N+ To know from Buhagiar

Describe Open Impedance Mismatch

(Echo). Any network segment can consist of a single continuous section of cable or be constructed from multiple cable sections attached through switches and other hardware. If multiple cable sections are used, it can result in impedance mismatches caused by slight differences in the impedance of each cable section. Impedance refers to the total opposition a circuit or device offers to the flow of a signal, measured in ohms. All media, such as twisted-pair cable, has characteristic impedance. Impedance characteristics for twisted-pair cable include 100, 120, and 150 ohms. UTP typically has an impedance of 100 ohms, and STP has an impedance of 150 ohms. Mixing these two wires in the same cable link can result in an impedance mismatch, which can cause the link to fail. To help prevent impedance mismatch, use cable rated with the same impedance rating.

Nbtstat switch that Lists the specified computer's name table given thecomputer's IP address

-A

Nbtstat switch that Purges and reloads the cached name table from the LMHOSTSfile

-R

How many connections are in a fully meshed network with five switches?

10

MMF max speed

10 Gbps (SMF can go above this)

1000BaseSX wavelength, 1000BaseLX wavelength

1000BaseSX: 850. 1000BaseLX: 1300

What is the maximum hop count RIP can use before a route is considered unroutable?

15

The E3-carrier is composed of __(#) E1-carrier channels

16

Common fibre channel speeds up to

16 Gbps

Which IEEE standard is used for Ethernet over Power Lines?

1901

What is the bandwidth of a single 5 GHz wireless channel?

20 MHz

Max down and up throughput of LTE/4G?

299 Mbps down 75.4 Up

CDMA max throughput

3 Mbps

How many feet in a mile?

5280

What is the top speed of a dial-up modem in North America?

53 kbps

TDMA max throughput

64 Kbps

Proxy servers operate at which layer of the OSI reference model?

Application

What OSPF area must be configured first?

Area 0, sometimes referred to as area 0.0.0.0

What is the sub-protocol in IPsec that checks whether packets have been altered in transit?

Authentication Headers (AH)

What switching feature should be used to prevent Spanning Tree Protocol attacks?

Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) Guard

Cat 5 - Cat 7 frequencies

Cat 5: 100 MHz. Cat 5e: 100 MHz. Cat 6: 250 MHz. Cat 5a: 500 MHz. Cat 7: 600 MHz.

802.1X: Credentials for the user or computer are encrypted with Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP), also known as

Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPOL).

What kind of networks does HSPA+ use?

GSM

An alternative session protocol to SIP.

H.323

What is the proprietary trunking protocol used for trunking Cisco switches?

ISL

10GBaseLR, 10GBaseER max distance

LR: 10km. ER: 40km

Load balancers typically operate at what layer(s)?

Layer 4 and 3

What is an SNMP monitor also called?

Network management station (NMS)

Do routers or switches typically have more ports?

Switches

What is the protocol that was developed by Cisco for authentication and authorization of users?

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System + (TACACS + )

RG grades of Thinnet and Thicknet

Thinnet: RG-58. Thicknet: RG-8

DLCI stands for

data link connection identifier (DLCI).

Do bridges do switching in software or hardware?

software

Cable modem download and upload speeds

300 Mbps download 100 Mbps upload

How many channels does an E1 have?

32

What G is HSPA+?

3G

What layer are load balancers?

4

3G max speed

4 Mbps

How many bytes are in a UDP header?

8 bytes total = 16 bits for the source port, 16 bits for destination port, 16 bits for the length, and a 16-bit checksum

In the 100Base-T specification, which of the following are the functions of the fast link pulse (FLP) signals exchanged by switches and network interface adapters? (Choose all correct answers.) The FLP signals verify the integrity of the connection (or link) between the devices. The FLP signals enable the devices to negotiate the speed of the link between them. The FLP signals indicate when a collision has occurred. The devices use FLP signals to detect bad frames.

A

What is the decimal number 10 in hexadecimal?

A

Describe SCCM

Applications also need to be patched on a regular basis. Over the past 5 to 10 years we have seen numerous exploits with Oracle Java and Adobe Flash in addition to other applications. Fortunately, we can manage patches for applications as we manage the operating system patches with the use of Microsoft Systems Center Configuration Manager (SCCM). With SCCM, patches are deployed for applications and reporting capabilities similar to WSUS are provided.

When calculating Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), which switch will always become the root bridge? A. The switch with the highest priority B. The switch with the highest MAC address C. The switch with the lowest MAC address D. The switch with the lowest priority

D.

SC: what color are UPC cable ends and what color are APC cable ends?

UPC are blue, APC are green

What device allows you to bidirectional communicate with satellites for Internet?

Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT)

Describe VNC

Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a remote control tool for the sharing of desktops. The VNC client normally operates on TCP port 5900. VNC is similar to Microsoft RDP, with the exception that VNC is an open source protocol and allows only one console session on a Microsoft operating system. It supports encryption via plug-ins but is not encrypted by default. VNC operates in a client and server model. The server install for the host enables remote control of the host, and the client install allows for means to connect to the VNC server. It is normally configured with a simple shared password, but it can also be configured with Windows groups. Several clients that can be used such as RealVNC, TightVNC, and many others, but all of the clients perform in a similar way. Buhagiar, Jon. CompTIA Network+ Review Guide (p. 262). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

What wireless technology operates at 900 MHz only for IoT connectivity?

Z-wave/ZigBee

(official) One common hierarchical model uses distributed switching. This model is especiallyuseful for medium to large networks. Systems can be grouped by location, with thesmaller groups each attached to an

access switch.

All coaxial-based Ethernet networks, including Thin Ethernet, use a __ topology.

bus (All UTP-based Gigabit Ethernet networks use a star topology.)

What type of topology is used with SCSI networks?

bus topology

location. Frame Relay is a packet-switching technology over shared telecommunications switching. This means that although your packets are private, you are sharing time in the telco switch, and if you are over your CIR, the packets can be dropped. The path between the two locations are built as a permanent virtual circuit (PVC) and are assigned a

data link connection identifier (DLCI).

(official) One common hierarchical model uses distributed switching. This model is especiallyuseful for medium to large networks. Systems can be grouped by location, with thesmaller groups each attached to an access switch. The access switches form thebottom level of the hierarchy. Access switches are not directly connected to oneanother. Each access switch forwards traffic to switches in a __ layer.Switches at the __ layer are highly interconnected, with redundant paths forfailover. Policies can be implemented at the __ level to prioritize traffic foroptimal network performance. This model also assists with isolating issues that mayoccur within the network.

distribution

Does FC often use single mode or multimode?

multi

What utility allows you to observe the packet loss for any of the hops a packet will take?

pathping

In datacenters each rack is supplied an A and B electric circuit. Each rack will have two power strips, called

power distribution units (PDUs). The A PDU supplies the first power supply in a dual-power supply configuration; the B PDU will supply the second power supply. In the event of a problem with one electrical circuit, the second circuit will continue supplying the load. It is also common for each A and B circuit to have separate dedicated UPSs and generators with independent fuel supplies.

There are several types of UPS systems that you may encounter. The main types are as follows: (3) (describe)

- A standby UPS is the most common UPS that you find under a desk protecting a personal computer. It operates by transferring the load from the AC line to the battery-supplied inverter, and capacitors in the unit help to keep the power sag to a minimum. These units work well, but they are not generally found in server rooms. -A line interactive UPS is commonly used for small server rooms and racks of networking equipment. It operates by supplying power from the AC line to the inverter. When a power failure occurs, the line signals the inverter to draw power from the batteries. This might seem similar to a standby UPS, but the difference is that the load is not shifted. In a standby UPS, the load must shift from AC to a completely different circuit (the inverter), whereas on a line interactive UPS the inverter is always wired to the load but only during the power outage is the inverter running on batteries. This shift in power allows for a much smoother transition of power. -An online UPS is the standard for datacenters. It operates by supplying AC power to a rectifier/charging circuit that maintains a charge for the batteries. The batteries then supply the inverter with a constant DC power source. The inverter converts the DC power source back into an AC power circuit again that supplies the load. The benefit of an online UPS is that the power is constantly supplied from the batteries. When there is a power loss, the unit maintains a constant supply of power to the load. The other benefit is that the online UPS always supplies a perfect AC signal.

Nbtstat switch that Releases and then reregisters all names

-RR

Nbtstat switch that Lists the specified computer's name table given thecomputer's name

-a

What nbtstat -a, nbtstat -A, nbtstat -c, nbtstat -n, nbtstat -R, nbtstat -RR, and nbtstat -s do:

-a: Lists the specified computer's name table given thecomputer's name. -A: Nbtstat switch that Lists the specified computer's name table given thecomputer's IP address. -c: Lists the contents of the NetBIOS cache. -n: Lists locally registered NetBIOS names. / Displays the lmhosts file, which is the NetBIOS name table, and is similar to the hosts file. -R: Purges and reloads the cached name table from the LMHOSTSfile. -RR: Releases and then reregisters all names. -s: displays a list of all the current NetBIOS sessions for a machine

Nbtstat switch that Lists the contents of the NetBIOS cache

-c

Nbtstat switch that Lists locally registered NetBIOS names. / Displays the lmhosts file, which is the NetBIOS name table, and is similar to the hosts file

-n

Nbtstat switch that displays a list of all the current NetBIOS sessions for a machine

-s

Which of the following is a device that switches calls between endpoints on the local IP network and provides access to external Internet lines? VoIP PBX VoIP gateway VoIP endpoint Multilayer switch

A (A private branch exchange (PBX) switches internal calls and provides access to external lines. A VoIP PBX performs the same tasks as a traditional PBX. A VoIP gateway is the device that provides the conduit between an IP network and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). A VoIP endpoint is a device that makes use of the VoIP system, such as a computer or handset. A multilayer switch is a data networking device that includes both switching and routing capabilities.)

A network device that is used to connect multiple devices together without segmenting a network is which of the following? Hub Wireless access point Switch Router

A (This is correct because hubs create one collision domain and one broadcast domain.)

Which of the following Ethernet physical layer options does not use the star topology? 10Base2 10Base-T 100Base-TX 1000Base-T

A. (10Base2 is the physical layer specification for Thin Ethernet, which uses coaxial cable in a bus topology. 10Base-T, 100Base-TX, and 1000Base-T all use twisted pair cable in a star topology.)

Which of the following devices can you use to connect two multimode fiber-optic Ethernet networks in different buildings 2,000 meters apart using a single-mode fiber-optic cable segment running at the same speed, while maintaining a single collision domain? Bridge Switch Router Media converter

A. (A simple media converter is a physical layer device that can connect different types of network media together, as long as they have the same speed and duplex settings. Because the converter simply retransmits the signals, the single-collision domain is maintained. Bridges and switches are data link layer devices that create multiple-collision domains. Routers are network layer devices that create separate collision and broadcast domains.)

Which technology uses one channel of 24 channels for call setup? A. ISDN B. T1 leased line C. T3 leased line D. E1 leased line

A. (An ISDN primary rate leased line uses one of the 24 channels for call setup. The remaining 23 channels are used to place the phone calls.)

Your organization has deployed several autonomous WAPs. Users complain that they consistently drop the wireless connection when roaming. What should you recommend to resolve this issue? A. Wireless range extenders B. More autonomous WAPs C. Switching the channels the WAPs are using D. Wireless LAN controller

A. (Autonomous WAPs do not have any coordination between them for roaming clients. When a client roams from one WAP to another, they must reauthenticate, and this causes a drop. Implementing a wireless LAN controller will coordinate roaming clients and not require reauthentication.)

Configuring a group of disks with RAID level 5 is an example of which availability concept? A. Fault tolerance B. High availability C. Clustering D. Load balancing

A. (Configuring a group of disks with RAID level 5 striping with parity is an example of fault tolerance, because redundancy of resources is used to ensure operations in the event of failure.)

You need to provide Ethernet connectivity to an IP camera that is 5,000 feet away. The solution should be cost effective. What should you recommend? A. Wireless range extender B. Media converter with fiber-optic cable C. Media converter with coaxial cable D. Wireless mesh network with a bridge

A. (Installation of a fiber-optic cable with a media converter on both ends is the recommended solution because of the distance. The length of the cable run is too far for coaxial cable. Although a wireless mesh network with a bridge might work, it would be too expensive.)

Which authentication system is an open standard originally proposed by the Internet Engineer Task Force (IETF)? A. RADIUS B. TACACS+ C. Kerberos D. LDAP

A. (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) was originally proposed by the IETF and became an open standard for authentication, often used with 802.1x.)

Which protocol and port do you need to configure on the inbound host-based firewall for a DHCP server? A. UDP/67 B. TCP/67 C. UDP/68 D. TCP/68

A. (The DHCP server waits for connection from clients on UDP/67; the clients will send the requests from UDP/68. Therefore, the inbound host-based firewall should be configured to accept traffic from UDP/67.)

Which of the following cabling topologies was used by the first Ethernet networks? Bus Ring Star Mesh

A. (The first Ethernet networks used a physical layer implementation commonly known as Thick Ethernet or 10Base5. The network used coaxial cable in a bus topology. Later Ethernet standards use twisted pair cable in a star topology. Ethernet has never used a ring or mesh topology.)

Alice has recently installed some new computers onto her Gigabit Ethernet network. To ensure best possible network performance, she has configured the network adapters in the new computers to run at 1 Gbps speed and use full-duplex communication. Once the computers are in service, however, Alice begins getting reports of extremely poor network performance on those machines. She tries running some ping tests and does not see any problem. She calls in a consultant to perform a packet analysis, and the consultant detects large numbers of packet collisions, late collisions, cyclical redundancy check (CRC) errors, and runt frames. Which of the following could be the problem? Duplex mismatch TX/RX reversal Incorrect cable type Damaged cables

A. (There should be no collisions at all on a full-duplex network, so the problem is clearly related to the duplexing of the communications. Ethernet running over twisted pair cable, in its original half-duplex mode, detects collisions by looking for data on the transmit and receive pins at the same time. In full-duplex mode, data is supposed to be transmitted and received at the same time. When one side of a connection is configured to use full duplex, as Alice's new computers are, and the other end is configured to use half duplex (as the switches must be), the full-duplex communications on the one side look like collisions to the half-duplex side. The half-duplex adapter transmits a jam signal as a result of each collision, which causes the full-duplex side to receive an incomplete frame. Both sides then start to retransmit frames in a continuing cycle, causing network performance to diminish drastically. The ping tests do not detect a problem because ping only transmits a small amount of data in one direction at a time. The other options would likely cause the ping tests to fail as well. The solution to the problem is to configure all of the devices to autonegotiate their speed and duplex modes.)

Which of the following is an example of a hybrid network? Ethernet switch Ring topology Bus topology Star topology

A. (This is correct because an Ethernet switch uses a star physical topology with a logical bus technology.)

Which of the following explains why splitting a large switched Ethernet LAN into two LANs by adding a router can help to alleviate traffic congestion and improve performance? (Choose all correct answers.) Adding a router reduces the amount of broadcast traffic on each of the two LANs. Adding a router reduces the amount of unicast traffic on each of the two LANs. Adding a router diverts traffic to an alternate path through the network. Adding a router prevents computers on one LAN from communicating with computers on another LAN.

AB (Adding a router splits the Ethernet LAN into two LANs, creating two separate broadcast domains. Each computer, therefore, has a smaller number of broadcast messages to process. Because the network is split by the router, the amount of unicast traffic on each subnet is reduced.)

Which of the following are WAN protocols or technologies? (Choose all that apply.) ATM ISDN MPLS RIP

ABC

Which of the following should a troubleshooter look for when a duplex mismatch is suspected on an Ethernet network? (Choose all correct answers.) Collisions Runt frames CRC errors Failed ping tests

ABC (There should be no collisions at all on a full-duplex network, so collisions indicate that at least one side of the connection is trying to operate in half-duplex mode. Ethernet running over twisted pair cable, in its original half-duplex mode, detects collisions by looking for data on the transmit and receive pins at the same time. In full-duplex mode, data is supposed to be transmitted and received at the same time. In a duplex mismatch, in which one side of a connection is configured to use full duplex and the other end is configured to use half duplex, the full-duplex communications originating from one side look like collisions to the half-duplex side. The half-duplex adapter transmits a jam signal as a result of each collision, which causes the full duplex side to receive an incomplete or damaged frame, which are perceived as runts or through cyclical redundancy check (CRC) errors. Both sides then start to retransmit frames in a continuing cycle, causing network performance to diminish. Ping tests do not detect a duplex mismatch because ping only transmits a small amount of data in one direction at a time. The mismatch only becomes apparent when the systems transmit large amounts of data.)

If you are running half-duplex Internet, which of the following is true? (Choose all that apply.) Your digital signal cannot transmit and receive data at the same time. Hosts use the CSMA/CD protocol to detect collisions. The physical connection consists of one wire pair. None of the above.

ABC. (With half duplex, you are using one wire pair with a digital signal either transmitting or receiving (but not both at once). Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) helps packets that are transmitted simultaneously from different hosts share bandwidth evenly.)

Which of the following statements about switches and routers are true? (Choose all correct answers.) Routers operate at the network layer, whereas switches operate at the data link layer. All of the devices connected to a switch are part of a single broadcast domain, whereas the networks connected to a router form separate broadcast domains. Routers can communicate with each other and share information, but switches cannot. Switches forward packets based on their hardware addresses, whereas routers forward packets based on their IP addresses.

ABD

You are using a TDR. Which of the following actions can you do with this device? (Choose all that apply.) Estimate cable lengths Find splice and connector locations and their associated loss amounts Display unused services Define cable-impedance characteristics

ABD

Which of the following devices can split a single network into two collision domains while maintaining a single broadcast domain? Hub Bridge Switch Router

AC

Which of the following terms are used to describe the device used to place calls on a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) installation? (Choose all correct answers.) Terminal Gateway Endpoint PBX

AC (VoIP uses the terms terminal and endpoint to refer to the device with which users make calls, including computers and telephone handsets. A VoIP gateway is the device that provides the conduit between an IP network and the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN). A VoIP private branch exchange (PBX) is a device that switches calls between endpoints on the local IP network and provides access to external Internet lines.)

Which of the following statements about routers are true? (Choose all correct answers.) Routers are network layer devices that use IP addresses to forward frames. Routers are data link layer devices that use media access control (MAC) addresses to forward frames. Routers build their internal tables based on destination MAC addresses and forward frames based on source MAC addresses. Routers must support the network layer protocol implemented on the local area network (LAN). Each port on a router defines a separate broadcast domain.

ACD

Which of the following are Ethernet cable types that must be configured in a bus topology? (Choose all correct answers.) RG-8 RG-10 RG-14 RG-58

AD

In which of the following DNS transactions does the querying system generate a recursive query? (Choose all correct answers.) A DNS client sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its designated DNS server for resolution. A client's DNS server sends a request to a root domain server to find the authoritative server for the com top-level domain. A client's DNS server sends a request to the com top-level domain server to find the authoritative server for the adatum.com domain. A client's DNS server, which has been configured to function as a forwarder, sends the server name www.adatum.com from a URL to its ISP's DNS server for resolution. A client's DNS server sends a request to the adatum.com domain server to find the IP address associated with the server name www.

AD (When a client sends a name resolution query to its DNS server, it uses a recursive request so that the server will take on the responsibility for resolving the name. The only other use of recursive requests is in the case of a forwarder, which is configured to pass that responsibility on to another server. All of the other queries issued by the client's server to the various domain authorities are iterative queries.)

List 2 providers that use GSM networks

AT+T, T Mobile

A small business office currently has a 100Base-TX Ethernet network with a single 8-port hub. All of the hub ports are populated and the business owner wants to expand the network further. However, the hub does not have an uplink port. The owner has purchased a new hub, also with eight ports, which does have an uplink port, but he does not know how to connect them together. What must the owner do to install the new hub on the network? Use a standard patch cable to connect a standard port on the existing hub to a standard port on the new hub. Use a standard patch cable to connect a standard port on the existing hub to the uplink port on the new hub. Purchase a crossover cable and use it to connect a standard port on the existing hub to the uplink port on the new hub. Purchase a second new hub with an uplink port to replace the old one and use a standard patch cable to connect the two uplink ports together.

B

How is the root bridge selected with the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. Lowest MAC address and highest bridge priority B. Lowest MAC address and lowest bridge priority C. Highest MAC address and highest bridge priority D. Highest MAC address and lowest bridge priority

B

What is the maximum distance of 10GBaseSR? 100 meters (328 feet) 302 meters (990 feet) 305 meters (1,000 feet) 1,593 km (6 miles)

B

Which of the following devices can split a single network into two collision domains while maintaining a single broadcast domain? Hub Bridge Switch Router

B

Which of the following terms is used to describe the method by which a firewall examines the port numbers in transport layer protocol headers? IP address filtering Service-dependent filtering Deep packet inspection Next generation firewall

B

A load balancer is a type of which of the following devices? Switch Router Gateway Firewall

B (A load balancer is a type of router that forwards traffic with a single IP address to multiple servers in turn. In most cases, a load balancing router works by processing incoming traffic based on rules set by the administrator. Because a load balancer works with IP addresses, it is a network layer device. Load balancers are not switches, gateways, or firewalls.)

Your organization wants to prevent users from accessing specific sites during work hours. What should be installed to prevent users from accessing these sites? A. Content filter B. Proxy server C. Firewall D. IDS/IPS

B. (A content filter is a device or software that filters content that users request. Although commonly used with a proxy server, the proxy server alone will not filter content.)

You work for a library and require an asset tracking system that is inexpensive and will notify you when equipment leaves the building. Which type of system should you purchase and deploy? A. Bluetooth B. Passive RFID C. 802.11 asset tracking D. Active RFID

B. (A passive RFID system is inexpensive because the transponder powers the RFID tag. Transponders located at egress points of the library will achieve the requirement.)

You need to deploy a surveillance camera in an area that requires you to record the equipment the entire time it has entered your datacenter to the time it is installed. Which type of surveillance camera should you deploy? A. CCTV B. PTZ C. Coaxial D. POE

B. (Pan tilt zoom (PTZ) cameras allow for intervention of a situation. In situations where you must track and record equipment as it is moved, such as in casino environments, PTZ cameras should be used.)

You believe there is problem upstream of your Internet connection and want to gather information to provide the ISP. Which tool will you use to gather statistics? A. tracert/traceroute B. pathping C. nslookup D. dig

B. (The pathping tool will perform a traceroute to the destination address. It will then check each hop with a number of ICMP packets and return statistics on each hop.)

You need to implement a new cloud-based service for your users. The login requirement is that the same username and password be used for the cloud service as is used to logon to the network. What should you investigate with the cloud-based service? A. Kerberos authentication B. Federated services authentication C. RADIUS authentication D. Pass-through authentication

B. (The use of federated services authentication allows for single sign-on (SSO) of the user. Federated services such as Active Directory Federated Services (ADFS) and Shibboleth use claims sent to the cloud service on behalf of the user; this in turn logs the user into the cloud service.)

Which of the following best describes what happens when a DNS server receives an iterative name resolution query? The DNS server responds immediately to the query with the best information it has in its resource records or in its cache or, failing that, with an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name. The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache or, failing that, by issuing its own iterative queries to other DNS servers. The DNS server attempts to resolve the requested name by checking its own resource records and cache or, failing that, by forwarding the name resolution request to another DNS server in a recursive query. The DNS server responds immediately if it is the authoritative server for the domain in which the requested name is located. Otherwise, it returns an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name.

B. (When a DNS server receives an iterative query, it responds immediately with the best information that it has available or with an error message. It does not send queries to other servers.)

You are diagnosing a wireless issue and you believe that the problem is related to RF noise. Which measurement should you focus on to prove your theory? A. RSSI B. SNR C. dB strength D. EMI

B. (Wireless access point (WAP) diagnostics and spectrum analyzers will display RSSI and SNR. The signal-to-noise ratio is the separation of signal to floor noise measured in decibels (dB). The SNR will prove the theory of excess RF noise compared to the originating signal.)

Which of the following statements about proxy servers and NAT servers are true? (Choose all correct answers.) NAT servers and proxy servers can both provide Internet access to clients running any application. NAT servers and proxy servers both use public IP addresses. NAT servers and proxy servers both access Internet servers and relay the responses to network clients. Both NAT servers and proxy servers cache web data for later use.

BC (To provide clients with Internet access, a NAT or proxy server must have direct access to the Internet, which requires using a registered, or public, IP address. Both NAT and proxy servers function as the middleman in transactions between the client computers on a private network and Internet servers. The NAT or proxy server transmits the client's service request to the Internet server as though it was its own and, after receiving the reply, relays the response back to the client. Because NAT servers function at the network layer, clients can use any application to access the Internet through the server. Proxy servers, however, operate at the application layer and can provide Internet access only to certain types of client applications. Proxy servers are capable of caching web data for later use because they are application layer devices that read the application layer protocol data in the message packets they receive. NAT servers are network layer processes that forward packets with no knowledge of the application layer information in their contents.)

T3 connector type

BNC

Which RG rating of coax is used for cable modems? RG-59 RG-58 RG-6 RG-8

C

Which is not a routing protocol? RIP RIPv2 RIPv3 EIGRP

C

Which protocol uses a handshake protocol to initiate encryption? A. SSL B. FTP C. TLS D. FTPS

C

Which type of uninterruptable power supplies (UPS), often found in datacenters, provides constant power from the battery-powered inverter circuit?A. Line interactive UPSB. Standby UPSC. Online UPSD. Failover UPS

C

You have purchased several 802.11ac wireless access points (WAPs) that will not power up on the PoE switch. What is the most probable cause of the problem? A. The switch does not support 802.3af. B. The network cable does not support PoE. C. The switch does not support 802.3at. D. The LLDP protocol needs to be configured.

C

You need to purchase some telecom equipment for a sales unit that will travel around the world. Which cellular equipment should you choose that will be compatible in most countries? A. LTE/4G B. CDMA C. GSM D. CDMA-2000

C

Your organization expects a considerable amount of traffic from a wide geographic area to your web server. You plan to install several web servers at different geographic locations. How can you maintain one FQDN and allow customers to be directed to the closest web servers? A. Geographic router B. Firewall C. Geographic load balancer D. Reverse proxy

C. (A geographic load balancer will direct a user's request to the closest geographic web server. These load balancers are often a service that is provided by the cloud provider you are hosting your web servers on.)

Which of the following is not one of the typical heights for devices mounted in IT equipment racks? 1 unit 2 units 3 units 4 units

C. (Devices designed to fit into IT equipment racks typically have heights measured in units. One unit equals 1.75 inches. Most rack-mounted devices are one (1U), two (2U), or four units (4U) tall.)

Which authentication system can use Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption for encryption of user credentials? A. RADIUS B. TACACS+ C. Kerberos D. LDAP

C. (Kerberos is an authentication system that can use Data Encryption Standard (3DES) and Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption for encryption of user credentials. It is exclusively used by Microsoft Active Directory as an authentication protocol)

Each of the following Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) events occurs on an Ethernet network when two stations transmit simultaneously, although not in the order listed. Which of the following events occurs immediately after the collision? The two stations observe a random back-off interval. The two stations transmit a jam signal. The two stations stop transmitting. The two stations listen to see if the channel is idle. The two stations begin retransmitting their frames.

C. (Stations on a CSMA/CD network first check the medium to see if it's idle. If they detect an idle medium, they begin transmitting. If two or more devices transmit at the same time, a collision occurs. Immediately after a collision occurs, the two stations involved stop transmitting and then send out a jam signal. Then, the two stations back off for a random interval, and the transmission process begins again.)

Which tool allows you to review the security baseline of third-party applications on your Windows operating systems? A. Nmap B. WSUS C. SCCM D. RHSM

C. (The Microsoft Systems Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) will allow the compilation and review of baseline reports for third-party applications on Windows operating systems. The Microsoft Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) will only allow the review of Microsoft updates on Windows.)

You have two gateway routers to the Internet. You want to provide a failover to the second gateway router in the event one of the gateway routers fail. What should be implemented? A. Round-robin DNS B. GLBP C. VRRP D. Mesh network

C. (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) allows two or more gateway routers to function in an active/passive configuration. If one of the gateway routers were to fail, the passive gateway router would be used.)

You are creating the specification for the cabling install between two buildings on your local network campus. You estimate that the buildings will be 2500 feet apart, and you need to supply 40 Gbps network speeds between them. Which cabling type should you specify? A. Category 7 cable B. Coaxial cable C. Multimode fiber-optic cable D. Single-mode fiber-optic cable

D. ( Although the distance of the cable is below 3000 feet, which would normally necessitate MMF cable, the speed is 40 Gbps and is over the 10 Gbps that MMF cable can provide. So SMF is your only option in this scenario, dictated by speed.)

You are obtaining another Internet provider for your company's connectivity to the Internet. You want to make sure that if there is a failure, the routing protocol will advertise your company's IP addresses and fail over. Which routing protocol should you use? A. RIPv2 B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. BGP

D. (Border Gateway Protocol is used as an external routing protocol for the Internet. When two providers are connected to a single site using BGP, the connection can fail over in the case of one provider suffering an outage.)

You have recently deployed several POE security cameras on a switch. You had chosen the switch because it met the power requirements of the cameras. However, several ports will not power up and you have now discovered that you are drawing too much power. Which option will quickly rectify the problem? A. Purchase cameras with a lower power requirement. B. Purchase a new switch that can provide more power. C. Turn on POE+ support on the switch. D. Turn on LLDP on the switch.

D. (Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) and Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) communicate with neighboring devices and exchange power operating conditions. Turning on LLDP will quickly rectify the problem by adjusting power consumption.)

You find that when a computer is turned on, it does not get a link light for about 1 minute. What should be done to fix the issue with minimal effect to the network? A. Turn off the Spanning Tree Protocol on the switch B. Configure port security on the port C. Configure BPDU Guard on the port D. Configure Spanning Tree PortFaston the port

D. (Spanning Tree PortFast will change the order of blocking, listening, learning, and forwarding for traffic during convergence to forwarding, listening, and learning. This will allow for an immediate link light and forwarding of data during convergence.)

What is the term used to refer to the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolution queries and sends them to DNS servers?Requestor Forwarder Authority Resolver

D. (The client component of the Domain Name System is called the resolver. Requestor is a generic term for any system issuing requests, and only DNS servers can be authorities or forwarders.)

The network administrator for a small business is installing a computer to function as a firewall protecting their internetwork from Internet intrusion. At which of the following locations should the administrator install the firewall system? Anywhere on the private internetwork, as long as the Internet is accessible Between the Internet access router and the Internet service provider's (ISP's) network At the ISP's network site Between the Internet access router and the rest of the private internetwork

D. (The network administrator for a small business is installing a computer to function as a firewall protecting their internetwork from Internet intrusion. At which of the following locations should the administrator install the firewall system? Anywhere on the private internetwork, as long as the Internet is accessible Between the Internet access router and the Internet service provider's (ISP's) network At the ISP's network site Between the Internet access router and the rest of the private internetwork)

When calculating Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), which switch will always become the root bridge? A. The switch with the highest priority B. The switch with the highest MAC address C. The switch with the lowest MAC address D. The switch with the lowest priority

D. The switch with the lowest priority. (When calculating STP, the switch with the lowest MAC address will become the root bridge if all of the priorities are set to the default. However, if the priority on a particular switch is lower than the others, it will always become the root bridge.)

What Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is used in conjunction with enterprise WPA2?

EAP-TLS

What dynamic routing protocol uses both distance vector and link state properties?

EIGRP

Identify the ADs of the dynamic routing protocols:

EIGRP: 90. OSPF: 110. RIP: 120.

What SPF and DKIM do

Sender Policy Framework (SPF) inserts a list of authorized email hosts into the TXT record and DomainKey Identified Email (DKIM) inserts a public key.

SC can be found in SMF and MMF installations, but it is most popular with (which)

MMF

What WAN service is considered to operate at layer 2.5?

MPLS

Vulnerability scanning: The MBSA tool is now deprecated and has largely been replaced by the

Microsoft Security Compliance Toolkit (SCT).

Applications also need to be patched on a regular basis. Over the past 5 to 10 years we have seen numerous exploits with Oracle Java and Adobe Flash in addition to other applications. Fortunately, we can manage patches for applications as we manage the operating system patches with the use of (product)

Microsoft Systems Center Configuration Manager (SCCM). With SCCM, patches are deployed for applications and reporting capabilities similar to WSUS are provided.

Is GLBP vendor neutral?

No

What motion detection technology uses a reflective panel to create zones?

Passive infrared (PIR)

Describe PoE modes and what wires. What mode does Gigabit Ethernet use?

PoE switches are referred to as endspan (or endpoint) power sourcing equipment(PSE). If an existing switch does not support PoE, a device called a power injector (ormidspan) can be used. Power can either be supplied over pairs 1/2 and 3/6 (referred toas Mode A or phantom power, as these are the ones also used for data in 10/100BASE)or over 4/5 and 7/8 (Mode B). Gigabit Ethernet only uses the Mode A method.

What protocol provides trunking to a VoIP PBX?

SIP

What mode is ST connector usually used with?

SMF (though can be used with both)

Standard color of SMF patch cable, 50 micron MMF patch cable and 62.5 micron MMF patch cable?

SMF is yellow, 50 micron MMF is aqua, 62.5 micron MMF is orange

Typical core size of SMF and MMF

SMF: 9 microns. MMF: 50 microns (can be 62.5)

Describe SPF and DKIM

The Sender Policy Framework (SPF) record is used to define these IP addresses so that other mail servers can combat spam. Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM) records allow for organizations to authenticate messages sent through a cryptographic key stored in the TXT record.

(official)As a practical example of this type of model, Cisco recommends designing a largeenterprise network with four layers of hierarchy: (describe)

The access layer allows end-user devices, such as computers, printers, andsmartphones to connect to the network. Another important function of the accesslayer is to prevent the attachment of unauthorized devices. The access layer isimplemented for each site using structured cabling and wall ports for wired access andaccess points for wireless access. Both are ultimately connected to workgroupswitches. Switches deployed to serve the access layer might also be referred to as LANswitches or data switches. The distribution layer provides fault-tolerant interconnections between differentaccess blocks and either the core or other distribution blocks. The distribution layer is often used to implement traffic policies, such as routing boundaries, filtering, or qualityof service (QoS).CORE LAYERThe core layer provides a highly available network backbone. Devices such as clientand server computers should not be attached directly to the core. Its purpose shouldbe kept simple: provide redundant traffic paths for data to continue to flow around theaccess and distribution layers of the network.You can think of a network design with a core as a star (or hierarchical star) topology. A"flat" design with only distribution and access layers is more like a mesh (or partialmesh). It is more complex to grow a mesh-like network, because the number ofinterconnections required grows exponentially as you add sites. Connections betweenthe distribution layer are made via the core layer, rather than interconnectingdistribution layer switches directly. The data center is a network area that hosts network services (such as authentication,addressing, and name resolution), application servers, and storage area networks(SANs).

Which criteria are used to elect the designated router for OSPF?

The highest Router ID (RID) in the network

What is the RG grade of thinnet and what is the RG grade of thicknet?

Thinnet is RG-58. Thicknet is RG-8