NSG 330 Ch 54- Management Kidney Disorders

The client with polycystic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Will my kidneys ever function normally again?" The best response by the nurse is:

"As the disease progresses, you will most likely require renal replacement therapy." There is no cure for polycystic kidney disease. Medical management includes therapies to control blood pressure, urinary tract infections, and pain. Renal replacement therapy is indicated as the kidneys fail.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease. The patient has gained 4 kg in the past 3 days. In milliliters, how much fluid retention does this equal? Enter your response as a whole number.

4000 ml A 1-kg weight gain is equal to 1,000 mL of retained fluid. 4 kg × 1,000 = 4,000. The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded.

Sevelamer hydrochloride (Renagel) has been prescribed for a client with chronic renal failure. The physician has prescribed Renagel 800 mg orally three times per day with meals to treat the client's hyperphosphatemia. The medication is available in 400 mg tablets. How many tablets per day will the nurse administer to the client?

6 tablets/day

A patient has stage 3 chronic kidney failure. What would the nurse expect the patient's glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to be?

A GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2

During the diuresis period of acute kidney injury (AKI), the nurse should observe the client closely for what complication?

Dehydration Explanation: Dehydration is a complication during the diuresis phase related to elevated urine output and continued symptoms of uremia. The concern with acute kidney injury (AKI) is hyperkalemia. The diuresis phase of AKI is marked by normal or elevated urine output. Oliguria is urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours and is seen in the oliguria phase. Renal calculi are a possible cause but not a complication of AKI.

A client is in end-stage chronic renal failure and is being added to the transplant list. The nurse explains to the client how donors are found for clients needing kidneys. Which statement is accurate?

Donors are selected from compatible living or deceased donors. Donors are selected from compatible living donors. Donors do not have to be relatives as long as they are compatible. Potential donors with a history of hypertension, malignant disease, or diabetes are excluded from donation. Each local hospital does not have its own transplant list, instead the client will be placed on a national computerized transplant waiting list.

A nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for ineffective breathing pattern related to incisional pain and restricted positioning for a client who has had a nephrectomy. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Encourage use of incentive spirometer every 2 hours. To address the issue of ineffective breathing pattern, encouraging the use of incentive spirometer would be most appropriate to help increase alveolar ventilation. Administering isotonic fluid therapy would be appropriate for issues involving fluid loss such as bleeding or hemorrhage. Keeping the drainage catheter below the level of insertion would be appropriate to reduce the risk of obstruction leading to acute pain. Monitoring the temperature every 4 hours would be appropriate to reduce the client's risk for infection.

A football player is thought to have sustained an injury to his kidneys from being tackled from behind. The ER nurse caring for the patient reviews the initial orders written by the physician and notes that an order to collect all voided urine and send it to the laboratory for analysis. The nurse understands that this nursing intervention is important for what reason?

Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma and blood losses may be microscopic, so laboratory analysis is essential. Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma; its presence after trauma suggests renal injury. Hematuria may not occur, or it may be detectable only on microscopic examination. All urine should be saved and sent to the laboratory for analysis to detect RBCs and to evaluate the course of bleeding. Measuring intake and output is not a function of the laboratory. The laboratory does not save urine to test creatinine clearance at a later time. The laboratory does not monitor the urine for sodium or potassium concentrations.

The nurse is caring for a patient in acute kidney injury. Which of the following complications would most clearly warrant the administration of polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)?

Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia, a common complication of acute kidney injury, is life-threatening if immediate action is not taken to reverse it. The administration of polystyrene sulfonate reduces serum potassium levels.

The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. What major danger should the nurse closely monitor for?

Hypovolemic shock caused by hemorrhage If bleeding goes undetected or is not detected promptly, the patient may lose significant amounts of blood and may experience hypoxemia. In addition to hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage, this type of blood loss may precipitate a myocardial infarction or transient ischemic attack.

A client has end-stage renal failure. Which of the following should the nurse include when teaching the client about nutrition to limit the effects of azotemia?

Increase carbohydrates and limit protein intake. Calories are supplied by carbohydrates and fat to prevent wasting. Protein is restricted because the breakdown products of dietary and tissue protein (urea, uric acid, and organic acids) accumulate quickly in the blood.

A client diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) has developed congestive heart failure. The client has received 40 mg of intravenous push (IVP) Lasix and 2 hours later, the nurse notes that there are 50 mL of urine in the Foley catheter bag. The client's vital signs are stable. Which health care order should the nurse anticipate?

Lasix 80 mg IVP Explanation: Diuretic agents are often used to control fluid volume in clients with acute kidney injury (AKI). The client's urine output indicates an inadequate response to the initial dosage of Lasix and the nurse should anticipate administering Lasix 80 mg IVP. Often in this situation, the initial dosage of Lasix is doubled. The client is experiencing fluid overload, thus, a 500-mL bolus of normal saline bolus would be contraindicated. There is no need to complete a chest x-ray. Mannitol is widely used in the management of cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure from multiple causes.

A group of students are reviewing the phases of acute renal failure. The students demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as occurring during the second phase?

Oliguria During the second phase, the oliguric phase, oliguria occurs. Diuresis occurs during the third or diuretic phase. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) occurs during the first, or initiation, phase in which reduced blood flow to the nephrons leads to ATN. Restoration of glomerular function, if it occurs, occurs during the fourth, or recovery, phase.

The nurse cares for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). The client is experiencing an increase in the serum concentration of urea and creatinine. The nurse determines the client is experiencing which phase of AKI?

Oliguria Explanation: The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The initiation periods begins with the initial insult and ends when oliguria develops. The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output. The recovery period signals the improvement of renal function and may take 6 to 12 months.

When assessing the impact of medications on the etiology of acute renal failure, the nurse recognizes which of the following as the drug that is not nephrotoxic?

Penicillin The three nephrotoxic drugs are aminoglycerides.

A patient has been diagnosed with postrenal failure. The nurse reviews the patient's electronic health record and notes a possible cause. Which of the following is the possible cause?

Renal calculi Explanation: Postrenal ARF is the result of an obstruction that develops anywhere from the collecting ducts of the kidney to the urethra. This results from ureteral blockage, such as from bilateral renal calculi or benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).

A 15-year-old is admitted to the renal unit with a diagnosis of postinfectious glomerular disease. The nurse should recognize that this form of kidney disease may have been precipitated by what event?

Streptococcal infection Postinfectious causes of postinfectious glomerular disease are group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the throat that precedes the onset of glomerulonephritis by 2 to 3 weeks. Menarche, stress, and hypersensitivity are not typical causes.

A client has undergone a renal transplant and returns to the health care agency for a follow-up evaluation. Which finding would lead to the suspicion that the client is experiencing rejection?

Tenderness over transplant site Explanation: Signs and symptoms of transplant rejection include abdominal pain, hypertension, weight gain, oliguria, edema, fever, increased serum creatinine levels, and swelling or tenderness over the transplanted kidney site.

The nurse performs acute intermittent peritoneal dialysis (PD) on a client who is experiencing uremic signs and symptoms. The peritoneal fluid is not draining as expected. What is the best response by the nurse?

Turn the client from side to side. Explanation: If the peritoneal fluid does not drain properly, the nurse can facilitate drainage by turning the client from side to side or raising the head of the bed. The catheter should never be pushed further into the peritoneal cavity. Other measures to promote drainage include checking the patency of the catheter by inspecting for kinks, closed clamps, or an air lock.

Which clinical finding should a nurse look for in a client with chronic renal failure?

Uremia Explanation: Uremia is the buildup of nitrogenous wastes in the blood, evidenced by an elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels. Uremia, anemia, and acidosis are consistent clinical manifestations of chronic renal failure. Metabolic acidosis results from the inability to excrete hydrogen ions. Anemia results from a lack of erythropoietin. Hypertension (from fluid overload) may or may not be present in chronic renal failure. Hypotension, metabolic alkalosis, and polycythemia aren't present in renal failure.

The nurse instructs a client to perform continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis correctly at home. Which educational information should the nurse provide to the client?

Use an aseptic technique during the procedure. The client should be instructed to use an aseptic technique during the procedure. The client should also demonstrate the continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) exchange procedure for the nurse using an aseptic technique (clients on continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis [CCPD] should also demonstrate an exchange procedure in case of failure or unavailability of a cycling machine). A mask is generally worn only while performing exchanges, especially when a client has an upper respiratory infection. The catheter insertion site should be cleaned daily with an antiseptic such as povidone-iodine, not with soap. In addition, the catheter should be stabilized to the abdomen above the belt line, not below the belt line, to avoid constant rubbing.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus who has been recently diagnosed with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). The patient has an elevated phosphorus level and has been prescribed calcium acetate to bind the phosphorus. The nurse should teach the patient to take the prescribed phosphorus-binding medication at what time?

With each meal Both calcium carbonate and calcium acetate are medications that bind with the phosphate and assist in excreting the phosphate from the body, in turn lowering the phosphate levels. Phosphate-binding medications must be administered with food to be effective

The nurse is administering calcium acetate (PhosLo) to a patient with end-stage renal disease. When is the best time for the nurse to administer this medication?

With food Explanation: Hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia are treated with medications that bind dietary phosphorus in the GI tract. Binders such as calcium carbonate (Os-Cal) or calcium acetate (PhosLo) are prescribed, but there is a risk of hypercalcemia. The nurse administers phosphate binders with food for them to be effective.

One of the roles of the nurse in caring for clients with chronic renal failure is to help them learn to minimize and manage potential complications. This would include:

restricting sources of potassium. The nurse will teach the client to restrict sources of potassium, such as fresh fruits and vegetables, because hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening changes. The client will restrict sodium intake as ordered; doing so prevents fluid accumulation. Prescribed iron and folic acid supplements or Epogen should be taken; iron and folic acid supplements are needed for red blood cell (RBC) production, and Epogen stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs. The client will restrict protein intake to foods that are complete proteins within prescribed limits; complete proteins provide positive nitrogen balance for healing and growth.

A client diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates administering:

sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract. Sorbitol may be administered in combination with Kayexalate to induce a diarrhea-type effect (it induces water loss in the GI tract). If the client is hemodynamically unstable (low blood pressure, changes in mental status, dysrhythmia), IV dextrose 50%, insulin, and calcium replacement may be administered to shift potassium back into the cells.

The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill client is:

weight. Explanation: The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill client is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded. Blood pressure, pulse rate, and edema are not the most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain.

Which nursing assessment finding indicates that the client who has undergone renal transplant has not met expected outcomes?

Fever Fever is an indicator of infection or transplant rejection.

What is a hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?

Proteinuria Proteinuria (predominantly albumin) exceeding 3.5 g per day is the hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Hypoalbuminemia, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia may occur.

A patient has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 43 mL/min/1.73 m2 . Based on this GFR, the nurse interprets that the patients chronic kidney disease is at what stage?

Stage 3 Stages of chronic renal failure are based on the GFR. Stage 3 is defined by a GFR in the range of 30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m2 . This is considered a moderate decrease in GFR.

The nurse is caring for acutely ill patient. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to inform the physician that the patient may be exhibiting signs of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

The patients average urine output has been 10 mL/hr for several hours. Oliguria (<500 mL/d of urine) is the most common clinical situation seen in AKI. Flank pain and inability to initiate voiding are not characteristic of AKI. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine is suggestive of a urinary tract infection.

A client has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. This condition causes:

proteinuria. The disruption of membrane permeability causes red blood cells (RBCs) and protein molecules to filter from the glomeruli into Bowman's capsule and eventually become lost in the urine. Pyuria is pus in the urine. Polyuria is an increased volume of urine voided.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is in the diuresis phase of AKI. The nurse should closely monitor the patient for what complication during this phase?

Dehydration The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output, which signals that glomerular filtration has started to recover. The patient must be observed closely for dehydration during this phase; if dehydration occurs, the uremic symptoms are likely to increase. Excessive losses of potassium and calcium are not typical during this phase, and diuresis does not normally result in pain.

The nurse is creating an education plan for a patient who underwent a nephrectomy for the treatment of a renal tumor. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Inspection and care of the incision The nurse teaches the patient to inspect and care for the incision and perform other general postoperative care, including activity and lifting restrictions, driving, and pain management. There would be no need to teach the signs or symptoms of rejection as there has been no transplant. Increased fluid intake is not normally recommended and the patient has minimal control on the future risk for metastasis.

An investment banker with chronic renal failure informs the nurse of the choice for continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"This type of dialysis will provide more independence." Once a treatment choice has been selected by the client, the nurse should support the client in that decision. Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis will provide more independence for this client and supports the client's decision for treatment mode. The risk of peritonitis is greater, and symptoms should be discussed as part of the management of the disorder. Peritoneal dialysis is an effective method of dialysis for many clients.

A patient with chronic kidney disease is completing an exchange during peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the peritoneal fluid is draining slowly and that the patients abdomen is increasing in girth. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

Reposition the patient to facilitate drainage. If the peritoneal fluid does not drain properly, the nurse can facilitate drainage by turning the patient from side to side or raising the head of the bed. The catheter should never be pushed further into the peritoneal cavity. It would be unsafe to aspirate or to infuse more dialysate.

A client is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease and requires teaching on the management of the disorder. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

"As long as I have one normal kidney, I should be fine." Explanation: Polycystic kidney disease is characterized by the formation of multiple cysts on both kidneys. Polycystic kidney disease is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. The fluid-filled cysts can cause great enlargement of the kidneys and interfere with kidney function, which can eventually lead to renal failure.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to the client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

"I should drink as much as possible to keep my kidneys working." Explanation: Dietary management of acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis includes restrictions of protein, sodium, potassium, and fluids.

A patient has acute kidney injury (AKI) with a negative nitrogen balance. How much weight does the nurse expect the patient to lose?

0.5 kg/day Explanation: AKI causes severe nutritional imbalances (because nausea and vomiting contribute to inadequate dietary intake), impaired glucose use and protein synthesis, and increased tissue catabolism. The patient is weighed daily and loses 0.2 to 0.5 kg (0.5 to 1 lb) daily if the nitrogen balance is negative (i.e., caloric intake falls below caloric requirements).

A patient with chronic kidney failure experiences decreased levels of erythropoietin. What serious complication related to those levels should the nurse assess for when caring for this client?

Anemia Anemia develops as a result of inadequate erythropoietin production, the shortened lifespan of RBCs, nutritional deficiencies, and the patient's tendency to bleed, particularly from the GI tract. Erythropoietin, a substance normally produced by the kidneys, stimulates bone marrow to produce RBCs (Murphy, Bennett, & Jenkins, 2010). In ESKD, erythropoietin production decreases and profound anemia results, producing fatigue, angina, and shortness of breath.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned to the post-surgical unit following renal surgery. When assessing the patients output from surgical drains, the nurse should assess what parameters? Select all that apply.

Quantity of output Color of the output Visible characteristics of the output Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type or characteristics. Odor and pH are not normally assessed.

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving hemodialysis three times weekly. The patient has had surgery to form an arteriovenous fistula. What is most important for the nurse to be aware of when providing care for this patient?

Taking a BP reading on the affected arm can damage the fistula. When blood flow is reduced through the access for any reason (hypotension, application of BP cuff/tourniquet), the access site can clot. Auscultation of a bruit in the fistula is one way to determine patency. Typically, patients feel fatigued immediately after hemodialysis because of the rapid change in fluid and electrolyte status. Although the area over the fistula may have some decreased sensation, a needle stick is still painful.

Hyperkalemia is a serious side effect of acute renal failure. Identify the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that is diagnostic for hyperkalemia.

Tall, peaked T waves Characteristic ECG signs of hyperkalemia are tall, tented, or peaked T waves, absent P waves, and a widened QRS complex.

Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a client's uremia. Which finding during this procedure signals a significant problem?

White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 Explanation: An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia (evidenced by a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl) occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it's readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn't abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.

The nurse is caring for a client who underwent a kidney transplant. The client appears anxious and tearful and states, "My body is going to reject the new kidney; I know I'm going to die." What is the best response by the nurse?

"I understand your concerns, let's talk about them." Explanation: The nurse must address the client's concerns and encourage the client to express any concerns. The rejection of a transplanted kidney is of great concern to the client, the family, and the health care team for many months. An important nursing function is the assessment of the client's stress and coping. The nurse uses each visit with the client to determine if the client and family are coping effectively and if the client is adhering to the prescribed medication regimen. If indicated or requested, the nurse refers the client for counseling. The other responses are non-therapeutic.

A patient on the critical care unit is postoperative day 1 following kidney transplantation from a living donor. The nurses most recent assessments indicate that the patient is producing copious quantities of dilute urine. What is the nurses most appropriate response?

Recognize this as an expected finding. A kidney from a living donor related to the patient usually begins to function immediately after surgery and may produce large quantities of dilute urine. This is not suggestive of rejection and treatment is not warranted. There is no obvious need to report this finding.

A client with chronic kidney disease weighs 209 lbs (95 kg) and is prescribed 1.2 grams of protein per kg per day. Which amount of protein will the client ingest per day?

114 g

The critical care nurse is monitoring the patients urine output and drains following renal surgery. What should the nurse promptly report to the physician?

Absence of drain output Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type or characteristics. Decreased or absent drainage is promptly reported to the physician because it may indicate obstruction that could cause pain, infection, and disruption of the suture lines. Reporting increased pain on movement has nothing to do with the scenario described. Increased urine output and serosanguineous drainage are expected.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been receiving erythropoietin injections as prescribed. Which outcome would indicate to the nurse that this medication has been effective?

Absence of pallor Explanation: Erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. The absence of pallor indicates that this treatment has been effective. Lack of a paradoxical pulse indicates the absence of a pericardial effusion. Blood pressure within normal limits indicates treatment for hypertension has been effective. Formed and solid bowel movements indicate the potassium level is within normal limits.

The nurse is reviewing the potassium level of a patient with kidney disease. The results of the test are 6.5 mEq/L, and the nurse observes peaked T waves on the ECG. What priority intervention does the nurse anticipate the physician will order to reduce the potassium level?

Administration of sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.

An 84-year-old woman diagnosed with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit for surgical treatment. The patient has been on chemotherapeutic agents to decrease the tumor size prior to the planned surgery. The nurse caring for the patient is aware that what precipitating factors in this patient may contribute to AKI? Select all that apply.

Age-related physiologic changes Chronic systemic disease Changes in kidney function with normal aging increase the susceptibility of elderly patients to kidney dysfunction and renal failure. In addition, the presence of chronic, systemic diseases increases the risk of AKI. Low BMI and anxiety are not risk factors for acute renal disease. NPO status is not a risk, provided adequate parenteral hydration is administered.

A patient with chronic kidney disease has been hospitalized and is receiving hemodialysis on a scheduled basis. The nurse should include which of the following actions in the plan of care?

Assess for a thrill or bruit over the vascular access site each shift The bruit, or thrill, over the venous access site must be evaluated at least every shift. Frequent dressing changes are unnecessary and the patient does not normally need to immobilize the site. The site must not be used for purposes other than dialysis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute glomerular inflammation. When assessing for the characteristic signs and symptoms of this health problem, the nurse should include which assessments? Select all that apply.

Assess for the presence of peripheral edema Assess the patients BP Most patients with acute glomerular inflammation have some degree of edema and hypertension. Dysrhythmias, RLQ pain, and changes in mental status are not among the most common manifestations of acute glomerular inflammation.

The nurse is caring for a patient postoperative day 4 following a kidney transplant. When assessing for potential signs and symptoms of rejection, what assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Assessment of the quantity of the patients urine output After kidney transplantation, the nurse should perform all of the listed assessments. However, oliguria is considered to be more suggestive of rejection than changes to the patients abdomen or incision

The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find?

Cola-colored urine Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis include cola-colored urine, hematuria, edema, azotemia, and proteinuria.

When caring for the patient with acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse anticipate?

Cola-colored urine Cola-colored urine is a typical symptom of glomerulonephritis. Flank pain on the affected side, not left upper quadrant pain, would be present. Pyuria is a symptom of pyelonephritis, not glomerulonephritis. Blood pressure typically elevates in glomerulonephritis.

A patient with ESKD is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse is working with the patient to adapt the patients diet to maximize the therapeutic effect and minimize the risks of complications. The patients diet should include which of the following modifications? Select all that apply.

Decreased protein intake Decreased sodium intake Fluid restriction Restricting dietary protein decreases the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes, reduces uremic symptoms, and may even postpone the initiation of dialysis for a few months. Restriction of fluid is also part of the dietary prescription because fluid accumulation may occur. As well, sodium is usually restricted to 2 to 3 g/day. Potassium intake is usually limited, not increased, and there is no particular need for vitamin D supplementation.

The nurse expects which of the following assessment findings in the client in the diuretic phase of acute renal failure?

Dehydration The diuretic phase of acute renal failure is characterized by increased urine output, hypotension, and dehydration.

Compliance to a renal diet is a difficult lifestyle change for a patient on hemodialysis. The nurse should reinforce nutritional information. Which of the following teaching points should be included? Select all that apply.

Eat foods such as milk, fish, and eggs. Restrict sodium to 2,000 to 3,000 mg daily. Restrict fluid to daily urinary output plus 500 to 800 mL. Explanation: With hemodialysis, protein should be limited to 1.2 to 1.3 g/kg/24 hr. Potassium, along with sodium and phosphorus should be restricted.

A patient is being treated for AKI and the patient daily weights have been ordered. The nurse notes a weight gain of 3 pounds over the past 48 hours. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by this assessment finding?

Excess fluid volume If the patient with AKI gains or does not lose weight, fluid retention should be suspected. Short-term weight gain is not associated with excessive caloric intake or a sedentary lifestyle. Failure to thrive is not associated with weight gain.

A patient admitted with nephrotic syndrome is being cared for on the medical unit. When writing this patients care plan, based on the major clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include?

Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema The major clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome is edema, so the appropriate nursing diagnosis is Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema. Edema is usually soft, pitting, and commonly occurs around the eyes, in dependent areas, and in the abdomen.

A nurse is assessing a client with acute renal failure. What medications should the nurse identify as a nephrotoxic drug? Select all that apply.

Gentamycin Tobramycin Neomycin The kidneys are sensitive to the metabolic byproducts from aminoglycosides such as gentamycin, tobramycin, and neomycin. Penicillin and ceftriaxone are not known to be nephrotoxic.

Which of the following causes should the nurse suspect in a client diagnosed with intrarenal failure?

Glomerulonephritis Intrarenal causes of renal failure include prolonged renal ischemia, nephrotoxic agents, and infectious processes such as acute glomerulonephritis.

Renal failure can have prerenal, renal, or postrenal causes. A patient with acute kidney injury is being assessed to determine where, physiologically, the cause is. If the cause is found to be prerenal, which condition most likely caused

Heart failure By causing inadequate renal perfusion, heart failure can lead to prerenal failure. Glomerulonephritis and aminoglycoside toxicity are renal causes, and ureterolithiasis is a postrenal cause.

A client with chronic kidney disease becomes confused and reports abdominal cramping, racing heart rate, and numbness of the extremities. The nurse relates these symptoms to which lab value?

Hyperkalemia Hyperkalemia is the life-threatening effect of renal failure. The client can become apathetic; confused; and have abdominal cramping, dysrhythmias, nausea, muscle weakness, and numbness of the extremities. Symptoms of hypocalcemia are muscle twitching, irritability, and tetany. Elevation in urea levels can result in azotemia, which can be exhibited in fluid and electrolyte and/or acid-base imbalance. Elevation of WBCs is not indicated.

A patient with ESKD receives continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the dialysate drainage fluid is cloudy. What is the nurses most appropriate action?

Inform the physician and assess the patient for signs of infection. Peritonitis is the most common and serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. The first sign of peritonitis is cloudy dialysate drainage fluid, so prompt reporting to the primary care provider and rapid assessment for other signs of infection are warranted. Administration of an IV bolus is not necessary or appropriate and the physician would determine whether removal of the catheter is required. Flushing the catheter does not address the risk for infection.

The nurse is caring for a patient in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). What does the nurse know would be the daily urine output?

Less than 400 mL The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The minimum amount of urine needed to rid the body of normal metabolic waste products is 400 mL. In this phase, uremic symptoms first appear and life-threatening conditions such as hyperkalemia develop.

For a client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is the most important?

Limiting fluid intake During the oliguric phase of ARF, urine output decreases markedly, possibly leading to fluid overload. Limiting oral and IV fluid intake can prevent fluid overload and its complications, such as heart failure and pulmonary edema. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing is important for clients with various respiratory disorders. Promoting carbohydrate intake may be helpful in ARF but doesn't take precedence over fluid limitation. Controlling pain isn't important because ARF rarely causes pain.

The nurse has identified the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in a patient who undergoes peritoneal dialysis. What nursing action best addresses this risk?

Maintain aseptic technique when administering dialysate. Aseptic technique is used to prevent peritonitis and other infectious complications of peritoneal dialysis. It is not necessary to cleanse the skin with soap and water prior to each exchange. Antibiotics may be added to dialysate to treat infection, but they are not used to prevent infection.

A nurse is reviewing the history of a client who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis. Which of the following would the nurse consider significant?

Recent history of streptococcal infection Glomerulonephritis can occur as a result of infections from group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections, bacterial endocarditis, or viral infections such as hepatitis B or C or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A history of hyperparathyroidism or osteoporosis would place the client at risk for developing renal calculi. A history of pyelonephritis would increase the client's risk for chronic pyelonephritis.

A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client?

Risk for infection The peritoneal dialysis catheter and regular exchanges of the dialysis bag provide a direct portal for bacteria to enter the body. If the client experiences repeated peritoneal infections, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis may no longer be effective in clearing waste products. Impaired urinary elimination, Toileting self-care deficit, and Activity intolerance may be pertinent but are secondary to the risk of infection.

Which of the following would a nurse classify as a prerenal cause of acute renal failure?

Septic shock Explanation: Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include hypovolemic shock, cardiogenic shock secondary to congestive heart failure, septic shock, anaphylaxis, dehydration, renal artery thrombosis or stenosis, cardiac arrest, and lethal dysrhythmias. Ureteral stricture and prostatic hypertrophy would be classified as postrenal causes. Polycystic disease is classified as an intrarenal cause of acute renal failure.

The nurse is providing a health education workshop to a group of adults focusing on cancer prevention. The nurse should emphasize what action in order to reduce participants risks of renal carcinoma?

Smoking cessation Tobacco use is a significant risk factor for renal cancer, surpassing the significance of high alcohol and sodium intake. Immunizations do not address an individuals risk of renal cancer

A patient on the medical unit has a documented history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD). What principle should guide the nurses care of this patient?

The patients disease is incurable and the nurses interventions will be supportive. PKD is incurable and care focuses on support and symptom control. It is not self-limiting and is not treated surgically or with lithotripsy.

A nurse assesses a client shortly after living donor kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?

Urine output of 20 ml/hour Because kidney transplantation carries the risk of transplant rejection, infection, and other serious complications, the nurse should monitor the client's urinary function closely. A decrease from the normal urine output of 30 ml/hour is significant and warrants immediate physician notification. A serum potassium level of 4.9 mEq/L, a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, and a temperature of 99.2° F are normal assessment findings.

A client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy. IV fluid is being infused at 150 mL/hour. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute renal failure (ARF)?

Urine output of 250 ml/24 hours ARF, characterized by abrupt loss of kidney function, commonly causes oliguria, which is characterized by a urine output of 250 ml/24 hours. A serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl isn't diagnostic of ARF. A BUN level of 22 mg/dl or a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) wouldn't result from this disorder.

The nurse is working on the renal transplant unit. To reduce the risk of infection in a patient with a transplanted kidney, it is imperative for the nurse to do what?

Wash hands carefully and frequently The nurse ensures that the patient is protected from exposure to infection by hospital staff, visitors, and other patients with active infections. Careful handwashing is imperative; face masks may be worn by hospital staff and visitors to reduce the risk for transmitting infectious agents while the patient is receiving high doses of immunosuppressants. Visitors may be limited, but are not normally barred outright. Ensuring kidney function is vital, but does not prevent infection.

A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis?

Wear a mask when performing exchanges. The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.

The nurse cares for a client who underwent a kidney transplant. The nurse understands that rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed:

hyperacute rejection. Explanation: After a kidney transplant, rejection and failure can occur within 24 hours (hyperacute), within 3 to 14 days (acute), or after many years. A hyperacute rejection is caused by an immediate antibody-mediated reaction that leads to generalized glomerular capillary thrombosis and necrosis. The term "simple" is not used in the categorization of types of rejection of kidney transplants.

A client who has been treated for chronic renal failure (CRF) is ready for discharge. The nurse should reinforce which dietary instruction?

"Increase your carbohydrate intake." Explanation: A client with CRF requires extra carbohydrates to prevent protein catabolism. In a client with CRF, unrestricted intake of sodium, protein, potassium, and fluid may lead to a dangerous accumulation of electrolytes and protein metabolic products, such as amino acids and ammonia. Therefore, the client must limit intake of sodium; meat, which is high in protein; bananas, which are high in potassium; and fluid, because the failing kidneys can't secrete adequate urine. Salt substitutes are high in potassium and should be avoided.

A client with newly diagnosed renal cancer is questioning why detection was delayed. Which is the best response by the nurse?

"Very few symptoms are associated with renal cancer." Explanation: Renal cancers rarely cause symptoms in the early stage. Tumors can become quite large before causing symptoms. Painless, gross hematuria is often the first symptom in renal cancer and does not present until later stages of the disease. Adenocarcinomas are the most common renal cancer (about 80%),whereas squamous cell renal cancers are rare. It is not therapeutic to place doubt or blame for delayed diagnosis.

The nurse coming on shift on the medical unit is taking a report on four patients. What patient does the nurse know is at the greatest risk of developing ESKD?

A patient with diabetes mellitus and poorly controlled hypertension Systemic diseases, such as diabetes mellitus (leading cause); hypertension; chronic glomerulonephritis; pyelonephritis; obstruction of the urinary tract; hereditary lesions, such as in polycystic kidney disease; vascular disorders; infections; medications; or toxic agents may cause ESKD. A patient with more than one of these risk factors is at the greatest risk for developing ESKD. Therefore, the patient with diabetes and hypertension is likely at highest risk for ESKD.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has returned to the postsurgical suite after post-anesthetic recovery from a nephrectomy. The nurses most recent hourly assessment reveals a significant drop in level of consciousness and BP as well as scant urine output over the past hour. What is the nurses best response?

Assess the patient for signs of bleeding and inform the physician. Bleeding may be suspected when the patient experiences fatigue and when urine output is less than 30 mL/h. The physician must be made aware of this finding promptly. Palpating the patients flanks would cause intense pain that is of no benefit to assessment.

The presence of prerenal azotemia is a probable indicator for hospitalization for CAP. Which of the following is an initial laboratory result that would alert a nurse to this condition?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)-to-creatinine ratio (BUN:Cr) >20. The normal BUN:Cr ratio is less than 15. Prerenal azotemia is caused by hypoperfusion of the kidneys due to a nonrenal cause. Over time, higher than normal blood levels of urea or other nitrogen-containing compounds will develop.

Patient education regarding a fistulae or graft includes which of the following? Select all that apply.

Check daily for thrill and bruit. Avoid compression of the site. No IV or blood pressure taken on extremity with dialysis access. No tight clothing. Explanation: The nurse teaches the patient with fistulae or grafts to check daily for a thrill and bruit. Further teaching includes avoiding compression of the site; not permitting blood to be drawn, an IV to be inserted, or blood pressure to be taken on the extremity with the dialysis access; not to wear tight clothing, carry bags or pocketbooks on that side, and not lie on or sleep on the area. The site is not cleansed unless it is being accessed for hemodialysis.

A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are characteristic of acute kidney injury, but preliminary assessment reveals no obvious risk factors for this health problem. The nurse should recognize the need to interview the patient about what topic?

Current medication use The kidneys are susceptible to the adverse effects of medications because they are repeatedly exposed to substances in the blood. Nephrotoxic medications are a more likely cause of AKI than diet, allergies, or stress.

The nurse is assessing a patient suspected of having developed acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse should expect to address what clinical manifestation that is characteristic of this health problem?

Hematuria The primary presenting feature of acute glomerulonephritis is hematuria (blood in the urine), which may be microscopic (identifiable through microscopic examination) or macroscopic or gross (visible to the eye). Proteinuria, primarily albumin, which is present, is due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels may rise as urine output drops. Some degree of edema and hypertension is noted in most patients.

What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute renal failure?

Increased BUN The intrarenal category of acute renal failure encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium.

The nurse helps a client to correctly perform peritoneal dialysis at home. The nurse must educate the client about the procedure. Which educational information should the nurse provide to the client?

Keep the dialysis supplies in a clean area, away from children and pets It is important to keep the dialysis supplies in a clean area, away from children and pets, because the supplies may be dangerous for them. A mask is generally worn only while performing exchanges, especially when a client has an upper respiratory infection. The catheter insertion site should be cleaned daily with an antiseptic such as povidone-iodine, not with soap. In addition, the catheter should be stabilized to the abdomen above the belt line, not below the belt line, to avoid constant rubbing.

A patient is brought to the renal unit from the PACU status post resection of a renal tumor. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse prioritize in the care of this patient?

Managing postoperative pain The patient requires frequent analgesia during the postoperative period and assistance with turning, coughing, use of incentive spirometry, and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis and other pulmonary complications. Increasing oral intake and mobility are not priority nursing actions in the immediate postoperative care of this patient. Dialysis is not necessary following kidney surgery.

Which of the following occurs late in chronic glomerulonephritis?

Peripheral neuropathy Peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes and neurosensory changes occur late in the disease. The patient becomes confused and demonstrates a limited attention span. An additional late finding includes evidence of pericarditis with or without a pericardial friction rub. The first indication of disease may be a sudden, severe nosebleed, a stroke, or a seizure.

What is used to decrease potassium level seen in acute renal failure?

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.

The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a nephrectomy. Which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care for the client?

SpO2 at 90% with fine crackles in the lung bases Altered Breathing Pattern and Ineffective Airway Clearance Risk are often challenges in caring for clients postnephrectomy due to location of incision. Nursing interventions should be directed to improve and maintain SpO2 levels at 90% or greater and keep lungs clear of adventitious sounds. Intake and output is monitored to maintain a urine output of greater than 30 mL/hour. Pain control is important and should allow for movement, deep breathing, and rest. Blood-tinged drainage from the JP tube is expected in the initial postoperative period.

A nurse on the renal unit is caring for a patient who will soon begin peritoneal dialysis. The family of the patient asks for education about the peritoneal dialysis catheter that has been placed in the patients peritoneum. The nurse explains the three sections of the catheter and talks about the two cuffs on the dialysis catheter. What would the nurse explain about the cuffs? Select all that apply.

The cuffs are made of Dacron polyester. The cuffs stabilize the catheter. The cuffs prevent the dialysate from leaking. The cuffs provide a barrier against microorganisms. Most of these catheters have two cuffs, which are made of Dacron polyester. The cuffs stabilize the catheter, limit movement, prevent leaks, and provide a barrier against microorganisms. They do not absorb dialysate

The nurse is providing supportive care to a client receiving hemodialysis in the management of acute kidney injury. Which statement from the nurse best reflects the ability of the kidneys to recover from acute kidney injury?

The kidneys can improve over a period of months. The kidneys have a remarkable ability to recover from serious insult. Recovery may take 3 to 12 months. As long as recovery is continuing, there is no need to consider transplant or permanent hemodialysis. Acute kidney injury can progress to chronic renal failure.

The nurse cares for a client with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). Which acid-base imbalance is associated with this disorder?

pH 7.20, PaCO2 36, HCO3 14- Metabolic acidosis occurs in end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) because the kidneys are unable to excrete increased loads of acid. Decreased acid secretion results from the inability of the kidney tubules to excrete ammonia (NH3-) and to reabsorb sodium bicarbonate (HCO3-). There is also decreased excretion of phosphates and other organic acids.

A history of infection specifically caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci is associated with which disorder?

Acute glomerulonephritis Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus. Acute renal failure is associated with hypoperfusion to the kidney, parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or tubules, and obstruction at a point distal to the kidney. Chronic renal failure may be caused by systemic disease, hereditary lesions, toxic agents, infections, and medications. Nephrotic syndrome is caused by disorders such as chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.

The nurse is planning patient teaching for a patient with ESKD who is scheduled for the creation of a fistula. The nurse would include which of the following in teaching the patient about the fistula?

A vein and an artery in your arm will be attached surgically The fistula joins an artery and a vein, either side-to-side or end-to-end. This access will need time, usually 2 to 3 months, to mature before it can be used. The patient is encouraged to perform exercises to increase the size of the affected vessels (e.g., squeezing a rubber ball for forearm fistulas). Two needles will be inserted into the fistula for each dialysis treatment.

A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is admitted to the urology unit. Which diagnostic test results are consistent with CRF?

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 100 mg/dL and serum creatinine 6.5 mg/dL The normal BUN level ranges 8 to 23 mg/dl; the normal serum creatinine level ranges from 0.7 to 1.5 mg/dl. A BUN level of 100 mg/dl and a serum creatinine of 6.5 mg/dl are abnormally elevated results, reflecting CRF and the kidneys' decreased ability to remove nonprotein nitrogen waste from the blood. CRF causes decreased pH and increased hydrogen ions — not vice versa. CRF also increases serum levels of potassium, magnesium, and phosphorous, and decreases serum levels of calcium. A uric acid analysis of 3.5 mg/dl falls within the normal range of 2.7 to 7.7 mg/dl; PSP excretion of 75% also falls within the normal range of 60% to 75%.

A 45-year-old man with diabetic nephropathy has ESKD and is starting dialysis. What should the nurse teach the patient about hemodialysis?

Hemodialysis is a treatment option that is usually required three times a week. Hemodialysis is the most commonly used method of dialysis. Patients receiving hemodialysis must undergo treatment for the rest of their lives or until they undergo successful kidney transplantation. Treatments usually occur three times a week for at least 3 to 4 hours per treatment.

Which period of acute renal failure is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys?

Oliguria Explanation: The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys, such as urea and creatinine. The initiation periods begins with the initial insult and ends when oliguria develops. The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output. The recovery period signals the improvement of renal function and may take 6 to 12 months.

A patient is scheduled for a CT scan of the abdomen with contrast. The patient has a baseline creatinine level of 2.3 mg/dL. In preparing this patient for the procedure, the nurse anticipates what orders?

Preprocedure hydration and administration of acetylcysteine Radiocontrast-induced nephropathy is a major cause of hospital-acquired acute kidney injury. Baseline levels of creatinine greater than 2 mg/dL identify the patient as being high risk. Preprocedure hydration and prescription of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) the day prior to the test is effective in prevention. The nurse would not monitor the patients electrolytes every hour preprocedure. Nothing in the scenario indicates the need for hemodialysis. A creatinine clearance is not necessary prior to a CT scan with contrast.

A patient is admitted to the ICU after a motor vehicle accident. On the second day of the hospital admission, the patient develops acute kidney injury. The patient is hemodynamically unstable, but renal replacement therapy is needed to manage the patients hypervolemia and hyperkalemia. Which of the following therapies will the patients hemodynamic status best tolerate?

Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD) CVVHD facilitates the removal of uremic toxins and fluid. The hemodynamic effects of CVVHD are usually mild in comparison to hemodialysis, so CVVHD is best tolerated by an unstable patient. Peritoneal dialysis is not the best choice, as the patient may have sustained abdominal injuries during the accident and catheter placement would be risky. Plasmapheresis does not achieve fluid removal and electrolyte balance.

The nurse passes out medications while a client prepares for hemodialysis. The client is ordered to receive numerous medications including antihypertensives. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

Hold the medications until after dialysis. Explanation: Antihypertensive therapy, often part of the regimen of clients on dialysis, is one example when communication, education, and evaluation can make a difference in client outcomes. The client must know when—and when not—to take the medication. For example, if an antihypertensive agent is taken on a dialysis day, hypotension may occur during dialysis, causing dangerously low blood pressure. Many medications that are taken once daily can be held until after dialysis treatment.

The nurse is visiting the home of a client who is receiving at-home peritoneal dialysis therapy. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing peritonitis?

Cloudy dialysate effluent Explanation: Most complications of peritoneal dialysis are minor; however, if left untreated, it can lead to serious consequences. Peritonitis is the most common and serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. The first sign of peritonitis is cloudy dialysate effluent. Low back pain can occur from the weight of the fluid in the abdomen. Bloody effluent can occur in young menstruating female clients. It is also common during the first few exchanges after a new catheter is inserted, which most often clears up after several exchanges. Clients with peritonitis are more likely to report anorexia than pronounced hunger.

Based on the pathophysiologic changes that occur as renal failure progresses, the nurse identifies the following indicators associated with the disease. Select all that apply.

Hyperkalemia Anemia Hypocalcemia Hyperkalemia is due to decreased potassium excretion and excessive potassium intake. Metabolic acidosis results from decreased acid secretion by the kidney. A damaged glomerular membrane causes excess protein loss.

The client with chronic renal failure complains of intense itching. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for further nursing education?

Brief, hot daily showers Hot water removes more oils from the skin and can increase dryness and itching. Tepid water temperature is preferred in the management of pruritus. The use of moisturizing lotions and creams that do not contain perfumes can be helpful. Avoid scratching and keeping nails trimmed short is indicated in the management of pruritus.

A 71-year-old patient with ESKD has been told by the physician that it is time to consider hemodialysis until a transplant can be found. The patient tells the nurse she is not sure she wants to undergo a kidney transplant. What would be an appropriate response for the nurse to make?

Kidney transplants in patients your age are as successful as they are in younger patients. Although there is no specific age limitation for renal transplantation, concomitant disorders (e.g., coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease) have made it a less common treatment for the elderly. However, the outcome is comparable to that of younger patients. The other listed options either belittle the patient or give the patient misinformation.

The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. The nurse is aware that bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery and that if it goes undetected and untreated can result in hypovolemia and hemorrhagic shock in the patient. When assessing for bleeding, what assessment parameter should the nurse evaluate?

Level of consciousness Bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery. If undetected and untreated, this can result in hypovolemia and hemorrhagic shock. The nurses role is to observe for these complications, to report their signs and symptoms, and to administer prescribed parenteral fluids and blood and blood components. Monitoring of vital signs, skin condition, the urinary drainage system, the surgical incision, and the level of consciousness is necessary to detect evidence of bleeding, decreased circulating blood, and fluid volume and cardiac output. Bleeding is not normally evidenced by changes in pain or oral intake.

The nurse is caring for a patient status after a motor vehicle accident. The patient has developed AKI. What is the nurses role in caring for this patient? Select all that apply.

Providing emotional support for the family Monitoring for complications Participating in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances Providing nursing care for primary disorder (trauma) The nurse has an important role in caring for the patient with AKI. The nurse monitors for complications, participates in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances, assesses the patients progress and response to treatment, and provides physical and emotional support. Additionally, the nurse keeps family members informed about the patients condition, helps them understand the treatments, and provides psychological support. Although the development of AKI may be the most serious problem, the nurse continues to provide nursing care indicated for the primary disorder (e.g., burns, shock, trauma, obstruction of the urinary tract). The nurse does not direct the patients nutritional status; the dietician and the physician normally collaborate on directing the patients nutritional status.

The nurse performing the health interview of a patient with a new onset of periorbital edema has completed a genogram, noting the health history of the patients siblings, parents, and grandparents. This assessment addresses the patients risk of what kidney disorder?

Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) PKD is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous cysts in the kidneys. Nephritic syndrome, acute glomerulonephritis, and nephrotic syndrome are not genetic disorders.

The nurse cares for a client after extensive abdominal surgery. The client develops an infection that is treated with IV gentamicin. After 4 days of treatment, the client develops oliguria, and laboratory results indicate azotemia. The client is diagnosed with acute tubular necrosis and transferred to the ICU. The client is hemodynamically stable. Which dialysis method would be most appropriate for the client?

Hemodialysis Explanation: The client is hemodynamically stable and hemodialysis would be most appropriate. Hemodialysis is used for clients who are acutely ill and require short-term dialysis for days to weeks until kidney function resumes and for clients with advanced chronic kidney disease (CKD) and end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) who require long-term or permanent renal replacement therapy. Peritoneal dialysis (PD) may be the treatment of choice for clients with renal failure who are unable or unwilling to undergo hemodialysis or kidney transplantation. CAVH and CVVH are used for client who are hemodynamically unstable.