Module 4 Rad Review Mock

Pataasin ang iyong marka sa homework at exams ngayon gamit ang Quizwiz!

Organize the steps during image acquisition in order from start to finish The VOI is identified The computer determines what section of the histogram will be included in the displayed image The exposure received creates a histogram The histogram is compared with a stored histogram for that anatomic part

The exposure received creates a histogram The histogram is compared with a stored histogram for that anatomic part The VOI is identified The computer determines what section of the histogram will be included in the displayed image

: If a lateral lumbar spine were performed with the center detector selected and the spinous processes centered to the sensor, the resulting image is likely to be A underexposed. B overexposed. C either under- or overexposed. D neither under- nor overexposed.

A

A rotor and stator are associated with the A induction motor. B control panel. C autotransformer. D filament circuit.

A

Arrange the following CR steps in order from first to last: read, stimulate, erase, expose. A expose, stimulate, read, erase B erase, expose, read, stimulate C stimulate, read, expose, erase D erase, stimulate, read, expose

A

Which of the following is evaluated by using a line-pair test tool? A Distortion B Spatial resolution C Scatter D Recorded detail

B

Which of the following is the factor of choice to adjust/correct image receptor exposure? A kVp B mAs C SID D Filtration

B

Which of the following will result as tube current increases? A An increase in x-ray photon quality B An increase in x-ray photon quantity C A decrease in x-ray photon quality D A decrease in x-ray photon quantity

B

The comprehensive integrated system that is designed to manage medical, administrative, financial, and legal aspects of hospitals is known as? A Radiology information system (RIS) B Hospital information system (HIS) C Picture archiving communication system (PACS) D Digital imaging and communications in medicine (DICOM)

b

Causes of grid cutoff, when using focused moving grids, include the following? Inadequate SIDX-ray tube off-center longitudinally with the lead stripsAngling the beam in the direction of the lead strips A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A

Characteristics of the primary x-ray beam include: A lower intensity at the anode end. B more energy at the cathode end. C lower frequency at the anode end. D more leakage at the cathode end.

A

During CR image extraction, what is the device used to collect light emitted by storage plate phosphors? A Photodetector B Analog-to-digital convertor (ADC) C Charged-coupled device (CCD) D Thin-film transistor (TFT)

A

Electrons are directed toward the output phosphor by the A electrostatic focusing lenses. B photocathode. C input phosphor. D photoanode.

A

For a given FOV, as matrix size increases A spatial resolution increases B brightness decreases C spatial resolution decreases D brightness increases

A

From the following list, select the factor(s) that are most likely to impact image spatial resolution: I. motionII. beam restrictionIII. protective filtration IV. mAs A I only B I and II only C II and III only D III and IV only

A

From this list of factors, select the 4 that have an effect on spatial resolution: I. Focal spot size II. anode heel effect III. SID IV. Filtration V. Motion VI. mAs VII. OID A I, III, V, VII B III, IV, V, VI C I, II, V, VII D I, II, V, VI

A

How do the actual and effective focal spots differ in size? A The effective focal spot is smaller than the actual focal spot B The effective focal spot is larger than the actual focal spot C The effective and actual focal spots are the same size D The effective and actual focal spots vary in relative size depending on outside variables

A

How does mAs affect the digital receptor exposure? A It is directly proportional B It is inversely proportional C It has no relation D It is inversely proportional to the square of the exposure

A

How much kV reduction can be expected using three-phase equipment compared to single-phase equipment? A 10 kV B 11 kV C 15 kV D 20 kV

A

How should technical factors be adjusted, from normal adult technique, in pediatric radiography to minimize possible motion? A Shorter exposure time and lower mA should be used. B Longer exposure time and lower mA should be used. C Shorter exposure time and higher mA should be used.

A

If a 0.050-mm pixel pitch yields a Nyquist of 10 lp/mm, a 0.100-mm pixel pitch will yield a Nyquist of A 5 lp/mm. B 10 lp/mm. C 15 lp/mm. D 20 lp/mm.

A

In what two ways can we reduce the production of scattered radiation? A Use of beam restriction and appropriate kV level B Use of beam restriction and appropriate mA level C Use of grids and appropriate kV level D Use of grids and appropriate mA level

A

Manipulation of grey level values is associated with A lookup table and window width B window level and lookup table. C window level and edge enhancement. D window width and edge enhancement

A

Of the three tools used to measure the focal spot size—the slit camera, the pinhole camera, and the star pattern—which is the most commonly used? A Slit camera B The pinhole camera C The star pattern D Each is used equally commonly

A

SID impacts which 4 of the following factors?I. receptor exposureII. contrast scaleIII. patient doseIV. spatial resolutionV. size distortionVI. shape distortion A I, III, IV, V B II, IV, V, VI C I, IV, V, VI

A

Select the condition(s) that are likely to require an increase in exposure: I. atelectasisII. gout III. pneumonia IV. emphysema V. osteochondroma A I, III, V B II, IV C III, IV, V D I, IV, V

A

Select the factor(s) having an effect on digital image contrast/grayscale: I. Pixel bit depth II. Window widthIII. Window level IV. Matrix size V. Pixel density VI. LUT A I, II, VI B III, IV, V C I, II, IV D III, V, VI

A

A wide window width will display an image having A high contrast. B low contrast. C high brightness. D low brightness.

B

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A X-ray equipment operated by single-phase power produces 50% voltage ripple. B High-frequency voltage generators use inverter circuits to convert dc into a series of square pulse. C Three-phase power utilizes three simultaneous voltage waveforms out of step with each other by 120°. D X-ray equipment operated by three-phase 12-pulse power produces 4% voltage ripple.

A

The component of HIS that functions to provide each modality work list, patient tracking, scheduling, and image tracking is known as A the radiology information system (RIS) B the hospital information System (HIS) C the picture archiving communication system (PACS) D digital imaging and communications in medicine (DICOM)

A

The digital imaging (DR or CR) post-processing function that allows the radiographer to add text to the image is called A annotation B windowing C indexing D leveling

A

The representation of reference luminance values that assess input intensities and assign predetermined VOI (values of interest/grayscale values) describes A lookup table. B windowing. C postprocessimg. D annotation.

A

The x-ray tube most efficiently operates on A unidirectional/dc. B unidirectional/ac. C full wave rectification. D half wave rectification.

A

To evaluate a digital receptor for debris that may cause image artifacts, which of the following should be done? A The receptor field should be exposed to a uniform X-ray exposure field, followed by visual inspection of the image B The manufacturer should be contacted to conduct a field test on the unit C Wait until an artifact is visualized on an anatomical image, then inspect the equipment D Clean the surrounding environment to remove debris that may cause image artifacts

A

What does mAs control/regulate in digital imaging? I. Patient dose II. X-ray beam intensity III. X-ray beam energy A I and II B I and III C II and III D I, II, and III

A

What influences shape distortion? I. Tube II. OID III. Part IV. SID V. IR alignment A I, III, and V only B II and IV only C All of the above D None of the above

A

What is the effect of TFT DEL size in cassetteless digital imaging? A The smaller the DEL size, the better the spatial resolution. B The smaller the DEL size, the worse the spatial resolution. C As DEL size decreases, brightness increases D As DEL size decreases, brightness decreases

A

What is the name of the device that can be used to measure anatomical parts? A Calipers B Dial indicator C Cruising rod D Lens clock

A

What is the name of the exposure system that is used to make small incremental changes in exposure to compensate for variations in body part thickness? A Variable kilovoltage system B Fixed kilovoltage system C Online kilovoltage system D None of the above

A

What is the relationship between sampling frequency of PSPs and spatial resolution? A As sampling frequency increases, spatial resolution increases. B As sampling frequency increases, spatial resolution decreases. C Sampling frequency and spatial resolution are unrelated D Sampling frequency and spatial resolution are related in unpredictable ways

A

What is the term that describes no data being collected from a damaged active matrix array? A Dropped pixels B Electronic noise C Incomplete charge transfer D Electronic memory artifact

A

What is the term used to describe the volume elements (depth) within the matrix third direction ("Z" direction)? A Voxel B Pixel bit depth C Dynamic range D Pixel density

A

What kind of image contrast results from a narrow/decreased window width? A Increased/higher contrast B Decreased/lower contrast C Increased/lower contrast D Decreased/higher contrast

A

What postprocessing function manipulates image contrast? A Adjusting window width B Adjusting window level C Adjusting both window width and window level D Adjusting neither window width nor widow level

A

What term is used to describe the numeric value representative of the exposure the IR receives in digital radiography? A Exposure indicator B Window level C Window width D Pixel value

A

What type of technique chart is based on the concept that kVp should be increased as anatomic part size increases? A Variable kVp-fixed mAs B Variable mAs-fixed kVp C Automatic exposure control D Anatomically programmed radiography

A

Adjacent to the output phosphor of the digital fluoroscopy image intensifier tube is A A TV camera and CCD B A fiber optic bundle and CCD C A fiber optic bundle and TV camera D A TV camera only

B

Which aspect of image quality does a grid influence? A Contrast B Size distortion C Shape distortion D Spatial resolution

A

Which of the following factor(s) is/are most likely to have an impact on image distortion? I. OIDII. beam restrictionIII. protective filtration IV. grids A I only B I and II only C II and IV only D All of the above

A

Which of the following generally does NOT require a change in exposure factors? A Fiberglass casts B Plaster casts C Additive diseases D Destructive conditions

A

Which technical factor is inversely proportional to the receptor exposure? A SID B mAs C kVp D OID

A

PSPs must be processed and read soon after exposure because signal loss (image fading) becomes apparent after approximately A 90 minutes. B eight hours. C one week. D three months.

B

When x-ray exposure to the digital image receptor is too low (select the two that apply) A Brightness is acceptable B Quantum noise is increased C Quantum noise is decreased D Brightness is unacceptable

AB

With AEC, the area of interest must be placed directly over the selected detectors in order to avoid which two of the following? (select the two that apply) A Overexposure B Underexposure C Decrease in contrast D Increase in contrast

AB

Which of the following will keep size distortion to a minimum? (select the two that apply) A Decrease OID B Increase OID C Decrease SID D Increase SID

AD

When using an image intensifier's magnification mode (select the three that apply) A the focal point moves further from the output phosphor B spatial resolution decreases C patient dose decreases D smaller structures are more visible E a larger portion of the input phosphor is used F the charge on the electrostatic focusing lenses is increased

ADF

: Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A If the part is not accurately centered to the appropriate AEC detector, over- or underexposure is likely to occur. B Artificial contrast media are required when subject contrast is high. C CR artifacts appearing as random small black spots are usually representative of fog from environmental sources. D "Minimum response time" is the shortest exposure time the AEC is capable of.

B

: To check for ghost images, which of the following quality control (QC) action should be taken? A Shorten the erasure time for cassette-based systems B Process an unexposed receptor at a higher than normal gain setting to detect any residual signal that has not been removed during erasure C Use a lower wattage erasure lamp for cassette-based systems D Place CR cassettes closer to the walls to prevent exposure to environmental background radiation

B

A step-up transformer changes voltage and amperage in the following way: A Voltage is increased, and amperage is increased proportionally B Voltage is increased, and amperage is decreased proportionally C A step-up transformer changes voltage, not amperage D A step-up transformer changes amperage, not voltage

B

A step-up transformer has A more primary coils than secondary coils. B more secondary coils than primary coils. C the same number of coils as the filament transformer. D the same number of secondary and primary coils.

B

Advantages of flat-panel digital fluoroscopy system include all of the following, except: A distortion free images B sensitive to external magnetic fields C uniform image quality over entire surface/image D no veiling glare or pincushion distortion

B

All other factors remaining the same, if a 14 × 17 in. field is collimated to a 4-in.-square field, the radiographic image will demonstrate A greater receptor exposure B less receptor exposure C more spatial resolution D less spatial resolution

B

An increase in mA is associated with A decreased SNR. B increased SNR. C decreased photon intensity D decreased photon wavelength

B

BWhat pixel size has a 512 × 512 matrix with a 20-cm field of view (FOV)? A 0.07 mm/pixel B 0.40 mm/pixel C 0.04 mm/pixel D 4.0 mm/pixel

B

Fluoroscopic magnification is associated with1. improved spatial resolution2. improved contrast resolution3. reduced patient dose A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B

Focal spot size impacts which image quality feature? A Receptor exposure B Spatial resolution C Image contrast D Image brightness

B

For the same FOV, arrange the following radiography matrix sizes in order of increasing spatial resolutionI. 1500 x 1500II. 2500 x 2500III. 750 x 750 A I, II, II B III, I, II C II, I, III D None of the above

B

From the following list, select the 2 factors having the most impact on receptor exposure: I. focal spot sizeII. SIDIII. OIDIV. kVp A I and II B II and IV C I and III D III and IV

B

From the following list, select the factor(s) that are most likely to have an impact on image contrast: I. part thicknessII. pathology III. anode heel effect A I only B I and II only C II and III only D I, II, and III

B

From the following list, select the factor(s) that are most likely to have an impact on image distortion: I. focal spot size II. SID III. OID IV. kVp V. mAs A I and IV only B II and III only C I, IV, V only D II, III, IV only

B

From the following list, select the factor(s) that are most likely to impact image spatial resolution: I. part thickness II. anode heel effect III. pathology IV. SID A I only B I and IV only C II and III only D III and IV only

B

From the following list, select the factors that can have a significant impact on receptor exposure: I. motionII. beam restrictionIII. protective filtration IV. grids A I and III B II and IV C I and II D II and III

B

How does the voltage applied to the X-ray tube differ between single-phase and three-phase power? A With single-phase power, the applied voltage never drops to zero B With three-phase power, the applied voltage never drops to zero C With three-phase power, the applied voltage routinely drops to zero D The voltage applied to the X-ray tube does not differ between single-phase and three-phase power

B

If FOV increases, pixel size 1. Decreases 2. Increases 3. Stays the same 4. Gets smaller A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1 and 4 only

B

If a PA chest was performed with only the center detector selected, the resulting image is likely to be A underexposed. B overexposed. C either under- or overexposed. D neither under- nor overexposed.

B

In a general purpose X-ray room, the fluoroscopy tube will usually be located A on top of the X-ray table. B under the X-ray table. C outside of the X-ray room. D None of the above

B

In digital imaging, a 2D array of numbers comprised of columns and rows is known as A a field of view (FOV) B a matrix C pixel density D an exposure indicator

B

In digital systems, the A larger the pixel pitch, the better the spatial resolution. B smaller the pixel pitch, the better the spatial resolution. C the larger the pixel pitch, the longer the gray scale. D the smaller the pixel pitch, the longer the gray scale.

B

Of the four categories of mobile units, which type needs to be plugged into the wall yet produces the most consistent radiation output? A Direct power B High frequency C Battery power D Capacitor discharge

B

Scattered and off-focus radiation outside of the collimated field can have what effect on the width of the histogram? A Causes narrowing of the histogram B Causes widening of the histogram C Causes both narrowing and widening of the histogram D Causes neither narrowing nor widening of the histogram

B

Select the factor(s) having an effect on digital brightness:I. Pixel bit depthII. Window widthIII. Window levelIV. Matrix sizeV. Pixel density A I only B III only C I, II, III D III, IV, V

B

Select the factor(s) having an effect on digital image brightness: I. Pixel bit depth II. Window width III. Window level IV. Matrix size V. Pixel density A I only B III only C I, II, III D III, IV, V

B

Select the factor(s) that have an effect on digital image resolution: I. Pixel density II. Window level III. Pixel pitch IV. Matrix size V. Window width. A I, II, V B I, III, IV C III, IV, V D II, III, IV

B

Select the one incorrect statement below: A A primary display workstation is one that is used for image interpretation. B The higher/greater the bit depth in digital imaging, the lesser the number of gray shades. C Exposure field recognition errors usually occur from scattered radiation outside the VOI area, often as a result of improper alignment of part, x-ray beam, and IP. D Direct digital systems have a fixed spatial resolution that is determined by TFT detector element (DEL) size.

B

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A Pulsed exposures are made during digital fluoroscopy. B TV cameras and CCDs both function to convert the input phosphor image into an electrical signal. C Pulsed fluoroscopy can function to decrease patient dose. D A TV camera or a CCD may be used to convert the fluoroscopic output phosphor image into an electronic signal.

B

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A TFT size in digital systems impacts spatial resolution. B The DAC is the device that converts PSL to an electronic signal for display. C Incomplete erasure of the PSP can cause "ghost" images. D The grid frequency recommended for CR is 70 line/centimeter.

B

Select the two correct statements from those listed below:1. Maximum spatial resolution is equal to the Nyquist frequency.2. The term "saturation" refers to underexposure of the PSP.3. An IP unused for 6 hours should be erased to avoid background radiation artifacts.4. FOV/matrix size formula is used to determine pixel size.5. Programmed histograms are unavailable in digital x-ray equipment. A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 3 and 5 D 2 and 4

B

The abbreviation of the fluoroscopic feature that changes kV and/or mAs according to part thickness is A ADC B ABC C PSP D DAP

B

The action of materials that absorb x-ray energy and emit visible light in response is termed A magnification B scintillation C emission D detection

B

The digital imaging postprocessing function that enables addition of text to an image is termed: A image flip B annotation C inversion D pixel shift

B

The greater the dynamic range 1. The higher the bit depth 2. The greater the number of gray shades 3. The smaller the amount of visible details 4. The shorter the gray scale A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D All of the above

B

The image-intensifier tube's input phosphor functions to convert A kinetic energy to light B x-rays to light C electrons to light D fluorescent light to electrons

B

The magnitude of the signal differences in the remnant beam that results from the differing absorption properties of the part describes A quantum noise. B subject contrast. C image contrast. D spatial resolution.

B

The name of the device that is used in quality assurance testing of monitor luminance is the 1. Photometer 2. Luminance meter 3. CRT A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

B

The photoconductor generally used with a TFT array in direct capture digital imaging is A aluminum oxide. B amorphous selenium. C zinc cadmium sulfide. D amorphous silicon.

B

The photodetector generally used with a TFT array in direct capture digital imaging is A aluminum oxide. B amorphous selenium. C zinc cadmium sulfide. D amorphous silicon.

B

To check for ghost images, which of the following quality control (QC) action should be taken? A Shorten the erasure time for cassette-based systems B Process an unexposed receptor at a higher than normal gain setting to detect any residual signal that has not been removed during erasure C Use a lower wattage erasure lamp for cassette-based systems D Place CR cassettes closer to the walls to prevent exposure to environmental background radiation

B

Using the variable kV exposure system, kV is adjusted for each centimeter increase or decrease of tissue thickness by A ±1 kV. B ±2 kV. C ±5 kV. D ±10 kV.

B

Various combinations of mA and exposure time that produce the same mAs value should produce constant radiation output; this is termed A half-value layer B exposure linearity C exposure reproducibility D positive beam limitation (PBL)

B

What exposure factor(s) regulate(s) x-ray beam quality? A mA B kV C mA and kV D None of the above

B

What influences size distortion? I. Tube II. OID III. Part IV. SID V. IR alignment A I, III, V B II, IV C I, II, IV D III, V

B

What is the name of the exposure system that uses an established, optimum kV for each anatomical part? A Variable kilovoltage system B Fixed kilovoltage system C Online kilovoltage system D None of the above

B

What is the post processing function that removes bony structures or reduces the effect of scatter in order to increase image contrast? A Image magnification B Subtraction/addition C Windowing D Image inversion

B

What is the term used to describe radiation dose and volume of irradiated tissue? A Deviation index B Dose-area product (DAP) C Values of interest (VOI) D Exposure latitude

B

What is used to erase the PSP? A Helium laser B Strong fluorescent light C Scintillator D Photometer

B

What postprocessing function manipulates image brightness? A Adjusting window width B Adjusting window level C Adjusting both window width and window level D Adjusting neither window width nor widow level

B

What system is responsible for holding a patient's full medical information, ranging from hospital billing to the inpatient ordering system? A RIS B HIS C DICOM D PACS

B

When the LP/mm sampling rate is the same/similar to the LP/mm resolution of the IP, the following type of artifact can occur: A quantum noise B aliasing C ghosting D halo

B

When using an AEC system, the amount of preset radiation detection values can be adjusted by the A backup timer B density controls C mAs readout D APR

B

When using an AEC system, what will happen once the predetermined amount of radiation is transmitted? A The x-ray exposure will continue for approximately .05 seconds B The x-ray exposure will terminate C The image receptor will be overexposed D The image receptor will be underexposed

B

Which device has greater sensitivity to light and provides a higher SNR (signal-to-noise ratio) and improved contrast resolution? A A TV camera B A charge couple device C A TV camera and a charge couple device have equal sensitivity to light, provide equal signal-to-noise ratio, and equal contrast resolution D None of the above

B

Which of the following are considered "entrance type" AEC devices? 1. Phototimer 2. Ionization chamber (ion chamber) 3. Image receptor (IR) 4. Anatomically programmed radiography (APR) A 1 only B 2 only C 1, 2, and 3 only D 4 only

B

Which of the following groups best function to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR? A Beam restrictors, grids, appropriate mA selection B Grids, beam restriction, compression C Grids, compression, appropriate SID selection D Grids, appropriate SID and kV selection

B

Which of the following groups of exposure factors will produce the shortest scale of contrast? A 200 mA, 0.08 second, 95 kV, 12:1 grid B 500 mA, 0.03 second, 70 kV, 8:1 grid C 300 mA, 0.05 second, 95 kV, 8:1 grid D 600 mA, 1/40 seconds, 70 kV, 6:1 grid

B

Which primary exposure technique factor is directly proportionate to the image receptor exposure? A kVp B mAs C SID D Tube filtration

B

Within the x-ray circuit, the electrical device that operates on the principle of mutual induction and serves to increase voltage and decrease current is known as the A rectifier B step-up transformer C rheostat D autotransformer

B

Which of the following post-processing terms serve to suppress image noise? (select the two that apply) A High-pass filtering B Low-pass filtering C Smoothing D Sharpening

BC

With digital systems, as the operating speed class increases (select the two that apply) A Patient dose increases B Quantum noise (mottle) potential increases C Patient dose decreases D Quantum noise (mottle) potential decreases

BC

Compared to film-screen imaging, digital systems are (select the two that apply) A Less sensitive to low-energy radiation B More sensitive to low-energy radiation C Less sensitive to scatter radiation D More sensitive to scatter radiation

BD

: The dose area product (DAP) meter that is used in digital imaging can be found right below what part of the x-ray tube system? A Protective glass B Anode C Collimator D Cathode

C

A mottled or grainy appearance of a digital image caused by too few photons reaching the image receptor is termed A Scatter noise B Fog C Quantum noise D Artifacts

C

A tool/device available on some systems that terminates the x-ray exposure, thereby consistently controlling the amount of radiation reaching the IR is termed A anatomically programmed radiography (APR) B photomultiplier (PM) tube C automatic exposure control (AEC) D backup time

C

All of the following are maintenance steps that should be performed on digital receptors, except: A All receptors should be erased before each shift B The equipment and its environment should be cleaned periodically C The technique charts should be revised on a monthly basis to align with the gain settings D A properly calibrated exposure indicator should be used to conduct periodic checks of the automatic exposure control (AEC)

C

Artificial contrast agents can be introduced into the body in which way(s)? A Injection B Ingestion C Injection and ingestion D None of the above

C

Factors influencing image contrast in digital imaging include A lookup table. B windowing. C both lookup table and windowing. D neither lookup table nor windowing.

C

For a given FOV, as the matrix size increases 1. Pixel size decreases 2. Image quality decreases 3. Spatial resolution increases A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

C

From the following list, select the factor(s) having an impact on image distortion: I. part thicknessII. x-ray tube angle III. kV selection IV. IR placement A II, III, IV only B II, IV only C I, II, IV only D I, III only

C

From the following list, select the factor(s) that are most likely to have an impact on image contrast: I. motionII. beam restriction III. protective filtration IV. grids A I and II only B II and III only C II and IV only D I and IV only

C

Important function(s) of beam restriction include A reduce patient dose and improve spatial resolution B improve image contrast and reduce distortion C reduce patient dose and improve image contrast D improve image brightness and reduce distortion

C

In order for lead-protective apparel, such as aprons, gloves, thyroid shields, and gonad shields, to be determined to meet quality control standards, they must be radiographed or fluoroscoped A before each use. B monthly. C annually. D None of the above: lead-protective apparel should not be radiographed

C

Moving the window level down A increases image density B decreases image density C decreases image brightness D increases image brightness

C

Quality control (QC) program has the following component parts: I. acceptance testing II. routine performance monitoring III. maintenance A I only B I and II only C All of the above D None of the above

C

Regulations require that AECs have what mAs safety override? A 6 B 60 C 600 D 6000

C

Requirements for a tilting x-ray table to be used for fluoroscopy are A tilting 30° to the foot side and 30° to the head side. B tilting 90° to the foot side and 90° to the head side. C tilting 90° to the foot side and 30° to the head side. D tilting 30° to the foot side and 90° to the head side.

C

Select the condition(s) that are likely to require a decrease in exposure: I. congestive heart failureII. sclerosisIII. PneumothoraxIV. Osteoporosis V. cirrhosis A I and III only B II and V only C III and IV only D III and V only

C

Select the one incorrect statement below: A MTF refers to the ability of an imaging system to record images having high spatial frequency. B Background radiation artifacts may occur in CR imaging when using an IP that has not been used or erased for 48 hours or more. C If a grid used in CR has a frequency dissimilar to the CR processor's scan frequency, aliasing effect can result. D Dynamic range refers to the ranges of exposures that may be captured by the detector.

C

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A The TG 18-QC test pattern is used for visual appraisal of monitor image geometric distortion. B Pincushion distortion is common in Cathode ray tubes. C Exposure reproducibility should be consistent to within 10%. D Exposure linearity between adjacent mA stations must be accurate to within 10%.

C

The advantages of coupling a CCD with the image intensifier output phosphor include1. less sensitivity to light2. less spatial distortion 3. higher DQE A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 , and 3

C

The component parts of the AEC that function to measure the amount of radiation transmitted are called I. detectors II. cells III. chambers IV. sensors A I only B I and II only C All of the above D None of the above

C

The high-voltage side of the typical X-ray circuit contains the following principal part(s): I. High-voltage transformer II. autotransformer III. circuit breaker IV. filament transformer V. Rectifiers A II, III, and IV only B I, III, and IV only C I and V only D II, IV, and V only

C

The two basic types of contrast media are correctly described as A ionic and non-ionic. B barium and iodine. C positive and negative. D oral and IV.

C

Tungsten (W) is the target material of choice because it has a A low atomic (Z) number, high melting point, and high thermal conductivity. B high atomic (Z) number, low melting point, and high thermal conductivity. C high atomic (Z) number, high melting point, and low thermal conductivity. D None of the above

C

What acronym describes the useful imaging area of the digital receptor? A VOI B TFT C FOV D PSP

C

What is the exposure indicator in digital (cassetteless) systems termed? A Filtration B Cumulative timer C Dose area product D Collimation

C

What is the name of the computerized system in which the radiographer has a selection of exams available on the console from which to choose? A Anatomical radiography B Programmed radiography (anatomical) C Anatomically programmed radiography D None of the above

C

What is the process of transmitting and viewing images remotely termed? A RIS B PACS C DICOM D Teleradiography

D

What is the processing function called that shows a graph of signal intensity values corresponding to a spectrum of pixel values? A Pixel arrangement B Data recognition C Histogram analysis D Look up table (LUT) adjustment

C

What is the term used to describe the picture elements within a matrix? A Grayscale B Quantum mottle C Pixel D Pixel pitch

C

What kV increase is indicated for a medium-sized plaster cast? A 1 to 4 kV increase B 3 to 6 kV increase C 5 to 8 kV increase D 7 to 10 kV increase

C

What patient information is required on every x-ray image? I. Patient name/identification numberII. Date III. Referring physician IV. Institution/office V. Side marker VI. Patient position (eg, decubitus, erect) A I, III, V, VI B I, II, III, IV C I, II, IV, V D I, II, V, VI

C

What pixel size has a 14" FOV and a 1250 matrix size? A 0.014 mm B 0.143 mm C 0.284 mm D 2.84 mm

C

What term describes the numeric value representing the IR exposure? A Electronic noise B Spatial resolution C Deviation index D Fill factor

C

What term describes the shortest exposure time that a particular AEC system can produce? A Backup time B Density controls C Minimum response time D mAs readout

C

When stimulated by x-ray exposure, PSPs europium-activated barium fluorohalide phosphors can react by A emitting some light. B storing some energy as the latent image. C emitting some light and storing some energy as the latent image. D None of the above

C

When trapped PSP electrons are scanned by a laser beam, electron energy is released via photostimulable A scintillation B detection C luminescence D emission spectrum

C

When using AEC, the radiographer should set the backup time to which percentage of the total expected required exposure time? A 50% B 100% C 150% D 200%

C

When using an AEC system, the backup time should be set at A 100% of the expected exposure time B 125% of the expected exposure time C 150% of the expected exposure time D 175% of the expected exposure time

C

Which of the following are fundamental parts of the typical diagnostic X-ray tube? I. anode II. cathode III. vacuum glass envelope A I only B I and II only C All of the above D None of the above

C

Which of the following aspects of image quality will be affected by mAs? A Contrast B Spatial resolution C Receptor exposure D Distortion

C

Which of the following is NOT considered a positive contrast agent? A Barium B Iodine C Air D Metal

C

Which of the following is associated with the image receptor's sensitivity and accuracy in converting incoming information to the image displayed on the output viewing device? A Dose-area product (DAP) B Nyquist frequency C Detective quantum efficiency (DQE) D Modulation transfer function (MTF)

C

Which of the following statements regarding matrix size is true? A As matrix size increases, pixel size increases. B As matrix size decreases, sharpness increases C As matrix size increases, pixel size decreases. D As matrix size decreases, pixel size remains the same.

C

Which of the following statements regarding quantum mottle/noise is most accurate? A As receptor exposure increases, the likelihood of quantum noise increases. B As SID decreases, the likelihood of quantum noise increases. C As receptor exposure decreases, the likelihood of quantum noise increases. D As SID increases, the likelihood of quantum noise decreases

C

Which of the following technical factors will cause no change in image receptor exposure? A kVp B Milliamperage C Focal spot size D Exposure time

C

Which of the following uses a grid-controlled x-ray tube? A computed radiography B automatic exposure control C condenser/capacitor discharge mobile unit D beam alignment systems

C

X-ray tubes are surrounded with oil A in order to conduct heat away from the anode B for insulation C in order to conduct heat away from the anode and for insulation D None of the above

C

From the following list, select the factor(s) that are most likely to impact image spatial resolution/image sharpness:: I. focal spot size II. kVp III. OIDIV. mAs V. SID A I and III only B I, II, and III only C II, IV, and V only D I, III, and V only

D

A wider (increased) window width (select the two that apply) A decreases the range of densities B increases the image contrast C increases the range of densities D decreases the image contrast

CD

: What is the term used to describe the extent/number of exposure intensities an image receptor can accurately detect? A Radiographic density B Exposure indicator C Optical density (OD) D Dynamic range

D

A characteristic displayed by certain materials that emit light when they are exposed to another type of light is known as A scintillation B fluorescence C photodetector D photostimulable luminescence (PSL)

D

A device that measures, in candelas per square meter, the luminescence of image display monitors and their uniformity is knows as a(n) A photodetector B exposure indicator C photoconductor D photometer

D

Advantages of flat-panel digital fluoroscopy system include:1. better contrast resolution2. uniformly distortion-free images3. high DQE A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D

All the following are related to spatial resolution except A motion B focal-spot size C OID D scattered radiation

D

Arrange the following six layers of a PSP screen in correct order from front to back: reflective layer, phosphor layer, base, protective coat, lead, antistatic layer. A antistatic layer, base, lead, phosphor layer, protective coat, reflective layer B reflective layer, protective coat, phosphor layer, lead, base, antistatic layer C protective coat, antistatic layer, reflective layer, base, phosphor layer, lead D protective coat, phosphor layer, reflective layer, base, antistatic layer, lead

D

Common uses of mobile/portable x-ray equipment include: I. trauma radiography. II. bedside radiography. III. surgical radiography. A I only B I and II only C II and III only D I, II, and III

D

Compared with the image on the input phosphor, the image on the output phosphor is A minified. B brighter. C inverted. D All of the above

D

DWhat is the term used to describe the number of gray shades that can be displayed within a pixel? A Matrix B Exposure latitude C Dynamic range D Bit depth

D

Examples of immobilization devices, techniques, and equipment used in radiography include I. sandbagsII. compression band III. radiolucent sponges A III only B I and II only C II and III only D I, II, and III

D

From the following list, select the 4 factors that can impact receptor exposure: 1. part thickness2. anode heel effect 3. workstation monitor 4. focal spot size 5. AEC photocell selection 6. pathology A 1, 3, 4, 6 B 2, 4, 5, 6 C 2, 3, 4, 6 D 1, 2, 5, 6

D

How do changes in pixel density and pixel pitch impact spatial resolution? A Increased pixel density increases spatial resolution; decreased pixel pitch decreases spatial resolution. B Increased pixel density decreases spatial resolution; decreased pixel pitch increases spatial resolution. C Increased pixel density decreases spatial resolution; increased pixel pitch increases spatial resolution. D Increased pixel density increases spatial resolution; decreased pixel pitch increases spatial resolution.

D

If 400 mA, 10 ms, and 90 kV were used for a particular exposure using three-phase, 12-pulse equipment, which of the following exposure changes would be most appropriate for use on single-phase equipment to produce a similar image? A Use 200 mA B Use 20 mAs C Use 70 kV D Use 0.02 second

D

Important guidelines regarding monitor display and lighting in primary display workstations include: 1. Maximal ambient lighting and reflection 2. Minimal veiling glare 3. Luminance of at least 171 candelas/m2 A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only

D

In digital systems, what is the primary controlling factor influencing contrast? A kVp B mAs C Grayscale D LUT

D

Select the one incorrect statement below: A If there are too few x-ray photons reaching the digital image receptor the resultant image will appear noisy/quantum mottle/graininess. B Exposure indicators (EI), expressed as S number, EI value, or lgM number depending on equipment type, indicate the acceptable range of exposure in digital imaging. C Precise/close collimation should be used with digital systems because excessive scatter causes histogram analysis errors. D Quantum mottle often occurs in CR imaging when using an IP that has not been used or erased for 48 hours or more.

D

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A Exposure timer accuracy (greater than 10 ms) should be within 10% of the selected exposure time. B When evaluating kVp calibration, the measured kVp should be within +/- 5kV of the selected kVp. C The SSD in diagnostic mobile radiography must not be less than 30 centimeters. D When evaluating collimator accuracy, the illuminated light field must coincide with the actual x-ray field to within 5% of the SID.

D

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A In order to produce predictable and accurate results, AECs require precise positioning and centering of CR. B The AEC device automatically terminates the exposure once the IR has received the required radiation intensity. C The x-ray tube may accurately be described as a diode. D The line focus principle refers to the difference in beam intensity between anode and cathode.

D

Select the one incorrect statement from those listed below: A PSPs must be erased after use to prevent any residual, or "ghost," image on subsequent images. B Either monochromatic helium neon gas lasers or a solid-state laser beams should be used to stimulate the PSP. C The image plate houses and protects the PSP. D The storage screens typically used in CR contain cesium iodide.

D

The digital imaging postprocessing function that can reregister an image to correct for patient motion during serial image acquisition is A image flip B annotation C inversion D pixel shift

D

The greatest enemy of record detail is A large focal spot. B part angle. C tube angle. D motion.

D

The term that defines the number of shades of gray that can be displayed within a pixel is A exposure latitude B dynamic range C exposure indicator D bit depth

D

The term windowing refers to changes in A brightness B LUT C contrast/grayscale D all of the above

D

To accurately measure part thickness for use of a technique chart, the caliper may be placed 1. at the location of the CR midpoint 2. at the thinnest portion of the area to be radiographed 3. at the thickest portion of the area to be radiographed A 1 only B 3 only C 1 and 2 only D 1 and 3 only

D

What is the distribution of tissue densities and/or physiologic changes that are present in the anatomic part undergoing diagnostic study called? A Inherent contrast B Displayed contrast C Window width D Subject contrast

D

When changing from half-wave to full-wave rectification, A X-ray quantity remains unchanged; quality doubles. B Both X-ray quantity and quality remain unchanged. C X-ray quantity doubles; quality remains unchanged. D Both X-ray quantity and quality double.

D

When radiographing tissue having low subject contrast, what can be used to increase image contrast? 1. Iodine 2. Barium 3. Air A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D

When sampling electronic signals, which theorem refers to the sampling frequency being greater than twice the frequency/bandwidth of the input signal? A Modulation transfer function (MTF) B Quantum noise (mottle) C Limiting spatial resolution (LSR) D Nyquist frequency

D

When struck by light photons emitted by the input phosphor, the photocathode emits A photons B protons C neutrons D electrons

D

Which of the following are the primary functions of the picture archiving and communications system (PACS)? 1. Network communication between image acquisition modalities 2. Specialty image processing and annotation 3. Image storage A 1 only B 1 and 2 C 1 and 3 D 1, 2, and 3

D

Which of the following are types of beam restrictors? I. Cones (cylinder and flare) II. Collimators III. Aperture diaphragms A I only B I and II only C II and III only D All of the above

D

Which of the following causes pitting, or many small surface melts, of the anode's focal track? A Vaporized tungsten on the glass envelope B Loss of anode rotation C A large amount of heat to a cold anode D Repeated, frequent overloading

D

Which of the following increase(s) as the matrix size increases? 1. Image quality 2. Network transmission time 3. Digital storage space A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

D

Which of the following is NOT true of mAs in digital systems? A mAs no longer controls density B mAs determines patient dose C mAs is selected to provide sufficient quanta/intensity D mAs no longer controls the quantity of radiation that forms the image

D

Which of the following matrix sizes would most improve the quality of the image and increase resolution? A 1024 × 1024 B 215 × 215 C 84 × 84 D 2050 × 2050

D

Which of the following systems permits the radiographer to select a preprogrammed set of exposure factors? A AEC B PSP C TFT D APR

D

Which post-processing function allows for the reversal of the image from a negative to a positive? A Image magnification B Subtraction/addition C Windowing D Image inversion

D

With a selected mA, exposure time, and kVp, repeated exposures should produce identical radiation output; this is known as A exposure linearity B half-value layer (HVL) C positive beam limitation (PBL) D exposure reproducibility

D

In order to avoid background radiation artifacts when using CR, it is important to: A Erase all image plates that have not been used for 48 hours B Erase all image plates if there is any question about how long it has been since the plate has been erased C Erase an image plate if there is any doubt as to when it was last erased, especially in the case of pediatric radiography D A and B are correct actions E B and C are correct actions F All of these are correct actions G None of these would be considered correct actions

F


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