Microbiology 15, 16

The delay in the initial adaptive immune response to pathogen is largely due to the (inducibility/memory/specificity) of adaptive immunity.

Inducibility

T helper 1 uses what cytokine to coordinate cell mediated immune response?

Interleukin 2

The proportion of (plasma/leukocytes/RBCs), as determined by a differential white blood cell count, can serve as a sign of disease

Leukocytes

Sweat glands produce (lysozyme/dermacidin/acid), which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by cleaving the bonds between the sugar subunits.

Lysozyme

TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore, (BCR/MHC/Th1) molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response.

MHC

The (constant/end/variable) regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen-binding sites.

variable

The ability of the body to respond faster and more effectively to a second exposure to pathogens is called immunologic (memory/synapse/tolerance).

Memory

Phagocytes kill a pathogen once it has been ingested, whereas eosinophils and (MAC/NK/NOD) lymphocytes can accomplish extracellular killing by secreting toxins.

NK

Nonphagocytic (eosinophils/monocytes/NK cells) are a type of lymphocyte which produce toxins to kill abnormal cells.

NK cells

The first and second lines of defense respond to invading microbes by (specific/nonspecific) mechanisms.

Nonspecific

The IgG molecules which cross the placenta and circulate in a baby's bloodstream provide the baby with natural (active/innate/passive) immunity.

Passive

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes insert (CD95/lectin/perforin) into the membranes of the cells they target as a first step in killing.

Perforin

Macrophages release (bradykinin/histamine/prostaglandin) in response to microbes and thereby contribute to acute inflammation.

Prostaglandin

T lymphocytes that have both CD4 and CD25 are (cytotoxic/helper/regulatory) T cells.

Regulatory

The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skin's surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to many bacteria is (sebum/sweat/serum).

Sebum

The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as (natural/innate/species) resistance.

Species

Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors.

T

Histamine and prostaglandins are involved in inflammatory reactions.

T

IgG antibodies kill pathogens both directly and indirectly.

T

Immature B lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion in the bone marrow.

T

Interferons alpha and beta are effective against viruses.

T

Molecules with a molecular mass less than 5000 daltons can become antigens when they bind to carrier molecules.

T

Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms.

T

Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules.

T

Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme.

T

The MALT lacks the tough outer capsule of a lymph node but functions in the same way.

T

The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature.

T

B cells are activated when they interact with (antigen-presenting/Th1/Th2) cells.

Th2

T lymphocytes mature in the (bone marrow/lymph node/thymus).

Thymus

Which type of interferon is released by virally infected cells?

Type 1

The body recognizes antigens by the three-dimensional shapes of regions known as (antigenic/antibody/immunologic) determinants.

antigenic

Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and (dendritic/plasma/T) cells.

dendritic

An antigen produced by a pathogen while living inside a cell is known as an (auto-/endogenous/exogenous) antigen.

endogenous

In a process called (cytokinesis/hematopoiesis/hematocrit), blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood

hematopiesis

Eosinophils respond to (complement/lipopolysaccharide/histamines) and kill bacteria in a nonphagocytic process

lipopolysaccharide

Some pathogens produce toxins which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to cause fever.

pyrogens

Antigens are A) specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign. B) proteins the body produces against invading substances. C) cells that protect the body against invaders. D) proteins on the surface of our cells to which pathogens attach. E) enzymes secreted to destroy a pathogen's cell wall.

A

Class I MHC molecules are essential for A) presentation of endogenous antigens. B) recognition of chemokines. C) detection of IL-2. D) recognition of class II MHC. E) presentation of exogenous antigens.

A

How does aspirin act to decrease the symptoms of inflammation? A) ​ I​t acts as an antiprostaglandin. B) ​ I​t is an antitoxoid for most microbial toxins. C) ​ I​t prevents complement activation. D) ​ I​t interferes with the action of interferons. E) ​ I​t blocks the release of histamine.

A

IgE antibodies are best described as A) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation. B) the antibodies found in body secretions. C) those involved in complement activation. D) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC). E) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.

A

Opsonization is A) the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis. B) the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the blood vessels at the site of infection. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. E) phagocyte receptors detecting PAMPs.

A

TLRs are A) phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs. B) the coatings of pathogens by complement. C) molecules that damage cells, resulting in cell lysis. D) present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

A

The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as A) responders to invasion. B) passive barriers. C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense. D) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens. E) both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features.

A

The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity. B) adaptive immunity. C) species resistance. D) microbial antagonism. E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity.

A

The immunological synapse refers to the A) interaction between a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell to produce a specialized contact area for communication between these cells. B) activation of a B cell to become a plasma cell. C) interaction between lymphocytes and foreign antigens to produce memory cells. D) binding of a monocyte or macrophage to antigen so that it can act as an antigen-presenting cell. E) interaction of the many cytokines produced by different immunological cells.

A

The majority of mature, self-tolerant lymphocytes are found in A) the MALT. B) lymph nodes. C) the thymus. D) the spleen. E) the tonsils.

A

The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and, therefore, do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. B) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs. C) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents. D) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs. E) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue.

A

Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream? A) monocyte B) lymphocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil E) neutrophil

A

Which of the following characteristics is shared by the skin and mucous membranes? A) ​ T​hey are both constantly shedding and replacing cells. B) ​ T​hey both have cilia. C) ​ T​he outer layers are composed of dead cells. D) ​ S​ebum may be present. E) ​ L​ysozymes are always present.

A

Which of the following proteins are part of the first line of defense against microbial invasion? A) dermacidins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) C3 and C5 E) interferons

A

Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC I proteins and helps stabilize the binding of epitopes to T cell receptors? A) CD8 B) MHC I C) CD26 D) CD4 E) CD95

A

Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE? A) T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules. B) T lymphocytes directly attack cells and produce the cell-mediated immune response. C) T lymphocytes are called such because they mature in the thymus. D) T lymphocytes have TCRs that recognize antigen only if it is bound to MHC. E) There are three types of T lymphocytes.

A

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE? A) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen. B) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter. C) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites. D) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR. E) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.

A

Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is FALSE? A) They live for many years and function as memory cells. B) They are descended from activated B cells. C) They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis. D) They secrete a single type of antibody molecule specific for a single epitope. E) The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for weeks.

A

Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is ​TRUE​ A) TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes. B) TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins. C) Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors. D) NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs. E) MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins.

A

Which of the following substances stimulates the phagocytic activity of phagocytes? A) gamma interferons B) alpha interferons C) beta interferons D) antiviral proteins E) leukotrienes

A

The normal microbiota compete with pathogens in a variety of ways to protect the body, creating a situation known as microbial (antagonism/competition/resistance).

Antagonism

Plasma cells produce (antibody/chemokine/cytotoxic) molecules.

Antibody

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation? A) ​ T​he child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza. B) ​ T​he child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV. C) ​ T​he child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections. D) ​ T​he child has neither influenza nor RSV. E) ​ T​he results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.

B

A type of lymphocyte called a(n) ________ detects cells with abnormal surface proteins and kills them. A) eosinophil B) NK cell C) neutrophil D) basophil E) mast cell

B

Antimicrobial peptides called ________ are secreted in sweat and damage bacteria and fungi. A) antibodies B) dermicidins C) TLRs D) complement factors E) cytokines

B

First line of defense may be described as A) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth. C) damage resulting in cell lysis. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

B

Proteins on the surface of phagocytes called ________ aid in the detection of pathogen molecules. A) lectins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) lectins and C3 protein E) both TLRs and NOD proteins

B

The process of phagocytosis involve all of the following EXCEPT A) chemotaxis. B) secretion of cytotoxins. C) adhesion. D) elimination. E) vesicle fusion.

B

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are A) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils. B) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes. C) macrophages and eosinophils. D) macrophages and neutrophils. E) neutrophils and dendritic cells.

B

Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies? A) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate. B) They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response. C) They are the antibody class found in body secretions. D) They interact with phagocytes and NK cells. E) They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity.

B

Which of the following cells is a component of the body's first line defense? A) monocyte B) goblet cell C) NK cell D) neutrophil E) microglial cells

B

Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT? A) the appendix B) the spleen C) Peyer's patches D) lymphoid tissue in the respiratory tract E) lymphoid tissue in the small intestine

B

Which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism"? A) the presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through abrasions B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body C) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions D) the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens E) the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the surface

B

Which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell? A) The cell releases interferon-gamma (INF-γ). B) The cell undergoes apoptosis. C) The CTL produces oxidizing chemicals. D) The CTL produces IL-12. E) The cell produces MHC II with epitope attached.

B

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE? A) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs. B) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the bright-field light microscope. C) Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized. D) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for "cluster of differentiation." E) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the lymphatic system is FALSE? A) Lymph fluid is similar to blood plasma. B) The lymphatic vessels contract to move lymphatic fluid. C) The lymphatic vessels have valves to control the direction of fluid flow. D) The lymphatic system begins with highly permeable capillaries. E) Fluid flows through lymph nodes on its way to the bloodstream.

B

You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the A) appendix. B) lymph nodes of the groin. C) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical). D) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla). E) spleen.

B

The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies of (BCR/MHC/TCR).

BCR

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name? A) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant. B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function. C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific. D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body. E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.

C

Alpha and beta interferons A) help protect virus-infected cells from the effects of the pathogen. B) protect the cells that secrete them from being invaded by a virus. C) are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages. D) produce active antiviral proteins (AVPs) that coat the surface of healthy cells and prevent the attachment of pathogenic viruses. E) produce no adverse effects in the body.

C

Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called A) TLRs. B) NODs. C) PAMPs. D) leukotrienes. E) prostaglandins.

C

Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is A) the first line of defense. B) the second line of defense. C) the third line of defense. D) microbial antagonism. E) innate immunity.

C

Sebum contains ________ which contributes to creating an inhospitable environment on the surface of the body. A) lysozyme B) collagens C) acids D) salts E) bile

C

The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with ________ binding to the surface of a microbe. A) C1 B) C3a C) complement factor B D) C5a E) C5b

C

The antibody immune response is attributed to the action of A) monocytes. B) T lymphocytes. C) B lymphocytes. D) neutrophils. E) macrophages.

C

The perforin-granzyme pathway involves A) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen. B) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen. C) the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells. D) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells. E) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis.

C

The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as A) the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries. B) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. C) the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus. D) the coating of a pathogen by complement. E) an increase in allergies and helminth infection.

C

Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes? A) growth factors B) interferons C) interleukins D) tumor necrosis factors E) chemokines

C

Which of the following is an exogenous antigen? A) a bacterium inside a cell B) a virus inside a cell C) a bacterium outside a cell D) a noninfected human cell E) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cel

C

Which of the following is ​ TRUE​ of chemokines? A) They ensure production of enough leukocytes. B) They are involved in B lymphocyte activation and differentiation. C) They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes. D) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate. E) They are substances used to signal between leukocytes.

C

Which of the following statements concerning specific immunity is FALSE? A) It is the third line of defense. B) It has memory. C) It changes little with repeated exposure to the same pathogen. D) It is acquired. E) It is the body's ability to respond to specific invading pathogens.

C

Which of the following statements is ​ TRUE​ of eosinophils? A) They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. B) They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement. C) They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites. D) They decline during allergic reaction. E) They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

C

Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? A) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells. B) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx). C) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens. D) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes. E) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes.

C

Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is ​FALSE​? A) It has sebum as a coating. B) It has normal microbiota. C) It has goblet cells. D) It is salty. E) It is acidic.

C

2 body proteins that are capable of optinization?

Compliment proteins and antibodies

Cells of the second line of defense called ________ recognize and kill virus-infected cells. A) basophils B) eosinophils C) macrophages D) NK cells E) dendritic cells

D

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as ________ responses. A) third-degree immune B) allergic C) primary immune D) memory E) autoimmune

D

Major histocompatibility antigens are A) antigens that provoke allergic reactions. B) antigens that must be processed to be recognized by the immune system. C) antigens attached to foreign invaders. D) autoantigens involved in epitope recognition. E) not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens.

D

Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they A) have unique light chains. B) are Y-shaped molecules. C) are present in the plasma. D) are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers. E) are present in lymph nodes.

D

The antibody-binding site of an antibody is made up of A) portions of both of the heavy chains only. B) the variable regions of the heavy chains. C) the light chains only. D) the variable regions of both light and heavy chains. E) one heavy chain.

D

The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes A) release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. B) increase in allergies and helminth infection. C) respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement. D) are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. E) are specialists in killing bacteria.

D

The most prevalent type of antibody in the blood is A) IgD. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgG. E) IgE.

D

Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces ________ immunity. A) artificial passive B) natural passive C) natural active D) artificial active E) both active and passive

D

What is the role of interleukins? A) chemotaxis of leukocytes B) production of virally infected cells C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes D) signaling between leukocytes E) complement activation

D

Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis? A) neutrophils B) natural killer lymphocytes C) microglia D) dendritic cells E) wandering macrophages

D

Which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms? A) basophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) lymphocytes

D

Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion? A) ​T​ears contain lysozyme and salt. B) ​A​ mucus layer traps and removes microbes. C) ​T​ears mechanically flush particles from the eyes. D) ​T​ears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes. E) ​T​ears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them.

D

Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is CORRECT? A) They produce defensins. B) They secrete toxins onto virally infected cells. C) They are involved in the removal of neoplastic cells. D) They attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite. E) They identify and spare normal cells.

D

Neutrophils use their own (DNA/RNA/TLR) in the formation of NETs to trap bacteria

DNA

Class II MHC are found on A) the skin. B) red blood cells. C) cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells. D) muscle cells. E) professional antigen-presenting cells.

E

Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body? A) the bone marrow B) the spleen C) the liver D) both the bone marrow and the spleen E) the thymus

E

Exogenous antigens are processed for immune recognition by ________ cells. A) dendritic B) all nucleated C) macrophage D) helper T E) dendritic and macrophage

E

Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature A) inactivates interferons. B) increases vasodilation, contributing to inflammation. C) increases sweating and consequently the barrier effect. D) prevents viral infection of fibroblasts. E) increases the effectiveness of interferons and phagocytes.

E

How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented? A) T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion. B) T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated. C) Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses. D) Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell activation. E) Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.

E

Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders? A) ​ T​he mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes. B) ​ T​he mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules. C) ​ B​oth the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently. D) ​ T​he mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals. E) ​ T​he mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

E

Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of A) the lack of suitable environment in the body. B) the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment. C) the presence of phagocytes in the tissues. D) the salty, acidic condition of normal skin. E) both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

E

The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to A) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection. B) triggering inflammation. C) triggering release of interferons. D) triggering inflammation and release of interferons. E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

E

What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it? A) activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell B) display of epitope-MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell C) suppression of the immune response to the microbe D) display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins E) display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface

E

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease? A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired passive immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) naturally acquired active immunity

E

Which of the following are among the activities of neutrophils? A) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps B) phagocytosis C) enzyme production that leads to the formation of nitric oxide D) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and phagocytosis E) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps, phagocytosis, and production of nitric oxide

E

Which of the following are chemotactic factors for phagocytes? A) peptide fragments from complement B) chemokines C) interferons D) interferons and chemokines E) chemokines and peptide fragments from complement

E

Which of the following are macrophage functions? A) phagocytosis of pathogens and debris B) release of alpha interferon C) production of NETs D) phagocytosis of pathogens and production of NETs E) phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes

E

Which of the following are phagocytic cells descended from monocytes? A) alveolar macrophages B) dendritic cells C) microglial cells D) alveolar macrophages and dendritic cells E) alveolar macrophages and microglial cells

E

Which of the following areas of the body have mucous membranes? A) mouth B) nasal cavity C) urinary system D) mouth and nasal cavity E) mouth, nasal cavity, and urinary system

E

Which of the following cells can use nonphagocytic means to kill bacteria? A) eosinophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) natural killer cells E) both eosinophils and neutrophils

E

Which of the following cytokines promotes the development of a cell-mediated immune response? A) alpha interferon B) chemokines C) tumor necrosis factor (TNF) D) IL-4 (interleukin-4) E) IL-12

E

Which of the following function in agglutination? A) IgA antibodies B) IgG antibodies C) IgE antibodies D) IgD antibodies E) IgA and IgG antibodies

E

Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead and dying tissue cells, leukocytes, and pathogens? A) a boil B) an abscess C) a pimple D) a pustule E) a tumor

E

Which of the following is an iron-binding protein produced by pathogens to access the body's store of iron? A) gastroferritin B) lactoferrin C) ferritin D) transferrin E) siderophores

E

Which of the following leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that stain blue with methylene blue? A) eosinophils B) monocytes C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) basophils

E

Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE? A) Antibodies are formed of four polypeptide chains. B) Antibodies have two long peptide chains known as heavy chains. C) Antibodies have two short peptide chains known as light chains. D) The stem and arm are connected by a hinge. E) The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

E

Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE? A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated. B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target. C) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes. D) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide. E) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells.

E

Which of the following substances contributes to the edema associated with inflammation? A) leukotrienes B) histamine C) interferon D) defensin E) both leukotrienes and histamine

E

A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants.

F

Basophils are capable of phagocytosis

F

CTLs use the CD95 molecule to recognize their epitope.

F

During an infection with ​Listeria​ , an intracellular bacterium, APCs will present antigen on MHC II molecules.

F

Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration of phagocytes to the area.

F

Innate immunity is not effective against fungus infections.

F

Large molecules such as polymers make good antigens.

F

RBCs exhibit type 1 MAC proteins

F

The phenomenon known as species resistance is a highly specific defense against infectious agents.

F

The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.

F

When a T cell's CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell, antibodies are formed.

F

Intact skin layers are part of the body's (first/second/third) line of defense against pathogens.

First

The (epithelial/goblet/mucous) cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus

Goblet