Microbiology test 4

b. Tuberculosis

This image depicts an acid-fast stained sputum sample showing red bacilli. What might be a preliminary diagnosis for this patient? a. Diphtheria b. tuberculosis c. Influenza d. Pertussis

e. all of the choices are correct

Trichinosis includes all the following except a. encysted larvae get ingested b. associated with undercooked pork or bear meat c. migrate from intestines to blood and various body tissues d. coiled larvae encyst in skeletal muscle e. all of the choices are correct

e. All of the choices are correct

Trichomonas vaginalis a. does not produce cysts b. in males causes urethritis c. in females causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge d. has four flagella and an undulating membrane e. all of the choices are correct.

b. pertussis

Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except a. scarlet fever b. pertussis c. rheumatic fever d. glomerulonephritis e. erythrogenic rash

True

Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus True or False

E. coli

What bacteria is more common in females?

Propionibacterium acnes

What causes acne?

Pyocyanin green thumb/nail

What does Pseudomonas cause?

causing cold sores, fever blisters - on lip

What does herpes cause?

when things go bad. When you have aids!

What happens when your CD4 t cell count gets below 200?

sty

What is folliculitis called when it occurs in the eyelid?

sexually transmitted disease. Men experience painful urination and a purulent discharge • Women are often asymptomatic • Pelvic inflammatory disease my develop ~ Neisseria gonorrhoeae • Risk increases with frequency of sexual encounters

What is gonorrhea?

c. It frequently involves septicemia

What is incorrect about shigellosis a. Outbreaks have occurred in day care centers b. Watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools and abdominal cramps c. It frequently involves septicemia d. Human carriers cause fecal transmission e. it is also called dysentery

Staphylococcus

What is most commonly caused by folliculitis?

rubella (german measles)

What is not a big deal in children

boil

What is the common name for furuncle?

much less effective in preventing pregnancy

Why should a spermicide not be used alone?

genital warts

caused by HPV (human papillomaviruses). Gardasil vaccination helps protect you from it.

Trichomoniasis vaginalis

females have vaginal discharge and vaginal irritation. males are asymptomatic but can lead to infertility in men.

a. Staphylococcus aureus

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus d. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Streptococcus agalactiae

e. All of the choices are correct

A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves a(n) a. chest X ray b. acid-fast stain of sputum c. sputum culture d. tuberculin skin test e. All of the choices are correct

True

Chlamydiosis can lead to cervicitis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease. True or False

False

Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw True or False

a. droplet contact and indirect contact

Cold viruses are transmitted by a. droplet contact and indirect contact b. endogenous c. direct contact d. None of the choices is correct e. All of the choices are correct

False

Cryptococcal meningitis is highly communicable among humans. True or False

chylamdia

women are usually asymptomatic and men have swollen testicles and painful/fire urination and pus discharge from the penis.

c. symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea

Giardiasis involves a. a protozoan that does not form cysts b. infection by a bacteria c. symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea. d. fimbriae for adherence e. All of the choices are correct

e. All of the choices are correct

Helicobacter pylori causes a. gastritis b. duodenal ulcers c. stomach ulcers d. increased risk for stomach cancer e. All of the choices are correct

e. All of the choices are correct

Hepatitis B virus a. is principally transmitted by blood b. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse. c. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers. d. has many chronic carriers e. All of the choices are correct

single dose of oral metronidazole

How do you treat trichomoniasis?

c. chickenpox

If a person who has never been infected with the varicella zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, the first person will come down with a. herpes labialis b. shingles c. chickenpox d. infectious mononucleosis e. herpes keratitis

e. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

Impetigo is causes by a. Propionibacterium acnes b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pyogenes e. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes

d. eustachian (auditory) tubes

Infection travels to the middle ear by the way of the a. auditory canal b. sinuses c. nasal cavity d. eustachian (auditory) tubes e. subarachnoid space

b. acne

Infections caused by Staphlycoccus aureus include all of the following except a. impetigo b. acne c. scalded skin syndrome d. meningitis e. furuncles and carbuncles

Measles (Rubeola)

Kopliks spots found in the mouth It is highly contagious

a. ticks

Lyme disease is transmitted by a. ticks b. fleas c. lice d. droplets e. flies

a. Salmonella typhi b. Shigella dysenteriae c. Escherichia coli O157:H7 d. Campylobacter jejuni e. Vibrio cholerae

Match the infectious agents to the description of the disease they cause of GI tract diseases. a. Typhoid fever characterized by progressive, invasive infection that leads to septicemia b. Diarrhea containing blood and mucus from the GI tract c. Bloody diarrhea with development of hemolytic uremic syndrome in 10% of patients d. Most frequent cause of diarrhea resulting in watery stools, fever, vomiting, headaches, and severe abdominal pain e. Diarrhea described as rice water stools.

c. Vibrio cholerae

"Rice-water stools" are associated with disease caused by which organism? a. Vibrio vulnificus b. Vibrio parahaemolyticus c. Vibrio cholerae d. Campylobacter jejuni e. Helicobacter pylori

c. malaria

All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except a. cryptosporidiosis b. cyclosporlasis c. malaria d. campylobacter e. giardiasis

c. infects the stomach

All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejune except it a. is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water b. causes fever and a watery stool c. infects the stomach d. produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea e. has gram-negative curved rods with darting motility

a. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except it a. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies b. is a colitis that is a superinfection c. often has an endogenous source d. is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad-sprectrum antimicrobials e. is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals

True

Can you spread syphilis congentially? True or False?

True

Chlamydia trachoma's is commonly transmitted by direct sexual activity. True or False

C. Virus

Encephalitis is most commonly causes by a a. bacteria b. protozoan c. virus d. helminth e. All of the choices are correct

e. All of the choices are correct

Escherichia coli infections a. are often transmitted by fecal-contaminated water and food b. have been due to undercooked meat c. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea d. can be self-limiting with the only treatment being rehydration e. All of the choices are correct

a. Scarlet fever b. Rheumatic fever c. Glomerulonephritis d. Psoriasis

Match the statement to the sequelae (complication) from Streptococcus pyogenes infection it most accurately describes to test your understanding of upper respiratory diseases caused by microorganisms a. results from a Streptococcus pyogenes strain that is infected with a toxin-coding bacteriophage and is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash b. due to an immunological cross reaction between the streptococcal M protein and heart muscle c. Results from streptococcal proteins forming immune complexes which are deposited on the basement membranes of the kidney d. Streptococcal toxins that act as a superanitgens and causes skin issues

a. Primary syphilis b. Secondary syphilis c. Tertiary or latent syphilis d. Congenital syphilis

Match the statement to the stage of syphilis that it most accurately describes to test your understanding of ulcer-producing GI tract diseases caused by microorganisms. a. hard, painless chancre at site of spirochete entry. b. fever, headache, and sore throat, followed by lymphadenopathy and a peculiar red or brown rash on all skin surfaces, including the palms and the soles. c. Neurosyphilis can be present as well as gummas. d. Syphilis spirochete passes through placenta to infect fetus

c. rubeola

Measles is also known as a. rubella b. shingles c. rubeola d. fifth disease e. varicella

e. maculopapular

Measles is describes as a _____ skin lesion a. purpura b. bulla c. papule d. macule e. maculopapular

d. infertility

Pelvic inflammatory disease often leads to a. ovarian cancer b. uterine cancer c. cervical cancer d. infertility e. kidney cancer

b. dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater

Place the following in order from skull to brain: 1) subarachnoid space; 2) arachnoid mater; 3) dura mater; 4) Pia mater. a. subarachnoid space, arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater b. dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater c. dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid space d. arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater e. pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater

True

Pregnant women are an important risk group for group B Streptococcus infections due to their ability to pass this dangerous organism to the infant during the birthing process. True or False

c. Clostridium difficile

Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of a. Clostridium botulinum b. Clostridium perfringens c. Clostridium difficile d. Clostridium tetani e. All of the choices are correct

d. an immunological cross-reaction in which anti-streptococcal antibodies target the heart

Rheumatic fever is caused by a. a primary streptococcal infection with Streptococcus pyogenes b. a combination of infection with Streptococcus progenes and the rheumatic fever virus c. a secondary streptococcal infection with a different type of streptococcus d. an immunological cross-reaction in which anti-streptococcal antibodies target the heart e. both a primary viral infection and a secondary streptococcal infection

c. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.

Rubella is a. caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus). b. a very contagious disease c. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects. d. seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia

True

Secondary bacterial infections may occur with the common cold. True or False

b. vector control

The best defense against arboviruses is a. prophylactic rifampin b. vector control c. vaccination d. prompt treatment with acyclovir e. All of the choices are correct

True

The best treatment for acute diarrhea is oral replacement of electrolytes and water True or False

e. erythrogenic toxin

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever are due to a. enterotoxins b. hemolysins c. toxic shock syndrome toxin d. exfoliative toxin e. erythrogenic toxin

d. Borrelia burgdorferi

The causative agent of Lyme disease is a. Leptospira interrogans b. Borrelia hermsii c. Ixodes scapularis d. Borrelia burgdorferi e. Ixodes pacificus

Paramyxovirus

The causative organism for mumps is a. Paramyxovirus b. Morbillivirus c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Corynebacterium e. Vibrio

a. Bordetella pertussis

The causative organism of whooping cough is a. Bordetella pertussis b. Streptococcus pneumonia c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

c. botulism

The food borne disease that involves neurotoxin is a. gastrointestinal anthrax b. bacillus cereus intoxication c. botulism d. clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis e. All of the choices are correct

b. chlamydia

The leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is a. gonorrhea b. chlamydia c. genital herpes d. syphilis e. HIV

b. Streptococcus mutans

The main causes of dental caries seem to be a. Streptococcus pyogens b. Streptococcus mutans c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Both A and B are correct e. Both B and C are correct

b. Escherichia coli

The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is a. Escherichia coli O157:H7 b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Streptococcus pyogenes e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b. dental caries

The most common infectious disease in humans is a. the common cold b. dental caries c. pharyngitis d. diarrhea e. gastritis

a. water and electrolyte replacement

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is a. water and electrolyte replacement b. antimicrobials c. antitoxin d. surgery e. None of the choices is correct

d. exfoliative toxin

The toxin of staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is a. enterotoxin b. hemolysin c. toxic shock syndrome toxin d. exfoliative toxin e. erythrogenic toxin

bacterial vaginosis - White vaginal discharge with a "fishy" odor • Severe vaginal itching and burning • Caused by various anaerobic bacteria • Associated with multiple sexual partners and vaginal douching • Treated with oral or vaginal metronidazole. (caused by a bacterial infection, vaginal discharge that is grayish, foamy, and smells fishy. common for bv not to have any symptoms). yeast infection - Severe vaginal itching and burning • White discharge Sometimes painful urination Candida albicans - these are endogenous on your body Candida overgrows from vaginal pH or microbiota changes Can become systemic in the immunocompromised fluconazole. yeast live in the vagina. (its a fungal infection, discharge is usually thick, white, and ordorless. May have a white coating in or around your vagina)

What is the difference between bacterial vaginosis and a yeast infection?

Chlamydia

What is the most common reported STD in the United States?

a tick

What is the vector in rocky mountains fever?

tampons

What is toxic shock syndrome associated with?

Staphylococcus aureus

What is toxic shock syndrome caused by?

herpesvirus

What kind of virus is chickenpox/shingles and tear drops and rose pedals

carbuncle

What occur when multiple furuncles grow together?

chicken pox and shingles

What two infections are caused by Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

syphilis and rocky mountain spotted fever

What two things infections will cause you to have a rash on the palms of your hands and the soles of your feet?

chancre

What's the first thing that can pop up in syphilis that is painless?

palms of your hands and soles of your feet

Where is the rash located on the body for rocky mountain fever?

e. produces enterotoxin

Which is incorrect about Yersinia pests? a. gram-negative rod b. has a couple c. exhibits bipolar staining d. transmitted by fleas e. produces enterotoxin

d. average incubation in human is 1 week

Which is incorrect about rabies? a. is a zoonotic disease b. wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs c. transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation d. average incubation in humans is 1 week e. symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis

e. produces "rice-water" stools

Which is not true of Clostridium difficile? a. a gram-positive, endospore forming rod b. part of normal intestinal biota c. infection precipitated by broad-sprectrum antibiotic therapy d. also called pseudomembranous colitis e. produces "rice-water" stools

a. interferon

Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2? a. interferon b. valacyclovir c. acyclovir d. famciclovir e. all of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct.

Which of the following is a sign of meningitis? a. headache b. stiff neck c. white blood cells in a cerebrospinal fluid d. fever e. All of the choices are correct

a. tinea wapitis - ringworm of the beard

Which of the following is mismatched? a. tinea wapitis - ringworm of the beard b. tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot c. tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin d. tinea corporis - ringworm of the body e. tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails

b. it is a single-stranded, non enveloped RNA virus

Which of the following is not true of rubeola? a. causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus b. it is a single-stranded, nonenveloped RNA virus c. it is in the Paramyxovirus family d. causes cell membranes to fuse to form syncytial e. transmitted by respiratory droplets

e. treatment involves antitoxin therapy

Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and food borne botulism? a. occurs when spore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds b. causes by enterotoxins of the pathogen c. exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release d. nausea and diarrhea are symptoms e. treatment involves antitoxin therapy

a. cat

Which organism is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii? a. cat b. dog c. mouse d. mosquito e. raccoon

b. Eosinophilia

______, an increase in certain granular leukocytes, is a hallmark of helminthic infections a. Leukocytosis b. Eosinophilia c. Leukopenia d. Neutrophila

a. Congenital rubella

________ occurs when the caustative virus, which is strongly teratogenic, is transmitted to the fetus in utero; it can subsequently result in miscarriage or multiple permanent defects in the newborn. a. Congenital rubella b. Scarlet fever c. Fifth disease d. Rheumatic fever

condyloma acuminata

another name for genital warts is called

chickenpox and shingles

tear drops and rose pedals

genital herpes

virus will go into nerve ganglia and will live and increases your risk of HIV. a regular male condom will not protect you. you can give it to someone when you are not having a outbreak, and even if your on treatment. treatment is acyclovir.

exfoliative toxin

what about staph aureus is causing the sloughing of the skin?

Erisypelas - in elderly and it gets in your lymph nodes Impetigo - in children

what are the two different types of pyoderma?

acyclovir

what drug of choice for herpes

high viral load and very contagious

what happens in the acute phase?

bactrim

what is the drug use for cystitis?

cystitis

what is the medical term for bladder infection?