microbiology final exam
A bumble bee helps pollinate a snapdragon. In this relationship, the snapdragon receives pollination help from the bee so it can reproduce, and the bee obtains the pollen. This relationship can be described as: A) Synergistic. B) Antagonistic. C) Parasitism. D) Commensalism.
A
A group of scientists have found microbes on a subject's skin that aren't part of the subject's normal microbiota. How would you describe these unusual microbes? A) Transient microbiota. B) Virulent microbiota. C) Resident microbiota. D) Infectious microbiota.
A
An inhaled bacterial pathogen gets trapped in the saliva of your mouth and its cell wall begins to degrade. Which of the following could be responsible for the cell wall degradation? A) Lysozyme B) Transferrin C) Interferons D) Adaptive Immunity
A
Arrange the types of symbiosis from most beneficial to both parties, to least beneficial to both parties. A) Mutualism, commensalism, parasitism. B) Commensalism, mutualism, parasitism. C) Synergism, commensalism, mutualism. D) Commensalism, mutualism, parasitism.
A
Chemotherapeutic treatment for cancerous growth can cause immunosuppression, inflammation of the digestive tract lining, and hair loss. In this case, these symptoms are the result of a/n: A) Iatrogenic disease. B) Idiopathic disease. C) Immunological disease. D) Neoplastic disease.
A
Explain the process of Phagocytosis in its correct order. A) Phagocytic cells at infection site release chemokines to attract more phagocytes which then attach to the site via chemotaxis. Phagocytes recognize invading microbes through TLRs that specialize in recognizing unique molecular patterns. These invaders are surrounded by pseudopodia to for an internal cytoplasmic vacuole to digest the invader. B) Phagocytes recognize invading microbes through TLRs that specialize in recognizing unique molecular patterns. These invaders are surrounded by pseudopodia to for an internal cytoplasmic vacuole to digest the invader. Phagocytic cells at infection site release chemokines to attract more phagocytes which then attach to the site via chemotaxis. C) Phagocytic cells at infection site release chemokines to attract more phagocytes which then attach to the site via chemotaxis. These invaders are surrounded by pseudopodia to for an internal cytoplasmic vacuole to digest the invader. Phagocytes recognize invading microbes through TLRs that specialize in recognizing unique molecular patterns. D) Phagocytes recognize invading microbes through TLRs that specialize in recognizing unique molecular patterns. Phagocytic cells at infection site release chemokines to attract more phagocytes which then attach to the site via chemotaxis. These invaders are surrounded by pseudopodia to for an internal cytoplasmic vacuole to digest the invader
A
Hospitals require that all of their staff go through extensive training to learn techniques of good hand hygiene, aseptic technique, and appropriate isolation of contagious diseases both in themselves and in their patients. What types of infections are the hospital trying to prevent that is very prevalent in hospitals? A) Nonsocomial infections. B) Fomites. C) Notifiable diseases. D) Placebos.
A
How did Esherichia coli get the DNA that encodes Shiga toxins (STX), and what evidence is there to support this hypothesis? A) Transduction. The DNA encoding the toxin genes is more closely related to the toxin genes regularly found in a prophage in Shigella flexneri. The remainder of E. coli DNA is most closely related to other E. coli genomes, and therefore does not contain Shigella DNA that might've been transferred through Conjugation or Transformation. B) Conjugation. The genome of E. coli O157:H7 is a mixture of E. coli and Shigella flexneri genomes. There are more Shigella genes in E. coli O157:H7 than one would expect if DNA was transferred by transduction or transformation. C) Transformation. The genome of E. coli O157:H7 is made up of pieces of E. coli and Shigella flexneri . There are more Shigella genes in E. coli O157:H7 than one would expect if DNA was transferred by transduction, and less genes in E. coli O157:H7 than one would expect if DNA was transferred by conjugation. D) There is not enough information to choose one form of DNA transfer over the other.
A
How to endotoxins and exotoxins differ? A) Endotoxins are released from bacteria when they die and exotoxins are secreted by live cells. B) Exotoxins are released from bacteria when they die and endotoxins are secreted by live cells. C) Endotoxins remain in the bacterial cell wall of live bacteria and can cause damage; exotoxins are secreted by live bacteria in order to do damage to the host. D) Exotoxins remain in the bacterial cell wall of live bacteria and can cause damage; endotoxins are secreted by live bacteria in order to do damage to the host.
A
If you wanted to develop a vaccine to enterohemorrhagic Esherichia coli, what would you choose as your target antigen? A) An epitope of the shiga toxin. B) An epitope of the membrane porins. C) An epitope of the membrane lipopolysaccharides. D) An epitope of the cell wall peptidoglycans.
A
In 2010 the world population size was 6,900 million people; approximately 34 million people lived with HIV and 1.8 million people died of HIV. What was the morbidity rate of HIV in 2010? A) 34 million / 6,900 million B) 1.8 million / 6,900 million C) 1.8 million / 34 million D) (1.8 million + 34 million) / 6,900 million
A
In interferon cell-signalling, the binding of interferon to a membrane receptor, causes intracellular proteins in that same cell to travel to the nucleus and bind to the promoter regions of interferon-stimulated genes (ISG). A result of this binding causes an increase in ISG transcription. Based on this, you can say that ISG transcription is under: A) Positive regulation. B) Negative regulation. C) Operon regulation. D) None of the above
A
Infection is defined as: A) The multiplication of any parasitic organism within or on the host's body. B) A disturbance in the state of health wherein the body cannot carry out all of its normal functions. C) When microorganisms are present. D) The living together of unlike organisms.
A
It is possible for people with HIV to not experience any symptoms for long periods of time, and during this time may pass the virus unknowingly. In which stage of disease development are these people varying response to the virus? A) The incubation stage. B) The prodromal stage. C) The invasive stage. D) The decline stage.
A
Microbes that produce antimicrobial chemicals that inhibit the growth of other microorganisms are exhibiting what type of behavior? A) Antagonism. B) Synergism. C) Mutualism. D) Parasitism.
A
Recently scientists have made a "super Salmonella" bacterium that is hyperinfectious and among the most virulent Salmonella spp. ever reported. They did this by using the technique of passaging Salmonella through many mice hosts. We previously talked about this same technique which is used to significantly lessen a microbe's virulence in creating vaccines. What is the name of the process that we have previously discussed that uses the same technique in creating this super Salmonella"? A) Attenuation. B) Whole cell vaccines. C) Killed cells or inactivated viruses. D) Immunization.
A
Sally accidentally splashed some Clostridium tetani (the causative agent of tetanus) on her lab notebook and bare arm while working in her microbiology lab. How would you describe the current and physical relationship between Sally and Clostridium tetani? A) Sally is contaminated with Clostridium tetani. B) Sally is infected with Clostridium tetani. C) Sally is diseased with Clostridium tetani. D) Sally is one up on Clostridium tetani.
A
Salmonella enterica causes the food poisoning called salmonellosis. Different varieties of S. enterica are classified based on their lipopolysaccharide and flagellar antigens. Based on this, which antigens are used to classify varieties of S. enterica? (a) Antigens O and H (b) Antigens O and F (c) Antigens H and F (d) Antigens K and H
A
Salmonella enterica uses adhesins, Type III Secretion Systems, and toxins to invade and proliferate in its host. What kind of characteristics are adhesins, Type III Secretion Systems, and toxins considered in S. enterica? (a) Virulence factors. (b) Attenuated characteristics. (c) Antibodies. (d) Prodromal characteristics
A
Salmonellosis is caused by the bacterium Salmonella enterica. This bacterium is commonly transmitted to humans via cattle and poultry, and to a lesser extent via domestic cats, hamsters and vacuum cleaner bags. When transferred via cattle it is said to be transferred via a/n _______. A) Biological vector. B) Fomite. C) Mechanical vector. D) Aerosol.
A
Suppose that the health department of city A mounts a successful campaign to get children immunized against measles. Only 100 out of 10,000 children fail to receive the vaccine. Now suppose that a second city of the same size, city B, has not carried out a successful measles vaccination program. Of 10,000 children in city B 5,000 had measles when the disease last struck the population. Which city has the higher herd immunity? A) City A, after the immunizations. B) City A, before the immunizations. C) City B, before the measles outbreak. D) City B, after the measles outbreak.
A
Type 1 Diabetes in many cases is associated with particular human genotypes. In this case, Type 1 Diabetes is also considered a/n: A) Inherited disease. B) Congenital disease. C) Immunological disease. D) Neoplastic disease.
A
What are cytokines? A) Small proteins secreted by cells that play a role in cell-signaling. B) They digest invading microbes. C) They bind iron, a limited resource for pathogenic bacteria which use it as a co-factor. D) They kill bacteria by causing pores in bacterial cell walls.
A
What do you call the method in which a microbe is subjected to a process that substantially lessens or negates its virulence? A) Lysogenic conversion. B) Attenuation. C) Transposal of virulence. D) Acme
A
What is a nosocomial Infection? A) An infection acquired in a hospital or other medical facility. B) Infectious diseases that are potentially harmful to the public's health and must be reported by physicians, in the U.S. C) Infections passed through direct fecal-oral transmission. D) Infections passed through vertical transmission.
A
What is a pathogen? A) A microbe that can cause disease is a susceptible individual. B) The degree of ability of a microbe to cause disease in another organism. C) The colonization of an organism by a microorganism - with or without disease. D) The capacity of microbes to cause disease
A
What is epidemiology? A) The study of factors and mechanisms involved in the frequency and spread of diseases and other health-related problems within populations of human, other animals, or plants. B) The assignment, or study, of causes of disease. C) The total number of people infected with a give disease within the population at any time. D) The number of new disease cases contracted within a set population during a specific period of time.
A
What is the difference between a vector and a fomite? A) A vector is alive and a fomite is non-living. B) A vector is non-living and a fomite is living. C) A vector is a cloud of tiny liquid droplets suspended in air, and a fomite is a particle of dried mucus with embedded microorganisms. D) A famine is a cloud of tiny liquid droplets suspended in air, and a vector is a particle of dried mucus with embedded microorganisms.
A
Willy is a microbiologist obsessed with fungi. He is particularly fond of studying the symbiotic relationship between Monotropa uniflora (a flowering plant), fungi, and trees. Monotropa uniflora does not photosynthesize, and gains all of its nutrition by tapping in to the fungus, which is living mycorrhizally with the trees. What kind of symbiont is Monotropa uniflora? A) A synergist. B) A mutualist. C) A dualist. D) A parasite.
A
You decide that you want to develop a vaccine for the Ebola virus. Which of the following virion parts will you choose to focus on in order to maximize the vaccine effectiveness? A) The envelope glycoprotein that aids in attaching the virion to the host cell. B) The proteins associated with the viral genome. C) The envelope phospholipids (which is taken from the host membrane as the virion escapes).
A
Which of the following is characteristic of the prodromal stage of infectious diseases? A) This is the time between infection and the appearance of symptoms. B) This is a short period of time during which nonspecific and often mild symptoms appear. C) This is the period during which an individual experiences the typical signs and symptoms of the disease. D) This is the time during which the host's defenses and the effects of any treatment overcome the pathogen
B
Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector of disease? A) The Anopheles sp. mosquito. B) Mosquitoes that transmit disease on their feet. C) A rusty nail. D) A dirty handkerchief.
B
Which of the following is false of endotoxins and exotoxins? A) Both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria can produce exotoxins. B) Endotoxins are some of the most powerful toxins, acting in low concentrations. C) Almost all endotoxins are produced by Gram negative bacteria. D) Exotoxins are mostly polypeptides and endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides
B
Which of the following is not true about the virulence factor coagulase? A) It keeps microorganisms from spreading. B) It increases the likelihood of exposure to host immune defenses. C) It accelerates coagulation or clotting of host blood. D) Streptokinase can counteract the effects of coagulase
B
Which of the following is the antigen for bacterial capsules? A) The O-antigen. B) The K-antigen. C) The H-antigen. D) The F-antigen
B
Which of the following is true of coagulase? A) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to digest host tissues. B) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to coagulate blood cells. C) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to dissolve blood clots. D) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to survive attenuation.
B
Which of the following leukocytes are good at recognizing the signals on the outside of invading cells, and are good at targeting bacteria, bacterial toxins and extracellular viruses? A) A cells. B) B cells. C) D cells. D) T cells.
B
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of how T-cells recognize non-self and induce an immune response? A) They must first be activated by an antigen-presenting cell. B) T-cells are activated directly by recognizing epitopes on invading cells. C) Antigen-presenting cells release cytokines which help T-cells to mature. D) Once T-cells are activated, they release cytokines which help in attracting macrophages.
B
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of the cell-mediated immune response? A) It is mediated by T-cells. B) It is mediated by B-cells. C) The cells can recognize antigens embedded in the invader's cell membrane as well as inside. D) It involves cells that can target intracellular pathogens.
B
Which of the following is NOT an Esherichia coli O157:H7 virulence factor? A) Acid resistance gene products. B) Peptidoglycan gene products. C) Periplasmic catalase. D) Flagellin proteins
B
Which of the following statements describes virulence? A) A microbe that can cause disease is a susceptible individual. B) The degree of ability in a microbe to cause disease in another organism. C) The colonization of an organism by a microorganism - with or without disease. D) The capacity of microbes to cause disease.
B
Which of these statements is FALSE? A) The body takes longer to respond in the primary exposure to a pathogen than it does to the secondary exposure to that same pathogen. B) The immune response during a secondary exposure to a pathogen is stronger than that of the first response. C) The secondary exposure to a pathogen has a lag phase between exposure and immune response. D) The lag phase between exposure to a pathogen and an immune response is called the latent period.
C
Describe the similarities and differences between infection and disease. A) Infection is simply the stage before the disease stage. B) Infection is what happens when a pathogen invades an animal host and disease is what occurs when a pathogen invades a human host. C) Infection is the multiplication of a parasitic organism within a host's body and disease is the disturbance of the human body's normal functions. D) None of the above
C
Host's recognize invading microorganisms by their microbial _____, to which hosts respond by producing _____ which bind specifically to microbial ____. A) antigens; epitopes; antibodies. B) antibodies; antibodies; epitopes. C) antigens; antibodies; epitopes. D) antibodies; epitopes, antibodies.
C
How do T cells become activated? A) When they release antibodies that match a specific antigen on an invading cell. B) When they are exposed to an endotoxin and they become cytotoxic. C) When they are presented with the antigen of an invader cell that is on a macrophage or other phagocytic cell. D) None of the above are correct. T cells are always active.
C
How would you describe the prevalence of a disease? A) The study of factors and mechanisms involved in the frequency and spread of diseases and other health-related problems within populations of human, other animals, or plants. B) The assignment, or study, of causes of disease. C) The total number of people infected with a given disease within the population at any time. D) The number of new disease cases contracted within a set population during a specific period of time
C
Interferons released from virus-infected cells aid uninfected human cells in resisting viral infection by: A) Changing gene expression to manipulate cell wall construction and resist viral attachment. B) Changing gene expression to trigger cytokine release thereby attracting lymphocytes to destroy the virion. C) Changing gene expression to initiate production of antiviral proteins which interfere with viral replication. D) Changing gene expression to alter the acid base balance of the cell cytoplasm and denature the virion.
C
Sally has the stomach flu and is experiencing symptoms of stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, and low-grade fever. Which infectious disease stage does this correspond with? A) Convalescence period B) Incubation period C) Invasive phase D) Prodromal phase
C
Some pathogens require iron as a cofactor for enzymatic action, and iron is found bound to hemoglobin in human blood cells. What chemical defense produced in the human body will act to prevent pathogens from acquiring iron from human blood? A) Sweat. B) Lysozyme. C) Transferrin. D) Defensins.
C
The glycoproteins found on fimbriae and capsules that enable bacteria to stick to host receptors are called: A) Lipopolysaccharides. B) Exotoxins. C) Adhesins. D) Coagulins
C
The short period in the stages of disease infection during which non-specific and often mild symptoms occur and an individual can be contagious is known as the: A) incubation stage. B) invasive stage. C) prodromal stage. D) convalescence stage.
C
Transposal of virulence and attenuation are two useful techniques for: A) Producing antibiotics. B) Producing antiseptics. C) Reducing an organism's pathogenicity towards a host. D) Producing vaccines.
C
Type 1 Diabetes can be caused by an autoimmune response when an individual's T-cells start attacking its own body's cells. This is an example of a/n: A) Inherited disease. B) Congenital disease. C) Immunological disease. D) Neoplastic disease.
C
What role do cytokines in the human body? A) They are important for regulating blood pressure. B) They act as a defense against infection by transporting proteins between cell.s C) They act as a defense against infection by playing a role in cell-signaling. D) They prevent neighboting cells from becoming infected by viruses
C
When John Snow investigated the London cholera outbreak of 1854, he took note of the number of cases of a disease, which segments of the population were affected, where the cases occurred, and over what time period. What kind of study does this describe? A) Conclusive B) Analytic C) Descriptive D) Experimental
C
Which of the following describes a parasitic relationships between two symbiotic organisms (symbionts)? A) Barnacles attach themselves to scallops, yet provide no benefit or harm to the scallop. B) In lichens, fungi provide a novel place for algae to live, and algae provide photosynthates/food to the fungus. C) Lice who suck blood from their dolphin hosts. D) The forty-fifth and forty-ninth presidents of the U.S.A.
C
Which of the following describes an epidemiologic study? A) A study that focuses on establishing cause-and-effect relationships in the occurrence of diseases in populations. B) A study that designs experiments to test a hypothesis often about the value of a particular treatment. C) A study conducted in order to learn more about the spread of a disease in a population. D) An epidemiologic study that notes the number of cases of a disease, which segments of the population are affected, where the cases have occurred, and over what time period.
C
Which of the following describes parasitic relationships between two symbiotic organisms (symbionts)? A) One organism benefits and the second organisms barely is helped or harmed. B) When each symbiont benefits from the other organism's proximity. C) When one organism benefits from the relationship to the detriment of the second organism. D) Two organisms that never interact over space and time.
C
Which of the following innate host defenses are considered cellular barriers? A) The skin and mucous membranes. B) Sweat, sebum, stomach acid and lysozymes. C) Leucocytes, including phagocytes. D) Inflammation and fever.
C
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of the adaptive immune response? A) It involves recognition of self and non-self. B) It involves specificity. C) It involves the same response to all invading cells. D) It involves cell-memory.
C
Which of the following is NOT a stage in an infectious disease? A) Convalescence. B) Invasive. C) Recontamination. C) Incubation.
C
Which of the following is characteristic of the invasive stage of infectious diseases? A) This is the time between infection and the appearance of symptoms. B) This is a short period of time during which nonspecific and often mild symptoms appear. C) This is the period during which an individual experiences the typical signs and symptoms of the disease. D) This is the time during which the host's defenses and the effects of any treatment overcome the pathogen
C
Which of the following is the best description of hyaluronidase? A) An enzyme produced by hyaluronic acid which aids in digestion. B) An enzyme produced by bacteria which helps hold connective tissue together. C) An enzyme produced by bacteria which digests hyaluronic acid and makes tissues more accessible to microbes. D) An enzyme produced by hyaluronic acid which digests bacteria and helps to defend against them.
C
Which of the following is true of streptokinase? A) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to digest host tissues. B) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to coagulate blood cells. C) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to dissolve blood clots. D) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to survive attenuation.
C
Amy just got done hanging out with her friend who has chicken pox and tells her friend about the time she had chicken pox too. Amy goes home and ends up not getting infected with chicken pox. How is this possible? A) She got treatment from her Doctor. B) Amy's pores close up when exposed to chicken pox. C) Both a and b. D) Amy is immune to chicken pox due to Adaptive immunity
D
Which kinds of study (studies) did the CDC scientists in "The Band Played On" carry out when trying to determine the cause of AIDS? A) An epidemiologic study. B) A descriptive study. C) An analytic study. D) All of the above.
D
Which of the following IS NOT true of leukocytes involved in adaptive immunity? A) They are found in B - and T - cells. B) Different leukocytes target different kinds of invading cells. C) They are involved in the humoral and cell-mediated immune responses. D) They are found in equal concentrations throughout the human body.
D
Which of the following are examples of virulence factors? A) Adhesion mechanisms. B) Enzymes that help a microbe evade host immunity. C) Toxins that directly cause disease. D) All of the above.
D
Which of the following are functions of the Lymphatic System? A) Provide many of the innate and adaptive defense mechanisms against infection and disease. B) Collect excess fluid from the spaces between body cells. C) Transport digested fats to the cardiovascular system. D) All of the above.
D
Which of the following are virulence factors of the Ebola virus, that we covered in class? A) Glycoproteins embedded in the envelope. B) The protein VP24, which is embedded in the envelope, and suppresses interferon production. C) The ability to cause the host to overproduce cytokines. D) All of the above.
D
Which of the following describes Escherichia coli? A) It is a Gram-negative, bacillus shaped, bacterium. B) It has peritrichous arrangement of flagella. C) It was originally named in the Latin, "Bacteria coli commune", the common colon bacillus. D) All of the above.
D
Which of the following describes a descriptive study? A) A study that focuses on establishing cause-and-effect relationships in the occurrence of diseases in populations. B) A study that designs experiments to test a hypothesis often about the value of a particular treatment. C) A study conducted in order to learn more about the spread of a disease in a population. D) An epidemiologic study that notes the number of cases of a disease, which segments of the population are affected, where the cases have occurred, and over what time period.
D
Which of the following elements in Esherichia coli O157:H7 can elicit an immune response in humans? A) O-antigens in the LPS. B) K-antigens in the capsule. C) F-antigen in the fimbriae. D) All of the above.
D
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of cytokines? A) They are chemical signals released by phagocytes. B) They help phagocytes mount a defensive response. C) Chemokines are a class of cytokines that attract additional phagocytes to the site of infection. D) They protect the cells who are producing them from viral infection
D
Which of the following is NOT considered a vector of disease? A) The Anopheles sp. mosquito. B) Arachnid ticks. C) Fleas and lice. D) A dirty handkerchief.
D
What is the morbidity rate of a disease? A) The number of individuals affected by a disease during a set period in relation to the total number in the population. B) The percentage of deaths in a population from a specific disease. C) The total number of people infected with a give disease within the population at any time. D) The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases contracted within a set population during a specific period of time.
A
When Ebola virus proteins interfere with the host's cells ability to produce and respond to interferons, the virus is said to interfer with the host cell's: A) Innate immunity. B) Adaptive immunity. C) Ability to detect epitopes. D) Ability to produce cytotoxic T cells.
A
When Sarah came home from school she complained of very itchy eyes with discharge. Her mom took her to the doctor, who diagnosed her with Pink-Eye. Sarah was told to take an antibiotic treatment for this highly contagious disease, and to stay away from school until it had cleared. How would you describe Sarah's disease? As a: A) Communicable infectious disease. B) Noncommunicable infectious disease. C) Noninfectious disease. D) Chronic disease.
A
When your cells are injured they release chemical signals that induce inflammation. This is an example of: A) An innate immune response. B) An adaptive immune response. C) A pyrogenic response. D) An immunogenic response.
A
Which is the best definition of an immune system? A) A series of bodily functions that act to defend an organism from infectious agents. B) A bodily system made up of microorganisms that help protect it from infection. C) A combination of bacteria and viruses which help protect humans from infection. D) None of the above
A
Which of the following DOES NOT describe how Esherichia coli can take up foreign DNA? A) Transfusion. B) Transduction. C) Transformation. D) Conjugation.
A
Which of the following describes a commensalistic relationship between two symbiotic organisms (symbionts)? A) Barnacles attach themselves to scallops, yet provide no benefit or harm to the scallop. B) In lichens, fungi provide a novel place for algae to live, and algae provide photosynthates/food to the fungus. C) Lice who suck blood from their dolphin hosts. D) The forty-fifth and forty-ninth presidents of the U.S.A.
A
Which of the following describes an analytic study? A) A study that focuses on establishing cause-and-effect relationships in the occurrence of diseases in populations. B) A study that designs experiments to test a hypothesis often about the value of a particular treatment. C) A study conducted in order to learn more about the spread of a disease in a population. D) An epidemiologic study that notes the number of cases of a disease, which segments of the population are affected, where the cases have occurred, and over what time period.
A
Which of the following describes commensalistic relationships between two symbiotic organisms (symbionts)? A) One organism benefits and the second organisms barely is helped or harmed. B) When each symbiont benefits from the other organism's proximity. C) When one organism benefits from the relationship to the detriment of the second organism. D) Two organisms that never interact over space and time
A
Which of the following innate host defenses are considered physical barriers? A) The skin and mucous membranes. B) Sweat, sebum, stomach acid and lysozymes. C) Leucocytes, including phagocytes. D) Inflammation and fever.
A
Which of the following is characteristic of the incubation stage of infectious diseases? A) This is the time between infection and the appearance of symptoms. B) This is a short period of time during which nonspecific and often mild symptoms appear. C) This is the period during which an individual experiences the typical signs and symptoms of the disease. D) This is the time during which the host's defenses and the effects of any treatment overcome the pathogen.
A
Which of the following is considered a biological vector of disease? A) An Anopheles sp. mosquito that transmits disease through saliva. B) Mosquitoes that transmit disease on their feet. C) A rusty nail. D) A dirty handkerchief.
A
Which of the following is true of Hyaluronidase? A) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to digest host tissues. B) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to coagulate blood cells. C) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to dissolve blood clots. D) It is an enzyme and virulence factor that allows bacteria to survive attenuation.
A
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE concerning endotoxins? A) They are present in both gram-negative and gram positive bacteria. B) They are enzymes that are released when bacterium die or sometimes when they divide. C) Endotoxins are found in bacterial cell walls that contain LPS. D) If antibiotics are administered, there is a heavy release of endotoxins which can potentially cause death.
A
Which part of an antibody recognizes its specific antigen? A) The variable region. B) The constant region. C) The heavy chains. D) The light chains.
A
Why are lactoferrin and transferrin important chemical defenses? A) Because they bind iron, a limited resource for pathogenic bacteria which use it as a co-factor. B) Because they bind oxygen, a toxin to pathogenic anaerobic bacteria. C) Because they lower the pH of the skin. D) Because they kill bacteria by causing pores in bacterial cell walls.
A
Why is chickenpox considered an endemic disease in the U.S. of A.? A) Because it is constantly present in the U.S.A. B) Because it has spread world-wide. C) Because it goes through fluctuating periods of extremely high and low incidence. D) Because it appeared only recently in the world-wide population and has an unexpectedly high incidence rate.
A
Why is having a microbiota important to the development of a healthy human immune system? A) It allows humans and animals to build a strong immune system. B) It allows humans and animals to build a strong digestive system. C) It allows humans and animals to have a decrease in the production of B cells. D) It allows humans and animals to have a decrease in the number of B. fragilis bacteria.
A
A mother with H.I.V. gives birth to a child who later is diagnosed with A.I.D.S. How would you describe this disease? A) An idiopathic disease. B) A congenital disease. C) A neoplastic disease. D) An inherited disease.
B
At what point of the infectious disease process are the disease symptoms at their greatest intensity? A) The prodromal. B) The acme. C) The invasive. D) The convalescence.
B
Different strains of Esherichia coli are referred to by a nomenclature that uses O and H (for example O104:H4 and O157:H7). The different O and H numbers refer to: A) different epitopes of the peptidoglycans and the teichoic acids. B) different epitopes of the O-antigen and the flagellum. C) different antibodies of the O-antigen and the flagellum. D) different antibodies of the peptidoglycans and the teichoic acids.
B
Disease is defined as: A) The multiplication of any parasitic organism within or on the host's body. B) A disturbance in the state of health wherein the body cannot carry out all of its normal functions. C) When microorganisms are present. D) The living together of unlike organisms.
B
Enterohemorrhagic Esherichia coli releases shiga toxins when they are stressed or die. What kind of virulence effector is the shiga toxin? A) Exotoxin. B) Endotoxin. C) Adhesin. D) Streptokinase.
B
How come the presence of the bacterium Bacterioides fragilis in the large intestine can prevent colitis which would otherwise be produced when the bacterium Helicobacter hepaticus is present? A) Because B.fragilis produces a toxin that kills Helicobacter hepaticus. B) Because the presence of B.fragilis insures that an overproduction of cytokines will not be produced by T-helper cells, as usually happens when H. hepaticus is present in the absence of B. fragilis. C) Because B.fragilis overproduces cytokines which will lead to macrophages attacking H. hepaticus and destroying it. D) Because B.fragilis destroys the overproduction of cytokines produced by H. hepaticus, which normally leads to colitis.
B
If you are studying the etiology of a disease, you are looking for the: A) Number of people who have the disease. B) Cause or origin of the disease. C) Number of new cases of the disease. D) The number of deaths from the disease.
B
In 2010 the world population size was 6,900 million people; approximately 34 million people lived with HIV and 1.8 million people died of HIV. What was the mortality rate of HIV in 2010? A) 34 million / 6,900 million B) 1.8 million / 6,900 million C) 1.8 million / 34 million D) (1.8 million + 34 million) / 6,900 million
B
Mary didn't get enough folic acid during her pregnancy, and her child was born with spina bifida (incomplete closing of the embryonic neural tube). This malformation in the child is an example of a/n: A) Inherited disease. B) Congenital disease. C) Immunological disease. D) Neoplastic disease.
B
Regarding the previous question, what were the scientists hoping to find? A) An increase in bacteriophage PFUs. B) A decrease in bacteriophage PFUs. C) An increase in E. coli CFUs. D) A decrease in E. coli CFUs.
B
A microbe that has been attenuated for use in a vaccine has been: A) Exposed to an antigen. B) Heat killed. C) Exposed to an antibody. D) Subjected to a process that substantially lessens or negates its virulence
D
Salmonella enterica causes the food poisoning called salmonellosis, and is transmitted via cattle and poultry food products, as well as domestic cats and hamsters. In some cases it has been shown that S. enterica can persist and maintain their ability to infect in vacuum cleaner bags (in households or businesses in which someone has already contracted S. enterica). In this case the vacuum cleaner bag would be considered a/an: (a) Biological vector. (b) Reservoir of infection. (c) Epidemic. (d) Aerosol.
B
Salmonellosis is caused by the bacterium Salmonella enterica. This bacterium is commonly transmitted to humans via cattle and poultry, and to a lesser extent via domestic cats, hamsters and vacuum cleaner bags. When transferred via vacuum cleaner bag it is said to be transferred via a/n _______. A) Biological vector. B) Fomite. C) Mechanical vector. D) Aerosol.
B
The area on the antigen molecule to which antibodies specifically bind is called a/an: A) Antigen. B) Epitope. C) Antibodies. D) Marrow.
B
The hair-like appendages that Enterohemorrhagic Esherichia coli use to attach to intestinal cells are called: A) Adhesins. B) Fimbriae. C) Capsules. D) Flagella.
B
Today Jack is feeling a little unusual. His body is a little achy and he noticed a tickle in this throat that wasn't there two days ago. Overall, he still feels well enough to go to work, but he is concerned that he might be coming down with something. Jack realizes his friend Jill didn't join in their weekend plans because she was feeling unwell as well. He calls her to find out how she is doing. Jill says the worst of her symptoms has passed, but she still has a sore throat and has to take it a little easy. Which stage of infection are Jack and Jill in respectively (Jack's stage; Jill's stage)? A) Acme; Convalescence. B) Prodromal; Decline. C) Incubation; Invasive. D) Convalescence; Decline
B
What are notifiable diseases? A) An infection acquired in a hospital or other medical facility. B) Infectious diseases that are potentially harmful to the public's health and must be reported by physicians, in the U.S. C) Infectious diseases passed through direct fecal-oral transmission. D) Infectious diseases passed through vertical transmission.
B
What are some of the factors that affect the type and levels of your microbiota? A) Genetics is the only determinant. B) Age, diet, antibiotic/drug therapy, hormones. C) Your geographical location is the predominant determinant. D) B and C
B
What best describes the route of an infectious agent that is shed by an infected host's feces, and acquired by a susceptible host through ingestion of contaminated material? A) Through droplet transmission. B) Through direct fecal-oral transmission. C) Through vertical transmission. D) Through indirect contact transmission
B
What does infection describe? A) When a microbe establishes itself in a host and causes disease. B) The colonization of an organism by a microorganism - with or without disease. C) The capacity of microbes to cause disease. D) None of the above.
B
What is the mortality rate of a disease? A) The number of individuals affected by a disease during a set period in relation to the total number in the population. B) The percentage of deaths in a population from a specific disease. C) The total number of people infected with a give disease within the population at any time. D) The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases contracted within a set population during a specific period of time.
B
When a host mounts a specific physiological response to a particular infectious agent's antigens, it is an example of: A) An innate immune response. B) An adaptive immune response. C) A pyrogenic response. D) An inflammatory response.
B
Which is the correct order of the stages of an infectious disease? A) Invasion, Incubation, Prodromal, Decline, Convalescence. B) Incubation, Prodromal, Invasion, Decline, Convalescence. C) Invasion, Incubation, Prodromal. Convalescence, Decline. D) Depends on the bacteria; different bacteria different stages
B
Which of the following describes a mutualistic relationship between two symbiotic organisms (symbionts)? A) Barnacles attach themselves to scallops, yet provide no benefit or harm to the scallop. B) In lichens, fungi provide a novel place for algae to live, and algae provide photosynthates/food to the fungus. C) Lice who suck blood from their dolphin hosts. D) The forty-fifth and forty-ninth presidents of the U.S.A.
B
Which of the following describes an experimental study? A) A study that focuses on establishing cause-and-effect relationships in the occurrence of diseases in populations. B) A study that designs experiments to test a hypothesis often about the value of a particular treatment. C) A study conducted in order to learn more about the spread of a disease in a population. D) An epidemiologic study that notes the number of cases of a disease, which segments of the population are affected, where the cases have occurred, and over what time period.
B
Which of the following describes mutualistic relationships between two symbiotic organisms (symbionts)? A) One organism benefits and the second organisms barely is helped or harmed. B) When each symbiont benefits from the other organism's proximity. C) When one organism benefits from the relationship to the detriment of the second organism. D) Two organisms that never interact over space and time.
B
Which of the following describes streptokinase? A) A digestive enzyme released by bacteria that allows them to invade tissues. B) An enzyme that dissolves blood clots. C) A bacterial enzyme that accelerates coagulation. D) All of the above.
B
Which of the following innate host defenses are considered chemical barriers? A) The skin and mucous membranes. B) Sweat, sebum, stomach acid and lysozymes. C) Leucocytes, including phagocytes. D) Inflammation and fever.
B
Which of the following is FALSE regarding interferon success against viruses? A) Interferons do not prevent cells from being invaded by viruses. B) Interferons protect both cells producing interferons as well as cells receiving interferon signals, from viral infection. C) If a cell receives interferon signals, it turns on antiviral genes whose products help protect the cell from viral replication. D) The interferon signal is received by cells through interferon specific receptors.
B
A disease in which a person contracts rabies after interaction with an infected raccoon would be known as which kind of disease? A) Fungal. B) Non-infectious. C) Zoonotic. D) Mechanical vector.
C
A patient's serum is found to have elevated interferon levels. What is the most probable cause? A) A fungal infection. B) A bacterial infection. C) A viral infection. D) No infection, patient is normal.
C
Because Enterohemorrhagic Esherichia coli releases shiga toxins when they are stressed or die, shiga toxins must be part of Esherichia coli's: A) Peptidoglycans. B) Teichoic acids. C) Lipopolysaccharides. D) Glycocalyx.
C
Contamination is defined as: A) The multiplication of any parasitic organism within or on the host's body. B) A disturbance in the state of health wherein the body cannot carry out all of its normal functions. C) When microorganisms are present. D) The living together of unlike organisms.
C
Chronic Wasting Disease is a problem in southwest Wisconsin, and growing. The known natural hosts of CWD are mule deer, white-tailed deer, elk, and moose. CWD is caused by an abnormal folding of specific normal cellular proteins that are found most abundantly in the brain. The disease is transmissable. Which of the following is a possible solution to stopping the transmission of the disease? A) Antibiotics. B) Interferons. C) Develop an agent that treats viroids. D) None of the above.
D
During which stage of Infectious Disease development are host tissues repaired and disease symptoms no longer present? A) Prodromal B) Invasive C) Decline D) Convalescence
D
Feline Spongiform Encephalopathy (FSE) is a disease the affects feline brains, leading to a nervous system breakdown in coordinating movement. FSE is caused by an abnormal folding of cellular proteins that are found most abundantly in the brain. The disease is transmissible, and is thought to come from eating tainted food. Which of the following is a possible solution for stopping the transmission of the disease? A) Antibiotics. B) Interferons. C) Develop an agent that treats viroids. D) None of the above.
D
How do leukocytes differ from erythrocytes? A) Leukocytes play a role in innate and adaptive host defense as defense cells, and erythrocytes act mainly to distribute oxygen. B) Leukocytes can act as macrophages. C) Leukocytes last hours to days, while erythrocytes are known to last up to 120 days. D) All of the above.
D
How does lacking a microbiota or having a reduced one during the first two years of human development, lead to human disease? A) The proper types of T-helper cells will not be produced. B) Leukocyte cells do not learn to properly distinguish self from non-self. C) The proper ratio of different T-helper cells will not exist. D) All of the above.
D
How would you describe the incidence of a disease? A) The study of factors and mechanisms involved in the frequency and spread of diseases and other health-related problems within populations of human, other animals, or plants. B) The assignment, or study, of causes of disease. C) The total number of people infected with a give disease within the population at any time. D) The number of new disease cases contracted within a set population during a specific period of time.
D
John Snow's investigation into the spread of cholera in London in 1854 revealed the source of disease was a contaminated water pump. In this instance, what term best describes the spread of cholera? A) Endemic B) Pandemic C) Propagated epidemic D) Common-source outbreak
D
Pathogenic strains of Salmonella enterica are classified based on their O and H antigens. As in Escherichia coli, the O and H antigens are considered examples of: A) Adhesins. B) Transmission routes. C) Fomites. D) Virulence factors.
D
Salmonelle typhi has the ability to persist within the gallbladder of humans while causing no clinical symptoms. The infected individual is still contagious, however, and would be considered a(n): A) Acme. B) Placebo. C) Aerosol. D) Carrier.
D
Scientists wanted to study if composting was an effective means of ridding cow manure of shiga toxin producing Esherichia coli. They inoculated shiga-producing E. coli in to animal manure along with bacteriophages specific to this E. coli strain. Over the course of 40 days they tested for the presence/absence of the strain specific bacteriophage. What is the name of the assay that they used? A) Colony Forming Unit assay. B) Selective media assay. C) Minimum Inhibitory Concentration assay. D) Plaque assay.
D
Suppose that the health department of city A mounts a successful campaign to get children immunized against measles. Only 100 out of 10,000 children fail to receive the vaccine. Now suppose that a second city of the same size, city B, has not carried out a successful measles vaccination program. Of 10,000 children in city B 5,000 had measles when the disease last struck the population. In which scenario is a child more likely to transmit the disease to a susceptible child? A) An infected child from city A moves to city B and infects a city B child. B) An infected child from city A infects a child from city A. C) An infected child from city B moves to city A and infects a city A child. D) An infected child from city B infects a child from city B
D
Symbiosis is defined as: A) The multiplication of any parasitic organism within or on the host's body. B) A disturbance in the state of health wherein the body cannot carry out all of its normal functions. C) When microorganisms are present. D) The living together of unlike organisms
D
The Human Papillomavirus Virus (HPV) causes abnormal cell growth in skin and mucous membranes which can cause wart growth in the cervix, vulva, vagina, penis, and anus. HPV is an example of a/n: A) Inherited disease. B) Congenital disease. C) Immunological disease. D) Neoplastic disease.
D
The acid mantle of your skin produced by sweat glands creates an inhospitable environment for some pathogens. This is an example of: A) Innate Host Defense. B) Adaptive Defense. C) Chemical Barrier. D) Both A and C.
D
What are the microbes living in and on the human body referred to as? A) Microflora. B) Microbiota. C) Resident microbes. D) All of the above.
D
What are virulence factors? A) A microbe that can cause disease is a susceptible individual. B) The degree of ability of a microbe to cause disease in another organism. C) The colonization of an organism by a microorganism - with or without disease. D) Any structural or physiological characteristics of the microbe that contributes to its virulence.
D
What do phagocytes do? A) They release chemical signals, chemokines, that attract additional phagocytes to the site of infection. B) They recognize invading microorganisms through membrane embedded receptors that recognize a pathogen's cell wall and/or cell membrane unique molecular patterns. C) They digest invading microbes. D) All of the above
D
What kind of disease is caused by an infectious agent but is not transferrable from on host to another? A) Noninfectious disease. B) Infectious disease. C) Communicable infectious disease. D) Non-communicable infectious disease.
D
Where are endotoxins found? A) In Gram negative bacteria cell walls. B) In lipopolysaccharides. C) In pathogenic bacteria. D) All of the above
D
Which of the following is characteristic of the decline stage of infectious diseases? A) This is the time between infection and the appearance of symptoms. B) This is a short period of time during which nonspecific and often mild symptoms appear. C) This is the period during which an individual experiences the typical signs and symptoms of the disease. D) This is the time during which the host's defenses and the effects of any treatment overcome the pathogen.
D
Which of the following is considered a fomite? A) The Anopheles sp. mosquito. B) Arachnid ticks. C) Fleas and lice. D) A dirty handkerchief
D
Which of the following is not part of the structure of antibodies? A) Peptide chains. B) Antigen binding sites. C) Constant regions. D) Lipopolysaccharides.
D
Which of the following is responsible for a host's response to an infectious agent that does not require previous exposure? A) Acquired immunity. B) Adaptive immunity. C) Idiopathic immunity. D) Innate immunity.
D
Which of the following leukocytes are good at recognizing antigens embedded in the cell membranes of invading cells, and are good at clearing your body of viruses and intracellular pathogens? A) A cells. B) B cells. C) D cells. D) T cells.
D
Which of the following statements describes the human microbiome? A) It's composed of the normally present resident microbes. B) It consists of bacteria and microbial eukaryotes. C) Members of the human microbiome outnumber the cells of the human body by at least 10:1. D) All of the above.
D
Which of the following statements is/are FALSE? A) Contamination inevitably leads to infection. B) Infection inevitably leads to disease. C) Contamination and/or infection always disrupt the normal metabolic functions of the host. D) All of the above.
D
Which of the following terms best explains how Louis Pasteur developed the rabies vaccine by repeated passage through rabbits? A) Colonization of viable cells. B) Incubation of infectious agent. C) Isolation of disease-causing pathogens. D) Transposal of virulence.
D
Which of the of the following is true of the humoral immune response? A) It is mediated by B-cells. B) The cells initiate a process that leads to antibody release. C) It involves cells that can target extracellular pathogens. D) All of the above.
D
Which one of the following is not a prediction of the Clonal Selection Hypothesis? A) Each lymphocyte bears a single type of receptor with a unique specificity. B) Each clonal offspring of the activated lymphocyte will bear receptors of identical specificity as the parental cell. C) Each lymphocyte is induced to reproduce profusely when its receptor has recognized its antigen. D) Each lymphocyte induces its non-related neighbors to reproduce at the same time.
D
Which statement is FALSE about the stages of an infectious disease? A) Throughout all steps you remain contagious. B) Convalescence is when tissues are repaired, and the body repairs strength and recovers. C) During the invasive stage an individual experiences the typical signs and symptoms of the disease. D) Pyrogens are produced in the prodromal stage
D
Why are bone-marrow pleuripotent stem cells important? A) Because they provide a constant supply of blood cells. B) Because they make erythrocytes. C) Because they make leukocytes. D) All of the above.
D
Why are defensins important chemical defenses? A) Because they bind iron, a limited resource for pathogenic bacteria which use it as a co-factor. B) Because they bind oxygen, a toxin to pathogenic anaerobic bacteria. C) Because they lower the pH of the skin. D) Because they kill bacteria by causing pores in bacterial cell walls.
D
Why is HIV considered a pandemic? A) Because it is constantly present in the U.S.A. B) Because it has spread world-wide. C) Because it goes through fluctuating periods of extremely high and low incidence. D) Because it appeared only recently in the world-wide population and has an unexpectedly high incidence rate.
D
Why is the secondary response of the human immune system considered stronger than the first response to the same pathogen? A) More antibodies are made during the secondary response. B) Antibodies are produced longer during the secondary response. C) Antibodies are produced more quickly in response to the pathogen. D) All of the above.
D
Why might your microbiota be important to you? A) Natural microbiota help keep out pathogenic microbes. B) Natural microbiota synthesize necessary vitamins. C) Natural microbiota help break down nutrients in the human gut, aiding in digestion. D) All of the above.
D
