MLT ASCP Review 7
Which of the following is the "activation unit" in the classical complement pathway? - C1 qrs - Factors B and D - C4, C2, C3 - C5, C6, C7, C8, C9
C4, C2, C3
Which of the following markers is associated with normal mature B cell expression? - CD19 - CD8 - CD14 - C42
CD19
Which type of lipoprotein is the least dense? - Chylomicrons - VLDL - LDL - HDL
Chylomicrons
Which complement pathway and a related initiator can activate complement? - Classic pathway; antigen-IgG antibody complexes - Classic pathway; tumor cells - Alternative pathway; certain viruses and gram-negative bacteria - Mannose-Lectin pathway; apoptotic cells
Classic pathway; antigen-IgG antibody complexes
Which of the following statistical methods would be employed to determine how closely two different methods compare with each other? - Linear regression - Standard deviation - Coefficient of variation - Percent difference of means
Coefficient of variation
What are the steps of Root Cause Analysis? - Organize the procedure, chart the factors, and assess the results of the actions - Collect the information, identify reasons, chart the factors, and generate recommendations - Chart the factors, identify reasons, organize the procedure, and calculate risk factors - Identify reasons, generate recommendations, and assess the results of the actions
Collect the information, identify reasons, chart the factors, and generate recommendations
Which one of the following blood components contains the MOST factor VIII concentration per mL? - Plasma - Cryoprecipitate - Fresh Frozen Plasma - Platelet concentrate
Cryoprecipitate
Which of the following hemoglobins is known to migrate with HbS during electrophoresis when an alkaline gel, such as cellulose acetate, is used? - A2 - C - D - F
D
The laboratory test used to determine the presence of neural tube defects is: - L/S ratio - Amniotic fluid creatinine - Sweat chloride test - Alpha-fetoprotein
Alpha-fetoprotein
Which class of antibody can agglutinate erythrocytes (RBC's) after anti-human globulin (AHG) is added to the test tube? - IgA - IgE - IgG - IgM
IgG
Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of specimens for viral culture? - 4*C - -20*C - -70*C - Room temperature
-70*C
Which of the following parameters, according to the American Heart Association (AHA), is not included in the diagnosis of the presence of the metabolic syndrome in adults? - An elevated waist circumference - An elevated triglyceride level - An elevated fasting glucose - An elevated high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
An elevated high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
Which of the following antibodies causes the MOST severe cases of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)? - Anti-I - Anti-N - Anti-A,B - Anti-D
Anti-D
Which of the following is necessary to test for in order to detect patients in the "window" period of a hepatitis B infection? - HBsAg - Anti-HBs - Anti-HBe - Anti-HBc
Anti-HBc
Detection of a fruity odor in a fresh urine sample may be indicative of all of the following EXCEPT: - Starvation - Malabsorption - Bacterial infection - Diabetes mellitus
Bacterial infection
Bacterial contamination of a urine specimen from a normal healthy individual could originate from all of the following except: - Contaminated urine container - Vagina - Bladder - Vulva
Bladder
From the following molds, which one is considered an obligate pathogen, causing infections in persons who were previously healthy? - Aspergillus fumigatus - Rhizopus spp - Blastomyces dermatitidis - Mucor spp
Blastomyces dermatitidis
What is the most common Rh haplotype among whites? - Dce - DCe - DcE - dce
DCe
Direct examination of treponemes can be performed by: - Light microscopy examination - Darkfield microscopy examination - VDRL testing - Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) testing
Darkfield microscopy examination
Which of the following sets of results is indicative of stage 3 iron deficiency (Iron deficiency anemia)? - Decreased ferritin, normal soluable transferrin receptor (sTfR), slightly increased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) - Decreased ferritin, increased sTfR, increased TIBC - Decreased ferritin, increased sTfR, decreased TIBC - Increased ferritin, normal sTfR, increased TIBC
Decreased ferritin, increased sTfR, increased TIBC
Examples of conditions resulting in benign proteinuria include: - Multiple myeloma and dehydration - Dehydration and orthostatic proteinuria - Lupus erythematosus and multiple myeloma - Orthostatic proteinuria and lupus erythematosus
Dehydration and orthostatic proteinuria
Which of the following identifies a major mechanism of electricity-induced injury? - Electrical energy causing indirect tissue damage - Conversion of electrical energy into thermal energy causing minimum tissue destruction - Direct trauma resulting from falls or violent muscle spasms - Burns that do not cause tissue or nerve damage
Direct trauma resulting from falls or violent muscle spasms
What is the basis for many types of analyses used in the clinical laboratory, such as potentiometry, amperometry, coulometry, and polarography? - Chemiluminescence - Electrochemistry - Chromatography - Spectrophotometry
Electrochemistry
The moving through the blood stream and lodging of a blood clot, gas bubble, fat globule, or other foreign material is known as: - Phlebitis - Embolism - Thrombosis - Aneurysm
Embolism
A severe hemophiliac, with a Factor VIII activity of less than 1%, is actively bleeding due to a serious accident. The blood product of choice is: - Single-donor plasma - Factor VIII concentrate - Factor IX concentrate - Cryoprecipitate
Factor VIII concentrate
ACTH controls which step of steroid hormone production? - First step (cholesterol to cholesterol esters) - First step (cholesterol esters to cholesterol) - Second step (cholesterol to pregnenolone) - Third step (cholesterol esters to pregnenolone)
First step (cholesterol esters to cholesterol)
Trichomonas, Giardia, and Chilomastix belong to the following parasitic group based on the type of motility: - Amoebae - Flagellates - Ciliates - Microsporidia
Flagellates
Which of the following analytes would be decreased due to delay in centrifugation? - Creatinine - ALT - Folate - Posassium
Folate
Which of the following is the principal for the biruet method for total protein analysis? - Digestion of protein; measurement of nitrogen content - Formation of violet-colored chelate between Cu2+ ions and peptide bonds - Globulins are precipitated in high salt concentrations - Proteins separated based on electric charge
Formation of violet-colored chelate between Cu2+ ions and peptide bonds
Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood is usually determined by means of which of the following electrodes? - Silver - Glass - Platinum - Platinum-lactate
Glass
Which of the following is NOT a condition in which coarse basophilic stippling is typically found? - Anemias of abnormal hemoglobin synthesis - Thalassemia - Lead poisoning - Hemolytic anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Which of the following is an FDA-approved therapeutic agent for treating sickle cell patients? - Butyric acid - Erythropoietin - Hydroxyurea - Nitric oxide
Hydroxyurea
Procedures that may enhance the recovery of Streptococcus pyogenes from throat cultures include: - Extraction of streptococcal grouping antigen - Incorporation of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in the culture media - Incubation at 42*C - Use of culture media with increased concentrations of glucose
Incorporation of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in the culture media
Which of the following choices is the basic technique used to detect unexpected antibodies with a commercial set of reagent cells? - Polyclonal technique - Direct antiglobulin test - Enzyme technique - Indirect antiglobulin test
Indirect antiglobulin test
Which one of the following statements about acetaminophen metabolism is false? - It is metabolized in the kidney - It is largely metabolized in the liver to glucuronide and sulfonate conjugates - A small amount is metabolized via cytochrome oxidase to a reactive benzoquinoneimine intermediate - The benzoquinoneimine intermediate becomes toxic to the liver once tissue glutathione becomes depleted
It is metabolized in the kidney
If a drug is given at intervals that are the same as it's half-life, approximately how long will it take for the drug to reach a steady state? - It will be at a steady state from the first dose - It will take about two half-lives to reach a steady state - It will take about 5-7 half-lives to reach a steady state - It will never reach a steady state
It will take about 5-7 half-lives to reach a steady state
Which of the following antigens are well developed on fetal cells? - Lewis - ABO - Kell - I
Kell
How does RhIg prevent anti-D production? - Mainly by suppressing the immune response after exposure to D positive cells - Mainly by clearing antibody sensitized D negative RBC's from maternal circulation - Mainly by clearing IgG fetal antibodies from maternal circulation - Mainly by clearing maternal IgM antibodies from fetal circulation
Mainly by suppressing the immune response after exposure to D positive cells
Each of the following parasites, who's common names are listed, is associated with intestinal infections, EXCEPT: - Whipworm - Dwarf tapeworm - Malayan filarial worm - Pinworm
Malayan filarial worm
Which assay using 24-hour urine is considered the BEST single screening test for pheochromocytoma? - Catecholamines - Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) - Homovallic acid (HVA) - Metanephrines
Metanephrines
Which of the following cardiac biomarkers rises within 1-3 hours after chest pain, peaks in 2-6 hours, and is usually normal within 24 hours? - TnT - CK-MB - Myoglobin - Tnl
Myoglobin
The following organism is described as a branching, gram-positive bacillus that is partially acid-fast and able to hydrolyze urea, but unable to hydrolyze casein, xanthine, or tyrosine. - Nocardia asteroides - Nocardia brasiliensis - Streptomyces griseus - Actinomadura madurae
Nocardia asteroides
Which site listed below should be accepted for a rapid strep screen? - Tongue - Cheek - Peritonsillar fossae - Nares
Peritonsillar fossae (AKA Tonsils)
The cytochrome oxidase-positive bacterial species that is DNAse negative, ornithine decarboxylase positive, and is associated with gastroenteritis in children after the ingestion of contaminated water is most likely: - Aeromonas hydrophilia - Salmonella enterica - Plesiomonas shigelloides - Shigella sonnei
Plesiomonas shigelloides
Which of the following viral families contains DNA as it's nucleic acid? - Paramyxoviridae - Rhabdoviridae - Poxviridae - Orthomyxoviridae
Poxviridae
Which of the following laboratory results would you find with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) but NOT with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TPP) or hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)? - Prolonged PT and aPTT - Thrombocytopenia - Schistocytes on the peripheral blood smear - Elevated LDH
Prolonged PT and aPTT
What tribe is Morganella morganii in? - Yersinieae - Escherichieae - Klebsielleae - Proteeae
Proteeae
What has happened in an antibody titer, if tubes #5-7 show a stronger reaction than tubes #1-4? - Poor technique - Postzone reaction - Prozone reaction - Zone of Equivalence reaction
Prozone reaction
Which adsorption technique removes cold (IgM) antibodies, particularly anti-I specificities? - Cold autoadsorption - Warm autoadsorption - Differential (allogeneic) - Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)
Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)
Rh antibodies generally: - React best at 4*C - React best at room temperature - Generally do not react at any temperature - React best at 37*C
React best at 37*C
Which characteristic best describes IgG antibodies produced against red blood cells? - Are naturally occurring - Cannot be identified using the AHG test - React best at room temperature - React best at 37*C
React best at 37*C
Vaccines can be divided into the following non-experimental types with the exception of: - Live, attenuated - Inactivated - Toxoid - Recombinant vector
Recombinant vector
The oxidation of hemoglobin to methemoglobin in an acidic urine after several hours may cause which of the following color to produce? - White - Yellow - Blue to green - Red to brown
Red to brown
Parasitized animals that may serve as a source of infection for humans are called: - Definitive hosts - Accidental hosts - Reservoir hosts - Intermediate hosts
Reservoir hosts
Methylene blue stain works by: - Staining cellular components that have a neutral pH, such as neutrophilic granules - Staining cellular components that have an acidic pH such as ribosomes, DNA, and RNA - Staining cellular components that have a basic pH such as cytoplasmic proteins - Staining cellular components regardless of the pH
Staining cellular components that have an acidic pH such as ribosomes, DNA, and RNA
In the process of thrombopoiesis, which is arranged from least mature to most mature? - Thrombocyte, metamegakarocyte, megakarocyte, promegakarocyte, megakaryoblast, stem cell - Stem cell, megakaryoblast, megakarocyte, promegakarocyte, thrombocyte, metamegakarocyte - Megakarocyte, promegakarocyte, megakaryoblast, thrombocyte - Stem cell, megakaryoblast, promegakarocyte, megakarocyte, thrombocyte
Stem cell, megakaryoblast, promegakarocyte, megakarocyte, thrombocyte
A 5% sheep blood agar plate is inoculated with a throat culture. It is common practice to stab the agar with the inoculating needle, in order to detect or accentuate the reaction of: - Streptolysin O - Streptolysin S - Lecithinase - Alpha prime hemolysin
Streptolysin O
This assay would be used to help rule out heparin contamination in a coagulation sample: - Protein C assay - Thrombin time - PT - aPTT
Thrombin time
Which of the following clinical findings characterizes post-transfusion purpura (PTP)? - Increased hemoglobin - Pancytopenia - High ferritin levels - Thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia
Which of the following statements regarding trough level in therapeutic drug monitoring is true? - Trough level is assessed by collecting a blood sample after a dose of the drug is given (at a specific time) - Trough level is the point at which the drug is highest in the patient's body - Trough level is the point at which the drug is lowest in the patient's body - Trough level is assessed by collecting a urine sample right after the next dose of the drug is given
Trough level is the point at which the drug is lowest in the patient's body
In almost all cases of polycythemia vera, which of the following genetic abnormalities is present? - Philadelphia chromosome - JAK2 mutation - BCR/ABL1 - t(15:17)(q22;q12)
JAK2 mutation
Which of the following genotypes is found with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population? - CDe/cDe - cDE/ce - cDE/cE - CDe/ce
CDe/ce
Of the following, which has the longest half-life? - Carbamazepine - Valproic acid - Phenytoin - Phenobarbital
Phenobarbital
Which of the following tests confirms the presence of Bence-Jones proteinuria: - Protein electrophoresis - Sulfosalicylic acid precipitation - Cryoprecipitation - Immunoelectrophoresis
Immunoelectrophoresis
A 34 year old female was seen in the dermatology clinic for some lesions on her fingers that had not responded to topical antimicrobial therapy. A tissue biopsy was sent for histological examination, routine culture, acid-fast bacilli (AFB) culture, and fungal culture. There was no growth on any culture, but AFB were seen in the histological preparations. The tissue culture for AFB had been incubated at both 35*C and 32*C, in liquid media and on media with hemoglobin added for several weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis of the skin lesions? - Buruli's ulcer - Swimming pool granuloma - Leprosy - AIDS
Leprosy
What is the first line treatment for moderate to severe hemophilia A? - Platelets - Lyophilized Factor VIII concentrate - Factor IX complex - Cryoprecipitated AHF
Lyophilized Factor VIII concentrate
Which of the following species of Mycobacterium might be associated with contamination of the hot water system in large institutions such as hospitals? - M. xenopi - M. ulcerans - M. marinum - M. haemophilum
M. xenopi
Which of the following statements is FALSE? - White blood cell counts increase more in bacterial septicemia than in viral meningitis - Nucleated red blood cells can cause a falsely decreased white blood count - An acceptable blood smear will have a feathered edge - Normal cell count values often differ among age groups
Nucleated red blood cells can cause a falsely decreased white blood count
Which of the following might be a cause of false positive indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)? - Failure to adequately wash cells - Delay in the addition of antiglobulin reagent - Over-centrifugation - High concentration of IgG paraprotein in a patient's serum
Over-centrifugation
How does the laboratory immunologic assessment of Waldenstrom's Primary Macroglobulinemia differ from other monoclonal gammopathies? - Frequently an increase in IgG, possibly an M spike on serum protein electrophoresis. - Overproduction of IgM antibodies - Only kappa or lambda monoclonal light chains or Bence-Jones protein seen on serum protein electrophoresis - Characterized by the presence of of monoclonal proteins composed of the heavy chain portion of the immunoglobulin molecule
Overproduction of IgM antibodies
A person with beta thalassemia intermedia might exhibit what clinical symptoms? - Patients with thalassemia intermedia vary in clinical symptoms based on genetic inheritance patterns - Patients with thalassemia intermedia will have severe skeletal deformations - Patients with thalassemia intermedia will see no clinical symptoms - Patients with thalassemia intermedia will have severe muscular deformations
Patients with thalassemia intermedia vary in clinical symptoms based on genetic inheritance patterns
Which of the following organisms appear Gram positive when using the Gram stain? - Haemophilus influenzae - Escherichia coli - Peptostreptococcus anaerobius - Bacteroides fragilis
Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
While working at a blood bank laboratory, you hear chimes over the hospital loudspeaker system announcing the birth of a baby. Thirty minutes later, you receive a cord blood specimen that you identify as O positive. You previously received the mother's specimen and she was O negative with a negative antibody screen. What is the next action? - Issue one vial of RhIg - Perform a Kleihauer-Betke stain - Nothing - Mom is not at risk for anti-D - Perform a fetal bleed screen
Perform a fetal bleed screen
Components of the second line of defense in the human body are: - Intact skin: unbroken mucosal membrane surfaces - Phagocytic cells: complement - Dendritic cells: specific antibodies - Lymphocytes: complement
Phagocytic cells: complement
Methods of identifying many of the major hemoglobin variants such as HbA, HbF, HbS, etc include all of the following EXCEPT: - Sodium metabisulfite solubility test - High performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) - Citrate agar electrophoresis - Alkaline electrophoresis
Sodium metabisulfite solubility test
The laboratory department that performs physical, chemical, and microscopic evaluation of urine is called: - Clinical Chemistry - Urinalysis (UA) - Urology - Microbiology
Urinalysis
Which of the following statements concerning Vitamin D is correct? - Vitamin D deficiency is a cause of scurvy - Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation - Vitamin D functions in part to aid in optic nerve transmission - One form of Vitamin D is referred to as pyridoxal phosphate
Vitamin D acts as a hormone in calcium regulation
