Microbiology Final Test Questions
1. Which of the following are more likely to be a human pathogen? a. Thermophile b. Psychrophile c. Hyperthermophile d. Psychrotroph e. Mesophile
A
10. A virion is: a. complete virus particle b. the empty virus particle post-infection c. consists of ³1 molecule of DNA or RNA enclosed in coat of protein d. a bacterium with many of the same features of a virus
A
11. Capsids are large macromolecular structures which serve as the protein coat of virus. These coats are often made of only one protein building block. Why? a. Efficiency - very little genetic material is needed to code for only one block b. Size - using one block decreases the potential size of the virus c. Symmetry - many blocks would throw off the symmetry d. Immunological properties - one block makes it easier to slip past host defenses
A
11. Which of the following is not true of integral proteins a. Are loosely connected to the membrane and are easily removed b. Have hydrophobic regions buried in lipid and hydrophilic regions external to the membrane c. Insoluble in aqueous solution d. 70 - 80% total membrane proteins
A
13. _______ _________helps solutes move across a membrane from a region of high concentration to one of lower concentration. It does not use energy and cannot move a molecule against its concentration gradient. a. Facilitated diffusion b. Active Transport c. Passive Aggression d. ABC Transport
A
14. Plant viruses move from cell to cell through ________. a. Plasmodesmata b. Plant vesicles c. Chloroplasts d. Xylum
A
16) Natural killer cells target ________ cells that ________. a) infected; have lost MHC class I b) bacterial; have lost MHC class I c) bacterial; are coated with complement d) infected; have lost C-reactive protein e) infected; secrete cytokines
A
17) The hypothalamus is important because it regulates a) body temperature. b) release of complement proteins from the liver. c) neutrophil phagocytosis. d) white blood cell differentiation. e) pain perception.
A
17) Which of the following is true of the Biochemical Oxygen Demand or BOD. a) Defined as the amount of oxygen removed by aerobic respiration b) Is high in the open ocean due to low concentration of organisms c) Decreases with addition of excess sewage or petroleum d) None of these statements is true
A
2) Innate immunity refers to types of _________ immunity that are ________ in action a) Nonadaptive, nonspecific b) Adaptive, specific c) Nonadaptive, specific, d) Adaptive, nonspecific e) None of the above are correct
A
20) The immune response elicited from each individual antigenic determinant found within an antigen is best described as a) monoclonal. b) polyclonal. c) multiclonal. d) triclonal. e) biclonal.
A
22) Which of the following is most likely to elicit the strongest antigen-specific immune response within a human? a) an outer membrane protein from Plasmodium falciparium b) a segment of the RNA genome of HIV c) a segment of DNA from the herpes genome d) a capsular polysaccharide coating from Streptococcus mutans e) a plasma membrane from Escherichia coli
A
22. The smallest amount of virus needed to cause death of 50% of exposed host cells or organisms a. lethal dose b. infectious dose c. Dose 50 d. Lethality
A
23) The figure below shows a metagenomic analysis of a marine microbial community. This particular analysis shows a) what the microbes that are present are doing. b) how the microbial community is changing over time. c) the relationships of the microbes within the community. d) which microbes are present.
A
24) The gut is able to distinguish between indigenous microbiota and pathogens by using which part of epithelial cells? a) TLRs and NLRs b) IL-22 c) SIgA d) ILCs e) Cytokines
A
26) An organisms core genome, along with accessory genes is called the organisms a) Pan genome b) Pot genome c) Super core d) Metagenome e) Genetic moniker
A
27. Mannitol-salt Agar contains 7.5% NaCl, which inhibits most microorganisms except Staphylococcus species making MSA a ________ . MSA also contains mannitol and an acid-base indicator, phenol red. S. aureus ferments mannitol, and the indicator changes from red to yellow if the species is present, thus making MSA agar a ______ as well. a. selective media; differential media b. differential media; selective media c. defined media; complex media d. complex media; defined media e. broth; agar
A
29) NSAIDs such as Advil are COX inhibitors that prevent synthesis of _________ and thus reduce inflammatory pain. a) Prostaglandin b) Integrins c) Bradykinin d) Selectins e) Interferons
A
29. Which section shows a growth phase where the cells are gearing up to start dividing and growing? (look at curve) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. A and C
A
3) Compared to eutrophic lakes, the biochemical oxygen demand, or BOD, of oligotrophic lakes is a) low. b) unpredictable. c) similar. d) extremely high. e) high.
A
30) The PAM motif in humans occurs about every ______ bases. This explains why you can use the CAS9-Guide RNA complex to target almost any human gene. a) 50 b) 10 c) 5000 d) 25000
A
31. Dimitri Ivanowski was: a. First to demonstrate that the causative agent of tobacco mosaic disease passed through bacterial filters b. proponent of inoculation of children with material from smallpox lesions of mild cases c. showed that leukemia in chickens was caused by a virus d. None of the above
A
33. A student counts the number of cells in a sample by filtering the cells onto a membrane filter staining them and counting the cells on the filter with a fluorescent microscope. She ALSO plates a dilution of cells from the same sample onto an agar plate and counts the colonies that grow. Which count is likely to give the lower number of cells per liter of the sample? a. The plated cells b. The filtered cells c. Neither, if done correctly they should be the same d. Neither are approved methods for counting cells
A
34) Microbial proteins made outside the cell are presented on the _____________ complex. a) MHC class II b) MHC class I c) MHC class III d) Inflammosome e) Neutrophil
A
34) Which of the following genera contain a species that causes cholera, a disease that can be fatal in hours if not immediately treated by oral rehydration therapy? a) Vibrio b) Escherichia c) Salmonella d) Rickettsia e) Staphylococcus
A
34. All bacterial cells need to be supplied with a source of a. electrons, energy, and carbon. b. carbon, nitrogen, and light. c. carbon, fixed nitrogen, and water. d. electrons, protons, and carbon.
A
38. Periplasm in gram + cells has relatively few proteins because: a. Peptidoglycan is porous b. Exoenzymes work best inside the cell c. There are no integral proteins in cell membranes d. They would disrupt action of flagella
A
38. True or False: An oncogenic virus may cause cancer. a. True b. False
A
4) Which of the following require endosymbiotic protists and bacteria to digest plant material such as lignin and cellulose? a) termites b) humans c) cattle d) microplankton e) gorillas
A
4. A technician autoclaves surgical instruments before use. What is this called? a. Sterilization b. Disinfection c. Antisepsis d. None of the above
A
43) In the marine water column, the vast majority of carbon transfer occurs a) among microbes b) among fish c) among mammals d) among all vertebrates and invertebrates combined.
A
43. Which of the following reinforces and stiffens membranes in bacteria? a. hopanoids b. peptidoglycans c. polyamines d. lipids e. sterols
A
44. The virus particle, or virion, consists of a single nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) contained within a protective protein _______. a. Capsid b. Capsaicin c. Protomer d. Sheath
A
48) What is selective toxicity? a) A "magic bullet" that kills or inhibits pathogens but not the host b) A method for targeting specific bacteria rather than all bacteria c) When bacterial toxins harm some cells in the host, but not others d) A method for deciding how much of a particular antibiotic to use to kill a pathogen
A
5) The organisms in this archaeal phylum have the following characteristics: Most are extremely thermophilic, many are acidophiles, many are sulfur-dependent, and one particular species can survive for being autoclaved for over an hour. a) Crenarchaeota b) Euryarchaeota c) Proteobacteria d) Pokearchaeota e) Spuriousarchaeota
A
5. When scientists changed a protein in mice so that the mice could no longer tell "good" bacteria from "bad", the mice developed something similar to heart disease. Why? a. They ate more. b. Losing the protein affected production of the good cholesterol HDL. c. Losing the protein affected production of the bad cholesterol LDL. d. The mice's core bacteria were changed signaling their immune system to turn against itself. e. They could no longer process "healthy" foods.
A
51. Influenza is a negative-sense RNA virus. Therefore, it must first be transcribed into a positive-sense RNA which then acts as an mRNA. How is this accomplished? a. Each influenza virion carries its own RNA dependent RNA polymerase. b. Influenza uses host cell machinery to transcribe positive to negative sense. c. The negative-sense RNA can be translated directly d. Co-infection by another influenza virus triggers gene expression of an RNA dependent RNA polymerase.
A
6) Which of the following is true of the haloarchaea from the Archaeal phylum Eurycarchaeota? a) The cell walls of haloarchaea disintegrate when the level of NaCl outside the cell is 1.5 M or less. b) They contain carotenoids to protect against osmotic stress. c) They contain gas vacuoles that control the bacterium's location in the water column. d) They contain purple membranes that use light energy to transport chloride ions into the cell e) All of the above are true of halophiles
A
6. A key tool of subcellular fractionation is the ___________. a. ultracentrifuge. b. TEM c. X-ray crystallography d. Flow cytometer e. Atomic probe electron microscope
A
8) Largest, most diverse group of photosynthetic bacteria, have chlorophyll a and b, have a unique two-photosystem apparatus arranged in arrays of membranes called thylakoids, and have oxygenic photosynthesis a) Cyanobacteria b) Chlorobi c) Chloroflexi d) Firmicutes e) These statements are true for all of the above
A
8. A microscope in which an image is formed by passing an electron beam through a specimen and focusing the scattered electrons with magnetic lenses is called a a. transmission electron microscope b. scanning electron microscope c. phase-contrast microscope d. atomic force microscope e. Confocal scanning laser microscope
A
9) When a B cell contacts its cognate antigen, it is stimulated to proliferate and differentiate into: a) Plasma and memory cells b) T cells and memory cells c) Primary and secondary response cells d) Clonal selection cells
A
9. Viruses with an additional layer surrounding the capsid that is composed of lipid and proteins are a. enveloped viruses b. lipid-containing viruses c. eukaryotic viruses d. enclosed viruses e. coated viruses
A
One reason hard candy rarely causes a food-borne illness is because: a. It has a low water activity (aw) b. It has a high water activity c. Bacteria rarely metabolize sugar d. Candy is sterile.
A
27) Why was it actually good for the soldiers after the Battle of Shiloh if they experienced the "Angel's Glow" a) Healing of their wounds was helped due to infection by Photorhabdus luminescens. b) Healing of their wounds was helped due to the disinfection of their wounds c) It actually wasn't good for them. Those that experienced the "Angel's Glow" were the first to die and were escorted to heaven by the "Angels". d) Healing of their wounds was helped because it was too cold to be infected by Photorhabdus luminescens which is an opportunistic pathogen often introduced to wounds during war time.
A?
31) CRISPR is special because it can: a) Cause a double strand break at virtually any targeted site in the genome b) Remove all Cytosines allowing lysine to be changed to methionine. c) Remove specific sequences from the new daughter strand while leaving the parental strand intact d) Be used to replicate the metagenome of a sample
A?
1) The Dutch microbiologist van Niel first demonstrated anoxygenic photosynthesis in soil and water bacteria. He generalized his work by hypothesizing that every molecule in nature can be used as a source of carbon by some microorganism AND that: a) photosynthesis results in oxygen production. b) microbes are found in every environment on Earth. c) microbes cannot live deep within Earth. d) photosynthesis occurs deep within Earth
B
10) Which of the following deltabacteria obtains nutrients by predation? First swimming at a high rate of speed, slamming into its prey, drilling a hole, entering the cell, then reproducing in the periplasmic space until the cell lyses and dies. a) Myxocalles b) Bdellovibrio c) Desulfobacterales d) Klebsiella e) Thiospirillum
B
10. Organisms that have a procaryotic cell sturcture, thin peptidoglycan cell walls and an exterior cell membrane. a. Gram positive bacteria. b. Gram negative bacteria. c. Archaea d. Water molds e. Protists.
B
12) Myxobacteria are class deltaproteobacteria with a distinctive life cycle resembling that of cellular slime molds. In the presence of food they form a swarm and migrate on solid surfaces, feeding and leaving a slime trail. When nutrients are exhausted, they aggregate and differentiate into a characteristic ________. a) exospore b) fruiting body c) hyphae d) parasporal body e) mycelia
B
13) Which of the following innate immunity mechanisms is mismatched with its associated structure or body fluid? a) lysozyme—tears b) mucociliary elevator—intestines c) highly acidic pH—stomach d) acidic pH, sebum, salinity—skin e) low pH—urogenital tract
B
14) Rosenzweig and Vreeland grew viable bacteria from spores they claim were 250,000,000 years old. However, other researchers claim that the genetic sequence of these ancient bacteria are too similar to modern day strains of this bacterium. Both teams seem to have done careful work. How can this be? a) The bacteria in question has not evolved in 250 million years b) The bacteria recently escaped from the salt mine in which they found it and is the direct ancestor of the more modern strain c) It came from outer space d) The spore evolved while stuck in the salt e) all of these are true
B
14. Peptidoglycan consists of chains of subunits cross linked for strength. In Gram-positive cells, these subunits are linked: a. Directly b. By a peptide interbridge c. By integral proteins d. By Braun's lipoproteins e. By NAG and NAM
B
16) Bifidobacterium bifidus of the Order Bifidobacteriales is interesting because it: a) degrades vast amounts of organic material b) is the pioneer colonizer of human intestinal tract c) is found in yogurt d) has extensive substrate mycelia
B
16. Gram-Positive cell walls are composed primarily of _______ a. Lipopolysaccharides; b. Peptidoglycan c. Meso-Diaminopimelic acid d. Protein e. Lipopolysaccharides
B
19) The small segment of antigen that is capable of eliciting an immune response is called a(n a) hapten. b) epitope. c) clonotope. d) naïve antigen. e) aggretope.
B
19. Plasmids a. are extrachromosomal and are composed of RNA. b. are extrachromosomal and may code for resistance to antibiotics. c. are part of the bacterial chromosome and carry gene's essential for the cell's survival. d. are derived from the bacterial chromosome e. replicate along with the bacterial chromosome
B
23. John Snow is called the Father of Epidemiology. He was able to stop the cholera outbreak in London in 1854 by using a map of the dead and diseased to determine the source of the outbreak. What simple thing did he do to stop the outbreak? a. Told the residents to boil their water b. Removed the handle from the pump of the contaminated water source c. Introduced the concept of sanitization by having everyone wash their hands d. He quarantined a large section of the Soho neighborhood
B
24. In Thailand, the bird flu outbreak was particularly hard on 6 and 7 year old boys. Why? a. Immune system changes particular to that age and gender b. Children of that age were likely to be tasked with the family chore of plucking chickens c. Boys of that age range played a particular schoolyard game in which they would chase and try to catch the family chickens. d. This is the age that kids were first introduced to chicken meat and so it was the first time their immune systems had seen the virus.
B
25. Each bacteria species has an "optimum" temperature, as well as minimum and maximum temperatures that define its growth limits. These are called: a. Bishop growth temperatures b. Cardinal growth temperatures c. "Philic" growth temperatures d. Thermophiles
B
26) Which is the correct order of the following events in phagocytosis? (1) discharge of waste material; (2) fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome; (3) adherence of the microbe to phagocytes; (4) digestion of the ingested microbe, (5) formation of a phagosome, (6) ingestion of the microbe by the phagocyte a) 3, 6, 5, 2, 4, 1 d). 5, 2, 3, 6, 4, 1 b) 3, 4, 6, 5, 2, 1 e) 5, 3, 6, 2, 4, 1 c) 6, 5, 2, 4, 3, 1
B
26. The addition of which of the following would change a chemically defined medium into a complex medium? a. glucose b. Yeast extract c. Biotin (a vitamin) d. K2HPO4 e. NH4NO3
B
29. Which of the following statements is true: a. Prions replicate with minimal genetic material b. Only the conformation of a prion is propagated. c. Prion disease is a common human disease d. Prion disease is easily cured if caught early
B
3) The majority of white blood cells are: a) Eosinophils b) Neutrophils c) Basophils d) Lymphocytes e) B cells
B
30. Which section shows a growth phase where the cells are dividing at their maximum rate of division for those conditions? (look at curve) a. A b. B c. C d. D e. A and C
B
31) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a professional antigen presenting cell? a) Dendritic cell b) Fibroblasts c) Macrophage d) Mast cells e) B cells
B
31. The theory of programmed cell death a. predicts that a fraction of the microbial population is genetically programed to live indefinitely b. the dying cells sacrifice themselves for the benefit of the population c. the programmed cells are viable but nonculturable d. Proves that zombies do exist e. all of the above
B
32) There are five classes of antibodies, which are defined by the type of _________ they possess. a) Light chain b) Heavy chain c) Variable region d) Kappa region e) Lambda region
B
32. Define viroid (best answer, please) a. A virion with an d instead of an n b. RNA molecules that infect plants c. An infectious protein d. The part of an enveloped virus inside the envelope e. The icosahedral head of a virus that contains the genomic material
B
33) During primary antibody response, the first antibody seen in serum is __________. a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IfG e) IfA
B
37) What is an important reason why animals such as cattle have bacteria help them digest certain foods rather than code for the necessary enzymes themselves? a) Bacterial genes for these enzymes don't work in humans b) The genomic coding capacity of our microbes may be 100 x ours so it's easier to let them do it rather than carry all those genes in our genome. c) The genomic coding capacity of our genome may be 100 x that of a bacterium, so they probably do it better.. d) Humans cannot evolve at that scale
B
37. True or false: In plants, viruses typically utilize a lytic burst to infect nearby cells. a. True b. False
B
39. Which of the following best explains why electron microscopes provide a much more detailed image of specimens than light microscopes? a. Electron microscopes use dozens of lenses while light microscopes use only two. b. Electrons have much shorter wavelengths than visible light waves. c. Electron grids are used to capture the image rather than the photoreceptors of a human eye. d. Charged particles will not lose their energy as opposed to light waves. e. More electrons can be used to bombard the specimen than photons of light.
B
40) __________ is the measure of degree of severity of disease. a) Infectiousness b) Virulence c) Pathogenesis d) Dysbiosis e) ID50
B
40. Bacteria growing in the exponential growth phase are said to be in _________________. a. Unbalanced growth b. Balanced growth c. Binary growth d. Stage 2 growth e. Stable growth
B
43. When measuring the growth rate of a virus, the number of viruses in the media goes to near zero shortly after adding the virus. Why does this happen? a. Viruses are undetectable outside of a cell b. Viruses have attached to their host cells c. Viruses have all entered the "ghost" phase with empty capsids d. The viruses have unsheathed their nuclear material in preparation for infection
B
44) Opsonization is a process whereby the innate and adaptive immune mechanisms work together a) to activate complement proteins. b) to phagocytize an invader. c) for antibody secretion. d) to destroy cancer cells. e) during apoptosis.
B
45) Getting a cold by touching a doorknob after someone with a cold uses it is an example of: a) Vertical transmission b) Horizontal transmission c) Vector-borne transmission d) Accidental transmission e) Zoonotic transmission
B
45. ______________ (early 1700s) proponent of inoculation of children with material from smallpox lesions of mild cases observed this practice among Turkish women Mixed success in getting this to be common practice a. Walter Reed b. Lady Wortley Montagu c. Sergei Kislyak d. Louis Pasteur
B
46. Knowing that the generation time for a pathogenic strain of E. coli is 20 minutes, how many cells would there be on your hamburger if the hamburger were contaminated with 3 cells 4 hours ago? a. 24 b. 3 x 212 c. 212 d. 3 x 24 e. 3 x 1012
B
47) Which of the following is NOT true of pathogenicity islands: a) Pathogenicity islands contain clusters of virulence genes with specific functions. b) Originally inherited through vertical transmission c) Have guanine + cytosine (GC) content different from the rest of the genome d) Often flanked by phage or plasmid genes
B
50. Bacteria divide at a constant time interval called the a. generation time. b. exponential rate. c. growth time. d. log phase. e. growth rate.
B
52) Which of the following IS used to combat the development of drug resistance? a) Chemically changing the host cell by O-mannosylation b) Combination antibiotic therapy that would require the pathogen to become doubly resistant c) Creation of non-pathogenic strains of the pathogen to outcompete the pathogen d) Using bacteria-specific bacteriophage to introduce the antibiotic directly to the cytoplasm where it cannot be avoided
B
8) Any molecule that will, when introduced into a person, elicit the synthesis of antibodies that specifically bind the molecule is called a/an a) Epitope b) Antigen c) B cell d) T cell e) Toll like receptor
B
8. A bacterial culture is mixed with bacteriophage and plated on an agar plate, after incubation the 'clear spots' observed on the plate a. are called plaques and contain only dead bacteria b. are called plaques and contain millions of bacteriophage along with dead bacterial cells c. are called zones of clearing and contain a few bacteriophage d. are referred to as 'colonies of phage'
B
Bacteria accomplish chemotaxis by a. Steering toward attractants. b. Tumbling less frequently and making longer runs when traveling towards an attractant. c. Frequently stopping and tumbling to better sense attractants. d. Stopping movement when good conditions are sensed. e. Tumbling more frequently and making shorter runs when traveling towards an attractant
B
________ and _________ are white blood cells that release toxins to poison microbes. a) Macrophage; dendritic cells b) Basophils; eosinophils c) Monocytes; lymphocytes d) Neutrophils; Mast cells e) Natural killer cells; monocytes
B
photoorganoheterotroph gets its electrons from: a. inorganic material b. organic material c. light d. CO2 e. Organic or inorganic materials
B
28. ________ are proteins that infect animals. a. Virions b. Prions c. Prions d. Scrapie
B/C
12) When an infection causes a fever a) You should immediately take Tylenol - fevers prevent macrophage from extravasating into infected tissue b) You should never take Tylenol - it may harm your liver c) You should monitor the fever - moderate fevers are good as they slow bacterial growth and give the body a chance to destroy the invaders d) You should take an ice bath - fevers elevate body temperature and bacteria grow more quickly as temperature increases
C
12. Each species of virus infects a particular group of host species, this is called their _______. a. Infectious unit b. sensitivity c. Host range d. Susceptibility
C
13. _______________is the sudden infusion of large quantities of a formerly limiting nutrient. It can lead to a "bloom" of microbes. a. Gentrification b. Autophication c. Eutrophication d. An injection
C
15) Actinomycetes are responsible for: a) Fruting bodies b) Many skin diseases c) Many antibiotics d) Many helminthic treatments e) Degradation of iron pipes
C
17. In the lytic phase, Morphogenesis of phage particles is : a. When viruses insert themselves into the cell b. When viruses create capsids c. When viruses assemble inside the cell d. Prophage induction
C
18) Many prokaryotes from natural communities are said to be uncultured, because we do not know their culture requirements. However, we can now characterize even uncultured prokaryotes by sequencing the "community DNA" of a sample. The sum total of all DNA sequenced from such an environmental sample is called the ___________. a) Direct counts b) Special R2A agar derived directly from the environment c) Metagenome d) Sanger sequencing
C
18) Which of the following would be considered an aspect of the adaptive immune response? a) interferons b) natural killer cells c) lymphocytes d) neutrophils e) defensins
C
18. In the lysogenic cycle, the phage genome integrates into the host's chromosome. Once inserted, the phage is called a ________; the host cell is called a ________. a. lysogen, prophage b. virion, tropism c. prophage, lysogen d. tropism, virion
C
2. A scientist isolated a pure culture of a bacterium from 4-Pole Creek. He grew the bacterium in a test tube (not shaking) with minimal media. After growing overnight, the test tube was clear everywhere but at the bottom where it was quite turbid. The scientist can state with some certainty that the bacterium is a/an: a. Aerobe b. Anaerobe c. Obligate anaerobe d. Facultative anaerobe e. Microaerophile
C
20) Which of the following terms refers to the organisms associated with a host organism? a) Rarefaction curve b) Operational taxonomic unit c) Microbiome d) Metagenome
C
21) Thinking about what you know about Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), the concentration of ______ would control BOD. a) heterotrophic microorganisms. b) benthic microorganisms. c) multicellular organisms. d) autotrophic microorganisms
C
22. All organisms require carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and a source of electrons. Which of these statements regarding microbial nutrition is not true? a. The requirements for carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and a source of electrons are often satisfied together b. Organisms using carbon dioxide as their sole or principal carbon source are called autotrophs c. Autotrophs must obtain energy from other sources (light, reduced inorganic molecules) d. heterotrophs use organic molecules as carbon sources - these organic molecules can also provide electrons e. Hydrogen is necessary because it is the backbone of all organic components found in the cell
C
25) According to the endosymbiosis theory, evidence that mitochondria arose from bacteria includes: a. mitochondria and Bacteria contain a single linear chromosome. b. neither mitochondria nor Bacteria contain ribosomes. c. mitochondria have gene sequences closely related to present day Rickettsias. d. all of the above
C
27. Which of the following is NOT an important role of viruses in ecosystems: a. Limiting host population density without extinction of the host b. Selecting for host diversity c. Ensure dominance of the host species d. Increase the efficiency of the biological pump in marine systems
C
28) When inflammation occurs, _________ on the inside of capillaries bind to neutrophils passing by, causing them to start "rolling" along the capillary wall. a) Interferons b) Integrins c) Selectins d) Extravasatins e) Prostaglandin
C
28. A student swabbed ground beef from the local store before cooking. He isolated several bacterial colonies, then grew each colony on an Eosin Methylene Blue culture plate. One of the cultures had cells that grew well, with dark interiors, and a greenish sheen. What can the student deduce? a. The bacteria are gram positive b. The bacteria do not ferment lactose c. That he might want to go out to eat because the hamburger is covered in E. coli d. The bacteria are some unknown gram negative species
C
29) Plot of the number of different OTUs (species), as a function of increasing sample size is called a ________. a) Transformation curve b) Non dimensional metric scaling curve c) Rarefaction curve d) Functional identity curve
C
3. Most microbes are capable of withstanding a wide range of salt in their environment. These microbes are called: a. Halophilic b. Non-halophilic c. Halotolerant d. piezophilic
C
3. Who resolved the spontaneous generation controversy using flasks with curved necks that allowed air in while keeping microbes out? a. Antony van Leeuwenhoek b. Robert Koch c. Louis Pasteur d. Walther Hesse e. Elie Metchnifkoff
C
32. How can a population of E. coli double in time if it takes 60 min for an individual cell to replicate itself (40 min for DNA replication and 20 min for septation)? a. A 2nd, 3rd, or 4th round of cytokinesis can begin before replication is complete b. It actually only takes 20 minutes for E. coli to double c. E. coli can begin a 2nd, 3rd, or 4th round of replication before the first round is complete d. Septum doesn't form until the 4th round of replication, thus giving the illusion of a short replication time e. A and C are correct
C
34. Where might you find psychrophiles, hyperthermophiles, and barophiles all within a few meters of each other? a. On top of Mt Everest b. In the Ohio River c. Near a hydrothermal vent d. Inside a black-devil angler fish e. These three are unlikely to be found near each other on this planet
C
35) Which of the following is NOT a model proposed to explain how the first life-forms originated from non-living materials and how they replicated and evolved? a) The RNA world b) Metabolist model c) The charged early earth d) The prebiotic soup
C
35. Why is a typical run for E. coli about 30um? a. One flagella revolution carries it 30um b. One flagella revolution gets it started and then it coasts for ~30 um due to low Reynold's Number c. At low Reynold's Number you don't outrun your environment until about 30 um. d. That's about one body length.
C
36. If Dr. Schultz sits down to read an article published in Nature that includes data and has been peer-reviewed, he is reading: a. A review b. An important article for a lay person c. Primary literature d. Secondary literature
C
37) _________ are important because viruses and other intracellular pathogens are protected from interacting with antibodies. Since all nucleated cells have MHC I, almost any infected cell can be taken care of by these cells. a) Helper T cells b) Follicle stimulating T cells c) Cytotoxic T cells d) Regulator T cells e) B cells
C
40. Which of these is a classification system for viruses? a. The New York system b. The Detroit system c. The Baltimore system d. The Bastille system
C
41. ____________ is due to reassortment of genomes when two different strains of flu viruses infect the same cell and are incorporated into a single new capsid. a. Angiogenesis b. Antigenic drift c. Antigenic shift d. pandemic
C
43) Which of the following definitions is mismatched? a) extravasation—movement of leukocytes through endothelial cells into tissues b) pus— teeming with white blood cells c) vasoactive—chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome d) autophagy—destruction of intracellular pathogens e) opsonization—formation of pseudopods
C
44. You study a bacterium that grows in very low-nutrient aqueous environments. Which type of transport mechanism is required to deliver nutrients to the cell with a higher concentration of these nutrients inside the cell? a. aquaporins b. passive diffusion c. active transport d. Such bacteria cannot exist. e. facilitated diffusion
C
45) Which of these genes are more likely to be transferred horizontally? a) Informational genes b) Conformational genes c) Operational genes d) Control genes
C
46) Eutrophic lakes typically support ten times the microbial concentrations of an oligotrophic lake. Which of the following statements is NOT true of eutrophic lakes? a) Biochemical oxygen demand is high. b) Photosynthetic activities are altered. c) Population of aquatic animals is high d) Algal blooms are common. e) Nitrogen and phosphorous levels are usually high.
C
47. In contrast to our vast arsenal of antibiotics (effective against bacteria), the number of antiviral drugs remains small. Why? a. Since viruses were discovered well after bacteria, we haven't spent nearly as much time working with viruses. b. So infectious, viruses are difficult to work with. c. Materials that stop viruses from replicating are likely to damage our cells as well. d. No money in antivirals, so pharmaceuticals don't work on them
C
48. Which of the following is not a step required in the lytic replication cycle? a. Host recognition and attachment b. Genome entry c. Integration into host genome d. Exit and transmission
C
48. Which of the following is the best technique for counting only viable cells? a. direct microscopic count b. chemostat c. spread plate d. dry weight measurements e. spectrophotometer
C
49) A working metagenomic definition of "species." a) Contig b) Scaffold c) OTU d) Bin e) Small subunit rRNA
C
49. As cells lyse, virions are released until they reach the final plateau. This is called the ___________. a. Prophage induction b. Assembly period c. Rise period d. Exponential phase
C
49. Growth of most microorganisms occurs by a. budding. b. conjugation. c. binary fission. d. transformation. e. replication.
C
5. The smallest distance by which two objects can be separated and still be distinguished is called: a. Magnification b. Focal distance c. Resolution d. Detection
C
50) Antibiotic spectrum of activity refers to: a) The range of host cells a given drug protects b) The range of antibiotics in a particular class c) The range of microbes a given drug affects. d) The range of side-effects produced by a given drug
C
7) The part of the antibody that is specific to a particular epitope is the ______. a) Heavy chain b) Light chain c) Variable region d) Constant region
C
7) Which of the following bacterial phyla is thought to be deepest (oldest) branch of Bacteria? a) Bacteroidetes b) Chlamydiae c) Aquificae d) Deinococcus-Thermus e) Proteobacteria
C
9) Helicobacter pylori is responsible for a) cholera. b) bacterial dysentery. c) peptic ulcer disease. d) diabetes
C
9. Which is true of the phospholipid molecules that make up the cell's plasma membrane? a. The hydrophilic heads are oriented towards the inside of the bi-layer b. The tails are hydrophilic which means they readily bind water molecules. c. The hydrophobic tails orient themselves towards the inside of the bi-layer. d. A and B e. A and C
C
1) Under what circumstances can an opportunistic pathogen cause disease? a) When they accidentally penetrate beyond these sites they typically inhabit b) If other normal flora microbes are reduced or eliminated c) If the host immune system is compromised d) All of the above e) None of the above
D
1. Which of the below best fits the definition of a microbe? a. Any disease-causing organism b. Any bacteria c. Any virus d. Any living organisms that require a microscope to be seen
D
10) Vaccination is very effective because a) Non-specific defense mechanisms play key roles b) immune responses are stimulated non-specifically by any foreign invader c) complement proteins are activated after vaccination d) Specific immunity has 'memory' e) none of the above - vaccination is not very effective at all
D
13) Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning bacterial endospores: a) widely distributed, but primarily soil inhabitants b) viable spores may have been recovered from Dominican bees encased in amber 25-40 mya c) endospores are assembled in the mother cell which lyses to release the spore d) they are heat, but not dessication resistant
D
15. Which of the following type of genome is NOT seen in viruses a. Linear, double stranded DNA b. Linear, single stranded, positive stranded RNA c. Linear, segmented, double stranded RNA d. All of the above are seen.
D
17. Cell envelope - Often used to refer to everything from the plasma membrane outward. Includes: a. Plasma membrane b. Cell wall c. Capsule, slime layer (glycocalyx), when present d. All of the above e. None of the above
D
19. Prophage integration into a host genome is important because it can: a. Inactivate host genes b. Alter expression of host genes c. Alter the phenotype at the population level d. All of the above e. Only A and C are correct
D
2) A holobiont is defined as an a) organism that benefits while providing no benefit or a hidden benefit to its host. b) interaction that harms one partner nonspecifically without an intimate symbiosis. c) organism that forms an intimate relationship with another, where both benefit. d) entity composed of multiple types of organisms, including microbes. e) intimate relationship in which one member benefits while harming a host.
D
20. _______ is the ability of a virus to infect a particular tissue type. a. Temperatism b. Lysogeny c. susceptibility d. Tropism
D
21) Edward Jenner was able to demonstrate the first example of immunological cross-protection because a) the smallpox virus was nonpathogenic. b) the cowpox virus only affected milkmaids. c) cowpox and smallpox viruses were metabolically different. d) cowpox virus was structurally similar to the smallpox virus. e) plague survivors were immune to smallpox.
D
21. Entry of plant viruses into host cells usually requires a. Chemical transmission involving specific receptors b. Chemical transmission and does not involve specific receptors c. mechanical transmission involving specific receptors d. mechanical transmission and does not involve specific receptors
D
22) ____________ follow a log normal distribution and are persistent, abundant, and biologically relevant. a) Holobionts b) Transient species c) Conserved species d) Core species e) Symbiotic species
D
24) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the theory that life on earth started in an RNA world? a) The energy currency of the cell is ATP, a ribonucleotide b) RNA can play a role in gene expression c) RNA is capable of storing, copying, and expressing genetic information. d) The early hot, anoxic atmosphere on earth would ensure formation of stable RNA precursors
D
24. a chemolithoautotroph gets its carbon from: a. inorganic material b. organic material c. light d. CO2 e. Organic or inorganic materials
D
27) During inflammation, ________ is the process by which neutrophils squeeze through the capillary wall into the infected tissue. a) Opsonization b) Antibody production c) Deliverance d) Extravasation e) Extrogenation
D
28) Planctomyces and Hyphomicrobium genera are unique because they both: a) Use binary fission to replicate b) Form dessication resistant spores that can last for thousands of years c) Are pioneer colonizers of the human gut d) Form swarmer cell which swim off and then attach to start the cycle over again.
D
30) Some microbes have polysaccharide capsules too slippery to grab. These microbial cells are coated with antibodies by the adaptive immune system to make them easier to phagocytose in a process called ________. a) Inflammation b) B-cell activation c) Extravasation d) Opsonization e) Inhibition
D
32) Which of the following is not a part of Lenski's proposed model of stages of evolving a new trait: a) Potentiation b) Actualization c) Refinement d) Initiation
D
35. Variolation was first tested in England on: a. Prisoners b. Orphans c. Soldiers d. A and B e. A and C
D
36) During later stages of a primary response, a helper T cell is required to activate most B cells after B cell receptor binds to antigen. This is called: a) Follicular response b) B cell reduction c) T cell activation d) T cell help e) Cellular immunity activation
D
36) Which of these is NOT a clade? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 3 and 4 e) 1 and 2
D
36. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Microbes in nature exist in complex, multispecies communities, but for detailed studies they must be grown separately in pure culture. b. After 120 years of trying, we have succeeded in culturing less than 1% of the microorganisms around us. c. Solid culture media are useful for trying to separate mixed cultures from clinical specimens or natural environments d. A complex culture is a population of cells arising from a single cell
D
37. Which of the following is NOT true of peptidoglycan? a. It is a meshlike polymer composed of identical subunits b. Several different amino acids compose side chains c. chains of linked peptidoglycan subunits are cross linked directly for strength in gram-negs d. All organisms have peptidoglycan cell walls.
D
38) A condition of the living animal or plant body or of one of its parts that impairs normal functioning and is typically manifested by distinguishing signs and symptoms a) Parasitism b) Health c) Dysbiosis d) Disease
D
38) Why is the study of marine microbes so important? a) Marine microbes contribute half the planet's productivity (production of biomass). b) Marine microbes form the base of the food chain for seafood, with enormous impact on humans. c) Oceans cover more than 2/3 of the earth's surface and microbes are at the base of all biogeochemical cycles, so marine microbes are vast in number. d) All of the above
D
39) The term pathogen is typically reserved for: a) Bacteria b) Viruses c) Protozoa d) Both A and B e) Both B and C
D
39) These statements describe __________. Tolerant of environmental extremes, some thermophilic species can grow at 75°C, often are primary colonizers, cause blooms in nutrient-rich waters, some produce toxins, often form symbiotic relationships (for example: with lichens). a) Caulobacter b) Proteobacteria c) Rhizobacteria d) Cyanobacteria e) Enterococci
D
39. How does a seemingly "new" virus emerge to sicken humans? a. Human consumption of wildlife b. As variants of endemic milder pathogens c. More human virus encounters due to humans entering new areas of the world d. All of the above
D
4. The primary use of Koch's postulates is to a. clearly identify and characterize a particular microorganism. b. isolate microorganisms from diseased animals. c. develop vaccines for specific diseases. d. demonstrate that a disease is caused by a microorganism. e. develop taxomonic keys for microorganisms important to human health.
D
40) The earliest forms of life for which we have clear fossil evidence are bacterial communities called a) Biofilms b) Ragnorites c) colonies d) stromatolites
D
41) An antibody (immunoglobulin) is a Y-shaped structure made up of four polypeptides: Two large _________ and two smaller _________, connected by disulfide bonds a) Hard chains, light chains b) Heavy chains, soft chains c) Hard chains, soft chains d) Heavy chains, light chains e) Light chains, heavy chains
D
41) Which of the following is evidence AGAINST the RNA world model? a) The energy currency of the cell is ATP, a ribonucleotide, so ATP would not be available b) RNA does not play a role in gene expression c) RNA is not capable of storing, copying, AND expressing genetic information d) The early hot, anoxic atmosphere on earth would prevent the stable formation of RNA precursors
D
41. The person who introduced vaccination into Europe was a. Louis Pasteur. b. Robert Koch. c. Edward Jenner. d. Mary Montagu.
D
42) Antibodies that have differences in the constant regions that are shared by all members of a particular species are called: a) Idiotypes b) Allotypes c) Basotypes d) Isotypes
D
42) Metagenomics is our most powerful tool to identify the microbes that inhabit an ecosystem. Yet serious limitations remain. Which of the following is considered a limitation? a) Metagenomes may miss community members b) It doesn't help with spatial organization c) Doesn't help determining the interaction of microbes within a habitat. d) All of these are limitations of metagenomics e) None of these are limitations of metagenomics
D
42. Which of the following types of molecules may passively diffuse across a membrane? a. an amino acid in a low pH environment b. a weak acid in a high pH environment c. a large polar molecule such as a sugar d. a small uncharged molecule such as water e. No molecules can diffuse across a membrane.
D
46) The probable portal of entry for a diarrheal disease is: a) Genitals b) Nose c) Parenteral route d) Mouth e) Skin
D
46. _________ (which rapidly kill their hosts) act as predators or parasites to limit host population density. a. Passive viruses b. Chronic viruses c. Lysogenic viruses d. Acute viruses
D
48) Once environmental DNA sequences are obtained for a particular microbe, the genome of a single organism requires assembly of overlapping fragments into _________. Which are regions of contiguous DNA sequence without gaps. a) Bins b) Ladders c) OTUs d) Contigs e) Transcriptomes
D
49) Antibiotic _______ refers to a microbe's potential reaction to a particular drug, whereas antibiotic _________ refers to the host's potential allergic reaction to the drug. a) Reactivity, responsiveness b) Responsiveness, reactivity c) Sensitivity, susceptibility d) Susceptibility, sensitivity
D
5) _________ are cell surface glycoproteins present on many eukaryotic cells that recognize microbe associated molecular patterns (MAMPs). a) Cytokines b) MAMP receptors c) NOD like receptors d) Toll like receptors e) Inflammasome receptors
D
50) Which of the following is NOT a way that DNA is transferred horizontally among prokaryotes? a) plasmids b) transposable elements c) bacteriophages d) predation
D
50. What is important about the fact that the influenza genome is negative sense RNA? a. Provides evidence that RNA can be translated from positive or negative sense b. Adds an extra step prior to translation which gives the virus another chance to prevent changes to the genome c. DNA polymerases are mistake prone so this process avoids errors. d. RNA polymerases make a lot of mistakes leading to many mutations
D
11) What dastardly villain tracked pathogenic E. coli O157:H7 from cattle feces on a ranch to spinach on a nearby farm and ignited the 2006 E. coli outbreak? a) zombies b) monkeys c) children of the corn d) the farmers themselves e) feral pigs
E
11) Which of the following statements are true regarding the Major Histocompatibility Complex? a) MHC molecules help determine whether an antigen comes from the host (a self-antigen) or from another source (a foreign antigen) - histocompatibility b) MHC molecules bind antigen, and present it on cell surface c) T cells ONLY recognize antigens associated with MHC proteins; they do NOT recognize free floating antigens d) None of these statements are true e) All of these statements are true
E
12. Which of the following are functions of the plasma membrane? a. separation of cell from environment b. transport systems c. Nutrient uptake d. waste excretion e. all of the above
E
14) Which of the following is NOT an integral part of the inflammatory process? a) dilation of blood vessels b) release of histamines and prostaglandins c) redness d) extravasation e) antibody synthesis
E
15) A woman falls and suffers a cut on her leg. She is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating microbes contaminating the cut? a) mucociliary elevator b) normal skin flora c) acidic skin secretions d) lysozyme e) phagocytosis and the inflammatory response
E
15. Which of the following is not a function of the cell wall? a. Provides characteristic shape to cell b. Protects the cell from osmotic lysis c. Contributes to pathogenicity d. Target for some antibiotics e. Storage site for organic compounds
E
16. Which of the following is not true regarding the lysogenic phase? a. The host cell with the viral genomic material incorporated into the chromosome is called a lysogen. b. The phage that is incorporated into the host genome is called a prophage. c. lysogens are resistant to re-infection by phage of the same type d. even after multiple generations, a prophage can initiate a lytic cycle e. phage insertion always cause changes in phenotype
E
19) In Dr. Schultz's work on the Ohio River and the fate of freshwater bacteria, what abiotic factor(s) seemed to separate the communities? a) Oxygen concentration b) Temperature c) Salinity d) pH e) B and C
E
2. The man who built the first compound microscope and published Micrographia, the first manuscript that illustrated objects under the microscope: a. Antony van Leeuwenhoek b. Robert Koch c. Louis Pasteur d. Walther Hesse e. Robert Hooke
E
20. Which of the following is true of gas vesicles a. are impermeable to atmospheric gas but are freely permeable to water b. To go down, vesicles are created c. To go up, vesicles are collapsed d. found in E. coli and some other gut procaryotes e. are impermeable to water but are freely permeable to atmospheric gases
E
21. If it is true that transport of food to and waste from an organism is solely dependent on diffusion at low Reynold's numbers, why do many bacteria have flagella? a. To spin to churn up local environment and bring nutrients to the cell b. To escape predators c. It is currently unknown d. Many bacterial environments are not low Reynold's number and the flagella allow bacteria to move freely in such environments e. Move to a more nutrient rich environment, then sit still
E
23) The antigen-binding receptor expressing hepatitis antigen in an infected liver cell would be a) TCR. b) CD. c) MHC II. d) CD. e) MHC I.
E
25. a chemoorganoheterotroph gets its energy from: a. inorganic material b. organic material c. light d. CO2 e. Organic or inorganic materials
E
33) In Lenski's Long Term Evolution Experiment, some E. coli evolved the ability to utilize citrate. Many clones from earlier generations were not able to re-evolve this ability. Even in those clones that were able to re-evolve citrate utilization, the rate of occurrence of the ability to use citrate occurred on the order of once per trillion cells. Lenski interprets these results as indicating that the evolution of citrate utilization in this one population depended on an earlier, perhaps non-adaptive ___________ mutation that had the effect of increasing the rate of mutation to citrate utilization to an accessible level. a) Maximizing b) Minimizing c) Optimizing d) Obviating e) Potentiating
E
33. All viruses require a host cell for reproduction and therefore all face the same needs for host infection. Which of the following is NOT needed for viral host infection? a. They must be able to recognize and attach to the correct host cell b. They must be able to get their genome into the host cell c. They must be able to assemble virions within the cell d. They must be able to exit and transmit themselves to other host cells e. They must kill the host organism
E
35) ______________are the antigen-binding molecules present on the surfaces of T cells. a) MHC I b) MHC II c) Antibodies d) Toll-like receptors e) T-cell receptors
E
4) ________ are present in most body tissues and are the cells most likely to make first contact with pathogens. a) Neutrophils b) Basophils c) Lymphocytes d) Natural killer cells e) Macrophages
E
42. When measuring the growth rate of a virus, the period of time when virions are virtually undetectable inside the infected cell is called what? a. Lag period b. Latent period c. Rise period d. Burst period e. Eclipse period
E
44) Food webs in marine systems are more complicated than expected due to the presence of ___________. These organisms can conduct phototrophy and heterotrophy. a) Phototrophs b) Heterotrophs c) Synchotrophs d) Cyanotrophs e) Mixotrophs
E
45. Directed movements toward or away from a chemical or physical signal are known as a. gliding. b. locomotion. c. flagellation. d. slime layer. e. chemotaxis.
E
47) Which of these is NOT an environmental factor that influences the growth of microbes? a) Oxygen concentration b) Nutrient availability c) Temperature d) Salinity e) ALL of these are environmental factors that may influence microbial growth
E
47. Which of the following represents a coupled transport system where two molecules travel in opposite directions? a. aquaporin b. porin c. symport d. diffusion transporters e. antiport
E
51) Which of the following is not one of the four basic mechanisms of antibiotic-resistance? a) target modification b) antibiotic degradation c) antibiotic inactivation d) changes in transportation of the antibiotic. e) Changing direction of pumping mechanism
E
51. Bacteria faced with environmental stress may undergo complex molecular reprogramming that includes changes in cell structure. This is called: a. Unbalanced growth b. Cardinal growth c. Mutation d. Cellular transpiration e. Cell differentiation
E
6) Why should you drink plenty of water during cold and flu season? a) To prevent the mucociliary escalator function b) To increase secretions which are bacteriacidal c) To keep skin moist which helps prevent bacterial colonization d) All of the above are true e) None of the above are true
E
6. Bacteriophage consist of a. a protein coat, and a capsid composed of nucleic acid b. a protein envelope surrounding an RNA genome c. a protein capsid, nucleic acid, and lipid d. DNA and RNA only e. a protein capsid which surrounds the nucleic acid
E
7. Despite the fact that Dr. Schultz believes viruses are living entities that travel in a protein "spaceship" from planet to planet (cell to cell), other scientists consider viruses to be 'non-living', or acellular, because: a. they cannot replicate independently b. They lack cellular components and mechanisms that living cells have c. They are not a complete cell d. They are metabolically inert e. All of the above
E
7. The microscopic technique that exposes the specimen stained with fluorochromes to ultraviolet, violet, or blue light is the: a. Phase contrast microscope b. Light microscope c. Dark-Field microscope d. Confocal microscope e. Fluorescence Microscope
E