NCLEX study set questions incorrect

An adult client has just returned to the nursing care unit following a gastroscopy. Which updates to the client's plan of care should be initiated by the nurse? 1. Vital sign checks every 15 min x 4 2. Supine position for 6 hours 3. NPO until return of gag reflex 4. Irrigate NG tube every 2 hours 5. Raise four siderails

1., & 3. Correct: Vital signs, post procedure, are important to monitor for any post-procedure complications such as bleeding or any signs of respiratory compromise. VS are checked frequently for the first hour post procedure. Any client who has a scope inserted down the throat and has received numbing medication in the back of the throat to depress the gag reflex should be kept NPO until the gag reflex returns.

Which statements should a nurse make when reinforcing education to a client about advance directives? 1. Used as guidelines for client treatment should the client's family deem them necessary. 2. Legally binding document. 3. Should be documented in the client's medical record as to whether or not the client has an advance directive. 4. Specifies a client's wishes for healthcare treatment should the client become incapacitated. 5. Allows the client's spouse to make end-of-life decisions.

2, 3, 4,

The family member of a schizophrenic client asks the nurse why the client is receiving chlorpromazine and benztropine. What is the best response by the nurse? 1. The chlorpromazine makes the benztropine more effective so a smaller dose of both drugs can be used. 2. Benztropine is given to treat the side effects produced by the chlorpromazine. 3. Chlorpromazine is used for severe hiccups that can occur with the use of benztropine. 4. Chlorpromazine is used for psychosis, and benztropine is used for preventing agranulocytosis.

2. Correct: Benztropine is used to treat parkinsonism of various causes and drug-induced extrapyramidal reactions seen with chlorpromazine, which is an antipsychotic agent. Extrapyramidal symptoms are neurologic disturbances in the area of the brain that controls motor coordination. This disruption can cause symptoms that mimic Parkinson's disease, including stiffness, rigidity, tremor, drooling and the classic "mask like" facial expression. These symptoms can be treated and are reversible using such medications as benztropine.

Which observation by the nurse would demonstrate normal development of an infant during a well child clinic visit? 1. Eight month old infant who requires support to maintain a sitting position. 2. Twelve month old infant who can only say 2 words 3. Four month old infant who is fearful and cries when the nurse approaches. 4. Eleven month old infant who can only stand by holding onto the walls.

4

Which client assignments would be appropriate for the LPN/VN to accept from the charge nurse? 1. In Bucks traction requiring frequent pain medication. 2. Twenty four hours post appendectomy. 3. Diagnosed with cholelithiasis and scheduled for surgery in the AM. 4. Admitted 6 hours ago in adrenal insufficiency. 5. Client newly diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes.

1, 2, 3

Which prescriptions would the nurse recognize as being appropriate for the client who is immunocompromized with shingles?

1. Private room 2. Negative pressure airflow 3. Respirator mask

The nurse is caring for a client on the surgical unit. The primary healthcare provider prescribed morphine sulfate 20 mg IM one time dose. The nurse has available: morphine sulfate in a 20 mL vial, labeled 15 mg per mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? Record answer using one decimal place.

15 mg: 1 mL = 20 mg: x mL 15x = 20 x= 1.33 = 1.3

Which client assignments would be appropriate for the LPN/LVN to accept? 1. Seventy four year old client with unstable angina who needs teaching for a scheduled cardiac catheterization. 2. Sixty year old client experiencing chest pain scheduled for a graded exercise test. 3. Forty eight year old client who is five days post right-sided cerebral vascular accident (CVA). 4. Eighty four year old client with heart disease and mild dementia. 5. Newly admitted ninety year old client with decreased urinary output, altered level of consciousness, and temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C) 6. Sixty six year old client with chronic emphysema experiencing mild shortness of breath.

3, 4 & 6

A client is seen in the clinic expressing feelings of hopelessness and despair after losing his wife two months ago. He tells the nurse, "I think I am ready to go meet her. Please don't tell anyone." How should the nurse respond?

"I can't keep a secret like that. Are you planning to harm yourself?"

What behaviors would the nurse expect to observe in a client admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression? 1. Withdrawn behavior 2. Sitting in room, lights out, drapes closed 3. Unkempt appearance 4. Overeating 5. Severe insomnia

1, 2, 3, 5

The women's health unit is short one staff member and will receive a LPN/VN from the medical-surgical unit. Which clients should the LPN/VN accept from the charge nurse? 1. Total abdominal hysterectomy (TAH). 2. Client post C-section to be discharged home. 3. Breast Reduction. 4. Vaginal delivery of fetal demise. 5. 28 week gestation of bed rest . 6. Bladder suspension with anterior and posterior repair.

1, 3,6

Prior to enterning an isolation room what order should the nurse apply personal protective equipment?

Perform hand hygiene, Apply gown (tying at neck and waist), put mask on (covering mouth and nose), place goggles snugly on around face and eyes, apply clean gloves

Which immunizations obtained by the age of two would indicate to the nurse that the child is up-to-date on immunizations if taken as recommended on the immunization schedule?

1. Diptheria-tetanus-pertussis (DTaP). 2. Inactivated polio (IPV). 4. Hepatitis B 5. Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib).

Which observations should be made by the nurse in the home environment that may prevent threats to the safety of a toddler?

1. Do stairs have guard gates? 2. Are safety covers on electrical outlet plugs? 3. Is the swimming pool inaccessible to the toddler? 4. Are cleaning supplies located out of the toddler's reach?

What information should a nurse include when reinforcing education to a client regarding buccal administration of a medication? 1. This route allows the medication to get into the blood stream faster than the oral route. 2. Stinging may occur after placing the medication in the cheek. 3. If swallowed, the medication may be inactivated by gastric secretions. 4. The buccal dose of medication will need to be increased from the oral dose. 5. Remove the tablet from buccal area after 15 seconds.

1., 2., & 3. Correct: These are correct statements about buccal administration of medication. Buccal administration involves the medication being placed between the gums and cheek, where it dissolves and becomes absorbed into the bloodstream. The cheek area has many capillaries that allow the medication to be absorbed quickly without having to pass through the digestive system. The degree of stinging experienced depends on the medication being administered. Some effects of certain medications can be lessened by digestive processes.

The nurse should teach the client with chronic pancreatitis how to monitor for which problem that can occur as a result of the disease? 1. Hypertension 2. Diabetes 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Graves disease

2. Correct: Insulin is produced in the pancreas. When the client has chronic pancreatitis, the pancreas becomes unable to produce insulin, thus resulting in diabetes.

Which finding would indicate to a nurse that a client receiving chemotherapy may have difficulty maintaining proper nutrition? 1. Fatigue 2. Mucositis 3. Neutropenia 4. Diarrhea

2. Correct: Mucositis is pain and inflammation of the body's mucous membranes along the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerations in the oral cavity can make it difficult to chew food or be intolerant to certain foods due to discomfort and pain. Intake may be inadequate as a result of this.

A newly admitted client with schizophrenia has an unkempt appearance and needs to attend to personal hygiene. Which statement by the nurse is most therapeutic? A shower will make you feel better. 2. It is time to take a shower. 3. Have you thought about taking a shower? 4. I need you to take a shower.

2. Correct: Schizophrenia is a thought disorder. Many clients with schizophrenia are concrete thinkers and have difficulty making decisions. The nurse needs to be direct, clear and concise in communicating with the client. This is a direct, clear and concise statement that guides the client to perform the needed activity.

An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), assigned to take care of a client who is HIV positive, refuses the assignment, stating fear of personal injury. What action should the LPN/VN take first? 1. Re-assign the client to a UAP who does not mind caring for HIV positive clients. 2. Inform the UAP that refusing client care is not acceptable practice. 3. Have the UAP document rationale and support for refusing the client assignment. 4. Transfer the UAP to a unit where there are no HIV positive clients.

2. Inform the UAP that refusing client care is not acceptable practice.

An LPN/VN from the maternity unit is pulled to the medical-surgical unit for the first four hours of the shift. When the LPN/VN is receiving assignments from the charge nurse, which client assignment would be considered inappropriate? 1. Client with rheumatic fever 2. Client scheduled for an appendectomy 3. Client one day post cardiac catheterization 4. Client diagnosed with Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

4

A client in a psychiatric unit sings over and over, "It is hot, I am a hot tot in a lot, I sit all day on a cot drinking a pop." How should the nurse document this form of thought? .1. Neologisms 2. Dissociation 3. Fugue 4. Clang Association

4. Clang association involves the choice of words governed by sounds, often taking the form of rhyming even though the words themselves don't have any logical reason to be grouped together.

Which data collected from a client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) should the nurse identify as contributing to this diagnosis? 1. Family history of hyperlipidemia 2. Postmenopausal 3. BMI of 24 4. Swims three times a week 5. Leg pain when walking

1, 2, 5

A Hispanic client is considering treatment options for cancer. The client is reports needing to discuss the options with the sons before making a final decision. What should the nurse say to the client? 1. You are wanting your sons to assist you in deciding about treatment options. 2. It is really your decision about which option you choose. 3. I will be happy to discuss this issue with you. 4. This shows that you are proud of your sons.

1

The nurse is working with a LPN/VN and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which client would be appropriate for the LPN/VN to accept? 1. In Bucks traction requiring frequent pain medication 2. 24 hours post appendectomy 3. Diagnosed with cholelithiasis and scheduled for surgery in the AM 4. Admitted 6 hours ago in adrenal insufficiency 5. In diabetic ketoacidosis receiving IV insulin

1, 2, 3, 4,

A nurse is administering medications to a client and notes that a newly prescribed medication is on the client's list of allergies. When advocating for this client, which actions should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety? 1. Check the client's allergies against the list of client allergies documented in the medical record. 2. Notify the primary healthcare provider immediately that the medication prescribed is on the client's list of medication allergies. 3. Discontinue the medication on the client's medication administration record (MAR). 4. Give the medication as ordered by the primary healthcare provider and administer diphenhydramine to the client. 5. Hold the medication and administer diphenhydramine to the client.

1,2 ,3

What tips for administering medication to children should the nurse reinforce to parents?

1. & 5. Correct: This is a safety issue and the parents need to be able to accurately measure the child's medication. Never put medications in dishes, cups, bottles, or other household containers that children or other family members may be unaware of.

Which data will provide the nurse with the most information regarding a client's neurologic function? 1. Level of consciousness 2. Doll's eyes reflex 3. Babinski reflex 4. Reaction to painful stimuli 5. Verbal ability

1. & 5. Correct: Yes, the most important and subtle changes are related to the client's level of consciousness, verbal ability, orientation, and ability to move to command.

The parents of a 2 year old child, diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder (ASD), ask the nurse what led the primary healthcare provider to diagnose this disorder for their child. What behaviors will the nurse indicate as signs of ASD? 1. Delusions 2. Twisting 3. Preoccupation with objects 4. Delayed speech 5. Changes are easily tolerated.

2, 3, 4

After a client returns from surgery, which actions should the nurse initiate to reduce the risk of pneumonia? 1. Allow 2 hours of rest between deep breathing and coughing exercises. 2. Assist with splinting the incision when client coughs. 3. Have the client drink a glass of water before coughing. 4. Perform percussion and vibration every 2 hours. 5. Promote incentive spirometer use several times per hour while awake.

1., 2., & 5. Correct: They need to cough and deep breath at least every 2 hours. Deep breathing and coughing will expand the lungs and help expectorate secretions. Splinting helps with the ability to control pain and produce an effective cough. Incentive spirometry encourages deep inspiratory efforts, which are more effective in re-expanding alveoli than forceful expiratory efforts.

What should the nurse reinforce to the parents of a newborn about a Guthrie test? 1. The purpose of this test is to determine the presence of phenylalanine in the blood. 2. A positive test indicates a metabolic disorder. 3. To conduct this test, a sample of blood is taken from the baby's heel. 4. An increase in protein intake can interfere with the test. 5. This test will be done when the baby is 6 weeks old.

1., 2., 3. Correct: These are true statements. The Guthrie test is a screening blood test for phenylketonuria (PKU). A positive test indicates decreased metabolism of phenylalanine, leading to phenylketonuria. The normal level of phenylalanine in newborns is 0.5 to 1 mg/dl. The Guthrie test detects levels greater than 4 mg/dl. Only fresh heel blood, not cord blood, can be used for the test. The main objective for diagnosing and treating this disorder is to prevent cognitive impairment.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a group of preteens with acne about how to care for the skin. What points should the nurse include? 1. Wash face with soap and warm water. 2. Avoid using oily creams. 3. Do not use cosmetics that block sebaceous gland ducts. 4. Do not squeeze lesions. 5. Clean face vigorously with a terrycloth.

1., 2., 3., & 4. Correct: Washing the face frequently (at least twice a day) with mild soap or detergent and warm water will remove oil, dirt, and bacteria which increase inflammatory reactions and resulting acne. Oily creams and oil based cosmetics can block the ducts of the sebaceous gland ducts and the hair follicles, making the acne worse. These should be avoided. Squeezing or picking at lesions will increase potential for infection and scarring.

While examining a client's health history, which data indicates to the nurse that the client is at increased risk for developing cancer? 1. Family history 2. Alcohol consumption 3. Spicy diet 4. Human papillomavirus 5. Tobacco use

1., 2., 4., & 5. Correct: Family history of cancer increases the risk for having the same type of cancer. Alcohol and tobacco use increase the risk of cancer. When used together, they have a synergistic effect. Human papillomavirus (HPV) increases the risk of cervical, head, and neck cancers.

Which manifestations, if noted in a pregnant client, would the nurse need to report to the primary healthcare provider? 1. Calf muscle irritability 2. Facial edema 3. Pressure on the bladder 4. Blurry vision 5. Epigastric pain

1., 2., 4., & 5. Correct: These are danger signs/symptoms of pregnancy and need further investigation by the primary HCP. These signs could indicate preeclampsia, fluid and electrolyte disturbances, and other high risk complications during pregnancy.

The nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to an Asian client following a colonoscopy. During the instructions, the client stares directly at the floor, despite being able to speak English. Based on the client's body language, how would the nurse classify this behavior? 1. Embarrassment. 2. Attentiveness. 3. Disinterest. 4. Confusion.

2. Correct: Nurses must be aware of clients' specific cultural or religious beliefs in order to provide appropriate care and discharge planning. Asian societies have a deep respect for others and making eye contact with the nurse would be considered rude and offensive. The nurse is considered superior to the client, so direct eye contact with a superior shows a lack of respect. This client is displaying attentiveness while also showing respect for the nurse.

A client diagnosed with cancer has been losing weight. How should the nurse reinforce teaching for the client regarding methods for improving nutritional status to maintain weight? 1. Add butter to foods. 2. Drink a cup of cubed beef broth. 3. Add powdered creamer to milkshake. 4. Use biscuits to make sandwiches. 5. Eat fish sauteed in olive oil. 6. Put honey on top of hot cereal.

1., 3., 4., & 6. Correct: Butter added to foods adds calories. This client needs more calories and more protein. Spread peanut butter or other nut butters, which contain protein and healthy fats, on toast, bread, apple or banana slices, crackers or celery. Use croissants or biscuits to make sandwiches which provides more calories. Add powdered creamer or dry milk powder to hot cocoa, milkshakes, hot cereal, gravy, sauces, meatloaf, cream soups, or puddings to add more calories. Top hot cereal with brown sugar, honey, dried fruit, cream or nut butter.

What signs/symptoms does the nurse expect indomethacin to manage? 1. Pain 2. Inflammation 3. Fever 4. Cough 5. Urticaria

1.,2., & 3. Correct: Indomethacin is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent used to treat pain, inflammation, and fever.

A new LPN/VN is preparing to give a medication to a nine month old client. After checking a drug reference book, the nurse crushes the tablet and mixes it into 3 ounces of applesauce. The new nurse proceeds to the client's room. What priority action should the supervising LPN/VN take? 1. Tell the new nurse to recheck the drug reference book before administering the medication. 2. Suggest that the new nurse reconsider the client's developmental needs. 3. Check the prescription order and the client dose. 4. Observe the new nurse administer the medication.

2

The client at a clinic has voiced suicidal thoughts and has access to firearms at home. Which action by the nurse is priority? 1. Empathize with the client and listen to feelings. 2. Inform the supervisor of client's statements. 3. Chart the thinking pattern and make a follow up appointment. 4. Ask the client to return to the clinic tomorrow for further evaluation.

2

A nurse is caring for a client who delivered a baby vaginally four hours ago. What signs and symptoms of postpartum hemorrhage should the nurse report to the primary healthcare provider? Two blood clots the size of a dime. 2. Perineal pad saturation in 10 minutes. 3. Constant trickling of bright red blood from vagina. 4. Urinary output of 20 mL per hour. 5. Firm fundus

2, 3, 4

A client recently prescribed propranolol returns to the outpatient clinic for follow-up. Which statement by the client should be reported immediately to the primary healthcare provider? 1. "My resting pulse was 60 this morning." 2. "I feel a little short of breath when walking." 3. "I have lost 5 pounds in the last 2 weeks." 4. "My blood pressure (BP) was lower this visit than last time."

2. Correct: Propranolol is a non-selective beta blocker, so it blocks sites in the heart and in the lungs. The shortness of breath could be the result of the adverse reactions of bronchospams or heart failure. This statement requires immediate investigation by the primary healthcare provider.

Which client assignments would be most appropriate for the LPN/VN to accept? 1. 2 year old with asthma receiving IV medication. 2. 6 year old with new onset seizures. 3. 12 year old with colitis receiving TPN. 4. 2 month old with urinary tract infection. 5. 10 year old paraplegic needing assistance with bowel training.

4 & 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a fibula fracture. The primary healthcare provider makes rounds and writes prescriptions. What is the nurse's best action? Exhibit Prescriptions- MSO4 8 mg IM now Advance diet as tolerated Hgb and Hct in AM

2. Clarify the prescription with the primary healthcare provider.

The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client, newly diagnosed with diabetes, about the action of regular insulin. The nurse verifies client understanding when the client verbalizes being at greatest risk for developing hypoglycemia at what time following the 8:00 a.m. dose of regular insulin? 1. 8:30 AM 2. 11:00 AM 3. 1:30 PM 4. 4:00 PM

2. Correct: 11:00 AM: Regular insulin peaks 2-3 hours after administration. Clients are at greatest risk for hypoglycemia when insulin is at its peak.

The nurse is providing care to a 5 year old client who has been experiencing moderate pain. Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse to use with this client? 1. Encourage the client to talk about the pain. 2. Provide distraction by asking the client to sing with the nurse. 3. Suggest that the client try to relax. 4. Tell the client that the pain can be self controlled

2. Correct: Distraction is a good technique to use with the toddler/preschooler. Other distractions might be to read a book, watch TV with the client, or look at pictures.

A nurse is discussing with several unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about a dietary prescription for clear liquids. Which selections by the UAP indicate to the nurse an understanding of a clear liquid diet? 1. Vanilla custard 2. Lemon jello 3. Tomato juice 4. Sprite 5. Banana popsicle

2., 4., & 5. Correct: These are considered clear liquids. You can see through them. The banana popsicle and lemon jello in a liquid state can be seen through.

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) in a long-term care facility assigns the task of feeding a client with dysphagia to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is in orientation. Which action should be taken by the LPN to assign this task safely? 1. Verify that the UAP has experience in feeding clients with dysphagia. 2. Ask the UAP if he/she has any questions about the correct procedure. 3. Observe the UAP during the feeding to ensure that the correct technique is used. 4. Confirm that the UAP has the knowledge needed to feed a client with dysphagia by testing.

3

A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is constantly walking around the day room and refuses to sit down to eat the spaghetti and meatballs sent by the kitchen. Which food should the nurse request from dietary? 1. Carrots and apples 2. Donuts 3. Pepperoni pizza sticks 4. Strawberry pastry

3. Correct: High protein, high calorie, nutritious finger foods are required when the client will not sit down to eat. This client needs food they can eat "on the go" because they are burning more calories in this phase of bipolar disorder.

Based on expected growth and development for a 7 month old infant, what would the nurse anticipate that the mother would report at the infant's well-baby visit? 1. Has slight head lag when pulled to sitting position. 2. Walks holding onto furniture. 3. Able to sit, leaning forward on both hands. 4. Has neat pincer grasp.

3. Correct: A 7 month old is not expected to be able to sit fully unsupported but is able to sit by leaning forward on both hands.

A client admitted with a diagnosis of end stage kidney disease (ESKD) has been prescribed a diet containing no more than 1 gram of phosphate per day. Which food item, if found on the client's meal tray should be removed by the nurse? 1. Skinless chicken breast 2. Green beans 3. Asparagus 4. Ice cream

4. Correct: Ice cream, a milk product is high in phosphate. This is not appropriate for a diet limited in phosphate. This item would need to be removed.

A client is admitted with an acute episode of diverticulitis. What symptom would the nurse promptly report to the primary healthcare provider? 1. Mid-abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder 2. Nausea and vomiting periodically for several hours 3. Abdominal rigidity with pain in the left lower quadrant 4. Elimination pattern of constipation alternating with diarrhea

3. Correct: Pain in the lower left quadrant with abdominal rigidity indicates the client is experiencing a perforated diverticulum and is a medical emergency. Abdominal rigidity indicates either perforation or internal bleeding. Both of these symptoms are considered an "acute abdomen" and are emergencies.

The nurse is caring for a client who is unresponsive during a postictal state. Which position is correct for this client? 1. Orthopneic 2. Dorsal recumbent 3. Sims' 4. Reverse trendelenburg

3. Correct: Sims' position is a semi-prone position where the client is halfway between lateral and prone positions. Often used for enemas or other examinations of the perianal area. Sims' position is used for unconscious clients because it facilitates drainage from the mouth and prevents aspiration.

The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client about foods containing tyramine which should be avoided while taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which meal selection, if chosen by the client, indicates understanding? 1. Smoked turkey and dressing, sweet peas and carrots and milk. 2. Baked chicken over pasta with parmesan sauce, baked potato and tea. 3. Fried catfish, French fries, coleslaw and apple juice. 4. Liver smothered in gravy and onions, rice, squash and water.

3. Correct: These foods are not high in tyramine. Tyramine is an amino acid that helps in the regulation of blood pressure. MAOIs block the enzyme monoamine oxidase which is responsible for breaking down excess tyramine in the body. Eating foods high in tyramine while on MAOIs can result in dangerously high levels of tyramine in the body. This can lead to a serious rise in blood pressure, creating an emergency situation. Tyramine is found in protein-containing foods and the levels increase as these foods age. Food such as strong or aged cheese, cured meats, smoked or processed meats, liver (especially aged liver), pickled or fermented foods, sauces, soybeans, dried or overripe fruits, meat tenderizers, brewer's yeast, alcoholic beverages and caffeine- such as in tea, cokes and coffee are considered to be high in tyramine and should be avoided in clients taking MAOIs.

During a conversation with a client on a psychiatric unit the client tells the nurse, "Everyone here hates me." Which response by the nurse is best? 1. "No, they do not hate you." 2. "What did you do to make others not like you?" 3. "Just don't pay attention to what others think of you." 4. "I can't speak for the other people, but I don't hate you."

4. Correct: Here the nurse is speaking only for the nurse. The nurse cannot legitimately speak for anyone else. The nurse must model the process of not speaking for anyone else. The response also lets the client know that the nurse cares about the way the client feels.

The nurse is caring for an employee after a chemical explosion at the local tire factory. The client reports a foreign body in the right eye. The right eye is watery, and the client reports photophobia. Which nursing action takes priority? 1. Evert eyelid and examine for foreign body. 2. Measure visual acuity. 3. Notify the receiving hospital immediately for transfer of the client. 4. Place an eye shield over eye.

4. Correct: If a foreign body is the result of explosion or blunt or sharp trauma, the eye should be protected from further damage by placing an eye shield over the eye (or if a shield is not available, a paper cup to prevent rubbing of the eye). Then make arrangements to transport the client for emergency care by an ophthalmologist. If movement of the unaffected eye creates movement in the affected eye, it may be necessary to cover the unaffected eye also to prevent further injury to the eye from movement.

What should the nurse do when taking a telephone prescription from a primary healthcare provider?

Repeat the prescription back to the primary healthcare provider prior to hanging up. Transcribe the prescription in the client's chart.