules found?
On the surface of all body cells except red blood cells
Which of the following statements concerning T cell self-tolerance screening is true?
Once T cells pass the self-tolerance screening, they migrate to lymphoid tissues.
Which of the following statements concerning the life cycle of Chlamydia trachomatis is correct?
Once inside the body, the Chlamydia trachomatis reticulate body replicates before converting back to the elementary body.
Start of Ch. 2 Using the Periodic Table of Elements, select all of the true statements about carbon. To be marked correct, you'll need to select all true statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.
One carbon atom contains 6 protons and 6 neutrons. Carbon's atomic number is 6.
Which of the following statements regarding polio vaccines is true?
One disadvantage of the oral polio vaccine is that immunocompromised individuals can develop illness from the attenuated virus and, in rare circumstances, develop paralytic polio.
The 1918 influenza virus killed more individuals worldwide than World War One. It is estimated that between twenty and forty percent of the world's population across continents had become infected with the virus, leading to 50 million deaths. The 1918 influenza would best be described as which of the following?
Pandemic
An individual uses an in-home test kit one week after engaging in high-risk behavior for HIV infection. The test kit uses a saliva sample that is mailed to a lab where an agglutination test to detected HIV antibodies is run. The results come back negative for HIV. What should the patient consider regarding these test results?
One week may not be enough time for HIV antibodies to be detected.
Cryptosporidium has a complex life cycle. Which of the following is the infectious form of the parasite?
Oocysts
Post-transcriptional regulation allows cells to control gene expression by regulating how often mRNA is translated into protein. Which of the following is not an example of post-transcriptional regulation?
Operons
___________ pathogens require a weakened host to cause disease.
Opportunistic
Which of the following infectious agents usually requires an immune-compromised person to establish an infection?
Opportunistic pathogen
Candida albicans is part of our normal oral flora. Under certain conditions, it can overgrow, leading to oral thrush. Typically, infections are seen in individuals who are immunocompromised, such as newborns or individuals who may have recently taken antibacterial medications. This type of pathogen is classified as which of the following?
Opportunistic, endogenous pathogen
Which of the following routes of antimicrobial drug administration is preferred?
Oral administration
Which of the following routes of drug administration is ideal?
Orally
Which of the following is the highest taxon for viruses?
Order
Which of the following is not an autoimmune type IV hypersensitivity?
Organ transplant rejection.
Which of the following statements would be most correct about the organisms growing in tubes A and B containing phenol red glucose broth? A = yellow with buble on top B = Red
Organism A fermented glucose, producing acid and gas, while organism B did not ferment glucose.
Which of the following RNA virus families includes the virus that causes influenza?
Orthomyxoviridae
Choose the true statement.
Osmosis is a passive process.
You are working on characterizing the metabolism on an unknown organism. You find that the organism is a strictly fermentative organism. Which of the following mechanisms is likely absent?
Oxidative phosphorylation
In the first step of building recombinant DNA, __________ is used to isolate and amplify the desired gene.
PCR
A nurse experienced an accidental needle stick while treating a patient who has hepatitis C. The seroconversion window for hepatitis C is approximately 6-8 weeks. Given this information, which of the following viral detection methods would be most appropriate for detecting a hepatitis C infection in the nurse one week following the needle stick?
PCR-based detection of hepatitis C RNA
Which of the following signs and symptoms is/are most likely to be present in a patient with shingles?
Painful and burning rash on one side of the body
Which of the following DNA virus families includes the viruses that cause warts and cervical cancer in humans?
Papillomaviridae
Which component of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is responsible for releasing energy to fuel anabolic reactions?
Phosphate
What is the key difference between photoheterotrophs and photoautotrophs?
Photoheterotrophs use organic compounds as their carbon source; photoautotrophs use carbon dioxide as their carbon source.
In an environment with sunlight and an abundance of inorganic compounds, which group of organisms are most likely to thrive?
Photolithoautotrophs
Choose the true statement about phototrophs.
Phototrophs use light for energy.
Which of the following RNA virus families includes the virus that causes polio?
Picornaviridae
Which of the following processes means "cell drinking"?
Pinocytosis
You are tending to your preschool-aged patient who presents with excessive anal itching. The child's mother notes that the child woke several times during the night due to anal irritation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are absent. You recommend performing a tape test on the child. Which of the following diseases is the pediatric patient most likely afflicted with?
Pinworm
Which of the following body sites would least likely contain a biofilm?
Placenta
Phytosterols are characteristic of the plasma membrane of __________ cells.
Plant
Which of the following eukaryotic kingdoms does not contain organisms that are pathogenic to humans?
Plantae
Which of the following groups of organisms does not have pathogenic members?
Plants
A clinician suspects that a patient has been infected with a flavivirus, but is unsure if the virus is Zika or Dengue. What diagnostic test could they run to determine the cause of the patient's infection?
Plaque reduction neutralization test
Which technique would prove that a patient was exposed to a certain virus even if it is no longer in their system?
Plaque reduction neutralization test
Which of the following structures is not found in a Gram-negative cell wall?
Plasma membrane
Which of the followng structures is found in all cells?
Plasma membrane
Which of the following statements is NOT a characteristic of plasmids?
Plasmids are part of the cell's chromosome.
Which of the following techniques is the best way to directly count viable cells?
Plate counts
Choose the statement which best defines a pleomorphic organism.
Pleomorphic organisms can take on different forms, which enhances their survival and transmission to a human host.
For which of the following infections is a vaccine available?
Pneumococcal meningitis
In which of the following scenarios would you expect lysozyme to be an effective chemical barrier?
Preventing the entry of Haemophilus aegyptius, a Gram-negative bacterial pathogen, into the conjunctiva
When traveling to regions where malaria is common, what is the recommendation?
Preventive antimalarial drugs should be taken daily while traveling in endemic areas.
The most common genus of bacteria living in the pharynx (throat) is __________.
Prevotella
The primary flora of the nasal cavity includes all the following except ____________.
Prevotella
Which of the following acellular agents do not have any genetic material and therefore do not replicate?
Prions
Which of the following infectious agents are the most difficult to control with standard autoclaving methods?
Prions
__________ are considered to be nonliving, do not contain genetic material, and do not replicate.
Prions
Which of the following is not considered a standard precaution?
Procedural masks at all times
Which of the following is not an industrial use for microbes?
Production of metal alloys
Which of the following is not a mechanism by which microbes evade antimicrobial drugs?
Production of mycolic acid in the Mycobacterium cell wall.
Choose the single true statement about equilibrium.
Products and reactants form at an equal rate.
Choose the features of the prokaryotic ribosome that support the endosymbiotic theory.
Prokaryotes have a ribosome with a 70S sedimentation rate.
Which of the following is true about ribosomes?
Prokaryotic ribosomes have a lower overall mass and diameter than eukaryotic ribosomes.
Which of the following is the single most important procedure for a healthcare worker to prevent hospital-acquired infections (HAI)?
Proper handwashing
Which of the following causes acne?
Propionibacterium acnes
The eukaryotic cytoskeleton performs all of the following except:
Protects the cell from stress.
The main functions of the Golgi apparatus include:
Protein modification, production of lipids, distribution of products.
__________ comprise at least half the mass of a plasma membrane.
Proteins
Select the single correct pairing of biomolecule and description.
Proteins: Encoded by genes in DNA.
Recent studies have found that resident microbes in the digestive system may actually exert some influence on nervous system functions. A recent study found that people experiencing depression had lower levels of ___________ in their GI tract than people that did not suffer from depression.
Proteobacteria
Which particle is described incorrectly?
Proton: Found in shells orbiting the nucleus
_________ is not an official taxonomic rank, rather it is a convenient term for describing animal-like protists that are unicellular, lack a cell wall, exhibit asexual and sexual reproduction, and live by heterotrophic means.
Protozoan
Human Immunodeficiency Virus-1 (HIV-1) is an RNA virus with a long incubation period. Due to the long time needed for disease symptoms to develop, disease progression can alternatively be measured by detection of HIV genetic material in the bloodstream of infected patients. Which of the following molecular methods would be most appropriate for disease detection of HIV-1 in patient's bloodstream?
Reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction
Under which of the following scenarios can hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) develop?
Rh- mother, Rh+ fetus.
Which of the following antigens on the surface of a red blood cell is a protein?
Rh.
Which of the following disorders is considered a "Type II" in the Gell and Coombs classification system?
Rheumatic heart disease
Which of the following autoimmune diseases and corresponding infectious causes is mismatched? Type 1 diabetes: Coxsackie virus Rheumatic heart disease: Epstein-Barr virus Guillain-Barré syndrome: Campylobacter jejuni Multiple sclerosis (MS): Human herpesvirus 6
Rheumatic heart disease: Epstein-Barr virus
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about admininstering RhoGAM to an Rh- mother?
RhoGAM will be administered to every Rh- mother after birth, even if her child is Rh-.
Which of the following statements is false concerning RNA?
Ribonucleotides found in RNA include the same sugar deoxyribose that is found in DNA.
Which of the following is not needed during transcription?
Ribosomes
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles that aid in protein synthesis.
How are ribozymes different from enzymes?
Ribozymes are made of ribonucleic acid, whereas enzymes are made of protein.
Which of the following statements about ribozymes is false?
Ribozymes have only been shown to act on other DNA molecules.
Which of the following diseases is caused by a fungus?
Ringworm
A patient presents the following signs and symptoms: macule rash, fever, headache, and nausea. He reports that he was recently bitten by a deer tick. Which of the following tick-borne diseases was he likely suffering from?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A baby develops a sudden high fever and a rash all over its body. What is the likely cause?
Roseola
Which of the following diseases is incorrectly matched with its characteristics?
Roseola: rare childhood infection that tends to present without a fever
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the eukaryotic flagellum?
Rotary motion
Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccine?
Rotavirus gastroenteritis
Which of the following vaccines is administered orally?
Rotavirus vaccine
Which organelle is associated with protein modification?
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
Which of the following most accurately describes dendritic cells?
Ruffled membrane with long cytoplasmic extensions; highly phagocytic; and activate the adaptive immune response
Which of the following best describes the catarrhal phase of pertussis?
Runny nose, watery eyes, and a moderate cough
You wish to set up a DNA microarray to study which genes are implicated in breast cancer. You fluorescently label normal breast tissue with a green fluorophore and tumor breast tissue with a red fluorophore. You see that your gene labeled SASH1 fluoresced green while your gene labeled HER2 fluoresced red. Taken together, these results indicate that:
SASH1 is underexpressed in breast cancer patients, whereas HER2 is overexpressed is breast cancer patients.
The kingdom Protista is sometimes referred to as the "catchall kingdom." All of the following describe characteristics of organisms in the kingdom of Protista except:
Some only utilize RNA.
Which of the following indirect methods of enumerating bacteria measures the turbidity of a sample?
Spectrophotometer.
Which of the following is an asexual fungal spore?
Sporangiospores
Gamogony is the sexual phase of reproduction of ________.
Spore-forming protozoans
Your patient from Zambia presents with shivering, fever, sweats, hypotension, headaches, body aches, fatigue, nausea, and vomiting. You presumptively diagnose the patient with malaria and then perform a liver biopsy. Which of the following forms of the malarial parasite would you most likely observe within the patient's liver biopsy?
Sporozoites within infected liver cells, and merozoites emerging from affected, lysed liver cells
Gram-stains prepared from bacteria isolated from the urine of a patient with UTI symptoms revealed purple-stained, clustered cocci. Which of the following genera likely infected the patient?
Staphylococcus
Once thought to be sterile, it has recently been found that the lungs harbor all of the following microbial genera except ____________.
Staphylococcus
A catalase test would be helpful to distiguish which of the following organisms?
Staphylococcus and Streptococcus species
In 1928, Alexander Fleming noticed that mold contaminating a petri dish inhibited the growth of a culture of __________.
Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following is one of the most common agents to cause endocarditis?
Staphylococcus aureus
You isolated an unknown organism. It is catalase positive, coagulase positive, and ferments mannitol. After Gram staining, you observe purple, clustered cocci under the microscope. Which organism are you likely working with?
Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following is not an example of intrinsic resistance of a bacterium to an antimicrobial drug?
Staphylococcus aureus (VRSA) strains with altered cell wall-building enzymes
Upon performing a Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test using Staphylococcus aureus, you observe no zone of inhibition with penicillin and a 15mm zone of inhibition with vancomycin. Based on these observation, which of the following conclusions is valid?
Staphylococcus aureus is resistant to penicillin but may or may not be sensitive to vancomycin.
Which of the following would not be a component of an operon?
Start codon
We explore questions about the origins of disease and treatments through the scientific method. Which of the following would be the most likely order to apply the scientific method?
State question - Formulate Hypothesis - Design Experiment - Collect Data - Draw Conclusions
Start of HW 3 Choose the true statement about the Domain Bacteria.
The Domain Bacteria is made up of prokaryotes and likely originated 3.8 billion years ago.
Unlike the Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion test, the E-test can provide which of the following information?
The E-test can provide the minimum inhibitory concentration for a given drug.
Why is there a need to be vaccinated with a new flu shot every year?
The RNA genome of influenza mutates frequently, causing minor changes. This is referred to as antigenic drift.
What is a drawback of live attenuated vaccines?
The agents present in this type of vaccine could cause disease in an immune-compromised host.
Which of the following best describes antibody titer?
The amount of antibody present in the blood
Which of the following is an example of intrinsic resistance?
The bacterium Bacillus cereus produces endospores during environmentally harsh conditions, enabling it to survive cooking processes.
Why is tetanus commonly associated with deep puncture wounds?
The causative agent Clostridium tetani is an anaerobic, spore-forming organism.
Which of the following statements about Valley Fever is correct?
The causative agent of Valley Fever is a dimorphic fungus, growing as mold that makes arthroconidia spores that spread with the dry winds common to arid climates.
What will happen to a cell that is placed in a solution containing a high concentration of sugar, a molecule that cannot pass across the cell membrane?
The cell will lose its interior water, causing it to shrivel up and possibly die.
Considering the process of osmosis, what will occur if a bacterial cell is put into a hypotonic solution?
The cell will take on water and may lyse if its cell wall is damaged.
Which of the following statements is true concerning cellular immunity?
The cellular branch of adaptive immunity is mainly organized by T helper cells and carried out by T cytotoxic cells.
The generation time for Escherichia coli inside of the human intestinal tract has been estimated at 12 hours. However, when grown in Luria Bertani medium as a pure culture under standard laboratory conditions, the generation time for E. coli is 20 minutes. Which of the following accounts for this discrepancy in generation time?
The human intestinal tract contains other microbes, which compete for limited nutrients.
Why is hyphal morphology (as opposed to a unicellular morphology) necessary for symptomatic vaginal candidiasis to develop?
The hyphal form produces proteases that cause cellular damage which results in inflammation.
Which of the following vaccines is an inactivated whole-agent vaccine?
The inactivated polio vaccine (IPV).
Which of the following is an example of a measure of association?
The infant mortality rate in the United States due to consumption of unpasteurized honey
Which of the following is false about the lepromatous form of leprosy?
The lepromatous form is more common than the milder tuberculoid form.
Which of the following is a key difference between lytic and lysogenic bacteriophage replication cycles?
The lytic replication cycle ends with host cell lysis and release of newly formed bacteriophage particles, whereas lysogenic replication leads to prophage formation.
Which of the following correctly describes Infectious Dose-50 (ID50)?
The more infectious the pathogen is, the lower the ID50.
Which of the following is a feature true for the adaptive immune response only?
The response is tailored to a specific antigen.
Which of the following statements concerning the secondary response is true?
The secondary response results in production of antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
Which of the following statements help to explain the pathogenesis of human transmissible spongiform encephalopathy?
The shape of normal host PrpC protein is altered by abnormal PrpSc protein, transforming it into infectious PrpSc protein.
Which of the following is false regarding the sickle cell trait?
The sickle cell trait is caused by malarial parasite infections.
Part complete Chloroflexus aurantiacus is a photoautotrophic bacterium that grows in hot springs. Which of the following serves as an energy source for C. aurantiacus?
The sun
Which of the following statements is incorrect about interferon gamma release assays (IGRAs) used to detect TB in vaccinated populations (vaccinated with BCG vaccine)?
The test is very sensitive and can determine if a patient with a positive IGRA has an active versus latent infection.
You inoculated a pure culture of unknown bacteria into a tube containing thioglycollate medium to study their metabolic relationship with oxygen. The culture was incubated for an appropriate length of time at the optimal growth temperature of the organism. When you examined the culture, you observed that although the organism grew throughout the medium, the growth was denser at the surface. What would you conclude about the oxygen requirements for this unknown species?
The unknown is a facultative anaerobe.
__________ are organisms that dwell in compost piles and hot springs.
Thermophiles
Why are invasive procedures likely to increase the risk of nosocomial infections?
These procedures allow microbes from the skin to enter the bloodstream of the patient.
Listeria monocytogenes is an intracellular bacterial pathogen that replicates within macrophages. Secretion of listeriolysin O and phospholipase helps the pathogen to escape phagolysosome formation following internalization by the host cell. In this example, listeriolysin O and phospholipase A perform which essential function?
These virulence factors help the pathogen evade host defenses.
Why are Koch's postulates important to microbiology?
They allowed us to identify the causative pathogens of many infectious diseases.
Which statement is true about standard precautions?
They apply to all healthcare providers working with all patients.
Which of the following is not a feature of eukaryotic flagella?
They are built from flagellin proteins.
All of the following describe 70S ribosomes except:
They are found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotes.
Which of the following would be considered a FALSE statement about small noncoding RNAs?
They are found only in prokaryotic cells.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of archaeal plasma membranes?
They are made of linear fatty acids.
Which of the following is true about inorganic cofactors?
They are nonprotein agents.
Why are biochemical tests referred to as "fingerprint methods of bacterial species"?
They are used to identify bacterial species.
How are Cryptosporidium sporozoites able to evade the immune system?
They attach to host cells and build a protective membrane from modified host cell membrane materials.
Which of the following statements is true about sulfa drugs?
They chemically resemble PABA, the natrual substrate of a bacterial enzyme in the pathway that build folic acid.
Of the following statements, which one is NOT related to transposable elements?
They create a stable, non-changing genome.
Which of the following best describes the genomes of influenza, measles, Ebola, and rabies viruses
They each have an RNA genome that is complementary to mRNA.
Which of the following is not a reason that acid-fast bacteria are clinically a challenge?
They form endospores that resist heat and sanitizing practices.
Select the false statement about Mycoplasma?
They have a cell wall.
Choose the false statement regarding prokaryotic cell.
They lack organelles.
Why might broad spectrum antimicrobials be initially used when treating a patient?
They may initially be used to protect the patient since it can take several days to make a definitive bacterial identification.
How can surgeons help to limit nosocomial infections?
They should perform surgeries and invasive procedures only when absolutely necessary.
Choose the false statement about oncoviruses.
They stimulate cells to undergo apoptosis.
A virulence study was performed using Staphylococcus aureus in mice. It was determined that the LD50 for the S. aureus alpha-toxin was 0.045 µg/kg of body weight toxin (a relatively low LD50). In the same mouse population, the ID50 was determined to be 200,000 cells (a relatively high ID50). What do these results taken together mean?
This S. aureus strain is less infectious, but its alpha-toxin is highly-toxic.
Choose the true statement about pre-transcriptional regulation.
This form of regulation controls when and how often RNA is produced from a DNA template.
Genetic mutations in the CD8a gene often result in a CD8 T cell deficiency. Which of the following scenarios would be most likely to occur in a patient with several CD8a gene mutations?
This patient would be less able to respond to certain viral invaders, such as Epstein Barr Virus.
What primary lymphoid tissue is the site for T cell maturation?
Thymus
Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid tissue?
Thymus
Which of the following is not a main goal of inflammation?
To allow for the complement cascade to become activated
What is the role of epidemiology?
To learn how to treat and prevent various diseases.
Which of the following statements best describes the goal of the first line of immune defense?
To prevent pathogen entry
What is the role of light energy in photosynthesis?
To produce a proton gradient to make ATP
Which of the following microscopy terms is correctly matched with its definition?
Total magnification - the magnification resulting from multiplying the magnification of the ocular and objective lenses
Which of the following describes a case of food poisoning?
Toxins from Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are responsible.
__________ vaccines protect against diphtheria and tetanus.
Toxoid
Which of the following is not a mycosis?
Toxoplasmosis.
Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory tract?
Trachea
_________ is the leading cause of preventable microbial blindness in the world.
Trachoma
________________ is caused by a Chlamydia species and is the leading cause of preventable microbial blindness.
Trachoma
Which term is incorrectly matched with the provided definition?
Transduction - introduction of new genetic material into a viral cell by a bacterial species
How does transformation differ from conjugation?
Transformation takes up DNA from the environment.
__________ are just temporary passengers that do not persist as stable residents of our bodies.
Transient microbiota
Which of the following types of microscopy would be best to study how a novel virus interacts with its host cell?
Transmission electron microscopy
Which of the following is not an example of a biological vector?
Transmission of feces to food by flies
Transposons, also known as "jumping genes," can have a wide-range effect on cells. Which of the following would not likely be an effect?
Transposons can repair damaged DNA.
Your patient is suffering from fever and complaining of fatigue, chills, and muscle pain. He stated that he returned from a hunting trip about two weeks ago where he had consumed undercooked wild game. What is he likely suffering from?
Trichinellosis
Your female patient is complaining of frothy, greenish discharge, dysuria, and itchiness in her vagina. A wet mount of her vaginal discharge shows motile cells. What is she likely suffering from?
Trichomoniasis
Which of the following fungal species may cause infections in healthy individuals that have not suffered from interruption in the normal microbiotia?
Trichophyton species
Which of the following antiprotozoal drugs targets folic acid synthesis?
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Bacillus anthracis is a Gram-positive bacterial pathogen known to cause anthrax. B. anthracis secretes a three-protein toxin: protective antigen, lethal factor, and edema factor. Protective antigen binds the host cell surface at cell receptor TEM8. Following proteolytic cleavage, protective antigen forms a membrane channel that allows the passage of lethal factor and edema factor into the cytoplasm. Once inside, edema factor acts as an adenylate cyclase, while lethal factor acts as a zinc metalloprotease, both leading to reduced host cell signaling. Anthrax toxin is best described as a(n) ___________.
Type III exotoxin
Which class of hypersensitivity reaction and its immune response is mismatched? Type I: IgE production Type II: IgG or IgM production Type III: IgA production Type IV: T cell reaction
Type III: IgA production
Which of the following hypersensitivities are characterized by the slowest onset?
Type IV
Why are type IV hypersensitivities called delayed hypersensitivity reactions?
Type IV reactions manifest slowly over 12-72 hours after the stimulating antigen is encountered.
Which of the following is considered a secondary skin lesion?
Ulcer
Which of the following is the primary distinguishing factor between uncomplicated and complicated urinary tract infections?
Uncomplicated urinary tract infections occur in otherwise healthy individuals with normal urinary tract structure, whereas complicated urinary tract infections usually occur in people with catheters, urinary tract malformations/obstructions, or immune-compromised people.
Which of the following could be used as evidence for spontaneous generation?
Uncovered meat will give rise to maggots.
Which of the following is not a property used to group viruses?
Unicellularity versus multicellularity
Which of the following lipids tends to be liquid at room temperature?
Unsaturated lipids
Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA but not DNA?
Uracil
Which of the following tests is done to indirectly identify the presence of Helicobacter pylori in the stomach of a patient?
Urea breath test
Which of the following does not describe agricultural practices that promote antimicrobial drug resistance?
Using antibiotics to treat cattle with pneumonia caused by Pasteurella multocida
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Vaccines cause autism.
__________ contain mainly water and other substances and are mainly found in plants, fungi, and certain prokaryotes and protists.
Vacuoles
__________ is the term used to describe vaginal inflammation.
Vaginitis
Which is the true statement about vaginosis and vaginitis?
Vaginitis describes vaginal inflammation while vaginosis does not.
Which of the following is most likely to be transferred in a chemical reaction?
Valence electron
___________ are usually found in an atom's outermost shell and tend to participate in chemical reactions.
Valence electrons
Which statement is true about valence electrons?
Valence electrons participate in chemical reactions, and interactions between valence electrons in reacting atoms determine what kind of chemical bond is formed.
Which of the following antibacterial drugs targets the cell wall of bacteria?
Vancomycin
Which of the following antimicrobial drugs would not be appropriate to treat a patient with walking pneumonia?
Vancomycin
Your patient has osteomyelitis caused by a strain of Staphylococcus aureus (a Gram-positive bacterium) that naturally produces beta-lactamase. Which of the following treatments would be the most effective?
Vancomycin
Which of the following antiviral drugs is mismatched with its mechanism of action?
Vapendavir: prevents rhinovirus attachment
Inflammation occurs in three general phases. Which phase is the first to occur after tissue injury?
Vascular changes phase
Mast cells are the key players in which phase of inflammation?
Vascular changes phase
Which of the following is not an etiological agent?
Vector
Which of the following methods uses samples from a liquid broth culture that are serially diluted and either spread on solid agar or poured into a petri plate with melted agar media to enumerate bacteria?
Viable plate count.
Which of the following is not acid-fast?
Vibrio cholerae
Which of the following is not targeted by antiviral drugs?
Viral protein synthesis
Which of the following is not used to classify and name viruses?
Virus size
Start of study quiz 1 Which of the following agents is considered nonliving?
Viruses
Which of the following microbes is considered "nonliving?"
Viruses
Which of the following is not a plausible reason why it is difficult to develop drugs against viruses and eukaryotic pathogens?
Viruses and eukaryotic pathogens do not cause serious infections.
Which of the following is mismatched?
Viruses: Replication through mitosis.
Which of the following is mismatched?
Viruses: Usually viewed with light microscopy.
Which of the following categories of pathogens is mismatched with its example?
Viruses: mad cow disease
Which statement is not true about viral warts?
Warts result from abnormal cell growth and so are highly likely to become cancerous.
How is osmosis different from simple diffusion?
Water movement is driven by the concentration of solutes rather than its own concentration.
Which of the following is used in photosynthesis by both plants and cyanobacteria?
Water, sunlight, and carbon dioxide
Which type of lipid is incorrectly matched to its description?
Wax: Refers to any lipid which is solid at room temperature
Your patient is suffering from severe diarrhea caused by a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following would be a special type of contact precaution to prevent spread of the organisms?
Wear a barrier gown at all times.
Your 30-year old patient presents to a Florida emergency room with fever, headache, flu-like symptoms, stiff neck, disorientation, and convulsions. You notice that there are several insect bites on her arm, which she tells you are mosquito bites from a camping trip two days ago. Based on the patient's case history and disease presentation, which of the following pathogens did your patient most likely contract?
West Nile virus
You believe that you have performed a perfect Gram stain on a mixed culture of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, yet when you observe the cells under the microscope, they all appear pink. What went wrong?
You left the decolorizer on the smear for too long
You have isolated a suspected pathogen in pure culture from a diseased laboratory animal. You are not sure whether that organism is what is causing the disease. Applying Koch's postulates, what would be the next step to find out more about the organism?
You should introduce it back into a healthy animal model, and the organism should display the same symptoms.
Which of the following results would you expect from an interferon-gamma release assay from a patient suffering from an active tuberculosis infection?
You would expect T lymphocytes to release high levels of interferon gamma.
You are testing a chemical that you suspect is a mutagen. You set up an AMES test, and for your control (without the mutagen added to the bacterial culture) you observed only a few colonies. After you added the mutagen to the test sample, you observed similar results to your control—only a few colonies grew. What can you conclude about the chemical?
Your chemical is not mutagenic.
Vertical transmission of which of the following viruses has been linked to fetal microcephaly?
Zika virus
Which of the following would be observed as a result of vulvovaginal candidiasis?
a "cottage cheese" discharge
Key signs of diphtheria are ____________ and ___________.
a bull neck; pseudomembrane in the back of the throat
Which molecule is the product of the intermediate step which is a direct input into the Krebs cycle?
acetyl CoA
Organisms that are found growing in sulfur hot springs and volcanic vents are __________.
acidophiles
If a superbug is resistant to an antibiotic due to horizontal gene transfer, the microbe is said to have
acquired resistance.
A vaccine for respiratory infections caused by__________ is only available for military personnel.
adenoviruses
Antibodies do all the following except
activate killing by T cytotoxic cells.
Antiviral drugs are most effective against:
actively replicating viruses.
A patient experiencing rapid onset of symptoms and progression of disease is likely experiencing a(n) __________ infection.
acute
In a(n) _________ infection, viral replication peaks, followed by immune clearance of the virus.
acute
In some cases, a subclinical case of disease can develop, in which the prodromal phase or __________ is unnoticed.
acute phase
All of the following drugs are immunosuppressive except:
acyclovir.
B cells and T cells are lymphocytes involved in __________.
adaptive immunity
After translation, protein modifications are necessary for a final functioning product. Which of the following is NOT part of protein modification?
addition of a methionine
Although each of the following viral groups causes acute respiratory illnesses, ________ can also be associated with conjunctivitis, gastroenteritis, or cystitis.
adenovirus
If a bacterial cell with an intact cell wall is placed in a hypertonic solution it will____________.
absorb water from the environment and lyse.
In the third step of building recombinant DNA, cells used as rDNA vectors have all of the following characteristics except they:
are always eukaryotic cells.
Properties that contribute to virulence
are determined by both the microbe and the host, and may evolve over time.
Ubiquitous mycoses:
are found in varied climates and under diverse conditions.
Plants _________.
are multicellular organisms that carry out photosynthesis
The difference between T cell activation by normal antigens and T cell activation by superantigens is that superantigens
are not processed and presented by APCs and cause nonspecific activation of many T cells at once, including those that would not normally recognize the antigen.
Endemic infections
are routinely detected in a population or region.
Cutaneous mycoses usually
are superficial infections on the skin, hair, or nails.
Live attenuated vaccines
are the closest to the actual infectious agent encountered in nature and stimulate potent immune responses to multiple antigens on the pathogen.
T-independent antigens
are usually polysaccharides and able to bind multiple B cell receptors on a given B cell.
Vaccines produce:
artificial active immunity.
Pregnant women are usually advised to be vaccinated against influenza to protect themselves and the baby after birth. The mother will acquire ________ immunity from the vaccine while the baby will acquire ________ immunity.
artificial active; natural passive
Unlike the Kirby-Bauer test and the E-test, broth dilution tests can determine the difference between _________ and _________ antimicrobial drugs.
bacteriostatic, bactericidal
Bacteria that have a rod shape are called _________.
bacilli
Which of the following is an endogenous source of infection?
bacteria from the skin entering a surgical incision
Zones of inhibition from a Kirby-Bauer test are compared to standardized susceptibility tables and can indicate each of the following except:
bactericidal or bacteriostatic action of the drug.
If a patient has a healthy immune system, a clinician might prescribe a __________ drug.
bacteriostatic
A patient was diagnosed with Kaposi's sarcoma. The level of the patient's T helper cells will likely be ____________; an indicator for ___________.
below 200 cells/mm3; AIDS
Periplasmic flagella are located:
between the plasma membrane and the cell wall.
Before the introduction of the MMR vaccine in 1963, the CDC estimates that there were __________ cases of measles each year.
between three and four million
Prokaryotes reproduce via _________.
binary fission
Most prokaryotic cells reproduce through _________.
binary fission.
Which is not a step in the process of B cell activation by a T-dependent antigen?
binding of the antigen to a T helper cell receptor
Tetracyclines inhibit bacterial growth by:
binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
Lyme disease is transmitted via a(n) __________.
biological vector
The primary difference between a biological and a mechanical vector is that:
biological vectors play a role in the pathogen's life cycle, whereas a mechanical vector spreads disease without being integral to a pathogen's life cycle.
Phenicols such as chloramphenicol inhibit bacteria through _________.
blocking protein synthesis at the 50S subunit
How can a chikungunya infection be differentiated from a dengue infection?
blood tests that identify viral antigens, viral RNA, or patient antibodies to the virus
Serum sickness develops after administration of all of the following except:
blood transfusions.
B cells mature in the __________.
bone marrow
Although chloramphenicol is an effective antibiotic, a serious side effect is __________.
bone marrow toxicity and aplastic anemia
T-cell precursors are made in the __________ and mature in the __________.
bone marrow; thymus
Droplet and airborne precautions
both involve diseases of the respiratory system and/or diseases transmitted through a respiratory route.
Cell shape is determined by which of the following?
cell wall and cytoskeleton components
Glycopeptide drugs inhibit __________ to kill bacterial cells.
cell wall synthesis
Each of the following methods are used to introduce rDNA into cells except:
cells absorb rDNA plasmids after being exposed to radiation.
Hyaluronidase and lipase are enzymes that allow Staphylococcus aureus to invade deeper tissues and cause ________.
cellulitis
Animals are not typically microscopic, yet we cover them in microbiology because _________.
certain parasitic worms, or helminths, are usually spread in a microscopic form
Compared to a direct ELISA, a sandwich ELISA
can be designed to be read without a plate reader, making it suitable for home use.
Nucleic acid detection techniques:
can detect new viruses and early-stage infections that antibody-antigen tests are likely to miss.
After a 10-day course of antibiotics, a female patient is complaining of vaginal itching, burning, and "cottage cheese-like" vaginal discharge. Your patient is likely suffering from ________.
candidiasis
The protein shell that packages and protects the genome and also accounts for the bulk of a virion's mass is called a _________.
capsid
Neisseria meningitidis, which causes meningococcal meningitis, is capable of triggering sporadic disease outbreaks by which of the following methods?
capsular switching
What is an example of a virulence factor that is related to immune system evasion?
capsule
Biological macromolecules that follow the general molecular formula (CH2O)n are __________.
carbohydrates
Immunocompromised patients with systemic fungal infections are often treated with:
caspofungin acetate.
The avian influenza virus host range includes all of the following except ______.
cattle
Necrotizing fasciitis is _________.
caused by group A streptococci
Grave's disease is an example of a type II hypersensitivity in which:
cell receptors are overactivated.
"Rice water" stool is a sign of __________.
cholera
Superantigens can be all of the following except:
cholera toxin.
A patient experiencing disease that has a slow onset and progression is likely experiencing a(n) __________ infection.
chronic
In __________ viral infections, there is a continuous release of virions over time and a slow progression of disease.
chronic
If a patient is asymptomatic for long periods of time but has symptoms reemerge, they are in a __________ state.
chronic carrier
Patients infected with Herpes simplex virus-1, the causative agent of fever blisters, go through periods of viral inactivity (where no active oral cankers appear) and outbreaks (where fever blisters are present). This type of individual is best defined as a(n) _______________.
chronic carrier
What do chronic hepatitis infections result in?
cirrhosis, liver failure, or hepatocellular carcinoma
Digoxin has a toxic drug interaction with __________.
clarithromycin
Each of the following contributes to antimicrobial resistance in the clinical setting except:
clinicians refusing to give antibiotic prescriptions for viral infections.
After T helper and T cytotoxic cells are stimulated by APCs, these cells then undergo:
clonal expansion.
You receive results back from the lab that your patient is infected with Vibrio cholera. This organism is a _________-shaped organism.
comma
Although four of the following options describe both rotavirus and norovirus, which one specifically describes norovirus?
common in long-term care facilities
The common cold is a good example of a __________ disease.
communicable
If a cell is to be transformed in a lab, the cell must be __________ to uptake the available genetic information.
competent
Rhinovirus and influenza symptoms are very similar. Each of the following symptoms does not distinguish a rhinovirus infection from influenza except:
complications including pneumonia are common.
The best prevention for infection with HTLV is ____________.
condom use
Which of the following can cause primary immunodeficiencies?
congenital immunodeficiency
Of the following intermediates in glycolysis, which is used to generate the glycerol molecules in lipids?
dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
Which of the following is not a sign of sepsis?
dilated pupils
The development of a pseudomembrane on the tonsils and throat is characteristic of
diphtheria
Substrate-level phosphorylation can be defined as __________.
direct transfer of a phosphate group enzymatically from one substrate to an ADP molecule
Superantigens activate T helper cells by:
directly linking the MHC and the TCR.
During the __________ phase of bacterial growth in a closed system, the number of cells dying exceeds the number of cells dividing.
death
The __________ is the time in minutes that it takes to kill 90% of a microbial population at a given temperature.
decimal reduction time
Each organic and inorganic component in __________ media is completely known and quantified.
defined
A chemical reaction that creates a more complex molecule and releases water in the process is best described as a(n) __________ reaction.
dehydration synthesis
All of the following are useful effects of fever except:
denaturation of essential enzymes.
The most active of the antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are __________.
dendritic cells
Which cell type works to prevent our immune system from attacking self and from over-reacting to nonthreatening substances, is abundant in tissues next to body openings, and phagocytizes a broad range of antigens?
dendritic cells
A positive tourniquet test is an indicator that a patient may have __________.
dengue fever
Start of DSM 2 The building blocks of nucleic acids are _________.
deoxyribonucleotides or ribonucleotides
Which of the following is false about the enzyme lysozyme?
destroys viruses and fungi
Reverse transcription PCR is useful for:
detecting RNA in a sample.
A diagnostic test that is specific is described as____________.
detecting only the virus(es) of interest
Agglutination reactions are used for all of the following except:
determining specific antibody isotypes in a sample.
The term "redundancy" in molecular biology refers to __________.
different codons that code for the same amino acid
Viral genetic reassortment is most likely to occur when __________.
different viral strains infect the same cell
Bacterial species can be visually distinguished from each other based on their metabolic properties when grown on __________ media.
differential
A sample obtained from a patient's throat was inoculated on blood agar. After 24 hours, there was a clear yellow zone covering the area of growth. The medium used was _________ and the organism is said to be _________.
differential; beta hemolytic
Prokaryotes tend to be small because they rely on _________ of nutrients.
diffusion
Invasive candidiasis is most often treated with ________________.
echinocandin
What happens if lymph is not collected?
edema
Which of the following pairs is not an example of a cytokine and its function?
eicosanoids: promote the replication and gathering of leukocytes
When electrons are removed from nutrients via an oxidation reaction, the coupled reduction reaction may be
either FAD → FADH2 or NAD+ → NADH.
Which of the following is not one of the four main groups of biomolecules?
electrolytes
The ____________ of Chlamydia trachomatis are infectious, yet dormant.
elementary bodies
A urine dipstick test can diagnose urinary tract infections by indicating
elevated levels of leukocyte esterase.
Newly identified pathogens often cause __________ diseases.
emerging
The common cold is a(n) _________ disease.
endemic the first answer should be communicable
Extracellular pathogens are engulfed within a(n) ________, which fuses with a(n) __________ before pieces of the antigens associate with MHC II molecules, after which they are displayed on the plasma membrane.
endocytic vesicle; lysosome
All of the following are examples of inclusion bodies in prokaryotic cells except __________.
endospores
Aluminum salts and monophosphoryl lipid A are used in vaccines to:
enhance the body's natural response to an antigen.
Toxins associated with food poisoning that specifically target the intestines are __________.
enterotoxins
The viral __________ is often comprised of the host cell membrane.
envelope
Zika virus is best described as a(n) _________ virus with a ________ genome.
enveloped, ssRNA+
Getting a tetanus shot after cutting yourself while gardening is necessary because Clostridium tetani is transmitted through a(n) __________ source.
environmental
What are the three factors of the epidemiological triangle?
environmental factors, etiological agent, and host factors
During lytic replication of bacteriophage, which process uses factors from the host cell, rather than coded by the viral genome?
enzymes which transcribe and translate viral genes
Which cell type has a nucleus that appears to have two lobes connected by a thin band, has granules that contain diverse enzymes and antimicrobial toxins, and has mediators that are expelled in response to certain allergens and parasites?
eosinophils
A(n) __________ disease is widespread in a particular region during a specific time frame.
epidemic
The __________ of an antimicrobial drug is the length of time the drug remains active in the body.
half-life
Chlorine usually exists as the anion Cl- because it has __________.
gained an electron.
The condition in which the stomach is inflamed is called __________.
gastritis
The introduction of genetic material into a human cell to replace mutated or missing genes is known as __________.
gene therapy
Pyocyanin, a greenish-blue pigment produced by pseudomonads, acts as a virulence factor by
generating reactive oxygen species.
Immunological memory provides all of the following protections except:
generation of primarily IgM antibodies
When B or T cells become encounter an antigen, they proliferate and produce __________.
genetically identical cells
A man presents to the physician's office complaining of irritation in the genital area. Examination reveals a bright red rash with raised pustules with clear fluid. Upon questioning, the man reports he has recently been sexually active. What is the most likely diagnosis based upon the appearance of the genital lesions?
genital herpes caused by HSV-2
The genetic makeup of an organism is its __________.
genotype
Which of the following can be a primary energy source of a bacterial cell?
glucose
The sticky outer layer that can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is known as the _________.
glycocalyx
Which of the following pathways are operational in a cell growing via fermentation?
glycolysis
Influenza A strains are characterized by their __________.
glycoprotein spikes
If bone marrow cells are transplanted, an improper match between donor and host can result in __________.
graft-versus-host disease
In __________, the transplanted tissues may attack the recipient.
graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)
A colony (is a) _________.
grouping of cells that developed from a single parent cell
Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that solubilizes carbon dioxide so that it can be removed from human tissues. Structural studies have shown that a zinc ion is required at the active site in order for the enzyme to function. In this example, zinc is best described as a(n) _____ that is required to form the functional _______
inorganic cofactor; holoenzyme
Which of the following allergies and treatments is mismatched?
insect bite/sting allergy: continued preemptive treatment with an injected antibody preparation that ties up the patient's IgE antibodies
Tuberculosis can be detected using IGRA because T cells in a patient who is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis release more __________ than individuals.
interferon gamma
An effective treatment for hepatitis B and hepatitis C is __________.
interferon-alfa
Lymph is primarily _________.
interstitial fluid
Robert Koch helped establish the germ theory of disease by discovering that anthrax was caused by a disease. After he isolated and purified the same bacteria from several diseased animals, what would be the next step in order to show that this bacteria caused anthrax?
introduce the bacteria into a new mouse to see if it established the same infection
In eukaryotic mRNA, there are sequences of mRNA that do NOT encode for specific amino acids and do NOT contribute to the protein. These sequences are called __________.
introns
Na+ and Cl- in table salt are held together by __________ bonds.
ionic
Chloride (Cl-) is most likely to form a(n) _________ bond with _________.
ionic; Na+
Just as there are three major pathways for the complement system to be activated, there are three major outcomes of complement activation. Each of the following is an outcome of complement activation except __________.
iron sequestration
Hemoglobin, transferrin, lactoferrin, and ferritin are all examples of __________.
iron-binding proteins
In a direct ELISA, the reporter enzyme
is bound to the detection antibody and chemically modifies an added substrate to generate a colorimetric or chemiluminescent change.
Gluconeogenesis
is building glucose from non-sugar starting materials and can be accomplished by funneling intermediates from glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and lipid or protein catabolism and an example of biosynthesis.
The major histocompatibility complex type I (MHC I) _________.
is found on all body cells except red blood cells
In an evolutionary sense, a "successful" pathogen is one that:
is minimally symptomatic.
mRNA _______.
is translated to build proteins
The goal of the streak plate technique is to
isolate a pure culture for study from a single colony.
The correct order of steps to follow when using recombinant DNA technology to produce a protein for pharmacological use is
isolate the desired gene — insert the gene into an expression vector — transform host cells with the expression vector — grow the transformed cells into suitable quantities — purify the expressed protein.
Each of the following falls into the class of beta-lactam antimicrobials except ___________.
isoniazid
Prions are
misfolded proteins which can cause normal versions to also misfold.
The endosymbiotic theory states that nonphotosynthetic prokaryotes merged with an ancestral cell and, over evolutionary time, became___________. Some of these new cells engaged in a second merging event with a photosynthetic prokaryote, possibly a cyanobacterium. The photosynthetic prokaryote eventually—over evolutionary time—became __________.
mitochondria; chloroplasts
The enzymes superoxide dismutase and catalase work together to convert reactive superoxide ions back to _________.
molecular oxygen
A __________ is formed when two or more atoms of the same or different elements are bonded together.
molecule
A(n) _________ is formed when two or more atoms bond together; a(n) _________ is used to describe molecules that are composed of more than one type of element.
molecule; compound
Once equilibrium is reached,
molecules move, but there is no net movement in a particular direction.
Which cell type is the largest agranular white blood cell, mature as they leave the circulatory system, and increase cell levels due to chronic infections and inflammation, autoimmune disorders, and certain cancers?
monocytes
The hygiene hypothesis suggests that each of the following negatively impact immune responses except:
more diverse gut microbiota.
During the Ebola outbreak between 2014 and 2016, according to the CDC an estimated 29,000 cases of Ebola were reported. About 12,000 people died. Therefore, the _________ rate was about 41%.
mortality
What is the correct order of the following eight parts of the GI tract?
mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus
Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms of __________.
mucormycosis
Secondary lymphoid tissues lining common portals of entry for pathogens are described as:
mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).
Each of the following is a chemical barrier against pathogens except __________.
mucus
Each of the following are nonautoimmune type IV hypersensitivities except:
multiple sclerosis.
Escherichia coli living in the human large intestine is known to produce vitamin K and B-complex vitamins in exchange for a nutrient-rich habitat. This host-microbe interaction is an example of __________.
mutualism
Propionibacterium acnes cause __________.
nodular cystic acne
Zoonotic pathogens primarily cause __________ diseases.
non-communicable
Although antivenom can save lives, it can also cause what type of reaction in certain patients?
nonautoimmune type III hypersensitivity
Each of the following are reasons why tuberculosis (TB) is difficult to diagnose except:
not many individuals are infected with tuberculosis worldwide.
Characteristics of Treponema pallidum, the bacterium which causes syphilis, include all except
not treatable with any of type antibiotic.
The most common drugs that block replication are ________.
nuceloside analogs
Where is the chromosomal DNA found in prokaryotic cells?
nucleoid
Prokaryotic cells house a single circular chromosome in their __________.
nucleoid region
The DNA of a prokaryotic cell is found within the ___________.
nucleoid region
Once the engineered virus enters a human cell, it enters the __________, where the cell transcribes and translates the normal gene.
nucleus
What does the plaque assay determine?
number of bacteriophage in a sample
Emergency technicians and _________ are essential to managing emerging disease outbreaks.
nurses
Iron-binding proteins are examples of virulence factors that permit ___________.
nutrient acquisition
The best antifungal treatment option for a diaper rash caused by Candida sp. would be _________.
nystatin
Organisms that have an absolute dependence on abundant oxygen for cellular processes are _________
obligate aerobes
Organisms that die in the presence of oxygen because they cannot eliminate reactive oxygen species are known as __________.
obligate anaerobes
You have counted 38 bacterial colonies on the surface of a petri dish and recorded the number in your lab notebook. This is an example of a(n) __________.
observation
Of the following, which would be considered a biochemical test?
observing a change in pH after the breakdown of a substrate
Genes that are essential for survival of a bacterial cell would most likely be located _______.
on the chromosome(s)
Each T cell and B cell has thousands of receptors, and each receptor can bind to __________ epitope(s).
one
Compared to a solution with a pH value of 4, a solution with a pH value of 2 has ________ H+ ions.
one hundred times as many
Endemic mycoses:
only grow in specific geographical locations.
In an operon, the repressor binds to the _______.
operator
A(n) _________ only causes disease in a weakened host.
opportunistic pathogen
Which of the following is an outcome of complement activation?
opsonization, cytolysis, and inflammation
Which term represents the temperature that bacteria grow the fastest at?
optimal
Halophiles are able to tolerate osmotic stress by concentrating __________ in the cytoplasm.
organic materials
It has been postulated that the Ebola virus is transmitted by bats, yet these mammals do not exhibit symptoms of Ebola. For this reason, bats are considered to be _________.
organismal reservoirs
If some students wanted to determine if an organism used cytochrome c in cellular respiration, which test would they perform?
oxidase
Sugar molecules, such as glucose, are _________ during the first steps of energy harvest for a cell.
oxidized
The purpose of the reduced electron carrier coenzymes (such as the NADH and FADH2 that are produced during glycolysis, the intermediate step, and the Krebs cycle) is to be __________.
oxidized at the ETC
A widespread disease outbreak that has spread to numerous countries is known as a(n) __________.
pandemic
MHC I molecules display all of the following antigen types except:
parasitic worm antigens.
A symbiotic relationship exists between two or more closely connected organisms. The relationship between one organism invading another and causing harm to that organism would be considered _______.
parasitism
Which portal of entry is mismatched to its description?
parenteral: pathogen is passed from mother to child through the placenta
Which of the following does the mumps virus infect?
parotid glands
Riboswitches are best defined as __________.
parts of mRNA that are not translated and act as post-transcription regulators
Each of the following determines immunogenicity except:
pathogen species.
Which of the following molecules is not found in the plasma membrane?
peptidoglycan
If a patient stops taking an antibiotic too soon during the _________, a relapse may occur.
period of decline
Bacteria with flagella distributed all over the cell surface are described as having:
peritrichous flagella
Development of chlamydia after sexual contact is an example of ________ transmission.
person-to-person direct
Infectious mononucleosis is spread through kissing or other close contact between the host and a healthy individual. This is considered _________.
person-to-person transmission
Tiny pinpoint spots that occur in the skin due to small capillaries bursting are known as _________.
petechiae
These two secondary lesions arise when bleeding or burst capillaries occur in the skin.
petechiae and purpura
Botulinum toxin causes all of the following except
petechial rash.
Prophages sometimes provide bacteria with genes that encode pathogenicity factors through a process called _________.
phage conversion
Whole cells or viruses are engulfed and imported into a eukaryotic cell via _________.
phagocytosis
The medical term for a "sore throat" is __________.
pharyngitis
Croup is a result of inflammation in all of the following except the __________.
pharynx
You are observing the cell shape of an unknown bacterial organism that you isolated from a patient, thus studying its _______.
phenotype
An organism that harvests sunlight for energy and requires an external source of organic carbon in its metabolism is characterized as a _________.
photoheterotroph
Which of the following structures allow bacteria to transfer genetic information through conjugation?
pili
Growth of bacteriophages on a lawn of bacteria is indicated by the presence of __________.
plaques
Lymph is collected from _________ that leaks from the blood into the tissues.
plasma
Which of the following cell structures is found in all cells?
plasma membrane
Which type of genetic material may be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells and may contain genes conferring antibiotic resistance?
plasmids
All the following apply to B cells except
play a critical role in both the cellular and humoral responses.
An ability to take on different shapes to enhance survival and/or ability to cause disease is called _______________.
pleomorphism
The next disease targeted for eradication through vaccination is __________.
polio
Topical antibiotic ointment contains bacitracin, neomycin, and __________.
polymyxin B
T-independent antigens are usually repetitive_________ molecules that stimulate B cells to produce antibodies.
polysaccharide
Rubella infections are most serious when contracted by __________.
pregnant women
Tissue necrosis caused by Clostridium perfringens may be distinguished from necrotizing fasciitis in what way?
presence of Gram-positive, endospore forming bacilli in the affected area and emission of foul-smelling gases from the damaged tissue
Which of the following is not one of the signs assessed using Amsel's criteria to diagnose bacterial vaginosis?
presence of any type of redness or rash
The main goal of first-line defenses is to:
prevent pathogen entry.
Which of the following is not a function of a molecular second line defense?
producing antibodies specific to the bacterial infection
The dominant genus in the vaginal microbiome of reproductive-age women, Lactobacillus, acts to limit infection by
producing lactic acid, hydrogen peroxide, and bacteriocins.
Some pathogenic organisms overcome the iron-sequestering function of iron-binding proteins through:
producing siderophores that pull iron from iron-binding proteins.
Consider a genetic mutation which causes T helper cells to be unable to respond to stimulation by the cytokines which lead to TH2 differentiation. This mutation would cause a patient to be deficient in which activity?
production of antibodies
Second-line molecular defenses include each of the following except:
production of antibodies.
One major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic translation is __________.
prokaryotic translation is polycistronic, and eukaryotic translation is almost always monocistronic.
The report "80 out of 100 women with gonorrhea do not have symptoms" is an example of a _________ or epidemiological measure.
proportion
An antiretroviral regimen usually consists of two reverse transcriptase inhibitors and a(n)
protease inhibitor, integrase inhibitor, or reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
Viral proteins are broken down in the __________ and carried to the _________ before being displayed on MHC I-antigen complexes on the surface of the cell.
proteasome; endoplasmic reticulum
What role do capsules and protein A play as virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus?
protect the bacterium from phagocytosis
Deamination is important in __________.
protein catabolism
Antifungal agents target each of the components of eukaryotic fungi except:
protein synthesis.
M proteins on the surface of Streptococcus pyogenes are very similar to all of the following host tissues except:
proteins on the pharyngeal epithelium.
Each element is identified by their atomic number, or number of _________.
protons
Organisms that prefer to grow at temperatures between -20°C and 10°C are called_________.
psychrophiles
Listeria monocytogenes can grow slowly in your refrigerator, with its optimum temperature range between 30 to 37°C. This organism is characterized as a __________.
psychrotroph
Listeria monocytogenes grows best at refrigerator temperatures and is therefore considered a _________.
psychrotroph
Which of the following types of organisms is associated with foodborne illness?
psychrotrophs
Helping people understand their role in preventing disease breaks the epidemiological triangle through ___________.
public education
Symptoms of hantavirus pulmonary syndrome include __________.
pulmonary edema
In one variation of the influenza vaccine, hemagglutinin and neuraminidase are isolated from the viral particle and are then mixed with GEM particles, an adjuvant. This type of vaccine is known as a(n):
purified, subunit vaccine.
Of the following, which is the most serious condition?
pyelonephritis
You notice that the pus in your patient's wound has a blue/green coloration. This is due to the production of _________ from a strain of _________.
pyocyanin; Pseudomonas aeruginosa
The ___________ indicates the occurrence of a disease event over time.
rate
The occurrence of a disease event as compared to another group is the __________.
ratio
High levels of IgM antibodies indicate __________ in a patient
recent exposure to a pathogen or antigen
Your patient is suffering from Grave's disease. This type II hypersensitivity is caused by _________.
receptor overactivation
Harmless viruses or bacteria are used to introduce antigens into the body using _________ to stimulate an immune response.
recombinant vector vaccines
The 2014 outbreak of Ebola spurred the development of a new vaccine for this disease. The newly designed vaccines were ________.
recombinant vector vaccines
Compared to complicated urinary tract infections (UTIs), uncomplicated UTIs are less likely to
recur after initial treatment.
Type I hypersensitivities can be triggered by all of the following except:
red blood cells.
Tuberculosis is an example of a(n) __________ disease.
reemerging
Tick-transmitted bacteria, such as Borrelia, cause __________ fevers.
relapsing
Which of the following is not a way that bacteria can evade complement activation?
release enzymes that break down lectins responsible for triggering complement activation
Cytotoxic T cells eliminate pathogens by
releasing chemicals which cause infected or cancerous cells to undergo apoptosis.
What is the role of memory cells?
remain in the lymphoid tissue to rapidly proliferate and differentiate upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen
Elevated body temperature that fluctuates but does not reach normal during the course of the fluctuations is classified as a _________
remittent fever
The hygiene hypothesis proposes that each of the following contribute to the development of type I hypersensitivities except:
repeated infections.
Each of the following features are common to both innate and adaptive immunity except:
requires four to seven days to fully activate.
The Golgi apparatus:
resembles a series of disc-like, flattened sacs called cisternae that stack upon one another.
The animate or inanimate habitat where an infectious agent is usually found is the _________.
reservoir
Adding oil to the slide when using the 100X objective improves the ________ of the image.
resolution
During the _________ phase of inflammation, swelling is reduced, leukocytes begin to die off, and local capillaries return to their normal size.
resolution
High-risk patients can receive antibody injections if they are in danger of contracting __________.
respiratory syncyntial virus (RSV)
An infectious agent is disseminated to new hosts by the _________.
source
A drug's bactericidal or bacteriostatic properties can change based on all of the following except:
source of antibiotic.
Transduction that involves a temperate phage integrating into the host cell genome is called __________.
specialized transduction
Frequent mutations in Influenza A change the protein makeup of hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) __________.
spikes
Viral __________ help viruses attach to and gain entry into host cells.
spikes
The _________ is a secondary lymphoid organ that filters blood rather than lymph and disposes of damaged red blood cells.
spleen
The idea that life comes from nonliving material is known as ___________________.
spontaneous generation
Cases of Ebola are considered to be __________.
sporadic
Plasmodium depends on both Anopheles mosquitoes and humans to complete its complicated life cycle. The parasite passes as a __________ form from infected mosquitoes into the patient's bloodstream.
sporozoite
Mosquitoes infected with Plasmodium pass on which of the following to the host?
sporozoites
Which of the following viral genomes is immediately ready for translation after the virus gains entry into the cell?
ssRNA+
Enzymes catalyze reactions by __________.
stabilizing and arranging the reactants for the reaction to occur more efficiently
Which stage marks the progression of HIV to AIDS?
stage III
Organisms that form a cluster of sphere-shaped bacteria would be described as having a _________ arrangement.
staph
During the __________ phase of bacterial growth in a closed system, the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing.
stationary
In which growth phase do bacteria produce antibiotics and endospores?
stationary phase
An indirect ELISA is pictured. In which step is the detector antibody added to the assay?
step 3
Oncogenic viruses
stimulate uncontrolled host cell division.
Second-line defense molecules released by leukocytes have all of the following functions except:
stimulating antibody production.
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) selectively infects any cell which carries the CD4 surface glycoprotein. Which immune function will be impaired?
stimulation of macrophage, B and TC cells
A genetic variant of a bacterium is known as a __________.
strain
You are observing an unknown organism under the microscope. The organism is spherical and arranged in long chains. You are observing _________.
streptococci
Which type of bacterial toxin is matched incorrectly with its description?
toxemia: a toxin produced during a viral infection
The "D" component of the DTaP vaccine is a _________ vaccine.
toxoid
The DTaP and Tdap vaccines are examples of:
toxoid vaccines.
Griffith's experiment proved that bacteria can take up naked DNA from the environment and use it as part of their genome. This process, which can occur in a laboratory or in a natural setting, is called __________.
transformation
All of the following are examples of endogenous infections, except:
transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus through kissing.
Beta-lactam antibiotics bind to __________ to inhibit the production of peptidoglycan.
transpeptidase
What two types of patients help demonstrate that cancer can be considered a failure of the immune system?
transplant patients and HIV/AIDS patients
Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) usually results from:
transplanted bone marrow.
Hospital epidemiology involves all of the following except _____________.
treatment of healthcare-acquired infections
All of the following are roles of public health education except ____________.
treatment of individual diseases
After an initial infection, herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) migrates to the __________, where it becomes latent.
trigeminal nerve
The preference of a pathogen for a specific host is also known as ___________.
tropism
Your have a patient who is displaying the following signs and symptoms: fever, coughing blood-tinged sputum, and fatigue. You have a suspicion that he is suffering from ____________ and suggest to perform _____________ of his sputum.
tuberculosis; acid-fast staining
A previously undescribed infection has been detected among inhabitants in an isolated village in a remote tropical rainforest. When serum from an infected individual is passed through a filter, the infection can be transmitted to laboratory animals. Nothing is observed when the serum is examined with a light microscope at the highest magnification. Biochemical tests show the presence of RNA and protein but no carbohydrates or lipids. This data is consistent with what type of infectious agent?
virus
Plaque reduction neutralization tests (PRNT) are able to determine if a patient has been infected with a _________.
virus
Challenges in developing effective antiviral drugs with minimal side effects to the patient include
viruses use the cell's own machinery and metabolism for replication.
The upper respiratory tract is lined with mucous membranes which secrete mucous. What is the purpose of mucous?
warms and humidifies, and traps microbes and debris from the air we breathe
In a dehydration synthesis reaction, macromolecules are built when ________ is removed to form a covalent bond.
water
The organism Mycobacterium tuberculosis makes mycolic acid, which is deposited in the bacterial cell wall and acts as a protective barrier for the cell and increases bacterial pathogenicity. Mycolic acid would be an example of a(n)_________.
wax
In what situation is hemolytic disease of the newborn a life and death situation?
when an RH- mom is pregnant for the second time with an RH+ fetus
When would a microbiologist want to use broth media?
when growing large batches of microbes
When would a microbiologist use thioglycolate?
when storing plates anaerobically
Toxemia is a condition
where a toxin has entered the bloodstream resulting in systemic effects.
Epidemiology is defined as the study of
where and when a disease occurs, and how it is transmitted.
What is the general classification used to categorize leukocytes?
whether or not leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that are visible when stained and then viewed by light microscopy