Microbiology chapter 12 review questions
27. Clavulanic acid inhibits A. beta-lactamase activity. B. peptidoglycan synthesis. C. formation of peptidoglycan cross linkages. D. cell membrane synthesis.
A
62. Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as A. prebiotics. B. probiotics. C. lantibiotics. D. phytobiotics.E. riboswitches.
A
66. Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobial drugs include all of the following except A. development of resistance to the drug. B. hepatotoxicity. C. nephrotoxicity. D. diarrhea. E. deafness.
A
72. If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a/n _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B. A. smaller B. equal C. larger
A
74. Who is considered to be the father of modern antibiotics? A. Fleming B. Chargaff C. Watson D. Crick E. Domagk
A
6. The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called A. competitive inhibition. B. synergism. C. prebiotics. D. prophylaxis. E. lantibiotics.
D
60. Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms except A. transposons. B. R-plasmids. C. conjugation. D. mutation.
D
67. A superinfection results from A. build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient. B. the wrong drug administered to the patient. C. an immune system reaction to the drug. D. a decrease in most normal biota resulting in the overgrowth of an unaffected species.
D
68. The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration. A. streptomycins B. cephalosporins C. macrolides D. tetracyclines E. penicillins
D
25. Which drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis? A. penicillin G B. vancomycin C. tetracycline D. synercid E. isoniazid
E
50. Which of the following is not a mode of action of antiviral drugs? A. block penetration B. block transcription and translation C. inhibit DNA synthesis D. block maturation E. bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane
E
77. Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxin drugs.
TRUE
64. Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal biota often cause A. nephrotoxicity. B. superinfections. C. allergic reactions. D. drug toxicity.
B
65. The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal biota leading to antibiotic-associated colitis, is A. chloramphenicol. B. clindamycin. C. ciprofloxacin. D. bacitracin. E. gentamicin.
B
69. Drug susceptibility testing determines A. the patient's response to various antimicrobials. B. the pathogen's response to various antimicrobials. C. if normal biota will be affected by antimicrobials. D. if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient.
B
7. The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called A. prophylaxis. B. chemotherapy. C. selective toxicity. D. nephrotoxicity. E. synergism.
B
98. Over 50 percent of all sales of medically important antibiotics in the United States are for livestock use. Why is this problematic for humans? A. The livestock will become resistant to the antibiotics and not respond to treatment when they have infections. B. Resistant bacteria grow in the animals and may then be passed to humans. C. The use of antibiotics for livestock means that there are not enough for use in the human population. D. The animals may become sick from the antibiotic ingestion.
B
11. Aminoglycosides A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
C
12. Each of the following target prokaryotic ribosomes except A. streptomycin. B. gentamycin. C. polymyxins. D. tetracycline. E. erythromycin.
C
14. Drugs that insert on the _____ ribosomal subunit prevent peptide bond formation or inhibit translocation of the subunit during translation. A. 30S B. 40S C. 50S D. 60S E. 70S
C
15. Which of the following microbials does not inhibit DNA synthesis? A. chloroquine B. quinolone C. penicillin D. azidothymidine E. acyclovir
C
19. Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called A. inhibitors. B. blockers. C. competitive inhibitors. D. noncompetitive inhibitors
C
3. Antibiotics are derived from all of the following except A. Penicillium. B. Bacillus. C. Staphylococcus. D. Streptomyces. E. Cephalosporium.
C
31. Infections caused by gram-negative bacilli are often treated with A. penicillin G. B. vancomycin. C. aminoglycosides. D. synercid. E. isoniazid.
C
34. Antimicrobials that are macrolides A. disrupt cell membrane function. B. include tetracyclines. C. include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin. D. are very narrow-spectrum drugs. E. are hepatotoxic.
C
36. Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside? A. streptomycin B. gentamicin C. tetracycline D. amikacin E. tobramycin
C
38. Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections? A. synercid B. clindamycin C. linezolid D. azithromycin E. clarithromycin
C
42. The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is A. nystatin. B. griseofulvin. C. amphotericin B. D. sulfa drugs. E. metronidazole.
C
47. There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminthic drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths A. do not cause many human infections. B. are not affected by antimicrobials. C. are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult to achieve. D. are parasites found inside human cells. E. fewer target sites in their cells compared to bacteria.
C
49. Which of the following is not used to treat malaria? A. quinine B. chloroquine C. metronidazole D. primaquine E. meflaquine
C
51. An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that A. blocks penetration. B. blocks transcription and translation. C. inhibits DNA synthesis. D. blocks maturation. E. bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane.
C
53. Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by: A. influenza A virus. B. HIV. C. herpes simplex virus. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. hepatitis C virus.
C
57. The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes function by A. bacterial chromosomal mutations. B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. C. removing the drug from the cell when it enters.
C
61. Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except A. overuse of antibiotics. B. improper use of antibiotics. C. multiple drug therapy. D. ingestion of antibiotics with animal feed. E. addition of antibiotics to common household products.
C
75. Which two antibiotics affect nucleic acids of bacteria? A. tetracycline and amphotericin B B. trimethoprim and sulfonamides C. rifampin and quinolones D. tetracycline and bacitracin E. penicillin and vancomycin
C
9. Selective toxicity refers to damage to A. pathogenic organisms. B. prokaryotic cell membranes. C. the target organisms but not vertebrate cells. D. nucleic acids.
C
93. The patient has a staphylococcal infection of the blood, a septicemia--very serious and possibly deadly. As the doctor, you would like to prescribe a relatively non-toxic and inexpensive drug out of the cephalosporin family. However, if the patient harbors a strain of Staphylococcus that is resistant to a variety of antibiotics, you would prefer to use vancomycin-- which is highly effective against Staphylococcus. Which of the following explains why the cephalosporin drug is preferred for use over the vancomycin? A. You would rather give an inexpensive drug to save the family money. B. You really do not know that much about vancomycin, so you would rather go with a drug that you can find out more about. C. Vancomycin is very toxic, and the Staphylococcus strain could become resistant leaving no back-up drugs with which to treat the infection. D. Vancomycin is one of the most selectively toxic drugs there is, so you would prefer one that has a more broad-spectrum effect.
C
96. Your patient has been on antibiotics for 6 weeks after a case of streptococcal endocarditis, an infection of the inner heart wall. The infection clears up. However, the patient just visited you about a urinary tract infection, and the lab verified that the culprit was E. coli. What do you hypothesize happened in this situation? A. The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and, in fact, the UTI was caused by the original Streptococcus. B. The lab has made a mistake in identifying the cause, and, in fact, the endocarditis was caused by the E. coli. C. Her normal microbiota in the genitourinary tract were killed, allowing E. coli (not killed by the antibiotics) to establish an infection. D. The antibiotics damaged her immune system, making her very susceptible to environmental bacteria.
C
2. Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed A. antibiotics. B. narrow-spectrum drugs. C. semisynthetic drugs. D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs.
E
23. All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except A. have a beta-lactam ring. B. greater resistance to beta-lactamases. C. newer generations have activity against gram-negative bacteria. D. many administered by injection, not orally. E. are synthetic drugs.
E
4. Important characteristics of antimicrobial drugs include A. low toxicity for human tissues. B. high toxicity against microbial cells. C. do not cause serious side effects in humans. D. stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids. E. All of the choices are correct.
E
45. The drug used for several protozoan infections is A. nystatin. B. griseofulvin. C. amphotericin B. D. sulfa drugs. E. metronidazole.
E
56. The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobials include A. bacterial chromosomal mutations. B. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. C. prevention of drug entry into the cell. D. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. E. All of the choices are correct.
E
58. Microbial resistance resulting from mutation occurs because A. prokaryotic genomes undergo mutation rapidly. B. prokaryotic genomes undergo mutation often. C. short generation times accumulate mutations in populations. D. mutations are passed between organisms. E. All of the choices are correct.
E
71. A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the A. Kirby-Bauer technique. B. antibiogram. C. E-test. D. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). E. therapeutic index (TI).
E
8. Penicillins and cephalosporins A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
E
29. The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold A. Penicillium notatum. B. Penicilium chrysogenum. C. Penicilium familiaris. D. Naturally produced penicillin is no longer used.
B
30. What antibiotic is mixed with neomycin and polymyxin to make an antibiotic ointment (Neosporin) for superficial skin infections? A. vancomycin B. bacitracin C. chloramphenicol D. streptomycin E. clindamycin
B
33. Which of these drugs has the most narrow-spectrum activity? A. tetracycline B. isoniazid C. erythromycin D. aminoglycosides E. cephalosporins
B
43. Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections. A. bacterial B. fungal C. protozoan D. helminthic E. viral
B
40. All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except A. broad spectrum. B. include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin. C. are nephrotoxic. D. used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections. E. readily absorbed from intestines.
C
10. Each of the following effect cell walls except A. penicillin. B. cycloserine. C. vancomycin. D. erythromycin. E. cephalosporin.
D
13. Antibiotics which disrupt prokaryotic ribosomes can also affect A. eukaryotic large ribosomal subunit. B. eukaryotic small ribosomal subunit. C. ribosomal RNA. D. eukaryotic mitochondrial ribosomes.
D
17. Sulfa drugs work on A. nucleic acid biosynthesis. B. ribosome biosynthesis. C. peptidoglycan biosynthesis. D. folic acid biosynthesis.
D
46. Mebendazole, thiabendazole, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections. A. bacterial B. fungal C. protozoan D. helminthic E. viral
D
80. Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections.
FALSE
59. Each of the following results in drug resistance except a drug A. being pumped out of the cell. B. being used as a nutrient by the cell. C. binding site being altered. D. being inactivated. E. being blocked from entering the cell.
B
1. Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy bacteria are called A. antibiotics. B. narrow-spectrum drugs. C. semisynthetic drugs. D. synthetic drugs. E. broad-spectrum drugs.
A
20. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have A. a beta-lactam ring. B. resistance to the action of penicillinase. C. a semisynthetic nature. D. an expanded spectrum of activity.
A
24. Which antimicrobial does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? A. gentamicin B. vancomycin C. cephalosporins D. penicillins E. carbapenems
A
28. All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring, a beta-lactam ring, and an R group. A. penicillins B. tetracyclines C. macrolides D. cephalosporins E. aminoglycosides
A
35. The drug that is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses, but can cause aplastic anemia, is: A. chloramphenicol. B. clindamycin. C. ciprofloxacin. D. bacitracin. E. gentamicin.
A
44. Which of the following is not a drug group used to treat fungal infections? A. quinolones B. macrolide polyene antibiotics C. griseofulvin D. synthetic azoles E. flucytosine
A
73. A drug exhibiting which therapeutic index value would be the safest, most effective to use on a patient? A. 20 B. 10 C. 1 D. 0.1 E. Any choice would be equally effective.
A
94. You have given a dosage of an antibiotic to a patient for his infection, but the patient is not getting any better. The MIC tests shows that the drug that you prescribed, at the dosage that was given, should work against this particular strain of bacterium. What do you think might be the problem? A. The drug might be broken down in the patient's body before it can have its full effect on the bacterium. B. The patient is resistant to the drug. C. The bacterium is immune to the chemical effects of the drug. D. The drug was improperly made at the pharmaceutical company, so is no longer effective.
A
95. Alexander Fleming had been running tests using Staphylococcus, and left some plates out to incubate. Evidently, after returning to his lab after the weekend, he found that Penicillium mold was growing on his agar plates containing the growth of Staphylococcus. Looking more closely, he found a large, clear area around the mold colony where Staphylococcus colonies did not grow. Given this situation, a valid hypothesis would be that: A. The Staphylococcus was being inhibited by the Penicillium mold. B. The Penicillium mold was being killed by the Staphylococcus. C. The bacteriological medium being used in the plates was somehow inhibitory to the Staphylococcus growth. D. The room temperature incubation was inhibitory to the growth of Staphylococcus.
A
63. The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of A. prebiotics. B. probiotics. C. lantibiotics. D. phytobiotics.E. riboswitches.
B
16. Sulfonamides A. interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan. B. are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C. attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D. damage cell membranes. E. block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.
B
22. What type of chemical will allow some bacteria to be resistant to many penicillins? A. synercid B. penicillinase C. aztreonam D. clavulanic acid E. imipenem
B
26. What drug is used in cases of penicillin and methicillin resistance and also used to treat endocarditis? A. penicillin G B. vancomycin C. tetracycline D. erythromycin E. isoniazid
B
39. Which group are the key drugs used to treat Hansen's disease (leprosy)? A. sulfonamides B. sulfones C. fluoroquinolones D. polymyxins E. streptomyces
B
5. An ideal antimicrobial therapeutic drug exhibits all of the following characteristics except A. nontoxic to host. B. easily broken down by host. C. easily administered. D. limited capacity to elicit resistance. E. nonallergenic.
B
52. Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by: A. influenza A virus. B. HIV. C. herpes zoster virus. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. hepatitis C virus.
B
55. Which of the following is not a therapeutic benefit of interferon? A. reduces healing time B. increases white blood cell count C. prevents or reduces some cold symptoms D. slows progress of some cancers E. treats hepatitis C
B
18. Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis. A. protein B. DNA C. RNA D. folic acid E. phospholipid
D
21. A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is A. synercid. B. penicillinase. C. aztreonam. D. clavulanic acid. E. imipenem.
D
32. Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis? A. aminoglycosides B. tetracyclines C. erythromycin D. trimethroprim E. chloramphenicol
D
37. Which of the following antibacterial drug groups does not target protein synthesis? A. oxazolidinones B. macrolides C. aminoglycosides D. sulfonamides E. tetracyclines
D
41. Which of the following is not true of polymyxins? A. source is Bacillus polymyxa B. narrow spectrum C. toxic to kidneys D. target cell walls E. can treat severe urinary tract infections caused by gram-negative bacilli
D
48. Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of ___ infections. A. gram-positive bacterial B. gram-negative bacterial C. fungal D. protozoan E. viral
D
54. Which of the following blocks HIV binding to host cell receptors? A. AZT B. acyclovir C. nevirapine D. Fuzeon E. amantidine
D
70. A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobials in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? A. Kirby-Bauer technique B. antibiogram C. E-test D. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) test E. therapeutic index (TI)
D
97. In a conversation with your friends from microbiology class, you are talking about drug resistance. The three of you disagree about the definition of the term so each of you state his or her definition and give a justification. Compare the various definitions and justifications below and pick the one that is most accurate. A. The bacterium becomes immune to the drug: the drug no longer kills or inhibits the bacterium. B. The person becomes resistant to the drug: The body adjusts to the dosage of the chemical and no longer responds to its action. C. The drug is changed in the body and is inactivated physically and chemically so it no longer works properly against the bacterium. D. The bacterium has changed physically or chemically in some way to be able to destroy the drug or avoid its action, allowing it to grow unimpeded by the drug.
D
83. When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection.
FALSE
84. Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.
FALSE
87. An antimicrobial with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index.
FALSE
88. It is better to use a broad-spectrum drug instead of a more specific, narrow-spectrum drug.
FALSE
89. Newer, more expensive antimicrobials are always better to use than cheaper, older drugs.
FALSE
92. Drug toxicity occurs when an antimicrobial drug acts as antigen and stimulates an allergic response.
FALSE
76. Antimicrobial drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis work with no side effects because mammals must get folic acid from their diet.
TRUE
78. An antibiotic of the penicillin family is penicillin G.
TRUE
79. The first modern antimicrobial drugs were sulfa drugs.
TRUE
81. Resistance genes can be transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation.
TRUE
82. Bacteria can have a natural resistance to a drug which they have never been exposed.
TRUE
85. The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobial required to inhibit the growth of the microbe.
TRUE
86. The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.
TRUE
90. Indwelling catheter biofilm infections are more resistant to antibiotics than nonbiofilm infections.
TRUE
91. The use of antibiotics in cattle feed leads to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
TRUE