Networking Final
A wavelength mismatch occurs when transmissions are optimized for one type of cable but sent over a different type of cable. a. True b. False
a. True
All wireless signals are carried through the air by electromagnetic waves. a. True b. False
a. True
An 802.11 data frame contains four address fields, in contrast to the two address fields in 802.3 Ethernet. a. True b. False
a. True
An enterprise-wide VPN can include elements of both the client-to-site and site-to-site models. a. True b. False
a. True
By default, the native VLAN is the same as the default VLAN. a. True b. False
a. True
Digital certificates are issued, maintained, and validated by an organization called a certificate authority (CA). a. True b. False
a. True
In order to identify the transmissions that belong to each VLAN, a switch will add a tag to Ethernet frames that identifies the port through which they arrive at the switch. a. True b. False
a. True
IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol, as it does not establish a session to send its packets. True False
True
In general, an API (application programming interface) call is the method an application uses when it makes a request of the OS. True False
True
Most UNIX and Linux desktop operating systems provide a GUI application for easily viewing and filtering the information in system logs. True False
True
Most satellites circle the Earth 22,300 miles above the equator in a geosynchronous orbit. True False
True
Sudden unexplained increases in file sizes and unusual error messages with no apparent cause are both potential symptoms of a viral infection. True False
True
The day after Patch Tuesday is informally dubbed Exploit Wednesday. True False
True
The fundamental difference between a switch and a router is that a switch belongs only to its local network and a router belongs to two or more local networks. True False
True
The process of designing, implementing, and maintaining an entire network is called the system life cycle. True False
True
The term malware is derived from a combination of the words malicious and software. True False
True
Latency on data networks is based on a calculation of a packet's round trip time (RTT). a. True b. False
a. True
Office 365 is an example of an SaaS implementation with a subscription model. a. True b. False
a. True
PPP can support several types of Network layer protocols that might use the connection. a. True b. False
a. True
The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard. a. True b. False
a. True
The most secure Wi-Fi communication is made possible by combining a RADIUS server with WPA or WPA2, known as WPA-Enterprise or WPA2-Enterprise, respectively. a. True b. False
a. True
An RFID label on a box is an example of what type of physical security detection method? a. asset tracking tagging b. motion detection technology c. tamper detection d. video surveillance via CCTV
a. asset tracking tagging
In IEEE terminology, a group of stations that share an access point are said to be part of which of the following? a. basic service set b. workstation
a. basic service set
What is NOT one of the ways in which networks are commonly segmented? a. by device manufacturer b. device type
a. by device manufacturer
Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of? a. captive portal b. portal
a. captive portal
What type of door access control is a physical or electronic lock that requires a code in order to open the door? a. cipher lock b. biometric lock c. key fob lock d. encrypted lock
a. cipher lock
What kind of firewall can block designated types of traffic based on application data contained within packets? a. content-filtering firewall b. packet-filtering firewall c. stateful firewall d. stateless firewall
a. content-filtering firewall
What subnet mask can be used to segment the 172.16.0.0 network to allow for a minimum of 6 subnets while maximizing the number of hosts per subnet? a. 255.255.248.0 b. 255.255.224.0
b. 255.255.224.0
Both 10GBase-ER and 10GBase-EW have what maximum distance limitation on a segment of single mode fiber? a. 300m b. 40km
b. 40km
The wireless spectrum, as defined by the FCC, spans between which two frequencies? a. 1.5 GHz and 2.7 GHz b. 9 kHz and 300 GHz
b. 9 kHz and 300 GHz
In Linux, what command can be used for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters? a. ifconfig b. iwconfig
b. iwconfig
The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below? a. paired encryption b. key pair
b. key pair
A wireless node that is in active scanning mode transmits what special type of frame in order to find available access points? a. broadcast frame b. probe frame
b. probe frame
Telephone connections follow what registered jack standard? a. registered jack 45 (RJ-45) b. registered jack 11 (RJ-11)
b. registered jack 11 (RJ-11)
Which of the following terms is commonly used to describe a VLAN configuration in which one router connects to a switch that supports multiple VLANs? a. switched router b. router-on-a-stick
b. router-on-a-stick
You are working on a Cisco switch and need to learn what VLANs exist on the switch. Which command will list the current VLANs recognized by the switch? a. state vlan b. show vlan
b. show vlan
Utilizing time slots that are adjusted according to priority and need is an example of what type of multiplexing on copper lines? a. time propriety b. statistical time division multiplexing
b. statistical time division multiplexing
You are attempting to determine how available your Linux systems are, and need to find the current system uptime. What command should you use? a. lastboot b. uptime c. display stats d. show runtime
b. uptime
Which of the following is NOT a range of IP addresses recommended for use in private networks? a. 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255 b. 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255 c. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 d. 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
b.127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255
Which of the following IP addresses would be a loopback IP address? a. 169.254.0.1 b. 127.0.0.1 c. 224.0.0.1 d. 192.168.1.1
b.127.0.0.1
When using satellite services for your WAN connection, what statement is accurate? a. Satellite uplink rates range from 5 to 10 Mbps. b. Satellite services are only available for fixed location clients. c. Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues. d. Satellite downlink rates range from 50 to 100 Mbps.
c. Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues.
When a device handles electrical signals improperly, usually resulting from a bad NIC, it is referred to by what term below? a. talker b. blabber c. jabber d. ghost
c. jabber
What routing metric affects a path's potential performance due to delay? a. load b. theoretical bandwidth c. latency d. MTU
c. latency
Routing protocols that enable routers to communicate beyond neighboring routers, allowing each router to independently map the network, are known as which type of protocols? a. distance vector protocols b. interior gateway protocols c. link-state protocols d. border gateway protocols
c. link-state protocols
A virus that remains dormant until a specific condition is met, such as the changing of a file or a match of the current date is known as what type of malware? a. encrypted virus b. worm c. logic bomb d. boot sector virus
c. logic bomb
What term is used to describe the average amount of time that will pass for a device before a failure is expected to occur? a. maximum time available (MTA) b. product cycle lifetime (PCL) c. mean time between failures (MTBF) d. estimated time to failure (ETTF)
c. mean time between failures (MTBF)
Each managed object on a managed device using SNMP is assigned which of the following? a. process ID b. inode number c. object identifier (OID) d. TCP/UDP port
c. object identifier (OID)
A person posing as an employee strikes up a conversation with a legitimate employee as they walk into a secured area, in an attempt to gain access. What kind of social engineering is this? a. quid pro quo b. baiting c. tailgating d. phishing
c. tailgating
When planning horizontal cabling, what is the maximum allowable distance that can be used? a. 300 meters b. 100 feet c. 100 meters d. 1,000 feet
c.100 meters
What is NOT one of the three characteristics of TCP in its role as a reliable delivery protocol? a. Flow Control b. Connection-oriented Protocol c. Framing d. Sequencing and checksums
c.Framing
In the classful addressing scheme, what range of network addresses is considered a Class B? a. 1.x.y.z to 126.x.y.z b. 192.0.0.x to 223.255.255.x c. 224.x.y.z to 255.x.y.z d. 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y
d. 128.0.x.y to 191.255.x.y
By default, what is the MTU size on a typical Ethernet network? a. 1518 bytes b. 1522 bytes c. 1492 bytes d. 1500 bytes
d. 1500 bytes
A highly available server is available what percentage of the time? a. 90% b. 99% c. 99.99% d. 99.999%
d. 99.999%
What statement regarding denial-of-service (DoS) attacks is accurate? a. A denial-of-service attack is no longer a major concern due to the increased throughput available on most networks. b. A denial-of-service attack occurs when a MAC address is impersonated on the network. c. A denial-of-service attack is generally a result of a disgruntled employee. d. A denial-of-service attack prevents legitimate users from accessing normal network resources.
d. A denial-of-service attack prevents legitimate users from accessing normal network resources.
Which of the following scenarios represents a phishing attempt? a. A person posing as an employee tried to access a secured area at your organization. b. An employee at your company has received a malware-infected file in their e-mail. c. A gift was offered to an employee with access to secured information in exchange for details. d. An e-mail was sent to a manager at your company that appeared to be from the company's CTO, asking for access.
d. An e-mail was sent to a manager at your company that appeared to be from the company's CTO, asking for access.
In the United States, who is able to activate the Emergency Alert System at the national level? a. Any U.S. state or territory b. Local law enforcement c. The Federal Bureau of Investigation d. The President
d.The President
Fiber-optic cable comes in two types: single-mode fiber (SMF) or multimode fiber (MMF). True False
True
A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask. a. True b. False
a. True
With a FQDN of ftp1.dallas.mycompany.com, what part is the domain name? a. ftp1 b. ftp1.dallas c. ftp1.dallas.mycompany. d. mycompany.com
. d.mycompany.com
A RAID 5 configuration requires a minimum of two hard disks to operate. True False
False
A hot site consists of computers, devices, and connectivity necessary to rebuild a network exist, but without appropriate configuration. True False
False
An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits that are written as 10 blocks of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons. True False
False
Cable that is coated with flame-resistant polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is acceptable for use in plenum areas. True False
False
ICANN is responsible for restrictions on use of the .com, .org, and .net TLDs. True False
False
IPv4 and IPv6 use the same packet format. True False
False
Only Class B and Class C networks can be subnetted. a. True b. False
False
TCP uses a four-step process called a four-way handshake to establish a TCP connection. True False
False
The Data Link layer attaches a trailer to the end of a packet, and does not include a header. True False
False
The Spanning Tree Protocol operates at the Network layer of the OSI model. True False
False
The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is considered to be a connectionless, or best-effort delivery protocol. True False
False
The Transport layer header addresses a receiving application by a number called a MAC address. True False
False
The protocol data unit for the Physical layer of the OSI model is payload, or data. True False
False
UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing True False
False
WANs connect nodes, such as workstations, servers, printers, and other devices, in a small geographical area on a single network. True False
False
A brownout is a momentary decrease in voltage; also known as a sag. True False
True
A drop ceiling could be used by an intruder to gain access to a secured room. True False
True
A hexadecimal number is a number written in the base 16 number system. True False
True
A master service agreement (MSA) is a contract that defines the terms of future contracts between parties, such as payment terms or arbitration arrangements. True False
True
Although MPLS can operate over Ethernet frames, it is more often used with other Layer 2 protocols, like those designed for WANs. True False
True
At the root level of the DNS hierarchical structure, 13 clusters of root servers hold information used to locate TLD servers. True False
True
By default, Active Directory is configured to use the Kerberos protocol, but can be configured to use LDAP or a combination of LDAP and Kerberos. True False
True
Current research indicates that a long, random string of words, such as correct horse battery staple is more secure than a random series of letters, numbers, and symbols that is short enough to be remembered. True False
True
Each organization that provides host services on the public Internet is responsible for providing and maintaining DNS authoritative servers for public access. True False
True
What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information? a. 802.1Q b. 802.1X
a. 802.1Q
Which of the following is NOT a task that a VPN concentrator is responsible for? a. A VPN concentrator shuts down established connections with malicious traffic occurs. b. A VPN concentrator shuts down every connection with malicious traffic.
a. A VPN concentrator shuts down established connections with malicious traffic occurs.
A community cloud is a service shared between multiple organizations, but not available publicly. a. True b. False
a. True
A continuity tester should not be used on a live network segment. a. True b. False
a. True
What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch? a. A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software. b. A software patch is a container for new software, and must be installed on relevant devices and incorporated with network resources. c. A software patch involves the process of reverting to a previous version of software after attempting to upgrade it. d. A software patch is a major change to a software package that enhances the functionality and features of the software, while also correcting bugs and vulnerabilities.
a. A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software.
When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router? a. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward. b. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. c. An icon that resembles a brick wall. d. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front.
a. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.
Your supervisor has asked you to configure a new prototype network with a dual stack configuration. What does this mean? a. Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network. b. The network will exist on two separate segments, separated by a proxy. c. The router serving the network will have a redundant spare. d. Two different IPv4 address spaces will exist on the same network segment.
a. Both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols will be used on the network.
Which of the following suggestions can help prevent VLAN hopping attacks on a network? a. Disable auto trunking and move native VLANs to unused VLANs. b. change default passwords
a. Disable auto trunking and move native VLANs to unused VLANs.
What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels? a. Dynamic Multipoint VPN b. Tunneling VPN
a. Dynamic Multipoint VPN
Which type of cloud service model involves hardware services that are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers? a. IaaS b. XaaS
a. IaaS
What is the Nmap utility used for? a. It is a port scanning utility that can identify open ports on a host. b. It is a software firewall that can be used to secure a vulnerable host. c. It is used to identify unsecured sensitive data on the network, such as credit cards. d. It is an automated vulnerability and penetration testing framework.
a. It is a port scanning utility that can identify open ports on a host.
In a public switched telephone network, what portion of the network is known as the local loop? a. It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office. b. It is the portion of the network from the remote switching facility to the central office. c. It is the portion of the network between the NIU and the remote switching facility. d. It is the inside wire within the residence or business that connects to the NIU.
a. It is the portion that connects any residence or business to the nearest central office.
What is routing protocol convergence time defined as? a. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change. b. It is the amount of time it takes after initial configuration of the protocol for all routes to become known. c. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize that a change has occurred. d. It is the amount of time involved in configuration of the routing protocol.
a. It is the time it takes for the protocol to recognize the best path in the event of a network change.
What is the purpose of the Layer 2 LLC sublayer? a. It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability. b. It works with the MAC address and verification.
a. It is used to handle multiplexing, flow and error control, and reliability.
By default, what network connection type is selected when creating a VM in VMware, VirtualBox, or KVM? a. NAT mode b. bridged mode
a. NAT mode
Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is? a. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal. b. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs within a wire.
a. NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.
At what layer of the OSI model do the IP, ICMP, and ARP protocols operate? a. Network b. Transport c. Session d. Application
a. Network
Which of the following Layer 1 WAN technologies is not normally used as last mile service, but rather traverses multiple ISP networks, connecting these networks to the Internet backbone? a. SONET (Synchronous Optical Network) b. T-carrier (T1s, fractional T1s, and T3s) c. Carrier-Ethernet Transport (CET) d. digital subscriber line (DSL)
a. SONET (Synchronous Optical Network)
What happens when a router receives a packet with a TTL of 0? a. The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host. b. The router attempts to forward the traffic on a local network. c. The router marks the packet as corrupted and forwards it to the next hop. d. The router resets the TTL to 128.
a. The router drops the packet and sends an ICMP TTL expired message back to the host.
Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation? a. The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split. b. The signal is redirected into multiple directions.
a. The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.
In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent? a. The site prefix or global routing prefix. b. The host
a. The site prefix or global routing prefix.
Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate? a. The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN. b. The vNIC will utilize the host PC's IP address.
a. The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN.
A policy in which all exit doors for a building stay unlocked during a fire is an example of what type of policy? a. fail-open b. fail-close c. fail-oriented d. fail-tolerant
a. fail-open
What kind of tool can you use to measure voltage on a cable length? a. multimeter b. Toner
a. multimeter
At the Transport layer of the OSI, what is used to find and communicate with a particular application running on a host? a. port numbers b. domain names c. MAC addresses d. IP addresses
a. port numbers
The concept of giving employees and contractors only enough access and privileges to do their jobs is known by what term? a. principle of least privilege b. limited liability access c. least-risk privilege profile d. minimal access/minimal exposure
a. principle of least privilege
The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known by what term? a. public key infrastructure b. public key encryption
a. public key infrastructure
If someone is offered a free gift or service in exchange for private information or access to a computer system, what type of social engineering is taking place? a. quid pro quo b. phishing c. tailgating d. baiting
a. quid pro quo
You are connected to your network's Cisco router, and need to verify the route table. What command should you enter? a. show ip route b. route -a c. show route-table d. route print
a. show ip route
Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal? a. simplex b. duplex
a. simplex
A subnet of 255.255.248.0 can be represented by what CIDR notation? a. /29 b. /21
b. /21
What is the minimal amount of voltage required to damage an electrical component? a. 5 volts b. 10 volts c. 100 volts d. 1500 volts
b. 10 volts
A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses? a. 1024 b. 1022
b. 1022
Given a host IP address of 172.16.1.154 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, what is the network ID for this host? a. 172.16.1.0 b. 172.16.0.0
b. 172.16.0.0
What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate? a. A NAS reads and writes from its disks significantly slower than other types of servers. b. A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service. c. A NAS can typically only support RAID-0 configurations. d. A NAS does not contain its own file system, rather it relies on the host file system provided by individual clients.
b. A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.
What scenario describes an evil twin attack? a. meeting Dexter's evil twin brother b. A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point
b. A malicious access point is configured with the SSID of a non-malicious public access point
When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate? a. Misconfiguration isn't a common error b. Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close.
b. Access points that use overlapping channels can cause interference with each other if they are too close.
In order to prevent ports that are serving network hosts from being considered as best paths, what should be enabled to block BPDUs? a. root guard b. BPDU guard c. BPDU filter d. BPDU drop
b. BPDU guard
The 802.11 standard specifies the use of what technique in order to minimize the potential for collisions? a. Collision Avoidance b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
All that is needed to provide communication between two VLANs is a DHCP relay agent. a. True b. False
b. False
An unmanaged switch can still support the creation of VLANs, provided there is an interface for configuration. a. True b. False
b. False
Due to many vulnerabilities and a short key length, the WPA security standard was replaced with WEP. a. True b. False
b. False
FTPS (FTP Security or FTP Secure) and SFTP (Secure FTP) are two names for the same protocol. a. True b. False
b. False
In order to achieve 1000Base-T over CAT5e cable, 2 pairs of copper are needed. a. True b. False
b. False
NFC tags are very expensive and cannot be purchased blank, requiring them to be pre-loaded. a. True b. False
b. False
Network segmentation decreases both performance and security on a network. a. True b. False
b. False
The HTTPS (HTTP Secure) protocol utilizes the same TCP port as HTTP, port 80. a. True b. False
b. False
At what point is a packet considered to be a giant? a. It becomes a giant when it exceeds 1500 bytes. b. It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size. c. It becomes a giant once a VLAN tag is added. d. It becomes a giant only when fragmented pieces are reassembled and the packet size is too large.
b. It becomes a giant when it exceeds the medium's maximum packet size.
How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission? a. It splits the signal into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split. b. It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium.
b. It distorts the signal as it travels into and through a different transmission medium.
You are troubleshooting a client's wireless networking issue. Which of the following will prevent the client from connecting to the network? a. an id10t error b. The client has a wireless profile configured for the "campus" SSID, but the access point is broadcasting the "CAMPUS" SSID.
b. The client has a wireless profile configured for the "campus" SSID, but the access point is broadcasting the "CAMPUS" SSID.
What is a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system utilized for? a. It is an intellectual property protection software that prevents data links, and generates alerts. b. It is a system used to evaluate data from security devices and generate alerts. c. It is an advanced intrusion protection system with a GUI-frontend. d. It is a system that monitors security device hardware availability.
b. It is a system used to evaluate data from security devices and generate alerts.
Why is the telnet utility a poor choice for remote access to a device? a. It's not safe. b. It provides poor authentication and no encryption.
b. It provides poor authentication and no encryption.
What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do? a. It is the protocol that defines how VLAN tagging is accomplished in an Ethernet network. b. It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate.
b. It shares VLAN database information amongst switches that participate.
A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model? a. Layer 3 b. Layer 2
b. Layer 2
Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling is accurate? a. Fiber-optic cabling has a low resistance to signal noise. b. Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass.
b. Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass.
Which statement does NOT accurately describe characteristics of the OSPF protocol? a. OSPF provides low network overhead. b. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources. c. OSPF maintains a database of other routers' links. d. OSPF has no hop limits on a transmission path.
b. OSPF requires very little CPU or memory resources.
At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary? a. Network layer b. Physical layer
b. Physical layer
What statement regarding the Power Over Ethernet standards is inaccurate? a. The amount of power provided is 15.4 watts for standard PoE devices. b. Power over Ethernet requires CAT6 or better copper cable.
b. Power over Ethernet requires CAT6 or better copper cable.
What statement regarding role-based access control is accurate? a. RBAC allows users to decide for themselves who has access to that user's resources. b. RBAC allows a network administrator to base privileges and permissions around a detailed description of a user's roles or jobs. c. RBAC is the most restrictive method of access control. d. RBAC organizes resources into hierarchical classifications, such as "confidential" or "top secret".
b. RBAC allows a network administrator to base privileges and permissions around a detailed description of a user's roles or jobs.
In Open System Authentication, how does authentication occur? a. The client sends a pre-shared key along with the access point's SSID. b. The client "authenticates" using only the SSID name. In other words, no real authentication occurs. c. The access point forces the client to authenticate via a captive portal, after which all communication is encrypted. d. The client requests an encrypted tunnel, after which, the client's MAC serves as the authentication.
b. The client "authenticates" using only the SSID name. In other words, no real authentication occurs.
A snapshot is most similar to which type of backup scheme? a. versioned backup b. incremental backup c. full backup d. differential backup
b. incremental backup
In planning for disaster recovery, what is the ultimate goal? a. The protection of infrastructure. b. The continuation of business. c. The preservation of critical data. d. The management of damage.
b. The continuation of business.
How can you determine the manufacturer of a NIC card based on the MAC address? a. The last 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer. b. The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer. c. The middle 24 bits, known as the Organization Universal Identifier, identify the manufacturer. d. The first 12 bits and last 12 bits combined are known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier.
b. The first 24 bits, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier, identify the manufacturer.
What part of a MAC address serves as the extension identifier, or device ID? a. The first 24 bits of the MAC address. b. The last 24 bits of the MAC address. c. The first 12 bits of the MAC address. d. The last 12 bits of the MAC address.
b. The last 24 bits of the MAC address
In a coaxial cabling, what does the RG rating measure? a. The overall thickness of the cable. b. The materials used for shielding and conducting cores.
b. The materials used for shielding and conducting cores.
A variant of BYOD, what does CYOD allow employees or students to do? a. They can supply their choice of cloud application or storage. b. They can choose a device from a limited number of options. c. They can supply their own software on a computer or mobile device. d. They can use whatever devices they wish to bring.
b. They can choose a device from a limited number of options.
Which file transfer protocol has no authentication or security for transferring files, uses UDP, and requires very little memory to use? a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) b. Trivial FTP (TFTP)
b. Trivial FTP (TFTP)
What aspect of AAA is responsible for determining what a user can and cannot do with network resources? a. accounting b. authorization c. accessibility d. authentication
b. authorization
What special signal is issued periodically from an AP and contains the network transmission rate and service set identifier (SSID), as well as other information needed for a computer to associate with the AP? a. access frame b. beacon frame
b. beacon frame
What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment? a. dense wavelength division multiplexing b. coarse wavelength division multiplexing
b. coarse wavelength division multiplexing
How often should you require users to change their passwords? a. every 90 days b. every 60 days c. every 120 days d. every 30 days
b. every 60 days
What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets? a. next header b. hop limit c. flow label d. distance vector
b. hop limit
What occurs when a collision happens on a network? a. The collision will create an error in the network switch, but otherwise, no issues will occur as a result. b. Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission. c. The collision goes undetected, and data transmission continues. d. Each node on the network stops transmitting, until manually told to reconnect and transmit.
b.Each node on the network waits a random amount of time and then resends the transmission.
If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day? a. 14 minutes, 23 seconds b. .4 seconds c. 8 seconds d. 1 minute, 26 seconds
c. 8 seconds
What statement correctly describes a stateless firewall? a. A stateless firewall inspects each incoming packet to determine whether it belongs to a currently active connection. b. A stateless firewall blocks designated types of traffic based on application data contained within packets. c. A stateless firewall manages each incoming packet as a stand-alone entity, without regard to currently active connections. d. A stateless firewall filters packets based on source and destination IP addresses.
c. A stateless firewall manages each incoming packet as a stand-alone entity, without regard to currently active connections.
When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network switch? a. An icon that resembles a brick wall. b. An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front. c. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions. d. An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.
c. An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.
Which of the following statements describes a RAID 0 configuration? a. In a RAID 0, data is striped across three or more drives, with parity information added to the data. b. In a RAID 0, four or more disks are used to mirror data within each pair of disks, and then striped to multiple pairs of disks. c. In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance. d. In a RAID 0, data is mirrored on multiple disks to provide fault tolerance.
c. In a RAID 0, data is striped across multiple disks to improve performance.
What does the Common Address Redundancy Protocol do? a. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same MAC address. b. It allows multiple devices to share hardware resources. c. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address. d. It allows multiple devices to share the same fully qualified domain name.
c. It allows a pool of computers or interfaces to share the same IP address.
What is the purpose of the checksum TCP field? a. It confirms receipt of data via a return message to the sender. b. It identifies the data segment's position in the stream of data segments being sent. c. It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission. d. It specifies special options, such as the maximum segment size a network can handle.
c. It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission.
When using Kerberos, what is the purpose of a ticket? a. It is a key used by the client to gain access to services that are protected by the key on the network. b. It is the event that is generated when auditing a resource and unauthorized access is attempted. c. It is a temporary set of credentials that a client uses to prove to other servers that its identity has been validated. d. It is the name for a Kerberos client or user.
c. It is a temporary set of credentials that a client uses to prove to other servers that its identity has been validated.
A network TAP serves what purpose on a network? a. It monitors network throughput at a specific point in the network. b. It provides wireless monitoring capabilities, as well as spectrum analysis. c. It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports. d. It serves as a miniature firewall that can be placed in front of any connection.
c. It provides a mirrored port for monitoring traffic between other ports.
At what layer of the OSI model does a network switch normally operate? a. Layer 3 b. Layer 4 c. Layer 2 d. Layer 5
c. Layer 2
In regards to the use of local authentication, what statement is accurate? a. Local authentication does not allow for strong enough passwords. b. Local authentication is scalable for large networks. c. Local authentication is network and server failure tolerant. d. Local authentication provides the most security.
c. Local authentication is network and server failure tolerant.
What federal agency is charged with safety and health in the workplace? a. Office Safety and Standards Department (OSSD) b. Hazardous Materials and Safety Management (HMSM) c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) d. Workplace Safety and Hazard Administration (WSHA)
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
In the DNS hierarchy, where is information about how to find the top-level domain servers held? a. In the organization's forward lookup zone. b. In the hosts file on the local machine. c. On the DNS root servers. d. On DNS caching-only servers.
c. On the DNS root servers.
The Windows Remote Desktop application utilizes what protocol to provide secure, encrypted transmissions? a. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) b. Secure Shell (SSH) c. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) d. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
c. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
Which type of DSL technology has equal download and upload speeds maxing out at around 2 Mbps? a. VDSL b. HDSL c. SDSL d. ADSL2+
c. SDSL
What statement regarding the different versions of the SHA hashing algorithm is accurate? a. SHA-0 is the most secure version of SHA. b. SHA-2 only supports a 256-bit hash. c. SHA-2 and SHA-3 both support the same hash lengths. d. SHA-1 supports a 128-bit hash function.
c. SHA-2 and SHA-3 both support the same hash lengths.
On a Linux system, which command allows you to modify settings used by the built-in packet filtering firewall? a. ipf b. netwall c. iptables d. modfire
c. iptables
In considering the responsibilities of each layer of the OSI model, what statement accurately reflects those of the Presentation layer? a. The Presentation layer is responsible for transporting Application layer payloads from one application to another. b. The Presentation layer describes the interface between two applications, each on separate computers. c. The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read. d. The Presentation layer is responsible for describing how data between applications is synced and recovered if messages don't arrive intact at the receiving application.
c. The Presentation layer is responsible for reformatting, compressing, and/or encrypting data in a way that the application on the receiving end can read.
In the typical social engineering attack cycle, what occurs at Phase 3? a. The attacker builds trust with the target and attempts to gain more information. b. The attacker researches the desired target for clues as to vulnerabilities. c. The attacker exploits an action undertaken by the victim in order to gain access. d. The attacker executes an exit strategy in such a way that does not leave evidence or raise suspicion.
c. The attacker exploits an action undertaken by the victim in order to gain access.
In the event of a duplicate MAC address shared by two hosts on a switched network, what statement is accurate? a. The hosts that share the same MAC addresses will be completely unable to communicate with any other devices. b. The network switch will eventually crash due to being unable to properly forward traffic. c. The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination. d. The hosts will generate new MAC addresses until the conflict is resolved.
c. The hosts will still send and receive traffic, but traffic may not always reach the correct destination.
VMware Player and Linux KVM are both examples of what type of hypervisor? a. Type 1 hypervisor b. Type 2 hypervisor
c. Type 2 hypervisor
In a voice over IP setup (VoIP), what kind of device converts signals from a campus's analog phone equipment into IP data that can travel over a phone company's analog telephone lines? a. VoIP MTA b. VoIP PBX c. VoIP gateway d. VoIP translator
c. VoIP gateway
The grouping of multiple servers so that they appear as a single device to the rest of the network is known as which term? a. link aggregating b. load balancing c. clustering d. server overloading
c. clustering
What type of an attack forces clients off a wireless network, creating a form of Wi-Fi DoS? a. man-in-the-middle attack b. ARP poisoning attack c. deauthentication attack d. channel hopping attack
c. deauthentication attack
Which type of DoS attack involves an attack that is bounced off uninfected computers before being directed at the target? a. distributed denial-of-service attack b. permanent denial-of-service attack c. distributed reflection denial-of-service attack d. cached denial-of-service attack
c. distributed reflection denial-of-service attack
The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)? a. data b. packet c. frame d. bit
c. frame
If multiple honeypots are connected to form a larger network, what term is used to describe the network? a. lurenet b. honeycomb c. honeynet d. combolure
c. honeynet
What is distributed switching? a. It is multiple switches that provide redundancy switching for all switches in the group. b. It is a single physical switch that is partitioned in software to perform as multiple switches. c. It is when multiple physical switches are configured to act as a single switch. d. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts.
d. It is a single distributed vSwitch that can service VMs across multiple hosts.
The frame header at the Data Link layer includes hardware addresses of the source and destination NICs. What is another name for this address? a. DAC (Data Access Control) address b. DAC (Digital Access Control) address c. PAC (Packet Access Control) address d. MAC (Media Access Control) address
d. MAC (Media Access Control) address
In general, how much can a twisted-pair's cable be bent before data transmission may be impeded? a. No more than ten times the diameter of the cable. b. Twisted pair cable has a near infinite bend radius. c. No more than two times the diameter of the cable. d. No more than four times the diameter of the cable.
d. No more than four times the diameter of the cable.
Which of the following is an example of encapsulation? a. The subtraction of a header from data inherited from the layer below in the OSI model. b. The modification of headers from a higher layer in the OSI model. c. The addition of a trailer to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model. d. The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.
d. The addition of a header to data inherited from the layer above in the OSI model.
What statement accurately reflects what occurs when a message is too large to transport on a network? a. An ICMP error is generated, and the application must reformat the data for transmission. b. The message is discarded and must be sent again. c. The message is sent anyway, and is received by the destination as garbage data. d. The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP).
d. The message is divided into smaller messages called segments (for TCP) or datagrams (for UDP).
The TCP and UDP protocols both exist at what layer of the OSI model? a. Presentation b. Network c. Application d. Transport
d. Transport
Which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit? a. Frame relay is a newly established network technology with more features than other technology. b. The paths that your data will take are always known. c. You are guaranteed to receive the maximum amount of bandwidth specified in the circuit contract d. You pay only for the bandwidth you require.
d. You pay only for the bandwidth you require.
What is the name of the GUI front end that is available for the Nmap utility? a. VizMap b. GUINmap c. iMap d. Zenmap
d. Zenmap
In order to ensure that a cable is not affected by electromagnetic interference, how far away should the cable be from fluorescent lighting? a. at least 3 inches b. at least 12 feet c. at least 6 feet d. at least 3 feet
d. at least 3 feet
Where is a demarc located in relation to the structured cabling of an enterprise environment? a. between the MDF and the IDF b. in the work area c. at the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) d. in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
d. in the Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
What command can you utilize to display TCP/IP configuration information for each network adapter installed? a. ipconfig /full b. ipconfig /show c. ipconfig /list d. ipconfig /all
d. ipconfig /all
Once a device has failed, what metric measures the average amount of time to repair? a. mean time to restore (MTTR) b. mean restoration time (MRT) c. mean field replacement time (MFRT) d. mean time to repair (MTTR)
d. mean time to repair (MTTR)
Which type of uninterruptible power supply uses AC power to continuously charge its battery, while also providing power to devices through the battery? a. surge UPS b. line conditioning UPS c. standby UPS d. online UPS
d. online UPS
What utility is used to verify that TCP/IP installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network? a. route b. ifconfig c. traceroute d. ping
d. ping
Which of the following terms is used to describe the configuration of a port to copy all traffic passing through the switch to the device at the other end of the port? a. port supertrunking b. port shadowing c. port lurking d. port mirroring
d. port mirroring
Packets that are smaller than a medium's minimum packet size are known by what term below? a. ghosts b. giants c. jabbers d. runts
d. runts
What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs? a. diagonal cabling b. horizontal cross connect c. patch cable d. vertical cross connect
d. vertical cross connect
