Module 2 Ch 7-10
What is plasma protein system? (Inflammatory response)
*Made up of: -Complement system - Clotting cascade system - Bradykinin system.
What is cellular mediators? (Inflammatory response)
*Primarily circulating WBC (granulocytes) most common leukocyte. *Basophils *eosinophils *neutrophils
MHC class 1
- Alerts immune system to virtually infected cells (all nucleated cells in the bodies of the vertebrates)
Which demonstrates how antibiotic resistance may occur? (Select all that apply.) A Thickened bacterial cell walls trap the antibiotic. = B Modification of the bacterial cell wall prevents antibiotic access. C Bacterial enzymes destroy the antibiotic. D Nucleus of the virus is destroyed.
A, B, C Resistance may result from sequestration or decreased uptake of the antibiotic. Thickened cell walls or biofilms trap antibiotics in the extracellular matrix to prevent access to bacteria. Decreased uptake of the antibiotic results from modification of the cell wall. Bacterial enzymes can destroy the antibiotic. Antibiotics are given for bacterial infections, not viral.
Which functions of the clotting system are exhibited at the site of injury or inflammation? (Select all that apply.) A. Prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues B Traps microorganisms at the site of inflammation for removal C Prevents clot formation at the site of injury D Provides a framework for future repair and healing
A, B, D
Which characteristics are observable of vascular injury and inflammation? (Select all that apply.) A Redness B Coolness to the touch C Warmth to the touch D Increased swelling E Pain
A, C, D, E
Which are the stages of pathologic infection? (Select all that apply.) A Invasion B Death C Colonization D Metastasis E Multiplication
A,C,E The stages of pathologic infection include colonization, invasion, spread, and multiplication. Death and metastasis are not stages of pathologic infection.
What process causes heat and redness to occur during the inflammatory process? a.Vasodilation of blood vessels b.Decreased capillary permeability c.Platelet aggregation d.Endothelial cell contraction
A. The increased blood flow as a result of vasodilation and increasing concentration of red cells at the site of inflammation cause locally increased warmth and redness.
Blood type A carries the A antigen, type B carries the B antigen, type AB carries both A & Antigens, & type O carries neither A not B antigens.
ABO system
Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th2 cells? a.Th2 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens. b.They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells. c.Th2 cells produce IL-2, TNF-ß, and IFN-. d.They assist in the development of cell-mediated immunity.
ANS: A Antigens derived from multicellular parasites and allergens are hypothesized to be involved in the production of more Th2 cells. The other statements are not true regarding Th2 cells.
A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following? a.No antigens c.Both A and B antigens b.No antibodies d.Both A and B antibodies
ANS: A Because individuals with type O blood lack both types of antigens, they are considered universal donors, meaning that anyone can accept their red blood cells. Type O individuals, who have neither A or B antigen but have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, cannot accept blood from any of the other three types.
When mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, the erythrocytes are destroyed by: a.Complement-mediated cell lysis c.Phagocytosis in the spleen b.Phagocytosis by macrophages d.Natural killer cells
ANS: A Erythrocytes are destroyed by complement-mediated lysis in individuals with autoimmune hemolytic anemia or as a result of an alloimmune reaction to ABO-mismatched transfused blood cells. The other options are not involved in an ABO incompatibility reaction.
The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life? a.Fetal c.Infancy b.Neonatal d.Puberty
ANS: A Generation of clonal diversity primarily occurs in the fetus and probably continues to a low degree throughout most of adult life.
During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action? a.Histamine bound to H2 b.Chemotactic factor binding to the receptor c.Epinephrine bound to mast cells d.Acetylcholine bound to mast cells
ANS: A Histamine bound to H2 results in the degranulation of mast cells during an IgE-medicated hypersensitivity reaction. The other options do not cause this reaction.
Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a.I c.III b.II d.IV
ANS: A Hypersensitivity reactions have been divided into four distinct types: type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, type II (tissue-specific) hypersensitivity reactions, type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, and type IV (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions.
Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? a.IgA c.IgG b.IgE d.IgM
ANS: A IgA can be divided into two subclasses, IgA1 and IgA2. IgA1 molecules are predominantly found in the blood, whereas IgA2 is the predominant class of antibody found in normal body secretions. The other options are not found in the substances identified in the question.
The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both: a.Are antigen-presenting molecules. b.Bind antigens to antibodies. c.Secrete interleukins during the immune process. d.Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
ANS: A MHC and CD1 molecules are both antigen presenting molecules (APCs). The other options do not accurately describe the common function of these cells.
Which cell has a role in developing cell-mediated immunity? a.Th1 c.CD8 b.CD4 d.Th2
ANS: A Only Th1 cells help develop cellular immunity.
Raynaud phenomenon is classified as a type III hypersensitivity reaction and is due to: a.Immune complexes that are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation b.Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation c.Cytotoxic T cells that attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues d.Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species
ANS: A Raynaud phenomenon is a condition caused by the temperature-dependent deposition of immune complexes in the capillary beds of the peripheral circulation. None of the other options are involved in causing this condition.
Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction? a.Modulation b.Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity c.Neutrophil-mediated damage d.Complement-mediated lysis
ANS: A The antibody reacts with the receptors on the target cell surface and modulates the function of the receptor by preventing interactions with their normal ligands, replacing the ligand and inappropriately stimulating the receptor or destroying the receptor. For example, in the hyperthyroidism (excessive thyroid activity) of Graves disease, autoantibody binds to and activates receptors for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (a pituitary hormone that controls the production of the hormone thyroxine by the thyroid). The other options are not examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions.
What is the term for the process during which lymphoid stem cells migrate and change into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells? a. Clonal diversity b. Clonal selection c. Clonal differentiation d. Clonal competence
ANS: A The process is called the generation of clonal diversity and occurs in specialized (primary) lymphoid organs—the thymus gland for T cells and the bone marrow for B cells.
Why does tissue damage occurs in acute rejection after organ transplantation? a.Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue. b.Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue. c.Receptors on natural killer cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue. d.Antibodies coat the surface of transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.
ANS: A The recipient's lymphocytes interacting with the donor's dendritic cells within the transplanted tissue usually initiate sensitization, resulting in the induction of recipient Th1 and Tc cells against the donor's antigens. The Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and the Tc cells directly attack the endothelial cells in the transplanted tissue. The other options do not accurately describe how acute rejection after organ transplantation results in tissue damage.
Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate? a.The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport. b.The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system. c.The antibodies are directly related to the mother's nutritional intake. d.The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6 months of age.
ANS: A To protect the child against infectious agents both in utero and during the first few postnatal months, a system of active transport facilitates the passage of maternal antibodies into the fetal circulation. The antibodies are transmitted via the placenta and are related to the mother's immune system. The infant's own IgG-related antibodies reach protective levels by 6 months of age.
The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? a.IgE c.IgM b.IgG d.T cells
ANS: A Type I reactions are mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). The most common allergies (e.g., pollen allergies) are type I reactions. In addition, most type I reactions occur against environmental antigens and are therefore allergic. The other options do not accurately identify the mediation factor related to hay fever.
Which statement is true concerning the IgM? a.IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen. b.IgM mediates many common allergic responses. c.IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins. d.IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta.
ANS: A Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed by IgG against the same antigen. The other options are not true statements regarding IgM.
CD4 is a characteristic surface marker and a result of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a.Activity in the primary lymphoid organs b.Process of cellular differentiation c.Alterations to T cells d.Changes to B cells e.Clonal selection
ANS: A, B, C, D Differentiation of B cells and T cells in the primary lymphoid organs results in the expression of several characteristic surface markers, such as CD4 on helper T cells, CD8 on cytotoxic T cells, and CD21 and CD40 on B cells. Clonal selection is the process during which antigens select those lymphocytes with complementary T-cell receptors (TCRs) or BCRs.
Exposure to which of the following could result in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.) a.Poison ivy d.Nickel b.Neomycin e.Detergents c.Dairy products
ANS: A, B, D, E Allergens that primarily elicit type IV allergic hypersensitivities include plant resins (e.g., poison ivy, poison oak); metals (e.g., nickel, chromium); acetylates and chemicals in rubber, cosmetics, detergents; and topical antibiotics (e.g., neomycin).
Which statements are true regarding endotoxins? (Select all that apply.) a.Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides. b.Endotoxins are located in the walls of bacteria. c.Endotoxins are created during the process of lysis. d.Endotoxins are found in gram-negative microorganisms. e.Endotoxins are released during the destruction of its host.
ANS: A, B, D, E Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides (LPSs) contained in the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria & released during lysis (or destruction) of the bacteria.
Which infection is fungal? (Select all that apply.) a.Ringworm b.Candida c.Cholera d.Athlete's foot e.Aspergillus
ANS: A, B, D, E Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses including ringworm, athlete's foot, and others) or yeasts (e.g., Candida, Aspergillus, Cryptococcus).
Which of the following play a role in the control of fungal infections? (Select all that apply.) a.Cytokines b.Macrophages c.Natural killer cells d.Neutrophils e.T lymphocytes
ANS: A, B, D, E The host defense against fungal infection includes the fungistatic properties of neutrophils and macrophages. T lymphocytes are crucial in limiting the extent of infection and producing cytokines to further activate macrophages. Natural killer cells are a component of innate immune system.
Which statements best define acute rejection? (Select all that apply.) a.Acute rejection is a cell-mediated immune response. b.Acute rejection is usually a type III rejection. c.Immunosuppressive drugs delay or lessen the intensity of an acute rejection. d.Acute rejection is associated with the body's response to an organ transplant. e.Acute rejection is a response against unmatched human leukocyte antigens (HLAs).
ANS: A, C, D, E Acute rejection is primarily a cell-mediated immune response that occurs within days to months after transplantation. This type of rejection occurs when the recipient develops an immune response against unmatched HLAs after transplantation. A biopsy of the rejected organ usually shows an infiltration of lymphocytes and macrophages characteristic of a type IV reaction. Immunosuppressive drugs may delay or lessen the intensity of an acute rejection.
What are the necessary components of an adaptive immune response? (Select all that apply.) a.Antigen b.Gamma IgG c.Lymphocyte surface receptors d.Crystalline fragment e.Antibody
ANS: A, C, E Antigens are the molecules that can react with components of the adaptive immune system, including antibodies and lymphocyte surface receptors.
Which chemical mediators induce pain during an inflammatory response? (Select all that apply.) a.Prostaglandins b.Leukotrienes c.Tryptase d.Phospholipase e.Bradykinin
ANS: A, E The only chemical mediators that induce pain during an inflammatory response are the prostaglandins and bradykinin.
When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs? a.T-cell immunity c.Fetal immunity b.Alloimmunity d.Autoimmunity
ANS: B Alloimmunity occurs when an individual's immune system reacts against antigens on the tissues of other members of the same species. Sensitization against fetal antigens is not the cause of any other available option.
Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of the following? a.Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators b.Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues c.Tc cells or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets d.Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface
ANS: B Antigen-antibody (immune) complexes that are formed in the circulation and then deposited later in vessel walls or extravascular tissues (see Figure 9-3) cause most type III hypersensitivity diseases. The other options do not cause this type of reaction
Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th1 cells? a. Th1 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens. b. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells. c. Th1 cells produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13. d. They assist in the development of humoral immunity.
ANS: B Antigens derived from viral or bacterial pathogens and those derived from cancer cells are hypothesized to induce a greater number of Th1 cells relative to Th2 cells. The other statements are not true regarding Th1 cells.
Evaluation of umbilical cord blood can confirm that which immunoglobulin level is near adult levels? a.IgA c.IgM b.IgG d.IgE
ANS: B At birth, the total IgG level in the umbilical cord is the only immunoglobulin that is near adult levels (see Figure 8-30).
Which statement is true concerning an atopic individual? a.They tend to produce less IgE. b.They tend to produce more Fc receptors. c.They tend to attract very few mast cells. d.They tend to produce very high levels of IgM.
ANS: B Atopic individuals tend to produce higher quantities of IgE and have more Fc receptors for IgE on their mast cells. The other available options are not true
In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? a.Thymus gland b.Bone marrow c.Regional lymph nodes d.Spleen
ANS: B B lymphocytes mature and become B cells in specialized (primary) lymphoid organs—the thymus gland for T cells and the bone marrow for B cells.
Which statement is true concerning clonal selection? a.Clonal selection is driven by hormones and does not require foreign antigens. b.This theory involves antigens that select those lymphocytes with compatible receptors. c.Clonal selection takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs. d.This process generates immature but immunocompetent T and B cells with receptors.
ANS: B Clonal selection, a process during which antigens select those lymphocytes with compatible receptors, expands their population and causes differentiation into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells (see Table 8-6). The other statements are not true regarding clonal selection.
A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called: a.Hemolytic shock c.Necrotizing vasculitis b.Anaphylaxis d.Systemic erythematosus
ANS: B Examples of systemic anaphylaxis are allergic reactions to beestings, peanuts, and fish. The other options are not accurate examples of hypersensitivity.
Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the: a.Strong response from IgM c.Memory cells for IgE b.Level of protection provided by IgG d.Rapid response from IgA
ANS: B IgG production is considerably increased, making it the predominant antibody class of the secondary response. IgG is often present in concentrations several times larger than those of IgM, and levels of circulating IgG specific for that antigen may remain elevated for an extended period. The other options are not relevant to how vaccinations protect against certain microorganisms.
What is the first stage in the infectious process? a.Invasion c.Spread b.Colonization d.Multiplication
ANS: B Infectious process undergoes four separate stages of progression: (1) colonization, (2) invasion, (3) multiplication, and (4) spread
Vaccines against viruses are created from: a.Killed organisms or extracts of antigens b.Live organisms weakened to produce antigens c.Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified d.Recombinant pathogenic protein
ANS: B Most vaccines against viral infections (e.g., measles, mumps, rubella, varicella [chickenpox], rotavirus) contain live viruses that are weakened (attenuated) to continue expressing the appropriate antigens but are unable to establish more than a limited and easily controlled infection.
Blood transfusion reactions are an example of: a.Autoimmunity c.Homoimmunity b.Alloimmunity d.Hypersensitivity
ANS: B Only alloimmunity (also termed isoimmunity) occurs when the immune system of one individual produces an immunologic reaction against tissues of another individual.
Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin? a.Viruses b.Bacteria and fungi c.Mycoplasma
ANS: B Only bacteria & fungi have the capacity to reproduce on the skin
Raynaud phenomenon is an example of which type of hypersensitivity? a.IV c.II b.III d.I
ANS: B The characteristics of serum sickness are observed in only systemic type III autoimmune diseases such as Raynaud phenomenon.
Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection? a.Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails. b.Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections. c.Fungal infections release endotoxins. d.Vaccines prevent fungal infections
ANS: B The host defense against fungal infection includes the fungistatic properties of neutrophils and macrophages. T lymphocytes are crucial in limiting the extent of infection & producing cytokines to further activate macrophages.
6. The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant? a.Immunotope b.Epitope
ANS: B The precise portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called its antigenic determinant or epitope. The other options are not used to identify this portion of the antigen.
How do antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins? a.Lysing the cell membrane of the toxins b.Binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects c.Inhibiting the synthesis of DNA proteins needed for growth d.Interfering with the DNA enzyme needed for replication
ANS: B To cause disease, most toxins must bind to surface molecules on the individual's cells. Protective antibodies can bind to the toxins, prevent their interaction with cells, and neutralize their biologic effects. The other options fail to explain how antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins.
Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? aIgA c.IgG b.IgE d.IgM
ANS: B Type I reactions are only mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1)
Which antibody initially indicates a typical primary immune response? a.IgG c.IgA b.IgM d.IgE
ANS: B Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed by IgG against the same antigen. The other options are not involved.
Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response? a.The immune response is similar each time it is activated. b.The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it. c.The response to a specific pathogen is short term. d.The response is innate, rather than acquired.
ANS: B Unlike inflammation, which is nonspecifically activated by cellular damage and pathogenic microorganisms, the immune response is primarily designed to afford long-term specific protection (i.e., immunity) against particular invading microorganisms; that is, it has a memory function.
38. Which statements are true concerning the humoral immune response? (Select all that apply.) a.The humoral immune response is divided into major and minor phases. b.The response has IgG and IgM produced during each of its phrases. c.It has a greater presence of IgG than IgM in one of its phases. d.The humoral immune response is produced in reaction to the presence of an antigen. e.Phases differ in their response time as a result of the effect of memory cells.
ANS: B, C, D, E The humoral immune response is divided into two phases, primary and secondary. These phases differ in the relative amounts of IgG produced—the secondary response having a significantly higher proportion of IgG relative to IgM. The two phases also differ in the speed with which each occurs after the antigen challenge—the secondary phases is significantly more rapid than the primary phase because of the presence of memory cells in the secondary phase.
10. Where are antibodies produced? a.Helper T lymphocytes b.thymus c.plasma cells d.Bone marrow
ANS: C An antibody or immunoglobulin is a serum glycoprotein produced only by plasma cells in response to a challenge by an immunogen.
When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, the blood cells are destroyed by: a.Complement-mediated cell lysis b.Phagocytosis by macrophages c.Phagocytosis in the spleen d.Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
ANS: C Antibodies against platelet-specific antigens or against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system coat those cells at low density, resulting in their preferential removal by phagocytosis in the spleen, rather than by complement-mediated lysis. The other options do not cause this reaction.
What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? a.Greater quantities of histamine c.Greater quantities of IgE b.More histamine receptors d.A deficiency in epinephrine
ANS: C Atopic individuals tend to produce higher quantities of IgE and to have more crystalline fragment (Fc) receptors for IgE on their mast cells. The other options do not cause this reaction.
How many months does it take for the newborn to be sufficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells? a.1 to 2 c.6 to 8 b.4 to 5 d.10 to 12
ANS: C By 6 to 8 months, the newborn should be efficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells.
Which cell has the ability to recognize antigens presented by the MHC class I molecules? a.T cytotoxic c.CD 8 b.CD 4 d.T helper
ANS: C CD8 cells recognize antigens presented by the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules and become mediators of cell-mediated immunity and directly kill other cells (T-cytotoxic cells). CD4 cells tend to recognize antigen presented by MHC class II molecules and develop into helpers in the later clonal selection process (T-helper cells)
In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of: a.Cytotoxic T cells c.Complement activation b.Natural killer cells d.Degranulation of mast cells
ANS: C Complement activation, particularly through the generation of chemotactic factors for neutrophils, causes the harmful effects of immune complex deposition. The neutrophils bind to antibody and C3b contained in the complexes and attempt to ingest the immune complexes. Type III hypersensitivity reactions as described are not the result of any of the other options.
During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm? a.Bronchial edema caused by the chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis b.Bronchial edema caused by binding of the cytotropic antibody c.Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors d.Smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H2 receptors
ANS: C During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, only smooth muscle contraction caused by histamine bound to H1 receptors results in bronchospasms.
Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an): a.Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens b.Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person c.Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease d.Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens
ANS: C Hypersensitivity is an altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the host. The other options are not accurate definitions of hypersensitivity.
Which statement about vaccines is true? a.Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms. b.Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms. c.Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection. d.Vaccines provide effective protection against most infections.
ANS: C In general, vaccine-induced protection does not persist as long as infection-induced immunity, thus booster injections may be necessary to maintain protection throughout life.
During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? a.Neutrophils c.Eosinophils b.Monocytes d.T lymphocytes
ANS: C Of the options provided, only eosinophils are activated during IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions
How does the aging process of the T-cell activity affect older adults? a.Poor heat regulation abilities b.Increased risk for bone fractures c.Tendency to develop various infections d.Likelihood of experiencing benign skin lesions
ANS: C T-cell activity is deficient in older adults, and a shift in the balance of T-cell subsets is observed. These changes may result in increased susceptibility to infection. The other issues are not related to T-cell activity.
13. An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody? a.IgG b.IgM c.IgA d.IgE
ANS: C The IgA molecules found in bodily secretions are dimers anchored together through a J-chain and secretory piece. This secretory piece is attached to the IgA antibodies inside the mucosal epithelial cells and may function to protect these immunoglobulin antibodies against degradation by enzymes also found in the secretions, thus decreasing the risk of infections in the mucous membrane. The other options do not accurately identify the immunoglobulin antibody involved in mucous membrane infections.
In the coagulation (clotting) cascade, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at which factor? a.XII b.VII c.X d.V
ANS: C The coagulation cascade consists of the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways that converge only at factor X.
The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that: a.Involves antigens that select those lymphocytes with compatible receptors. b.Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells. c.Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs. d.Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
ANS: C This process occurs in central lymphoid organs—the thymus gland for T cells and bone marrow for B cells. The other options do not accurately describe the processes included in clonal diversity.
The chemotactic factor affects the inflammatory process by: a.Causing vasodilation around the inflamed area b.Stimulating smooth muscle contraction in the inflamed area c.Directing leukocytes to the inflamed area d.Producing edema around the inflamed area
ANS: C Two chemotactic factors, neutrophil chemotactic factor (NCF) and eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis (ECF-A), are released during mast cell degranulation. NCF attracts neutrophils (a type of leukocytes), and ECF-A attracts eosinophils to the site of inflammation.
A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of which anti-antibodies? a.A c.A and B b.B d.O
ANS: C Type O individuals have neither A or B antigen but have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies and therefore cannot accept blood from any of the other three types.
A type IV hypersensitivity reaction causes which result? a.Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators b.Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues c.Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets d.Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface
ANS: C Types I, II, and III hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by antibody, type IV reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and do not involve antibody. Type IV mechanisms occur through either Tc cells or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells. Tc cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
Which statements are true regarding viruses? (Select all that apply.) a.Viruses are very complex microorganisms. b.Viruses are referred to as eukaryotes. c.Viruses are capable of producing messenger RNA (mRNA). d.Viruses penetrate plasma membranes via endocytosis. e.Viruses are capable of uncoating cytoplasmic nucleocapsid.
ANS: C, D, E Viruses are extremely simple microorganisms & do not possess any of the metabolic organelles found in prokaryotes (e.g., bacteria) or eukaryotes (e.g., human cells). Once bound, the virus can penetrate the plasma membrane by receptor-mediated endocytosis. Within the cytoplasm, the virus uncoats the protective nucleocapsid and releases viral genetic information. Most RNA viruses directly produce mRNA, which is translated into viral proteins, and genomic RNA, which is eventually packaged into new viruses.
What is the final stage of the infectious process? a.Colonization c.Multiplication b.Invasion d.Spread
ANS: D
When a person is exposed to most antigens, antibodies can be usually detected in his or her circulation within: a.12 hours c.3 days b.24 hours d.6 days
ANS: D After only approximately 5 to 7 days is an IgM antibody specific for that antigen detected in the circulation.
Antibodies that are associated with mucosal immune system, such as immunoglobulins, function to prevent which type of infections? a.Infections that attack the respiratory system b.Infections that tend to be chronic in nature c.Infections likely to be resistant to antibiotics d.Infections that focus on epithelial surfaces of the body
ANS: D Antibodies of the systemic immune system function throughout the body, whereas antibodies of the secretory (mucosal) immune system—primarily immunoglobulins of the IgA class—are associated with bodily secretions and function to prevent pathogenic infection on epithelial surfaces. The other options are not necessarily true when considering the immunoglobulins.
Cytokines are vital to a cell's ability to do which function? a.Excrete c.Metabolize b.Reproduce d.Communicate
ANS: D During their interactions, cells must communicate with each other through soluble cytokines. The other options are not so rigidly related to cytokines.
When antigens are administered to produce immunity, why are different routes of administration considered? a.Different routes allow the speed of onset of the antigen to be varied, with the intravenous route being the fastest. b.Some individuals appear to be unable to respond to an antigen by a specific route, thus requiring the availability of different routes for the same antigen. c.Antigen-presenting cells are highly specialized and thus require stimulation by different routes. d.Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue, resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity.
ANS: D Each route preferentially stimulates a different set of lymphocyte-containing (lymphoid) tissues and therefore results in the induction of different types of cell-mediated or humoral immune responses.
Which statement concerning exotoxins is true? a.Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. b.Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. c.Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. d.Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
ANS: D Exotoxins are proteins released during bacterial growth.
Which component of the immune system is deficient in individuals with infections caused by viruses, fungi, or yeast? a.Natural killer cells c.B cells b.Macrophages d.T cells
ANS: D Of the available options, deficiencies in T-cell immune responses are suggested when certain viruses (e.g., varicella, vaccinia, herpes, cytomegalovirus), fungi, and yeasts (e.g., Candida, Histoplasma) or certain atypical microorganisms (e.g., Pneumocystis jiroveci) cause recurrent infections.
Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots, activating complement, and activating the Hageman factor? a.Kallikrein b.Bradykinin c.Histamine d.Plasmin
ANS: D Only plasmin regulates clot formation by degrading fibrin and fibrinogen, and it can activate the complement cascade through components C1, C3, and C5. Plasmin can activate the plasma kinin cascade by activating the Hageman factor (factor XII) and producing prekallikrein activator.
Some bacterial surface proteins bind with the crystalline fragment (Fc) portion of an antibody to: a.Hide in cells to avoid triggering an immune response b.Form self-protecting toxins c.Make staining possible for microscopic observation d.Produce a protective "self" protein
ANS: D Some bacterial surface proteins (protein A of Staphylococcus aureus, protein G of Streptococcus pyogenes) bind the Fc portion of the individual's antibody, thus forming a protective coat of "self" protein.
What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions? a.Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators. b.Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues. c.Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets. d.Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface
ANS: D The mechanism that results in a type II hypersensitivity reaction begins with antibody binding to tissue-specific antigens or antigens that have attached to particular tissues. The cell can be destroyed by antibody IgG or IgM and activation of the complement cascade through the classical pathway.
How are target cells destroyed in a type II hypersensitivity reaction? a.Complement-mediated cell lysis b.Phagocytosis by macrophages c.Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products d.Natural killer cells
ANS: D The mechanism that results in a type II hypersensitivity reaction involves a subpopulation of cytotoxic cells that are not antigen specific (natural killer [NK] cells). Antibody on the target cell is recognized by Fc receptors on the NK cells, which releases toxic substances that destroy the target cell. The other options do not cause the destruction of target cells related to a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type? a.Platelets c.Lymphocytes b.Neutrophils d.Erythrocytes
ANS: D The reaction that causes a blood transfusion recipient's red blood cells to clump together is related to the ABO antigens located on the surface of only erythrocytes
Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host's own tissues against an autoimmune response? a.Cytotoxic T cells c.Th2 cells b.Th1 cells d.Regulatory T (Treg) cells
ANS: D The regulatory T (Treg) cell is the only option whose role is to control or limit the immune response to protect the host's own tissues against autoimmune reactions.
The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by: a.Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T cell b.Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells c.Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte d.Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
ANS: D The role of the BCR is to recognize the antigen; however, unlike circulating antibodies, the receptor must communicate that information to the cell's nucleus. The other options are not unique to the function of the BCR complex.
Urticaria are a manifestation of a which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a.IV c.II b.III d.I
ANS: D Urticaria, or hives, is a dermal (skin) manifestation of only type I allergic reactions.
Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and to cause leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells? a.Leukotrienes b.Platelet-activating factor c.Prostaglandin E d.Bradykinin
ANS: b The biologic activity of platelet-activating factor is virtually identical to that of leukotrienes; namely, it causes endothelial cell retraction to increase vascular permeability, leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells, and platelet activation.
What are allergies? (immune reaction)
Abnormal or exaggerated response to an environmental substance. Atopic if prone to allergies. Might have more IgG or IgG receptors on their mast cells.
The 3 plasma inflammation system DO NOT work in isolation. Activation of one of the 3 results in activation of the other 2. Ex. Activation XII can activate all 3 systems. Activation of complete cascade: -Opsonin-Increase susceptibility -chemotactic factors-attract phagocytic cells -Anaphylatoxins-induces a rapid degranulation of mast cells.
Activation of plasma protein systems
Ch8. *More complex, specific, & can provide long lasting immunity from pathogens. *Recognizes surface markers on cells and destroys them. *Inflammation associated w/ infection usually initiates an adaptive process that results in a long-term & very effective immunity to infecting microorganisms. *Slow to develop (has memory too rapidly target & eradicate a second infection with a specific disease causing organisms). *Substance may be antigenic yet not be immunogenic. -If immunogenetic it will induce an immune response resulting in the production of antibodies or functional T cells.
Adaptive immunity (3rd line of defense)
Which definition is true?
Allergy means the deleterious effects of hypersensitivity.
Antigens on the surface of red blood cells can be the target. Two systems that are most common, due to frequency of causing complications are the ABO & the Rh system.
Alloimmune response
Activated by gram-negative bacterial & fungal wall polysaccharides.
Alternative Pathway
Fragments of activating complete system.
Anaphylatoxins (c3a) chemotactic factor (c5a)
Induce rapid mast cell degranulation & are necessary early in the inflammation Occur close to inflammation sites.
Anaphylotoxins
*T cells both protect against infection. *Primarily responsible for protection against many bacteria & viruses. *This arm of the immune response is termed the humoral immune response, or humoral immunity. *Also called immunoglobulins *Serum glycoprotein produced by plasma cells in response to a challenge by an immunogen *Each particular set of immunoglobulins has a specificity against a known antigen. *5 molecular classes:
Antibodies
Have 5 class Produced by plasma cells protect us by inactivation or neutralization of an antigen Can cause agglutination or clumping up of molecules or by precipitation or making a particle insoluble in solution.
Antibodies
*Triggers a nonspecific inflammatory response to pathogens, is in direct contrast to the long term adaptive immunity which can remember recognition molecules on pathogens. *Antigenic determinant or epitope-area recognized by antibody. *Antigen-binding site or paratope-the matching portion *Effective immune response, most antigens must be processed w/I cells & expressed on the surface of those cells. *Highly specialized cells are called antigen-presenting cells or APCs
Antigens
What are retroviruses
Are RNA viruses that use their own reverse transcriptase to make DNA from its RNA sequence. Then use interphase to insert new genetic material into the host DNA.
What contributes to antibiotic-resistant pathogens? A Inadequate sanitation B Genetic mutation
B Antibiotic resistance usually results from genetic mutations in the microorganism that can be directly transmitted to neighboring microorganisms. Sanitation and clean drinking water can help control infection. Multidrug transporters on the microorganism's membrane affect the rate of intracellular accumulation of antibiotics by preventing entrance or increasing the efflux of the antibiotic into the cell. Overuse of antibiotics can lead to the destruction of the normal flora and selective overgrowth of antibiotic-resistant strains.
Which is an example of an alloimmune disease? A Tuberculin reaction B Graves disease
B Graves disease is a classic autoimmune, or alloimmune, disease. Tuberculin reaction is a type IV reaction. Contact dermatitis is a type I reaction. Penicillin is an allergen that induces type I hypersensitivity.
DO NO mature in the thymus. They mature in portions of the bone marrow.
B cells
Which are systemic effects of inflammation? (Select all that apply.) A Abscess formation B Fever C Leukocytosis D Increased levels of plasma proteins E Decreased levels of plasma proteins
B, C, D
Which pathways activate the complement system? (Select all that apply.) A Antigen antibody B Classical C Lectin D Alternative
B, C, D
Ch 10 * Named by their genus & species. *Ex. Staphylococcus aureus is names staph due to the way it clusters & coccus due to the sphere shape.
Bacteria are:
*gram - DO NOT retain crystal violet dye. *gram + DO contain crystal violet dye. *Prokatyotic, unicellular microorganism.
Bacterial Infections
What is toxic shock syndrome an example of?
Bacterial super antigens can increase the interaction b/w MHC proteins & T cells which cause a super cytokine response & hyper inflammation.
How do antibodies opsonize bacteria?
Bind to the bacteria & make it easier for them to be phagocytized.
*Coverage at factor X: -Depend on calcium-forms on the phospholipid membrane -Rich in phosphatidylserine & tenase activity. -Leads to activation of fibrin by exposure to thrombin which cuts high-molecular-weight to fibrinogen into fibrin molecules.
Both pathways
Which statement is true regarding atopic individuals? A If one parent has allergies, then a 4% chance exists that the offspring will have similar allergies. B If two parents have allergies, then a 50% chance exists that their offspring will have similar allergies. C Atopic individuals tend to produce higher quantities of IgE.
C
Which statement is true regarding bacteremia? A It occurs with a normal defense system of the body. B Gram-positive organisms typically cause bacteremia. C Endotoxins often cause symptoms such as vasodilation.
C Endotoxins are often produced by bacteria that grow in the blood. Common symptoms include vasodilation, hypotension (reduced blood pressure), and decreased oxygen delivery and can produce cardiovascular shock. Bacteremia is often caused by gram-negative bacteria and usually occurs with a failure of the body's defense mechanisms.
The Arthus reaction is an example of which type of sensitivity reaction? A I B II C III
C The Arthus reaction is a type III hypersensitivity reaction
Which statement is true regarding unmatched packed red blood cell (RBC) transfusions? A Only three different RBC antigens have been identified. B Approximately 80 major carbohydrate antigens exist. C People with O type blood have neither A or B antigens.
C Type O blood does not contain type A or B antigens. However, 80 major different RBC antigens are present. A person with type A blood carries anti-B antibodies and a person with type B blood carries anti-A antibodies. Those with type O blood have anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
Which statement regarding viruses is true? A Viruses are less common than bacterial infections. B Viruses actively produce exotoxins. C Viruses bypass many defense mechanisms by developing intracellularly.
C Viruses enter the cell and may bypass many defense mechanisms. Viruses are the most common form of infection. They contain deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and RNA for their genetic information. They do not produce exotoxins or endotoxins.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? a. To provide specific responses toward antigens b. To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms c. To prevent infection of the injured tissue d. To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury
C. *If the epithelial barrier is damaged, then a highly efficient local and systemic response (inflammation) is mobilized to limit the extent of damage, to protect against infection, and to initiate the repair of damaged tissue.
Which complement factor is considered an anaphylatoxin?
C3a
MH II interacts w?
CD4 on Tc cells. become T helper cells
MH I interacts w/?
CD8 on Th cells become cytotoxic T cells
What is the vascular response (Inflammatory response)
Cardinal signs of inflammation: *Vasodilation *Increase permeability *Leakage of fluid out the vessel & diapedesis.
Required for much longer period Occur distal to the inflammatory site to attract leukocytes from the circulation
Chemotactic factors
Complete system activated by proteins of the adaptive immune system (antibodies) bound to their specific targets (antigens). Antigen/antibody response
Classical pathway activation.
*Cells become exposed to an antigen which is presented by an APC. These APC also interact with T helper cells.
Clonal selection
*Activated through either intrinsic or extrinsic pathways. Both of these cascades end up activating Factor X which then activates prothrombin into thrombin, fibrinogen into fibrin, & finally a cloth is formed. *Heparin works by activating antithrombin III which activates thrombin. *Pr circulate in plasma as proenzymes (inactive). *Works to form plasma protein at injury site & form a clot that stops bleeding. This prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues and traps microorganisms at site. *Provides framework for future repair of tissue. *End product of the coagulation cascade is fibrin. *Stop bleeding *Traps microorganism *traps other cells *Framework for future repair.
Clotting cascade
*Most potent defender against bacterial infection *Composed of plasma proteins *Proteins w/I this system are the most potent in inflammatory response. *Activation may destroy pathogens directly & can activate or collaborate w/ virtually every other compartment of the inflammatory response. *Activation of complete system causes cell lysis. *Part of innate system but adaptive system can recruit the complete system to fight pathogens. *Most important result of activation is the production of fragments during the activation that contribute to the inflammation response. *Cell lysis and destruction of pathogen is the end result. *Can be activated by Classical pathway Alternative pathway Lectin pathway
Complement system (Plasma protein system)
How can you become colonized?
Contact with another infected person, coming into contact with the pathogen in the environment, or by coming into contact with a vector (something that can transmit infection)
Which statement is true regarding a type IV allergic reaction? A Is immediate in its action B Is infiltrated with B cells C Is mediated by antibody production D Can be transferred by cells
D Type IV hypersensitivity reactions can be transferred by cells but not by serum. Their actions are delayed because their onset takes from 24 to 72 hours. The site is infiltrated with T lymphocytes and macrophages. A clear hard center surrounds the erythema (redness).
Clotting system is activated to form clots & granulocytes migrate through the tissues into vessels.
Diapedesis
Endo: *Proteins released during bacterial growth. *Lipopolysaccharides contained in the cell walls of gram - bacteria & released during lysis or destruction of bacteria. Exo: *Pr released during bacterial growth. They are usually enzymes & have highly specific effects.
Endotoxins Exotoxins
*Tissue factor interacts w/ factor VII *Blood vessel injury activated Factor VIIa + tissue factor (TF) *TF combined w/ factor VII=VIIa + TF= TF, VIIa, & X
Extrinsic pathway
Eukaryotic organisms that very commonly cause infection in humans (mycosis), usually mild ex. athletes foot & ringworm In immunocompromised patients this can be fatal. Fungus do damage to host cells by recreating many enzymes such as mycotoxins & by activating inflammation. Because hard to kill the inflammatory reaction can do extensive damage to the host's tissue. Many of the drugs used to treat fungal infections can have fatal side effects such as liver failure.
Fungi
What are antibodies made up of?
Glycoproteins made up of two light chains & two heavy chains.
Regulated by plasma cells & memory B cells which produce antibodies. Memory cells are able to act fast upon preexposure to a pathogen & become a plasma cell which can produce antibodies.
Humoral immunity
Response from the immune system that damages the tissue in its own body. Can be immediate or delayed 4 types
Hypersensitive reaction
*Found in bodily secretions, breast milk
IgA
*Information on the role is limited
IgD
*Least concentrated of any of the immunoglobulin classes in the circulation *Very specialized functions as a mediator of many common allergic responses
IgE
*Most abundant class *Constitutes 80-85% of immunoglobulins *Protective activity against infections *Able to cross the placental barrier providing passive immunity to the fetus
IgG
*Largest of the immunoglobulins *1st antibody produced during the initial or primary response to antigen
IgM
What will the majority of immunocompetent B cells express?
IgM & IgD as the B cell receptor.
Ch9. Complex network that protects us form foreign pathogens. When malfunctions can result in symptoms as simple as a runny nose or as dangerous lethal autoimmune disease.
Immune system
2nd line of defense
Inflammatory response
MHC class 2
Initiate immune response (mononuclear phagocytes, dendritic cells, thymic, B cells, & some endothelial cells).
Ch7. "Natural immunity". Includes the inflammatory response. Epithelial barriers & inflammation confer innate resistance & protection. *1st & 2nd line of defense
Innate immunity
*prevent invasion by pathogens (skin & mucous membrane) *Natural barriers include physical, mechanical, and biochemical. -skin & membranes lining the GI, GU, & respiratory tracts. *Biochemical barriers -synthesize & secrete substances meant to trap or destroy microorganisms -Mucus, earwax, saliva, perspiration, & tears.
Innate immunity (1st line of defense)
*Activated when factor XII contacts the injured sub endothelium. *Damaged vessel wall activates Hageman factor (XII) to XIIa *Results in the formation of complex IXa, VIIA, & X
Intrinsic pathway
What happens if the developing B cell specify to self-antigens?
It will be deleted. Majority of B cells are destroyed by this process.
*Interacts w/ coagulation system. *Initiated through activation of Hageman factor. *Activated when factor XII interacts w/ prekallikrein which ends in the formation of bradykinin. *Causes dilation of blood vessels, smooth muscle contraction, increase vascular permeability, & produces pain.
Kinin system
Activates complete system by mannose-containing bacterial carbohydrates.
Lectin pathway
Glycoproteins found on all cells except RBCs & are *Responsible for antigen presentation.
Major histocompatibility molecules (MHC)
Structure typically formed on the surface of pathogenic bacterial cells as a result of the activation of the host alternative pathway, classical pathway, or lectin pathway of the complement system. Creates pores
Membrane attack complex (MAC)
*Kill targets in a fashion similar to that of Tc cells. However, NK cells recognize target cells that do not express MHC class I. *Recognize & eliminate cells infected by virus. *Somewhat effective at elimination of other abnormal host cells, specifically cancer. *After attachment to a target cell, killing can occur by at least 2 different mechanisms that cause induced apoptosis - Perforin & proteases form pores in the cell membrane - Direct receptor interaction
Natural killer cells
*Malaria infection, from plasmodium, is spread from the bite of a mosquito where it travels to the liver. They then infect the liver & multiply & return to the circulation. In the circulation, they enter red blood cells. Here they take different form that waits to be sucked up by another mosquito. *Organism range from unicellular protozoal to large worms. *SYMBIOTIC relationship w/ host.
Parasitic infections
Which term describes the type of immunity that occurs when preformed antibodies are transferred from a donor to a recipient?
Passive The two types of adaptive immunity are active and passive. Passive immunity occurs when preformed antibodies are transferred from a donor to a recipient. An example of passive immunity is the passage of maternal antibodies across the placenta to the fetus. Active immunity is produced by an individual after either a natural exposure or an immunization. Memory cells are formed through cellular and humoral immunity; they remember the antigen
Bacteria that produces endotoxins They stimulate the release of inflammatory mediators & produce fever & the local & systemic effects of inflammation.
Pyrogenic
How are viruses classified
RNA or DNA Single stranded or double stranded
Single stranded & are able to preform viral replication in the cytoplasm Generally do not need as much of the host polymerase.
RNA virus
If Rh +, they have the Rh antigen D on the surface of the RBC. D is one of the many Rh antigens that exist in the RD group. If mom is Rh - and the fetus is rH + the mother may make anti Rh D IgG. If injection not give to stop this reaction, any fetus with subsequent Rh + blood can develop hemolytic disease of the new born.
Rh system
· SLE is a chronic, multisystem, inflammatory disease and is one of the most serious of the autoimmune disorders. SLE is characterized by the production of a large variety of autoantibodies. · Most often 20-40 y/o AA women · Frequent exacerbation and remission · Goals of treatment: o Control symptoms o Prevent further damage by suppressing the autoimmune response o Non-steroidal and anti-inflammatory drugs reduce inflammation o Immunosuppressive drugs are used to treat severe symptoms involving internal organs UV light can worsen symptoms
SLE
Cells do this by interacting w/ APC & producing cytokines which enhance the response of the immunocompetent lymphocytes & also by aiding in the differentiation of lymphocytes. Need costimulatory signals to undergo maturation. When Th cell CD4 receptor & TCT receptor is activated along w/ certain cytokine molecules, the cell can develop into a mature Th cell.
T helper cells
important in cellular immunity
Th1 cells
Important in inflammation
Th17
Important in humoral immunity
Th2 cells
Which statement is true regarding hypersensitivity reactions?
They require sensitization against a particular antigen.
Ability of a pathogen to adhere to a certain type of tissue. Cold virus adhering to the respiratory tract Once pathogen has invaded the body, it begins to multiply Many different types of pathogens then form a biofilm, which includes a matrix for strength & can make the pathogens less prone to antibiotic attack. The damage that bacteria can cause to the host can either be directly from the bacterial products, such as LPS or from the activation of inflammation.
Tissue tropism
IgE mediated along with products of tissue mast cells. Anaphylaxis can be triggered by cross linking the IgE receptor on the mast cells.
Type 1 hypersensitive reaction
Tissue specific. A specific cell or tissue is the target of an immune response.
Type 2
Immune complex mediated. Caused by antigen-antibody (immune) complexes that are formed in the circulation & deposited into the vessel walls.
Type 3
Cell mediated & delayed reaction. This type does not involve antibodies. An example is graft rejection in transplant patients.
Type 4
For many pathogen related diseases, you can only develop lifelong immunity after infection. Once infected make memory cells to prevent reinfection. (Basis of how vaccines work) Injected w/ an attenuated (live virus that is weakened) form of a pathogen that will not cause disease, but will trigger the immune system to form memory cells against that particular antigen.
Vaccines
Injury to vascularized tissue. Inflammation process occurs once skin is punctured and pathogens begin to enter the skin. Blood vessels dilate causing redness and heat, transudation of fluid and small molecules out of the vessels cause edema.
Vascular Response
*Blur the border of where life begins & ends. *Even tough not truly alive or contain any metabolic organelles found in eukaryotic cells or bacteria, they are essential members of the biologic community. *Use reverse transcriptase during replication *Made up of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein capsid & may also incorporate parts of the cell membrane from the infected cell in its membrane.
Viral infection
Virus enters the cell through fusion w/ the membrane or receptor. Then enter the nucleus & use the host DNA & RNA machinery to replicate themselves. Mostly dependent on the host cells nuclear machinery.
Viruses in DNA
What is auto immunity? (immune reaction)
When the immune immune system reacts against self-antigens to cause damage to its own tissue. Ex. Addison disease, thyroid disease, IDDM, rheumatic fever, MS, & myasthenia gravis.
Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? a. Complement cascade b. Kinin system c. Coagulation system d. Immune system
a. C3b (a component of the complement cascade) adheres to the surface of a pathogenic microorganism and serves as an efficient opsonin. Opsonins are molecules that tag microorganisms for destruction by cells of the inflammatory system, primarily neutrophils and macrophages.
It is true that immunoglobulin E (IgE) is a. designed to protect the host from large viruses. b. the primary cause of common allergies.
b gE, a mediator of common allergic responses, is an antibody that is designed to protect the host from parasites and is the only inflammatory cell that can damage a parasite. IgE is normally found in low concentrations in the circulation.
Which statement best describes a type I reaction? a. Most type I reactions are mediated by IgA. b. Most type I reactions are allergic
b Most type I reactions are allergic. They are mediated by IgE. Most type I reactions occur against environmental antigens and can contribute to some autoimmune diseases.
Which are molecular classes of immunoglobulins? (Select all that apply.) a. IgC b. IgD c. IgE d. IgM e. IgN
b, c, d The five classes of immunoglobulin are IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE.
What is the vascular effect of histamine released from mast cells? a.Platelet adhesion b.Vasodilation c.Initiation of the clotting cascade d.Increased endothelial adhesivene
b. C2b affects smooth muscle, causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. C3a, C5a, and, to a limited extent, C4a are anaphylatoxins; that is, they induce rapid mast cell degranulation (i.e., release of granular contents) and the release of histamine, causing vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier? A.Antibacterial fatty acids B.Lysozymes in tears C.Epithelial cells
c
Which statement is true regarding the inflammatory response? a.Inflammatory response is the third line of defense. b.Inflammatory response relies on cellular components only. c.Inflammatory response generates a nonspecific response.
c
Which statement is true regarding immunoglobulin A (IgA) antibodies? a. IgA-2 is predominantly found in blood. b. IgA-1 is predominantly found in the body's secretions. c. The J chain anchors together the IgA molecules.
c. The J chain anchors together the IgA molecules to form dimers and helps them resist degradation from enzymes. IgA-1 is found in the blood, and IgA-2 is found in the secretions of the body. IgG, not IgA, is the most predominant immunoglobulin.
Activation of the classical pathway begins with: a.Viruses b. Mast cells c. Antigen-antibody complexes
c. Activation of the classical pathway begins only with the activation of protein C1 and is preceded by the formation of a complex between an antigen and an antibody to form an antigen-antibody complex (immune complex) (see Chapter 8).
What plasma protein system forms a fibrinous meshwork at an inflamed site? a.Complement b. Kinin c. Coagulation d. Fibrinolysis
c. The coagulation (clotting) system is a group of plasma proteins that form a fibrinous meshwork at an injured or inflamed site. This protein system (1) prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues, (2) traps microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of inflammation for removal by infiltrating cells (e.g., neutrophils and macrophages), (3) forms a clot that stops the bleeding, and (4) provides a framework for future repair and healing.
What causes the edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? a.Vasodilation of blood vessels b.Endothelial cell contraction c. Increased capillary permeability d. Emigration of neutrophils
c. The increased flow and capillary permeability result in a leakage of plasma from the vessels, causing swelling (edema) in the surrounding tissue and is solely responsible for inflammation-induced edema.
Process by which bacteria causes disease occurs in four stages
colonization invasion multiplication spread
What is an outcome of the complement cascade? a.Activation of the clotting cascade b.Prevention of the spread of infection to adjacent tissues c.Inactivation of chemical mediators such as histamine d.Lysis of bacterial cell membranes
d. The complement cascade can be activated by at least three different means, and its products have four functions: (1) anaphylatoxic activity, resulting in mast cell degranulation, (2) leukocyte chemotaxis, (3) opsonization, (4) cell lysis.
A substance that is recognized as foreign or nonself is a. immunoglobulins. b. lymphocytes. c. antibodies. d. antigens.
d. Antigens are recognized as foreign and initiate the immune response. Immunoglobulins and antibodies are part of the adaptive immune response; they attack the antigen. Lymphocytes are a type of blood cell that is part of the adaptive response.
CD1 are similar to MHC molecules except instead of presenting proteins, they present ?
lipid molecules.
What is alloimmunity? (immune reaction)
when the immune system is triggered by antigens from another person, such as transplantation of organs or mother to fetus.
